Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 1
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What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
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Title 10
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Title 18
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Title 32
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Title 50
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The 'Langley CST - Z3DX5X VOL 1' quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty responsibilities, including RF transmission, cable systems, and satellite devices. It evaluates understanding of Air Force training and management protocols, crucial for career progression in technical military roles.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
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Title 3.
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Title 8.
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Title 10.
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Title 18.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, including the military justice system. The UCMJ is a set of laws that governs the conduct of members of the military and outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of service members. It covers a wide range of offenses and punishments, ensuring discipline and order within the military.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
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Trend analysis.
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Quality System.
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Quality Assessments.
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Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis.Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on processes sampled by QA personnel. It helps identify patterns and trends over time, allowing for the identification of potential issues or areas for improvement. Quality System refers to the overall framework and processes in place for ensuring quality, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are methods of evaluating and assessing the effectiveness of the quality assurance process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
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Misuse of position.
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Covered relationships.
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Non-public information.
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Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationships.Explanation
Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship creates the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This can occur when a person in a position of power shows bias towards someone with whom they have a personal or professional relationship. It is considered unethical because it compromises fairness and objectivity in decision-making processes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
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Published doctrines.
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Geographical base maps.
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Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
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Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer
A. Library reference or museum exhibitions.Explanation
Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are typically created by private individuals or organizations and do not hold the same legal or administrative weight as official government documents. Official government records are typically created and maintained by government agencies and are used to document and preserve important information related to government operations, policies, and decisions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Records that are considered to be in draft format
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Can be altered and are not officially released.
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Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
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Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
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Officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer
A. Can be altered and are not officially released.Explanation
Draft records are not finalized and are subject to changes or modifications. They are not officially released because they are still in the process of being reviewed, edited, or approved. This allows for flexibility and the opportunity to make revisions before the final version is released.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
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Remedy.
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Training Business Area.
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Telephone Management System.
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Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer
A. Remedy.Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is specifically designed to manage the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses, ensuring that they are properly maintained and retired when necessary. Remedy also provides features for asset tracking, inventory management, and compliance with IT asset management best practices. Therefore, it is the most suitable option for the given question.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
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Active and reactive.
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Evasive and decisive.
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Subversive and divisive.
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Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive.Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing as well as directly countering an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats in real-time, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as implementing incident response plans, isolating compromised systems, and patching vulnerabilities. These two defenses work together to actively detect and respond to cyber threats, minimizing the impact of attacks and protecting the network.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
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A rewriting of the main point.
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A well-written summary
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A postscript message.
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None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. A well-written summaryExplanation
A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main points of the message into a concise and clear summary, demonstrating your comprehension of the content and your ability to communicate it effectively.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems.
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Cable and Antenna Systems.
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) of Radio Frequency Transmission is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity for the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems.
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Cable and Antenna Systems.
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are used for communication and data transmission within the Air Force. Spectrum Operations deals with managing and controlling the electromagnetic spectrum, Ground Radar Systems are responsible for operating and maintaining radar systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission involves the transmission of radio signals. However, neither of these specialties specifically focus on network wiring installation and maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
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Modify local training.
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Allocate manpower.
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Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
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Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer
A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).Explanation
Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and the skills required for those roles. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC), which provides training and development opportunities for individuals in those job roles. The CDC helps individuals enhance their knowledge and skills, and prepares them for career advancement within their field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another important use of occupational surveys, as it helps in creating targeted and effective training programs for specific job roles.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
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Management Inspection (MI).
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Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
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Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
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Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).Explanation
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) is the correct answer because it combines elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a comprehensive assessment of a unit's effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the unit's ability to meet its mission objectives and assesses its overall performance and efficiency. It goes beyond traditional compliance inspections by also considering the unit's readiness and effectiveness in carrying out its assigned tasks. The UEI helps identify areas of improvement and provides valuable feedback to enhance the unit's effectiveness and operational capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
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Title 10.
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Title 30.
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Title 50.
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Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
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Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
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Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
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National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
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Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are tasked with ensuring the security and functionality of the GIG, which is the military's worldwide network of information systems. Therefore, DISA is the correct agency responsible for these matters.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
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The President.
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The Chief of Staff.
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The Vice President.
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The Deputy Secretary.
Correct Answer
A. The Deputy Secretary.Explanation
The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. This position is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department and overseeing its operations. The Deputy Secretary acts as a key advisor to the Secretary and is involved in decision-making processes related to defense policies, budgets, and strategies. They also represent the Department of Defense in various meetings and engagements, both domestically and internationally.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
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644th Combat Communication Squadron.
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85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
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83th Network Operations Squadron.
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4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer
A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to do this anywhere at any time, making them the unit that fulfills this role.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
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Manpower.
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Efficiency.
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Reduce costs.
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Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer
A. Efficiency.Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, eliminate redundancies, and optimize resource allocation. This consolidation allows for better coordination and communication, leading to faster response times, improved problem resolution, and overall increased efficiency in managing network operations and providing IT support services.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
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2009.
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2010.
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2011.
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2012.
Correct Answer
A. 2010.Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which allowed support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that starting from 2010, the Air Force had a unified ticketing system that provided support to all locations, making it more efficient and streamlined.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
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Two.
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Four.
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Six.
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Eight.
Correct Answer
A. Six.Explanation
There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question is asking for the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
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Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
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Office Automation System (OAS).
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Decision Support System (DSS)
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Training Business Area (TBA).
Correct Answer
A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).Explanation
The correct answer is the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). This system is responsible for managing the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is specifically designed to handle technical information and ensure its accurate and timely dissemination. ETIMS streamlines the process of creating, updating, and distributing technical orders, making it an essential tool for efficient management of paper-based technical documentation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
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Conduct climate training surveys.
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Develop Career Development Courses.
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Review the occupational analysis report.
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Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer
A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for the education and training of individuals in a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary courses, certifications, and skills needed for individuals to succeed in their careers. By establishing this plan, the U&TW can ensure that individuals receive the proper training and development opportunities to excel in their chosen field.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
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Coding.
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Positioning.
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Tempo bands.
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Unit type code.
Correct Answer
A. Unit type code.Explanation
Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help in organizing and coordinating the deployment of forces by providing a common language and understanding of the capabilities and requirements of different units. By using unit type codes, planners can efficiently allocate resources and ensure that the right units are deployed for specific missions or operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
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Article 32.
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Article 40.
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Article 92.
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Article 100.
Correct Answer
A. Article 92.Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and includes acts such as willfully disobeying a lawful order, dereliction of duty, and failure to follow instructions. In this case, not adhering to the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a violation of Article 92.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?
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DODD 8140.01.
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DODD 5515.01.
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DODD 8220.01.
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DODD 8570.01.
Correct Answer
A. DODD 8570.01.Explanation
DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements and guidelines for IA training and certification within the DOD, ensuring that all users are knowledgeable and up to date on IA practices and procedures.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
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Misuse of position.
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Covered relationship.
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Personal conflict of interest.
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None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationship.Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of power or authority over them. In this case, the question suggests that the members of a household or close relatives fall under this category. This can create ethical concerns as it may lead to favoritism, bias, or conflicts of interest in decision-making processes. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
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Technical Evaluation.
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Personnel Evaluation.
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Managerial Evaluation.
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Standard Evaluation.
Correct Answer
A. Standard Evaluation.Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Evaluation. In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation assesses the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance of the personnel involved, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the managerial aspects of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program. It is likely that this option refers to the use of standard criteria or benchmarks for evaluation purposes rather than being a distinct evaluation type.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?
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Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
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Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers.
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Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).
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Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).
Correct Answer
A. Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS).Explanation
The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) is the entity responsible for assigning numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
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Counterintelligence (CI).
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Operation Security (OPSEC).
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Military deception (MILDEC)
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Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
A. Military deception (MILDEC)Explanation
MILDEC, or military deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information or creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA both target a specific audience, MILDEC can be used to deceive that audience and achieve strategic objectives. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing threats to national security, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. While these activities may involve some level of deception, MILDEC is specifically designed for misleading purposes.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
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Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
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Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
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Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
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Joint Force Commander (JFC).
Correct Answer
A. Joint Force Commander (JFC).Explanation
The correct answer is Joint Force Commander (JFC). The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). The JFC is responsible for the overall planning and execution of joint military operations involving multiple services and components. They coordinate and integrate air and space forces from different branches to achieve the objectives of the joint force.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?
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JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
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JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.
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JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.
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JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.
Correct Answer
A. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.Explanation
JP 6-0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?
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Directive.
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Non-directive
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Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM).
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Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
Correct Answer
A. Non-directiveExplanation
Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and provide guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications do not provide specific instructions or orders, but rather offer suggestions and recommendations that allow individuals to adapt and make decisions based on their own judgment and the specific situation at hand. This flexibility allows for a more adaptable and customizable approach to problem-solving and decision-making within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?
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AF Doctrine.
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AF Handbook (AFH).
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AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).
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AF Visual Aid (AFVA).
Correct Answer
A. AF Handbook (AFH).Explanation
The AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication that is not subject to frequent change. This publication serves as a comprehensive reference guide and provides detailed information on specific topics or areas of interest within the AF. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet, and AF Visual Aid, which may require frequent updates to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technology, the AFH is designed to provide enduring information that remains relevant over a longer period of time.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?
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Library custodian.
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Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
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Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
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Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC).
Correct Answer
A. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).Explanation
The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders, which contain instructions and information for the maintenance and operation of equipment, are properly distributed to the personnel who need them. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization has access to the necessary technical information to carry out their tasks effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?
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Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).
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Operation and Maintenance TO.
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Methods and Procedures TO.
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General TO.
Correct Answer
A. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices. It focuses on the standard practices for installing equipment and systems in a consistent and efficient manner.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
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Unit training manager (UTM).
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Base functional manager (BFM).
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Major command functional manager (MFM).
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Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the Air Force career field, ensuring that they are on track for career progression and success. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific requirements and opportunities within the career field and can provide valuable insight and advice to individuals seeking guidance. They play a crucial role in shaping the careers of Air Force personnel and ensuring that they are able to reach their full potential within their chosen career field.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?
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Direct oversight directives.
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Secretary Policy memo.
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Directive-type memo.
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Chartering directives.
Correct Answer
A. Chartering directives.Explanation
Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establishes the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives outline the specific goals and objectives of the OSD and provide guidance on how it should operate and interact with other entities within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
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Core task.
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Duty competency.
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Core competency.
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Duty position task.
Correct Answer
A. Duty position task.Explanation
According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor is the duty position task. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks and responsibilities to individuals based on their duty position within the Air Force. This ensures that each individual is trained and prepared to fulfill their specific role and duties within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
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Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
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Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
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On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
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Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer
A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.Explanation
The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining hands-on experience and practical training. OJT programs are designed to provide a structured learning environment where individuals can acquire the necessary skills and competencies needed for their job, ensuring they are fully prepared and qualified to perform their duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
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Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
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Unified command and subordinate unified command.
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Functional command and geographical command.
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Unified command and functional command.
Correct Answer
A. Unified command and subordinate unified command.Explanation
Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. Unified command refers to the overall command structure responsible for coordinating and directing the JTF's operations. Subordinate unified command, on the other hand, refers to the lower level command structures that are responsible for executing specific tasks and reporting to the unified command. This division allows for effective coordination and delegation of tasks within the JTF, ensuring efficient and organized operations.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
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Defense Standardization Program (DSP).
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Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
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Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
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Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
A. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).Explanation
The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards. They play a crucial role in setting industry standards and ensuring the compatibility and reliability of electronic components. The Defense Standardization Program, Telecommunications Industry Association, and Information and Communications Technology are not directly involved in developing these specific standards.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
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Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
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Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
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Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
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Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air ForceExplanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
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Strategic Considerations.
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Military Strategic Framework.
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Implementation and Assessment.
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Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
Correct Answer
A. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.Explanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides a framework for the Department of Defense to plan and prioritize its efforts in securing cyberspace. It outlines the strategic objectives, priorities, and resources needed to address cyber threats and ensure the security of military networks and systems. The guidance also helps to align the Department of Defense's cyber efforts with national security objectives and overall defense strategy.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
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Service Transition.
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Service Strategy.
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Service Contact
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Service Design
Correct Answer
A. Service ContactExplanation
The correct answer is Service Contact. This is not one of the stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in this framework.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?
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One.
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Two.
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Three.
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Four.
Correct Answer
A. Three.Explanation
There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server. These capabilities include SharePoint 2010 Workflow, SharePoint 2013 Workflow, and SharePoint Designer Workflow. Each of these workflows provides different functionalities and features to automate and streamline business processes within SharePoint.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"
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AFI 33−321.
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AFI 33−322.
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AFI 33−329.
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AFI 33−332.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 33−322.Explanation
AFI 33-322 is the correct answer because it specifically defines an "official government record." The other options, AFI 33-321, AFI 33-329, and AFI 33-332, do not provide a definition for an official government record. Therefore, AFI 33-322 is the most relevant and appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?
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Air Force Instructions (AFI).
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Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
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Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
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Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).Explanation
Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM) publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPM publications have a limited lifespan and are subject to being replaced or updated by higher-level directives such as AFPDs. Air Force Instructions (AFI), Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD), and Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) are not mentioned as having an expiration date or being superseded by AFPDs in the given explanation. Therefore, the correct answer is Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?
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Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
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Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
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Library custodian.
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Any user.
Correct Answer
A. Any user.Explanation
Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary knowledge and permission, they can make changes or updates to a technical order. The other options, such as the Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA), Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO), and library custodian, may also have certain roles and responsibilities related to technical orders, but they do not have the exclusive authority to post updates.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
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Continual Service Improvement.
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Service Transition.
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Service Strategy.
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Service Design.
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement.Explanation
Continual Service Improvement is the stage in the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) that focuses on maintaining service quality. This stage involves constantly evaluating and improving the effectiveness and efficiency of IT services to meet the changing needs of the business. It includes activities such as monitoring performance, identifying areas for improvement, implementing changes, and measuring the impact of those changes. By continuously striving to improve service quality, organizations can ensure that their IT services align with business objectives and deliver value to customers.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 23, 2017Quiz Created by
Jordan
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