Z3dx5x V 1-2 Ure

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(215) Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
- Printer.
- Scanner.
- Monitor.
- Camera lens.

About This Quiz

This Z3DX5X version 1-2 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty roles, focusing on skills such as RF transmission, cable systems, and career management within the Air Force. It evaluates understanding of installation, maintenance, and regulatory compliance essential for career progression.

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2.

(216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
- Local area network (LAN).
- Wide area network (WAN).
- Virtual private network (VPN).
- Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer

A. Virtual private network (VPN).

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This ensures that the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network remains encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure remote connections and access resources on a private network from anywhere in the world.

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3.

(019) What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
- A rewriting of the main point.
- A well-written summary.
- A postscript message.
- None of the above.
Correct Answer

A. A well-written summary.

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main points of the message into a concise and clear statement that accurately captures its main idea. This exercise helps to assess your comprehension skills and your ability to communicate information effectively.

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4.

(021) Records that are considered to be in draft format
- Can be altered and are not officially released.
- Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
- Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
- Officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer

A. Can be altered and are not officially released.

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released. As they are not yet released, they are subject to modifications and updates.

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5.

(201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- Commerce.
- The Treasury.
- Defense.
- Labor.
Correct Answer

A. Labor.

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. Its main responsibility is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by enforcing standards and regulations related to workplace safety.

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6.

(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- Star.
- Ring.
- Loop.
- Linear.
Correct Answer

A. Linear.

Explanation

A linear topology is another name for a bus topology. In a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. This cable functions as a backbone, allowing data to flow between devices. Each device on the network can receive the data transmitted on the cable, but only the intended recipient processes it.

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7.

(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- Version Identification.
- Header Checksum.
- Time to Live.
- Flags.
Correct Answer

A. Header Checksum.

Explanation

The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical calculation performed on the header fields of the IP Datagram, and the result is placed in the Header Checksum field. When the receiving device receives the datagram, it recalculates the checksum and compares it with the value in the Header Checksum field. If they do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded.

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8.

(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- 0–1023.
- 1024–49151.
- 49152–65535.
- 65536–87000.
Correct Answer

A. 0–1023.

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols that are commonly used, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). Ports in this range are considered to be privileged and are typically only assigned to well-known protocols.

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9.

(224) What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
- Cost to install and train technicians.
- Electromagnetic immunity.
- Low attenuation.
- Security.
Correct Answer

A. Cost to install and train technicians.

Explanation

Fiber optic cables have several advantages, including electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security. However, the cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage. Fiber optic cables can be expensive to install and require specialized training for technicians to handle and maintain them. Therefore, this characteristic is not considered an advantage of fiber optic cables.

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10.

(228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?
- Malware.
- Spyware.
- Adware.
- Trojans.
Correct Answer

A. Spyware.

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malware that secretly monitors and gathers data from a user's computer or device. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, or trojans, which disguise themselves as legitimate software, spyware specifically focuses on gathering personal information such as passwords, credit card details, and browsing habits. It operates stealthily in the background, often without the user's knowledge, making it a serious threat to privacy and security.

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11.

(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- Title 3.
- Title 8.
- Title 10.
- Title 18.
Correct Answer

A. Title 10.

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is specifically focused on the organization and structure of the armed forces, including the military justice system. It outlines the various offenses that can be committed by military personnel and the corresponding punishments. The UCMJ is a key legal document that governs the conduct of members of the armed forces and ensures discipline and order within the military.

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12.

(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- Title 10.
- Title 30.
- Title 50.
- Title 52.
Correct Answer

A. Title 10.

Explanation

When Air National Guard personnel are in Title 32 status, they are in a state active duty status where they are able to train for cyber operations. However, in order to actually execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status. Title 10 status refers to being on federal active duty, which grants them the authority to carry out the cyber operations.

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13.

(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer

A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from any potential harm. This includes preventing damage, loss, injury, and even death. The program aims to establish measures and practices that ensure the safety and well-being of individuals and the preservation of resources. It is designed to proactively identify and address any potential risks or hazards in order to prevent accidents or mishaps from occurring.

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14.

(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- Falls.
- Poor lighting.
- Horseplay.
- Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer

A. Falls.

Explanation

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can result in serious injuries. Slippery floors, loose cables, and cluttered walkways are common causes of falls in an office setting. Falls can lead to broken bones, sprains, and head injuries, which can have long-term consequences for an individual's health and well-being. It is important for employers to ensure that the office environment is safe and free from hazards that can cause falls, such as by implementing proper housekeeping practices and providing adequate training to employees.

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15.

(203) How are fires classified?
- Fuel type.
- Heat source.
- Temperature.
- Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer

A. Fuel type.

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, oil, or gas, produce different characteristics and behaviors in fires. Understanding the fuel type helps in determining the appropriate extinguishing methods and predicting the fire's spread and intensity. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions may all contribute to fire behavior, but they are not the primary factor in classifying fires.

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16.

(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- Accept no unnecessary risk.
- Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer

A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

Explanation

The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in order to minimize their impact on an organization. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in effectively managing risks. Instead, risk management should be integrated into operations and planning at all levels, with risk decisions made at the appropriate level and unnecessary risks not accepted.

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17.

(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- There are no negative effects.
- A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer

A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage and distribute communication. If this central node point fails, it can result in large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted, leading to a negative effect on overall network connectivity and functionality.

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2
18.

(216) Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
- Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.
- Media access control (MAC) Filtering.
- Encryption.
- Tunneling.
Correct Answer

A. Encryption.

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method of hiding a message in a special code in a wireless local area network (WLAN) security. Encryption involves converting the original message into an unreadable format using an encryption algorithm and a key. The encrypted message can only be decrypted and understood by authorized parties who possess the correct key. This ensures that the message remains secure and confidential during transmission over the WLAN.

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19.

(219) Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.
- Media converter.
- Modem.
- Switch.
- Router.
Correct Answer

A. Media converter.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts electrical signals used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, enabling communication between different types of network cables. A modem is used to connect to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. None of these devices specifically convert electrical signals to light waves, making media converter the correct answer.

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20.

(230) Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?
- When it is placed in service.
- When it is removed from service.
- When the storage container has been cleaned.
- When compromise of the combination is suspected.
Correct Answer

A. When the storage container has been cleaned.

Explanation

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, as this ensures the security of the materials. It is also necessary to change the combination when the container is placed in service or removed from service, as these events may present opportunities for unauthorized access. However, cleaning the storage container does not inherently compromise the security of the materials or the combination, so it is not a valid reason to change the combination.

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21.

(233) Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
- Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).
- Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
- Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
- Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.
Correct Answer

A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

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22.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- Spectrum Operations.
- Ground Radar Systems.
- Cable and Antenna Systems.
- Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer

A. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This includes working with RF communication systems and ensuring their proper functioning.

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23.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- Spectrum Operations.
- Ground Radar Systems.
- Cable and Antenna Systems.
- Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer

A. Cable and Antenna Systems.

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. This includes the wiring needed to support both fixed and deployed operations. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not specifically mention responsibilities related to network wiring installation and maintenance.

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24.

(003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- Unit training manager (UTM).
- Base functional manager (BFM).
- Major command functional manager (MFM).
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that career development and progression are aligned with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and is able to provide expert advice on training, assignments, promotions, and other career-related matters. They work closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure that career field policies and procedures are implemented effectively.

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25.

(004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- Modify local training.
- Allocate manpower.
- Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
- Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer

A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used not only to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT) but also to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). This means that the surveys gather information about the skills, knowledge, and experience required for a particular occupation, which can then be used to create a comprehensive training program for individuals seeking to advance in their careers. By using the data from the surveys, a CDC can be developed to provide targeted training and development opportunities for individuals in a specific occupation.

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26.

(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- Trend analysis.
- Quality System.
- Quality Assessments.
- Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer

A. Trend analysis.

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and anomalies in the data, which can be used to make informed decisions and improvements in the quality assurance process. It provides valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the processes and helps in identifying areas that require attention or improvement. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments may be related to quality assurance but do not specifically involve the collection, compilation, analysis, and recording of data as trend analysis does.

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27.

(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- Remedy.
- Training Business Area.
- Telephone Management System.
- Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer

A. Remedy.

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It is a comprehensive IT service management tool that helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. Remedy allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, and asset tracking, as well as providing support for IT service management processes such as incident management, change management, and problem management.

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28.

(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- Title 10.
- Title 18.
- Title 32.
- Title 50.
Correct Answer

A. Title 10.

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government. It also establishes all subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title lays out the legal framework and responsibilities for the DOD and its various branches, outlining their roles and authorities within the military structure.

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29.

(012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
- Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
- Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
- Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.

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30.

(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
- Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
- Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer

A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They oversee the GIG, which is a globally interconnected network of information systems used by the military. As such, DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and functionality of this infrastructure, making it the correct answer for this question.

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31.

(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- Manpower.
- Efficiency.
- Reduce costs.
- Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
Correct Answer

A. Efficiency.

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce duplication of efforts, and improve communication and coordination. This consolidation allows for more efficient allocation of resources, faster response times, and better overall management of network services.

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32.

(017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- Coding.
- Positioning.
- Tempo bands.
- Unit type code.
Correct Answer

A. Unit type code.

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are alphanumeric codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes are used to identify and categorize units, which helps in organizing and coordinating the deployment and movement of forces during joint operations.

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33.

(021) Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
- Published doctrines.
- Geographical base maps.
- Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
- Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer

A. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not typically created or maintained by government agencies for official purposes. While they may contain valuable information or artifacts, they are not typically used as primary sources for official government business or decision-making processes. Official government records typically include documents such as policies, legislation, reports, and other administrative or legal documents that are created and maintained by government agencies in the course of their official duties.

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34.

(025) What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
- Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
- Office Automation System (OAS).
- Decision Support System (DSS).
- Training Business Area (TBA).
Correct Answer

A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is a system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is specifically designed to handle technical information and ensure its proper distribution to users. ETIMS helps in organizing and managing technical orders effectively, ensuring that the right information is available to the right people at the right time. It streamlines the process of distributing paper technical orders, making it more efficient and reliable.

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35.

(201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- Air Staff.
- Civil Engineering.
- Squadron commander.
- Installation safety office.
Correct Answer

A. Installation safety office.

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. This office is specifically dedicated to ensuring the safety and well-being of personnel and providing guidance and support in implementing safety protocols and procedures. They play a crucial role in promoting a safe working environment and mitigating potential risks and hazards.

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2
36.

(203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- Evacuate personnel from the building.
- Extinguish the fire if possible.
- Call the fire department.
- Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer

A. Sound the fire alarm.

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel should be the top priority to ensure their safety. Calling the fire department should be done immediately after sounding the alarm, as they are trained professionals who can handle the situation effectively. While extinguishing the fire is important, it should only be attempted if it is safe to do so and does not delay the evacuation process.

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37.

(203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
- Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
- Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer

A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. This reduces the risk of electrical shock or electrocution when using the ladder near electrical circuits. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to minimize any potential hazards.

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3
38.

(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
- Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
- Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer

A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes documentation related to the installation process, such as permits and contracts. The drawing record contains diagrams and blueprints of the installed systems. The maintenance record keeps track of any repairs, updates, or maintenance performed on the systems. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation and maintenance history of the communications and information systems.

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39.

(208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- Bus.
- Star.
- Ring.
- Radial.
Correct Answer

A. Star.

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control and management. This allows for easier monitoring, troubleshooting, and administration of the network. Additionally, the star topology provides better fault tolerance as a single device failure does not affect the entire network.

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40.

(216) Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
- Local area network (LAN).
- Wide area network (WAN).
- Virtual private network (VPN).
- Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer

A. Wide area network (WAN).

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) through long-distance communication links provided by a telecommunications company. This allows for communication and data transfer over large geographical distances. Unlike LANs and MANs, which are typically confined to a specific area, WANs cover a broader scope and are often used by organizations with multiple locations or branches. Therefore, the correct answer is wide area network (WAN).

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41.

(223) Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users’ own end terminals?
- Internet Protocol.
- End-to-end.
- Bulk.
- Link.
Correct Answer

A. End-to-end.

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection because it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the source to the destination, without being decrypted or accessed by any intermediate parties. This means that even if the data is intercepted during transmission, it remains secure and cannot be deciphered by unauthorized individuals. This type of encryption ensures that only the intended recipients have access to the decrypted information on their own end terminals, providing a high level of confidentiality and security.

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42.

(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
- On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
- Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer

A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

Explanation

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining hands-on experience and practical knowledge. OJT programs are designed to enhance job performance and ensure that personnel are adequately trained and qualified for their positions.

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43.

(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- Management Inspection (MI).
- Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
- Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
- Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer

A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

Explanation

The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection assesses the overall effectiveness of the unit in meeting its mission objectives and identifies areas for improvement. It evaluates the unit's compliance with regulations, policies, and procedures, as well as its readiness to perform its assigned tasks. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and helps identify any deficiencies or areas that require corrective action.

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44.

(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- Misuse of position.
- Covered relationships.
- Non-public information.
- Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer

A. Covered relationships.

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to an employee or employer relationship that can potentially lead to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This situation is considered unethical as it compromises the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid such relationships in professional settings to maintain a level playing field and ensure equal opportunities for all individuals involved.

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45.

(010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- Misuse of position.
- Covered relationship.
- Personal conflict of interest.
- None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer

A. Covered relationship.

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a decision-making process that could potentially create a conflict of interest. In this case, the question states that the individuals in question are members of a household or relatives with whom the person has a close personal relationship. This indicates that there is a potential for bias or favoritism in decision-making, which is considered unethical. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.

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46.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
- Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
- Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer

A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

Explanation

The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is focused on assessing and analyzing potential weaknesses in cyberspace, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate risks and enhance the security of critical networks. The other options mentioned do not have the same focus on vulnerability assessment and risk assessment.

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47.

(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- Active and reactive.
- Evasive and decisive.
- Subversive and divisive.
- Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer

A. Active and reactive.

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing intrusion, such as isolating affected systems, blocking malicious traffic, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively monitor and respond to cyber threats, enhancing the overall security of a network.

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48.

(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- Counterintelligence (CI).
- Operation Security (OPSEC).
- Military deception (MILDEC).
- Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer

A. Military deception (MILDEC).

Explanation

MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception and causing them to make incorrect decisions. Since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, they aim to inform and influence that audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and countering enemy intelligence activities. Operation Security (OPSEC) is about protecting sensitive information from being exploited by the enemy. Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting and analyzing information about the enemy. None of these activities are specifically designed to mislead, unlike MILDEC.

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49.

(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- 644th Combat Communication Squadron.
- 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
- 83th Network Operations Squadron.
- 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer

A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is the correct answer because they are responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 systems for combatant commanders. This means that they are trained and equipped to handle the installation and maintenance of communication systems that are vital for military operations. The other options, such as the 644th Combat Communication Squadron and the 83rd Network Operations Squadron, may have related roles but do not specifically focus on installing and testing C4 systems. The 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing is not relevant to the installation and testing of C4 systems.

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(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

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