Z3dx5x Ure Vol 1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations
- B.
Ground Radar Systems
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency TransmissionExplanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks related to the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various RF communication systems and ensure their proper functioning and maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations
- B.
Ground Radar Systems
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna SystemsExplanation
The correct answer is Cable and Antenna Systems. This 3D AFS is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. They are the ones who handle the cable and antenna systems required for effective communication and connectivity in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
Core task
- B.
Duty competency
- C.
Core competency
- D.
Duty position task
Correct Answer
D. Duty position taskExplanation
The correct answer is "Duty position task." According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning duty position tasks to trainees. These tasks are specific to the trainee's role and responsibilities within their duty position.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and expertise in areas such as career development, training, and personnel management. They work closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure that career field policies and procedures are implemented effectively. The AFCFM plays a crucial role in shaping the career paths and opportunities for individuals within the Air Force career field.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exceptions or waivers based on their knowledge and expertise in the specific career field. The AFCFM's role is to oversee and manage the career field, ensuring that the necessary training and qualifications are met, but they also have the authority to make exceptions in certain cases.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM)Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which are focused on utilizing and training personnel within a specific career field. The MFM's role is to ensure that the MAJCOM's perspective and requirements are considered and incorporated into the discussions and decisions made during the U&TW.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM)Explanation
The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). This means that the MFM is responsible for finding experts in the specific field or career area to provide input and guidance in creating the tests and courses that will enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals in that career field. The MFM's role is crucial in ensuring that the content of the tests and courses is accurate and relevant to the career field.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
Modify local training
- B.
Allocate manpower
- C.
Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
- D.
Assist the unit training manager in course development
Correct Answer
C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)Explanation
Occupational surveys are used to gather information about a specific occupation or job field. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). A CDC is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career path. By using the data collected from the occupational surveys, a CDC can be created to address the specific needs and requirements of the job field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM)
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM)
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM)
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM)Explanation
The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This is the title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing the specific functional area at the base level and ensuring that all personnel in that area are properly trained and equipped. They may also be responsible for coordinating with other functional managers and higher-level commands to ensure mission success. The other options (UTM, MFM, AFCFM) do not accurately describe the role and responsibilities of the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace NCO.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Conduct climate training surveys
- B.
Develop Career Development Courses
- C.
Review the occupational analysis report
- D.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
Correct Answer
D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for education and training within a specific career field. The workshop will likely involve gathering information, analyzing needs, and developing a plan that outlines the necessary education and training requirements for individuals in that career field. This plan will serve as a guide for career development and ensure that individuals receive the necessary training to excel in their field.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME
- C.
MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME)
- D.
AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM
Correct Answer
D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPMExplanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT), along with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). They work together to ensure that the training requirements for the specialty are properly scheduled and managed. This collaboration between the AFCFM and TPM helps to ensure that the training needs of the specialty are met effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- B.
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)
- C.
On-the-Job Training (OJT) program
- D.
Occupational Analysis Program
Correct Answer
C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) programExplanation
The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job roles. It provides hands-on training and guidance from experienced professionals, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and expertise in their field. OJT programs are widely used in various industries to ensure that employees are adequately trained and prepared to perform their job responsibilities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Quality Assessments
- B.
Quality Assurance
- C.
Quality System
- D.
Trend Analysis
Correct Answer
B. Quality AssuranceExplanation
Quality Assurance is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program because it is the program itself. Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are all essential elements that contribute to the effectiveness of a QA program. Quality Assurance encompasses all the activities and processes involved in ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Technical Evaluation
- B.
Personnel Evaluation
- C.
Managerial Evaluation
- D.
Standard Evaluation
Correct Answer
D. Standard EvaluationExplanation
The correct answer is Standard Evaluation because in a Quality Assurance (QA) program, standard evaluation is not considered as an assessment type. Technical evaluation assesses the technical aspects of a product or service, personnel evaluation assesses the performance of individuals, and managerial evaluation assesses the effectiveness of management practices. Standard evaluation, on the other hand, refers to the evaluation of adherence to established standards or guidelines rather than assessing the quality or performance of a product, service, or personnel.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
Trend analysis
- B.
Quality System
- C.
Quality Assessments
- D.
Managerial Assessments
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysisExplanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps in identifying patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for improvements and adjustments to be made. It is an essential element in QA as it provides valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the processes being monitored.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
Management Inspection (MI)
- B.
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
- C.
Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)
- D.
Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP)
Correct Answer
B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)Explanation
The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection is designed to assess the overall effectiveness and readiness of a unit, including its compliance with regulations and standards, as well as its ability to meet mission requirements. The UEI combines various inspection elements to provide a comprehensive evaluation of the unit's performance and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Training Business Area
- C.
Telephone Management System
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System
Correct Answer
A. RemedyExplanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is designed to manage the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It helps in various stages including procurement, deployment, maintenance, and retirement of IT assets. Remedy streamlines the process and provides a centralized platform for tracking and managing IT assets, ensuring efficient utilization and effective management throughout their lifecycle.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
Title 10
- B.
Title 18
- C.
Title 32
- D.
Title 50
Correct Answer
A. Title 10Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title is also known as the "Armed Forces" title and it outlines the organization, structure, and responsibilities of the military branches under the DOD. It covers a wide range of topics including military justice, personnel, military education, and procurement.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
Title 3.
- B.
Title 8.
- C.
Title 10.
- D.
Title 18.
Correct Answer
C. Title 10.Explanation
The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, including regulations and laws governing military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that apply to all members of the military and outline the legal rights and responsibilities of service members, as well as the rules and regulations for military discipline and justice.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
National Military Cyberspace Strategy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace
- D.
National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure CyberspaceExplanation
The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for protecting critical infrastructure, enhancing cybersecurity awareness and education, and promoting international cooperation in addressing cyber threats. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace was first published in 2003 and has since been updated to address evolving cyber challenges.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
National Security Policy.
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.Explanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's information systems and networks from cyber threats and ensuring the security and resilience of critical infrastructure sectors. It emphasizes the importance of collaboration between government agencies, private sector entities, and international partners to address cyber risks and safeguard national security.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
National Security Policy
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
Correct Answer
D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace OperationsExplanation
The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's operations in cyberspace and how it can maintain an advantage in this domain. It provides a framework for the military's actions and priorities in cyberspace, ensuring that the US remains secure and dominant in this critical area.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
Title 10
- B.
Title 30
- C.
Title 50
- D.
Title 52
Correct Answer
A. Title 10Explanation
Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
Misuse of position.
- B.
Covered relationships.
- C.
Non-public information.
- D.
Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationships.Explanation
Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where there is an appearance of impartiality or favoritism in an employee or employer relationship. This suggests that there is a conflict of interest or misuse of position, which is considered unethical.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
Misuse of position.
- B.
Covered relationship.
- C.
Personal conflict of interest.
- D.
None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationship.Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a decision-making process that may affect their own interests. In this case, the question states that the individuals in question are members of a household or relatives with whom the person has a close personal relationship. This scenario falls under the category of a covered relationship because the personal relationship could potentially influence their decision-making process, leading to bias or favoritism.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to ensure the security and control of the Air Force cyberspace operations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.Explanation
The Air Force Cyber Security and Control System resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network. This system is designed to enhance the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.Explanation
The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System (AFICWS) is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). It is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's internal network, ensuring that only authorized users have access and protecting against cyber threats. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the Air Force's information and communication infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon SystemExplanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission SystemExplanation
The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide the necessary command and control capabilities for cyber operations, allowing the Air Force to effectively defend its networks and information systems while also enabling offensive cyber capabilities when required. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and functionality of the Air Force's cyberspace operations.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
- B.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- C.
Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.Explanation
The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is specifically designed for cyber defense and analysis, making it the most suitable option for the given question. The other options, such as the Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System, Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System, and Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System, do not specifically focus on vulnerability assessment and risk assessment, making them incorrect choices.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
- B.
Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
- C.
Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
- D.
Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.Explanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- A.
Active and reactive.
- B.
Evasive and decisive.
- C.
Subversive and divisive.
- D.
Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive.Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing of a network to detect and respond to any adversary penetration or ongoing intrusion. "Active" defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, while "reactive" defense focuses on responding to an attack in progress. These strategies work together to actively monitor the network, analyze any potential threats, and take immediate action to counter and mitigate the intrusion.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
Counterintelligence (CI).
- B.
Operation Security (OPSEC).
- C.
Military deception (MILDEC).
- D.
Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
C. Military deception (MILDEC).Explanation
Military deception (MILDEC) is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, disguising intentions, and creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, they aim to inform and influence that audience using truthful information. On the other hand, MILDEC involves deliberate deception to confuse and mislead the enemy, making it the activity that is designed to mislead in this scenario. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. None of these activities are primarily focused on misleading the enemy.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
Strategic Considerations
- B.
Military Strategic Framework
- C.
Implementation and Assessment
- D.
Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning GuidanceExplanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides the overall strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense, including its approach to securing cyberspace. It outlines the goals, objectives, and strategies that the Department of Defense will employ to protect its networks, systems, and critical infrastructure from cyber threats. This document serves as a roadmap for the development and implementation of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
- B.
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- C.
National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
- D.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD) and provides information technology and communication support to the military. They ensure the security and reliability of the GIG, which is the DoD's globally interconnected information infrastructure. DISA's role includes identifying critical infrastructure, prioritizing its protection, and implementing measures to remediate any vulnerabilities or threats.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
644th Combat Communication Squadron.
- B.
85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
- C.
83th Network Operations Squadron.
- D.
4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer
B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication and information systems are in place for effective military operations.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).Explanation
The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is responsible for providing efficient and effective services to support the warfighters, which in turn allows them to focus more on their core duties rather than spending time on extensive training. By streamlining processes and providing reliable services, the ESU helps to enhance the overall operational readiness and effectiveness of the warfighters.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
B. Area Processing Center (APC).Explanation
An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. It is responsible for processing and managing data for a specific geographical area or region. These centers ensure that businesses and organizations have access to essential services for communication and data storage, allowing them to operate efficiently and securely.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
Manpower
- B.
Efficiency
- C.
Reduce costs
- D.
Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer
B. EfficiencyExplanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, communication and coordination can be streamlined, resulting in faster response times and more effective problem-solving. This consolidation eliminates duplication of efforts and allows for better resource allocation. Overall, the goal is to optimize operations and enhance productivity within the network control and service desk functions.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
2009
- B.
2010
- C.
2011
- D.
2012
Correct Answer
B. 2010Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support for all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
- B.
Unified command and subordinate unified command.
- C.
Functional command and geographical command.
- D.
Unified command and functional command.
Correct Answer
B. Unified command and subordinate unified command.Explanation
Joint task forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall planning and execution of the joint task force mission. It coordinates and integrates all the efforts of different military services and agencies involved. The subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational areas or functions within the joint task force. It carries out the detailed planning and execution of tasks assigned by the unified command.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- A.
Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
- B.
Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
- C.
Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
- D.
Joint Force Commander (JFC).
Correct Answer
D. Joint Force Commander (JFC).Explanation
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the air and space operations of multiple branches of the military within a joint force. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, which includes multiple military services working together towards a common objective. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as it aligns with the COMAFFOR's role in providing unity of command within a joint force.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
- B.
Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
- C.
Unit type codes (UTC).
- D.
Stratum levels (SL).
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).Explanation
The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology allows for the organized and efficient deployment of air and space forces, ensuring that the right capabilities are available to meet operational requirements. By organizing forces into AEF cycles, the Air Force can maintain a continuous presence and provide the necessary support to combat operations. This methodology helps in planning, organizing, and executing missions effectively, enhancing the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
Coding.
- B.
Positioning.
- C.
Tempo bands.
- D.
Unit type code.
Correct Answer
D. Unit type code.Explanation
Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help in organizing and coordinating the deployment and employment of forces by providing a common language and framework for planning and communication.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- A.
Service Transition.
- B.
Service Strategy.
- C.
Service Contact.
- D.
Service Design.
Correct Answer
C. Service Contact.Explanation
The correct answer is Service Contact. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not one of these stages.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
Continual Service Improvement.
- B.
Service Transition.
- C.
Service Strategy.
- D.
Service Strategy.
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement.Explanation
Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. It involves constantly assessing and making necessary changes to enhance service delivery and meet the evolving needs of the business and customers. This stage is responsible for identifying areas of improvement, setting goals, measuring performance, and implementing changes to optimize service quality. It ensures that the organization is continuously learning and adapting to deliver better services over time.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- A.
Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- B.
Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- C.
Improve the effectiveness of the mission.
- D.
Improve the efficiency of the mission.
Correct Answer
B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.Explanation
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to enable users to make the most of the information available across the entire enterprise. By "exploiting" information, it means utilizing it effectively to gain insights, make informed decisions, and drive business growth. This involves leveraging technology tools and systems to organize, analyze, and share information in a way that maximizes its value and benefits the organization as a whole.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
Article 32
- B.
Article 40
- C.
Article 92
- D.
Article 100
Correct Answer
C. Article 92Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and encompasses a wide range of offenses, including the failure to comply with instructions regarding information systems. This article ensures that military personnel are held accountable for their actions and responsibilities in using and safeguarding information systems.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
Eight
Correct Answer
C. SixExplanation
There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules likely include guidelines such as being clear and concise in your messages, using proper grammar and punctuation, using a professional tone, avoiding jargon or slang, being mindful of the recipient's time, and ensuring that the message is relevant and necessary. Following these rules can help ensure that your e-mails are effective and well-received.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 13, 2017Quiz Created by
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