Z3dx5x Ure Vol 1

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1. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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Z3dx5x Ure Vol 1 - Quiz

The Z3DX5X URE Vol 1 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty Skills including RF transmission systems, cable and antenna systems, and career field management. It is crucial... see morefor personnel involved in deployment, maintenance, and management within the Air Force, enhancing both technical and organizational competencies. see less

2. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cable and Antenna Systems. This 3D AFS is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. They are the ones who handle the cable and antenna systems required for effective communication and connectivity in the Air Force.

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3. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps in identifying patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for improvements and adjustments to be made. It is an essential element in QA as it provides valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the processes being monitored.

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4. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or modified and are not yet officially released to the public or authorized for use.

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5. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks related to the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various RF communication systems and ensure their proper functioning and maintenance.

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6. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

Military deception (MILDEC) is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, disguising intentions, and creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, they aim to inform and influence that audience using truthful information. On the other hand, MILDEC involves deliberate deception to confuse and mislead the enemy, making it the activity that is designed to mislead in this scenario. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. None of these activities are primarily focused on misleading the enemy.

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7. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection is designed to assess the overall effectiveness and readiness of a unit, including its compliance with regulations and standards, as well as its ability to meet mission requirements. The UEI combines various inspection elements to provide a comprehensive evaluation of the unit's performance and effectiveness.

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8. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title is also known as the "Armed Forces" title and it outlines the organization, structure, and responsibilities of the military branches under the DOD. It covers a wide range of topics including military justice, personnel, military education, and procurement.

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9. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, including regulations and laws governing military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that apply to all members of the military and outline the legal rights and responsibilities of service members, as well as the rules and regulations for military discipline and justice.

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10. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Explanation

Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where there is an appearance of impartiality or favoritism in an employee or employer relationship. This suggests that there is a conflict of interest or misuse of position, which is considered unethical.

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11. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.

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12. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD) and provides information technology and communication support to the military. They ensure the security and reliability of the GIG, which is the DoD's globally interconnected information infrastructure. DISA's role includes identifying critical infrastructure, prioritizing its protection, and implementing measures to remediate any vulnerabilities or threats.

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13. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, communication and coordination can be streamlined, resulting in faster response times and more effective problem-solving. This consolidation eliminates duplication of efforts and allows for better resource allocation. Overall, the goal is to optimize operations and enhance productivity within the network control and service desk functions.

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14. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for education and training within a specific career field. The workshop will likely involve gathering information, analyzing needs, and developing a plan that outlines the necessary education and training requirements for individuals in that career field. This plan will serve as a guide for career development and ensure that individuals receive the necessary training to excel in their field.

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15. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is specifically designed for cyber defense and analysis, making it the most suitable option for the given question. The other options, such as the Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System, Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System, and Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System, do not specifically focus on vulnerability assessment and risk assessment, making them incorrect choices.

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16. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing of a network to detect and respond to any adversary penetration or ongoing intrusion. "Active" defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, while "reactive" defense focuses on responding to an attack in progress. These strategies work together to actively monitor the network, analyze any potential threats, and take immediate action to counter and mitigate the intrusion.

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17. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which are focused on utilizing and training personnel within a specific career field. The MFM's role is to ensure that the MAJCOM's perspective and requirements are considered and incorporated into the discussions and decisions made during the U&TW.

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18. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about a specific occupation or job field. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). A CDC is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career path. By using the data collected from the occupational surveys, a CDC can be created to address the specific needs and requirements of the job field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys.

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19. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is designed to manage the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It helps in various stages including procurement, deployment, maintenance, and retirement of IT assets. Remedy streamlines the process and provides a centralized platform for tracking and managing IT assets, ensuring efficient utilization and effective management throughout their lifecycle.

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20. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is the system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is specifically designed to handle the organization and dissemination of technical information in a paper format. ETIMS ensures that the correct technical orders are distributed to the appropriate personnel and that they are printed accurately and efficiently. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the accuracy and accessibility of technical information within an organization.

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21. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and expertise in areas such as career development, training, and personnel management. They work closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure that career field policies and procedures are implemented effectively. The AFCFM plays a crucial role in shaping the career paths and opportunities for individuals within the Air Force career field.

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22. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Explanation

The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job roles. It provides hands-on training and guidance from experienced professionals, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and expertise in their field. OJT programs are widely used in various industries to ensure that employees are adequately trained and prepared to perform their job responsibilities effectively.

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23. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help in organizing and coordinating the deployment and employment of forces by providing a common language and framework for planning and communication.

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24. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to accurately capture the main points and essence of the message in a concise and clear manner. This demonstrates your comprehension of the original message and your skill in effectively summarizing information.

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25. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for protecting critical infrastructure, enhancing cybersecurity awareness and education, and promoting international cooperation in addressing cyber threats. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace was first published in 2003 and has since been updated to address evolving cyber challenges.

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26. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a decision-making process that may affect their own interests. In this case, the question states that the individuals in question are members of a household or relatives with whom the person has a close personal relationship. This scenario falls under the category of a covered relationship because the personal relationship could potentially influence their decision-making process, leading to bias or favoritism.

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27. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Duty position task." According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning duty position tasks to trainees. These tasks are specific to the trainee's role and responsibilities within their duty position.

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28. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This is the title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing the specific functional area at the base level and ensuring that all personnel in that area are properly trained and equipped. They may also be responsible for coordinating with other functional managers and higher-level commands to ensure mission success. The other options (UTM, MFM, AFCFM) do not accurately describe the role and responsibilities of the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace NCO.

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29. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support for all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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30. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This answer does not describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all related to the information outlined in TO 00-5-1.

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31. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System (AFICWS) is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). It is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's internal network, ensuring that only authorized users have access and protecting against cyber threats. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the Air Force's information and communication infrastructure.

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32. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

Quality Assurance is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program because it is the program itself. Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are all essential elements that contribute to the effectiveness of a QA program. Quality Assurance encompasses all the activities and processes involved in ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved.

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33. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Evaluation because in a Quality Assurance (QA) program, standard evaluation is not considered as an assessment type. Technical evaluation assesses the technical aspects of a product or service, personnel evaluation assesses the performance of individuals, and managerial evaluation assesses the effectiveness of management practices. Standard evaluation, on the other hand, refers to the evaluation of adherence to established standards or guidelines rather than assessing the quality or performance of a product, service, or personnel.

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34. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and encompasses a wide range of offenses, including the failure to comply with instructions regarding information systems. This article ensures that military personnel are held accountable for their actions and responsibilities in using and safeguarding information systems.

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35. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by the government. Official government records typically include documents that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can all be official government records depending on the context in which they were created or used.

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36. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force publication that is not subject to frequent change. This means that the content and information provided in an AFH remain stable and are not updated regularly. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet (AFPAM), and AF Visual Aid (AFVA), which may require frequent revisions to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technology, an AFH serves as a more static reference guide that provides consistent and reliable information over a longer period of time.

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37. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's operations in cyberspace and how it can maintain an advantage in this domain. It provides a framework for the military's actions and priorities in cyberspace, ensuring that the US remains secure and dominant in this critical area.

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38. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint task forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall planning and execution of the joint task force mission. It coordinates and integrates all the efforts of different military services and agencies involved. The subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational areas or functions within the joint task force. It carries out the detailed planning and execution of tasks assigned by the unified command.

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39. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. It involves constantly assessing and making necessary changes to enhance service delivery and meet the evolving needs of the business and customers. This stage is responsible for identifying areas of improvement, setting goals, measuring performance, and implementing changes to optimize service quality. It ensures that the organization is continuously learning and adapting to deliver better services over time.

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40. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

JP 6–0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This implies that JP 6–0 is the foundational document that serves as a guide for all other publications in the series, making it the most important and central document.

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41. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exceptions or waivers based on their knowledge and expertise in the specific career field. The AFCFM's role is to oversee and manage the career field, ensuring that the necessary training and qualifications are met, but they also have the authority to make exceptions in certain cases.

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42. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the air and space operations of multiple branches of the military within a joint force. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, which includes multiple military services working together towards a common objective. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as it aligns with the COMAFFOR's role in providing unity of command within a joint force.

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43. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or lows?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive source of information and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure compliance with established policies and procedures. They provide step-by-step guidance on how to carry out specific tasks and activities, ensuring consistency and standardization across the Air Force. AFPDs, AFMDs, and AFPMs may also provide guidance, but AFI is specifically designed to provide procedural guidance on implementation.

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44. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication and information systems are in place for effective military operations.

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45. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

Explanation

AFI 33-322 is the correct answer because it specifically defines an "official government record." This instruction provides the guidelines and criteria for determining what qualifies as an official government record within the Air Force. By referencing this AFI, individuals can understand the requirements for creating, managing, and preserving official government records, ensuring compliance with regulations and maintaining the integrity of important information.

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46. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. While the President is the Commander-in-Chief and has ultimate authority, the Deputy Secretary is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department's operations and policies. The Chief of Staff is an important position but does not hold the second-highest rank. The Vice President, although a high-ranking government official, does not have a direct role in the Department of Defense.

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47. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for IA training, certification, and workforce management for DOD personnel.

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48. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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49. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. It is responsible for processing and managing data for a specific geographical area or region. These centers ensure that businesses and organizations have access to essential services for communication and data storage, allowing them to operate efficiently and securely.

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50. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT), along with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). They work together to ensure that the training requirements for the specialty are properly scheduled and managed. This collaboration between the AFCFM and TPM helps to ensure that the training needs of the specialty are met effectively and efficiently.

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51. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules likely include guidelines such as being clear and concise in your messages, using proper grammar and punctuation, using a professional tone, avoiding jargon or slang, being mindful of the recipient's time, and ensuring that the message is relevant and necessary. Following these rules can help ensure that your e-mails are effective and well-received.

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52. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine who is best suited to fulfill the role of record custodian and ensure that records are properly managed and protected. The other options, such as the Base records manager, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have some level of responsibility in managing records, but the ultimate authority lies with the Chief of the Office of Records.

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53. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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54. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's information systems and networks from cyber threats and ensuring the security and resilience of critical infrastructure sectors. It emphasizes the importance of collaboration between government agencies, private sector entities, and international partners to address cyber risks and safeguard national security.

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55. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders, which provide detailed instructions for the operation, maintenance, and repair of equipment, are properly distributed to the appropriate personnel. The TODO plays a crucial role in ensuring that technical information is accessible to those who need it, facilitating efficient operations and maintenance processes.

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56. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

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57. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the overall strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense, including its approach to securing cyberspace. It outlines the goals, objectives, and strategies that the Department of Defense will employ to protect its networks, systems, and critical infrastructure from cyber threats. This document serves as a roadmap for the development and implementation of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace.

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58. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server.

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59. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and provide guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications offer suggestions and recommendations rather than strict directives or orders. They allow flexibility and adaptability in implementing the guidance based on the specific situation or context.

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60. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide the necessary command and control capabilities for cyber operations, allowing the Air Force to effectively defend its networks and information systems while also enabling offensive cyber capabilities when required. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and functionality of the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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61. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

The correct answer is Service Contact. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not one of these stages.

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62. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI).

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63. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies regarding record keeping. They work closely with other records managers and staff to ensure the efficient and effective management of records within their area of responsibility.

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64. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is responsible for providing efficient and effective services to support the warfighters, which in turn allows them to focus more on their core duties rather than spending time on extensive training. By streamlining processes and providing reliable services, the ESU helps to enhance the overall operational readiness and effectiveness of the warfighters.

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65. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to enable users to make the most of the information available across the entire enterprise. By "exploiting" information, it means utilizing it effectively to gain insights, make informed decisions, and drive business growth. This involves leveraging technology tools and systems to organize, analyze, and share information in a way that maximizes its value and benefits the organization as a whole.

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66. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

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67. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM) publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPMs have a limited lifespan and must be reviewed and updated regularly to ensure they align with current Air Force policies and directives. Once an AFPM is expired or superseded, it is no longer considered a valid directive publication.

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68. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). This means that the MFM is responsible for finding experts in the specific field or career area to provide input and guidance in creating the tests and courses that will enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals in that career field. The MFM's role is crucial in ensuring that the content of the tests and courses is accurate and relevant to the career field.

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69. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary training and authorization, they have the ability to make updates to a technical order. The other options, such as the Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA), Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO), and Library custodian, do not have the same level of authority to make updates to the technical order.

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70. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The duties mentioned in the question, which include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, align with the responsibilities of a base records manager. This role involves overseeing the organization and maintenance of records within a specific military base or installation. The base records manager is responsible for ensuring that records are properly managed, accessible, and in compliance with regulations. They may also provide support and training to personnel in managing records effectively.

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71. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establish the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives provide a framework for the operations and governance of these entities within the Department of Defense. They outline the specific goals and objectives of the OSD and its components, as well as the authority and relationships between different agencies within the department.

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72. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology allows for the organized and efficient deployment of air and space forces, ensuring that the right capabilities are available to meet operational requirements. By organizing forces into AEF cycles, the Air Force can maintain a continuous presence and provide the necessary support to combat operations. This methodology helps in planning, organizing, and executing missions effectively, enhancing the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.

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73. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units. These directives provide specific guidance and instructions to ensure that these entities operate effectively and efficiently within their assigned roles and responsibilities. AFMDs are an important tool for maintaining organizational structure and ensuring that all units within the Air Force are aligned and working towards the same objectives.

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74. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to ensure the security and control of the Air Force cyberspace operations.

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75. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively handle and manage records within their respective bases. The command records manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that proper training is provided to base records managers, which ultimately contributes to the overall efficiency and effectiveness of records management within the organization.

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76. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network. This system is designed to enhance the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force.

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77. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. These directives provide clear guidance and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to carry out their duties and responsibilities effectively. They serve as a framework for decision-making and ensure consistency and standardization across the Air Force. AFPDs are important tools in maintaining organizational discipline and achieving the Air Force's mission objectives.

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