Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 1

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1. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.

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Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 1 - Quiz

The 'Langley CST - Z3DX5X VOL 1' quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty responsibilities, including RF transmission, cable systems, and satellite devices. It evaluates understanding of Air... see moreForce training and management protocols, crucial for career progression in technical military roles. see less

2. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, including the military justice system. The UCMJ is a set of laws that governs the conduct of members of the military and outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of service members. It covers a wide range of offenses and punishments, ensuring discipline and order within the military.

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3. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on processes sampled by QA personnel. It helps identify patterns and trends over time, allowing for the identification of potential issues or areas for improvement. Quality System refers to the overall framework and processes in place for ensuring quality, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are methods of evaluating and assessing the effectiveness of the quality assurance process.

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4. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are typically created by private individuals or organizations and do not hold the same legal or administrative weight as official government documents. Official government records are typically created and maintained by government agencies and are used to document and preserve important information related to government operations, policies, and decisions.

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5. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Draft records are not finalized and are subject to changes or modifications. They are not officially released because they are still in the process of being reviewed, edited, or approved. This allows for flexibility and the opportunity to make revisions before the final version is released.

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6. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Explanation

Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship creates the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This can occur when a person in a position of power shows bias towards someone with whom they have a personal or professional relationship. It is considered unethical because it compromises fairness and objectivity in decision-making processes.

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7. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing as well as directly countering an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats in real-time, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as implementing incident response plans, isolating compromised systems, and patching vulnerabilities. These two defenses work together to actively detect and respond to cyber threats, minimizing the impact of attacks and protecting the network.

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8. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main points of the message into a concise and clear summary, demonstrating your comprehension of the content and your ability to communicate it effectively.

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9. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is specifically designed to manage the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses, ensuring that they are properly maintained and retired when necessary. Remedy also provides features for asset tracking, inventory management, and compliance with IT asset management best practices. Therefore, it is the most suitable option for the given question.

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10. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are tasked with ensuring the security and functionality of the GIG, which is the military's worldwide network of information systems. Therefore, DISA is the correct agency responsible for these matters.

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11. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department and overseeing its operations. The Deputy Secretary acts as a key advisor to the Secretary and is involved in decision-making processes related to defense policies, budgets, and strategies. They also represent the Department of Defense in various meetings and engagements, both domestically and internationally.

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12. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) of Radio Frequency Transmission is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity for the Air Force.

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13. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are used for communication and data transmission within the Air Force. Spectrum Operations deals with managing and controlling the electromagnetic spectrum, Ground Radar Systems are responsible for operating and maintaining radar systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission involves the transmission of radio signals. However, neither of these specialties specifically focus on network wiring installation and maintenance.

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14. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and the skills required for those roles. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC), which provides training and development opportunities for individuals in those job roles. The CDC helps individuals enhance their knowledge and skills, and prepares them for career advancement within their field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another important use of occupational surveys, as it helps in creating targeted and effective training programs for specific job roles.

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15. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) is the correct answer because it combines elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a comprehensive assessment of a unit's effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the unit's ability to meet its mission objectives and assesses its overall performance and efficiency. It goes beyond traditional compliance inspections by also considering the unit's readiness and effectiveness in carrying out its assigned tasks. The UEI helps identify areas of improvement and provides valuable feedback to enhance the unit's effectiveness and operational capabilities.

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16. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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17. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to do this anywhere at any time, making them the unit that fulfills this role.

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18. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, eliminate redundancies, and optimize resource allocation. This consolidation allows for better coordination and communication, leading to faster response times, improved problem resolution, and overall increased efficiency in managing network operations and providing IT support services.

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19. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which allowed support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that starting from 2010, the Air Force had a unified ticketing system that provided support to all locations, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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20. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question is asking for the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.

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21. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). This system is responsible for managing the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is specifically designed to handle technical information and ensure its accurate and timely dissemination. ETIMS streamlines the process of creating, updating, and distributing technical orders, making it an essential tool for efficient management of paper-based technical documentation.

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22. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help in organizing and coordinating the deployment of forces by providing a common language and understanding of the capabilities and requirements of different units. By using unit type codes, planners can efficiently allocate resources and ensure that the right units are deployed for specific missions or operations.

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23. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and includes acts such as willfully disobeying a lawful order, dereliction of duty, and failure to follow instructions. In this case, not adhering to the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a violation of Article 92.

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24. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements and guidelines for IA training and certification within the DOD, ensuring that all users are knowledgeable and up to date on IA practices and procedures.

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25. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for the education and training of individuals in a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary courses, certifications, and skills needed for individuals to succeed in their careers. By establishing this plan, the U&TW can ensure that individuals receive the proper training and development opportunities to excel in their chosen field.

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26. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of power or authority over them. In this case, the question suggests that the members of a household or close relatives fall under this category. This can create ethical concerns as it may lead to favoritism, bias, or conflicts of interest in decision-making processes. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.

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27. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) is the entity responsible for assigning numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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28. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Evaluation. In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation assesses the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance of the personnel involved, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the managerial aspects of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program. It is likely that this option refers to the use of standard criteria or benchmarks for evaluation purposes rather than being a distinct evaluation type.

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29. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

MILDEC, or military deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information or creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA both target a specific audience, MILDEC can be used to deceive that audience and achieve strategic objectives. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing threats to national security, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. While these activities may involve some level of deception, MILDEC is specifically designed for misleading purposes.

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30. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Force Commander (JFC). The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). The JFC is responsible for the overall planning and execution of joint military operations involving multiple services and components. They coordinate and integrate air and space forces from different branches to achieve the objectives of the joint force.

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31. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications.

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32. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and provide guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications do not provide specific instructions or orders, but rather offer suggestions and recommendations that allow individuals to adapt and make decisions based on their own judgment and the specific situation at hand. This flexibility allows for a more adaptable and customizable approach to problem-solving and decision-making within the Air Force.

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33. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

The AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication that is not subject to frequent change. This publication serves as a comprehensive reference guide and provides detailed information on specific topics or areas of interest within the AF. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet, and AF Visual Aid, which may require frequent updates to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technology, the AFH is designed to provide enduring information that remains relevant over a longer period of time.

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34. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders, which contain instructions and information for the maintenance and operation of equipment, are properly distributed to the personnel who need them. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization has access to the necessary technical information to carry out their tasks effectively and efficiently.

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35. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices. It focuses on the standard practices for installing equipment and systems in a consistent and efficient manner.

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36. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the Air Force career field, ensuring that they are on track for career progression and success. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific requirements and opportunities within the career field and can provide valuable insight and advice to individuals seeking guidance. They play a crucial role in shaping the careers of Air Force personnel and ensuring that they are able to reach their full potential within their chosen career field.

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37. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establishes the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives outline the specific goals and objectives of the OSD and provide guidance on how it should operate and interact with other entities within the Department of Defense.

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38. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. Unified command refers to the overall command structure responsible for coordinating and directing the JTF's operations. Subordinate unified command, on the other hand, refers to the lower level command structures that are responsible for executing specific tasks and reporting to the unified command. This division allows for effective coordination and delegation of tasks within the JTF, ensuring efficient and organized operations.

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39. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards. They play a crucial role in setting industry standards and ensuring the compatibility and reliability of electronic components. The Defense Standardization Program, Telecommunications Industry Association, and Information and Communications Technology are not directly involved in developing these specific standards.

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40. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor is the duty position task. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks and responsibilities to individuals based on their duty position within the Air Force. This ensures that each individual is trained and prepared to fulfill their specific role and duties within the organization.

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41. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Explanation

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining hands-on experience and practical training. OJT programs are designed to provide a structured learning environment where individuals can acquire the necessary skills and competencies needed for their job, ensuring they are fully prepared and qualified to perform their duties effectively.

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42. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.

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43. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides a framework for the Department of Defense to plan and prioritize its efforts in securing cyberspace. It outlines the strategic objectives, priorities, and resources needed to address cyber threats and ensure the security of military networks and systems. The guidance also helps to align the Department of Defense's cyber efforts with national security objectives and overall defense strategy.

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44. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

The correct answer is Service Contact. This is not one of the stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in this framework.

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45. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server. These capabilities include SharePoint 2010 Workflow, SharePoint 2013 Workflow, and SharePoint Designer Workflow. Each of these workflows provides different functionalities and features to automate and streamline business processes within SharePoint.

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46. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

Explanation

AFI 33-322 is the correct answer because it specifically defines an "official government record." The other options, AFI 33-321, AFI 33-329, and AFI 33-332, do not provide a definition for an official government record. Therefore, AFI 33-322 is the most relevant and appropriate choice.

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47. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM) publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPM publications have a limited lifespan and are subject to being replaced or updated by higher-level directives such as AFPDs. Air Force Instructions (AFI), Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD), and Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) are not mentioned as having an expiration date or being superseded by AFPDs in the given explanation. Therefore, the correct answer is Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).

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48. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary knowledge and permission, they can make changes or updates to a technical order. The other options, such as the Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA), Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO), and library custodian, may also have certain roles and responsibilities related to technical orders, but they do not have the exclusive authority to post updates.

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49. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement is the stage in the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) that focuses on maintaining service quality. This stage involves constantly evaluating and improving the effectiveness and efficiency of IT services to meet the changing needs of the business. It includes activities such as monitoring performance, identifying areas for improvement, implementing changes, and measuring the impact of those changes. By continuously striving to improve service quality, organizations can ensure that their IT services align with business objectives and deliver value to customers.

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50. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide tools and resources that enable users to effectively utilize and leverage information across the entire organization. By doing so, EIM can help improve decision-making, enhance productivity, and drive innovation within the enterprise.

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51. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This is because the question asks for the option that does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all related to the information outlined in TO 00-5-1. However, TCTO procedures are not specifically mentioned in TO 00-5-1, making it the correct answer.

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52. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, Quality Assurance itself is not considered an essential element. Quality Assurance refers to the systematic activities implemented in a process to ensure that the quality requirements for a product or service are met. However, in a QA program, Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are essential elements. Quality Assessments involve evaluating the performance of the quality system, while Quality System refers to the documented procedures and processes that ensure quality. Trend Analysis involves analyzing data over time to identify patterns and make informed decisions.

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53. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM. The AFCFM, or Air Force Career Field Manager, is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field and its training requirements. The TPM, or Training Pipeline Manager, is responsible for coordinating and scheduling the training pipeline for the career field. Together, they work collaboratively to schedule the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and ensure that the necessary training is provided to meet the requirements of the career field.

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54. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace. This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for protecting critical infrastructure, preventing cyber threats, and promoting cybersecurity awareness and education. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace focuses on collaboration between government agencies, private sector organizations, and international partners to ensure the security and resilience of the nation's cyberspace.

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55. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in critical mission networks and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in cyberspace defenses and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate the risks. The other options mentioned are not specifically focused on vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment as the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

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56. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying Air Force personnel, equipment, and capabilities in a structured and rotational manner to meet operational requirements. The AEF system ensures that forces are readily available and capable of supporting combatant commanders' needs, while also allowing for predictable and sustainable deployments.

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57. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and enhance the warfighter capacity. This implies that the ESU is focused on streamlining processes and providing efficient services to the warfighters, allowing them to focus more on their core duties rather than spending excessive time on training or dealing with technical issues. By doing so, the ESU contributes to increasing the overall operational readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.

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58. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of their specific career field within the MAJCOM. They provide input and guidance on matters related to training and utilization of personnel within their career field. The MFM plays a crucial role in shaping the policies and decisions made during these workshops, ensuring that the needs of their career field are adequately addressed.

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59. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), and major command functional manager (MFM) may have some authority in training and career development decisions, but the AFCFM has the ultimate authority in waiving CFETP requirements.

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60. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to ensure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's use of cyberspace and provides guidance on how to achieve and maintain superiority in this domain. It is a specific strategy that addresses the unique challenges and opportunities presented by cyberspace for the US military.

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61. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing and coordinating the functional operations of a specific base or installation. They ensure that the cyberspace systems and networks are functioning effectively and efficiently. They also provide guidance and support to other personnel within their unit. The BFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall cyber readiness and security of the base.

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62. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI).

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63. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units. These directives provide specific guidance and instructions for these entities to carry out their assigned tasks and responsibilities. They outline the overall mission and objectives of the Air Force and provide a framework for the operational and administrative structure of the various commands and units within the Air Force.

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64. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine the appropriate individuals who should be entrusted with the custodianship of records. The other options, such as the Base Records Manager, Command Records Manager, and Functional Area Records Manager, may have some level of responsibility in managing records, but the ultimate authority lies with the Chief of the Office of Records.

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65. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive source of information for personnel to understand and follow the prescribed procedures and guidelines. They outline the specific steps, processes, and responsibilities that individuals and units must adhere to in order to ensure compliance with the established policies and laws. AFI publications are widely recognized and utilized within the Air Force to ensure consistency and standardization in operations and decision-making processes.

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66. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's internal network, ensuring that only authorized users have access to it. It acts as a defense mechanism against cyber threats and helps maintain the integrity and confidentiality of the Air Force's information.

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67. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically performed by a base records manager. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and organization of records within a specific military base or installation. They ensure that records are properly maintained, accessible, and secure, and may also assist with training personnel on record-keeping procedures. The other options mentioned, Chief of Office of Records, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have different responsibilities within the records management field, but they do not specifically include the duties mentioned in the question.

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68. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It outlines a strategic approach to enhance cybersecurity and protect the nation's information and communication systems. This policy recognizes the importance of securing cyberspace and addresses the need for collaboration between government agencies, private sector organizations, and international partners to mitigate cyber threats.

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69. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

The correct answer is Area Processing Center (APC). Regional computing and data centers, such as the APC, provide enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. These centers are responsible for processing and managing data for a specific geographical area or region. They ensure that businesses have access to essential services and resources for their operations.

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70. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are publications issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements. These directives are used to initiate, govern, and regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. AFPDs provide clear guidance and instructions to Air Force personnel on how to carry out their duties and responsibilities in accordance with established policies. They serve as a framework for decision-making and ensure consistency and compliance throughout the Air Force organization.

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71. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). This means that the MFM is responsible for selecting individuals who have the necessary expertise to contribute to the development of these tests and courses. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the content of the SKT and CDC is accurate and relevant to the specific career field.

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72. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

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73. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing for effective management and coordination of cyber operations. It enables the Air Force to maintain control and security over its networks, ensuring that they are available and reliable for carrying out missions globally.

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74. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role is specifically designated to ensure that these managers are properly trained and equipped to handle their responsibilities in managing records at the base level. The chief of the Office of Records may have a higher-level oversight role, but the command records manager is directly responsible for training the base records managers. The base records manager and functional area records manager may have other specific duties related to records management, but they are not specifically charged with establishing training programs.

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75. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. It is responsible for ensuring the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force.

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76. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). This system is responsible for managing and securing the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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77. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records related to their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies, and providing guidance to personnel on records management practices. They play a crucial role in organizing and preserving records, facilitating efficient access to information, and supporting the overall mission of the organization.

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Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's...
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What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force...
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter...
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of...
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