Z3dx5x Ure Vol 1

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  • 1/77 Questions

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • Spectrum Operations
    • Ground Radar Systems
    • Cable and Antenna Systems
    • Radio Frequency Transmission.
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About This Quiz

The Z3DX5X URE Vol 1 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty Skills including RF transmission systems, cable and antenna systems, and career field management. It is crucial for personnel involved in deployment, maintenance, and management within the Air Force, enhancing both technical and organizational competencies.

Z3dx5x Ure Vol 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

    • Trend analysis

    • Quality System

    • Quality Assessments

    • Managerial Assessments

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend analysis
    Explanation
    Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps in identifying patterns, trends, and potential issues in the quality assurance processes, allowing for improvements and adjustments to be made. It is an essential element in QA as it provides valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the processes being monitored.

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  • 3. 

    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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  • 4. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • Officially signed and officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or modified and are not yet officially released to the public or authorized for use.

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  • 5. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • Spectrum Operations

    • Ground Radar Systems

    • Cable and Antenna Systems

    • Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks related to the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various RF communication systems and ensure their proper functioning and maintenance.

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  • 6. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • Management Inspection (MI)

    • Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

    • Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)

    • Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)
    Explanation
    The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection is designed to assess the overall effectiveness and readiness of a unit, including its compliance with regulations and standards, as well as its ability to meet mission requirements. The UEI combines various inspection elements to provide a comprehensive evaluation of the unit's performance and effectiveness.

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  • 7. 

    Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • Counterintelligence (CI).

    • Operation Security (OPSEC).

    • Military deception (MILDEC).

    • Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Military deception (MILDEC).
    Explanation
    Military deception (MILDEC) is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information, disguising intentions, and creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA share a common audience, they aim to inform and influence that audience using truthful information. On the other hand, MILDEC involves deliberate deception to confuse and mislead the enemy, making it the activity that is designed to mislead in this scenario. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. None of these activities are primarily focused on misleading the enemy.

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  • 8. 

    What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • Conduct climate training surveys

    • Develop Career Development Courses

    • Review the occupational analysis report

    • Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for education and training within a specific career field. The workshop will likely involve gathering information, analyzing needs, and developing a plan that outlines the necessary education and training requirements for individuals in that career field. This plan will serve as a guide for career development and ensure that individuals receive the necessary training to excel in their field.

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  • 9. 

    What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    • Title 32

    • Title 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title is also known as the "Armed Forces" title and it outlines the organization, structure, and responsibilities of the military branches under the DOD. It covers a wide range of topics including military justice, personnel, military education, and procurement.

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  • 10. 

    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • Title 3.

    • Title 8.

    • Title 10.

    • Title 18.

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, including regulations and laws governing military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that apply to all members of the military and outline the legal rights and responsibilities of service members, as well as the rules and regulations for military discipline and justice.

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  • 11. 

    An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

    • Misuse of position.

    • Covered relationships.

    • Non-public information.

    • Personal conflict of interest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered relationships.
    Explanation
    Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation where there is an appearance of impartiality or favoritism in an employee or employer relationship. This suggests that there is a conflict of interest or misuse of position, which is considered unethical.

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  • 12. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.

    • Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.

    • Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.

    • Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
    Explanation
    Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.

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  • 13. 

    Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

    • Defense Industrial Base (DIB).

    • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

    • National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD) and provides information technology and communication support to the military. They ensure the security and reliability of the GIG, which is the DoD's globally interconnected information infrastructure. DISA's role includes identifying critical infrastructure, prioritizing its protection, and implementing measures to remediate any vulnerabilities or threats.

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  • 14. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • Manpower

    • Efficiency

    • Reduce costs

    • Department of Defense 8570 mandate

    Correct Answer
    A. Efficiency
    Explanation
    The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, communication and coordination can be streamlined, resulting in faster response times and more effective problem-solving. This consolidation eliminates duplication of efforts and allows for better resource allocation. Overall, the goal is to optimize operations and enhance productivity within the network control and service desk functions.

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  • 15. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command functional manager (MFM)
    Explanation
    The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This means that the MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM during these workshops, which are focused on utilizing and training personnel within a specific career field. The MFM's role is to ensure that the MAJCOM's perspective and requirements are considered and incorporated into the discussions and decisions made during the U&TW.

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  • 16. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

    • Modify local training

    • Allocate manpower

    • Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

    • Assist the unit training manager in course development

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about a specific occupation or job field. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). A CDC is a training program designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in a particular career path. By using the data collected from the occupational surveys, a CDC can be created to address the specific needs and requirements of the job field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys.

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  • 17. 

    What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • Remedy

    • Training Business Area

    • Telephone Management System

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is designed to manage the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It helps in various stages including procurement, deployment, maintenance, and retirement of IT assets. Remedy streamlines the process and provides a centralized platform for tracking and managing IT assets, ensuring efficient utilization and effective management throughout their lifecycle.

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  • 18. 

    What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

    • Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

    • Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.

    • Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
    Explanation
    The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is specifically designed for cyber defense and analysis, making it the most suitable option for the given question. The other options, such as the Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System, Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System, and Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System, do not specifically focus on vulnerability assessment and risk assessment, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 19. 

    What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

    • Active and reactive.

    • Evasive and decisive.

    • Subversive and divisive.

    • Offensive and defensive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and reactive.
    Explanation
    Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing of a network to detect and respond to any adversary penetration or ongoing intrusion. "Active" defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, while "reactive" defense focuses on responding to an attack in progress. These strategies work together to actively monitor the network, analyze any potential threats, and take immediate action to counter and mitigate the intrusion.

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  • 20. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and expertise in areas such as career development, training, and personnel management. They work closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure that career field policies and procedures are implemented effectively. The AFCFM plays a crucial role in shaping the career paths and opportunities for individuals within the Air Force career field.

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  • 21. 

    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)

    • On-the-Job Training (OJT) program

    • Occupational Analysis Program

    Correct Answer
    A. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program
    Explanation
    The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job roles. It provides hands-on training and guidance from experienced professionals, allowing individuals to gain practical experience and expertise in their field. OJT programs are widely used in various industries to ensure that employees are adequately trained and prepared to perform their job responsibilities effectively.

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  • 22. 

    What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

    • Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • Office Automation System (OAS).

    • Decision Support System (DSS).

    • Training Business Area (TBA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is the system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is specifically designed to handle the organization and dissemination of technical information in a paper format. ETIMS ensures that the correct technical orders are distributed to the appropriate personnel and that they are printed accurately and efficiently. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the accuracy and accessibility of technical information within an organization.

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  • 23. 

    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • Coding.

    • Positioning.

    • Tempo bands.

    • Unit type code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit type code.
    Explanation
    Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help in organizing and coordinating the deployment and employment of forces by providing a common language and framework for planning and communication.

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  • 24. 

    What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

    • A rewriting of the main point

    • A well-written summary

    • A postscript message

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A well-written summary
    Explanation
    A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to accurately capture the main points and essence of the message in a concise and clear manner. This demonstrates your comprehension of the original message and your skill in effectively summarizing information.

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  • 25. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

    • Core task

    • Duty competency

    • Core competency

    • Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    A. Duty position task
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Duty position task." According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the supervisor is responsible for assigning duty position tasks to trainees. These tasks are specific to the trainee's role and responsibilities within their duty position.

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  • 26. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Base functional manager (BFM)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This is the title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing the specific functional area at the base level and ensuring that all personnel in that area are properly trained and equipped. They may also be responsible for coordinating with other functional managers and higher-level commands to ensure mission success. The other options (UTM, MFM, AFCFM) do not accurately describe the role and responsibilities of the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace NCO.

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  • 27. 

    What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

    • National Military Cyberspace Strategy

    • National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    • National Military Strategy for Cyberspace

    • National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    Correct Answer
    A. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for protecting critical infrastructure, enhancing cybersecurity awareness and education, and promoting international cooperation in addressing cyber threats. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace was first published in 2003 and has since been updated to address evolving cyber challenges.

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  • 28. 

    Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

    • Misuse of position.

    • Covered relationship.

    • Personal conflict of interest.

    • None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered relationship.
    Explanation
    A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a decision-making process that may affect their own interests. In this case, the question states that the individuals in question are members of a household or relatives with whom the person has a close personal relationship. This scenario falls under the category of a covered relationship because the personal relationship could potentially influence their decision-making process, leading to bias or favoritism.

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  • 29. 

    What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

    • 2009

    • 2010

    • 2011

    • 2012

    Correct Answer
    A. 2010
    Explanation
    In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support for all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having multiple ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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  • 30. 

    Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • Quality Assessments

    • Quality Assurance

    • Quality System

    • Trend Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program because it is the program itself. Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are all essential elements that contribute to the effectiveness of a QA program. Quality Assurance encompasses all the activities and processes involved in ensuring that the desired level of quality is achieved.

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  • 31. 

    Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • Technical Evaluation

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Managerial Evaluation

    • Standard Evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Evaluation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard Evaluation because in a Quality Assurance (QA) program, standard evaluation is not considered as an assessment type. Technical evaluation assesses the technical aspects of a product or service, personnel evaluation assesses the performance of individuals, and managerial evaluation assesses the effectiveness of management practices. Standard evaluation, on the other hand, refers to the evaluation of adherence to established standards or guidelines rather than assessing the quality or performance of a product, service, or personnel.

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  • 32. 

    What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

    • Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System (AFICWS) is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). It is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's internal network, ensuring that only authorized users have access and protecting against cyber threats. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the Air Force's information and communication infrastructure.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

    • Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

    • Resources required to manage and use TOs.

    • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

    • Training to manage and use TOs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This answer does not describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all related to the information outlined in TO 00-5-1.

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  • 34. 

    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

    • Article 32

    • Article 40

    • Article 92

    • Article 100

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 92
    Explanation
    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and encompasses a wide range of offenses, including the failure to comply with instructions regarding information systems. This article ensures that military personnel are held accountable for their actions and responsibilities in using and safeguarding information systems.

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  • 35. 

    Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

    • Published doctrines

    • Geographical base maps

    • Photographs of a retreat ceremony

    • Library reference or museum exhibitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Library reference or museum exhibitions
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by the government. Official government records typically include documents that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can all be official government records depending on the context in which they were created or used.

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  • 36. 

    What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

    • National Security Policy

    • National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    • Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative

    • National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
    Explanation
    The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's operations in cyberspace and how it can maintain an advantage in this domain. It provides a framework for the military's actions and priorities in cyberspace, ensuring that the US remains secure and dominant in this critical area.

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  • 37. 

    What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

    • Subordinate unified command and geographical command.

    • Unified command and subordinate unified command.

    • Functional command and geographical command.

    • Unified command and functional command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unified command and subordinate unified command.
    Explanation
    Joint task forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall planning and execution of the joint task force mission. It coordinates and integrates all the efforts of different military services and agencies involved. The subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational areas or functions within the joint task force. It carries out the detailed planning and execution of tasks assigned by the unified command.

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  • 38. 

    What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

    • Continual Service Improvement.

    • Service Transition.

    • Service Strategy.

    • Service Strategy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual Service Improvement.
    Explanation
    Continual Service Improvement is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving the quality of services. It involves constantly assessing and making necessary changes to enhance service delivery and meet the evolving needs of the business and customers. This stage is responsible for identifying areas of improvement, setting goals, measuring performance, and implementing changes to optimize service quality. It ensures that the organization is continuously learning and adapting to deliver better services over time.

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  • 39. 

    What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

    • AF Doctrine.

    • AF Handbook (AFH).

    • AF Pamphlet (AFPAM).

    • AF Visual Aid (AFVA).

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Handbook (AFH).
    Explanation
    AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive Air Force publication that is not subject to frequent change. This means that the content and information provided in an AFH remain stable and are not updated regularly. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet (AFPAM), and AF Visual Aid (AFVA), which may require frequent revisions to reflect changes in policies, procedures, or technology, an AFH serves as a more static reference guide that provides consistent and reliable information over a longer period of time.

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  • 40. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • Unit training manager (UTM)

    • Base functional manager (BFM)

    • Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exceptions or waivers based on their knowledge and expertise in the specific career field. The AFCFM's role is to oversee and manage the career field, ensuring that the necessary training and qualifications are met, but they also have the authority to make exceptions in certain cases.

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  • 41. 

    The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

    • Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).

    • Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).

    • Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).

    • Joint Force Commander (JFC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Force Commander (JFC).
    Explanation
    The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the air and space operations of multiple branches of the military within a joint force. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, which includes multiple military services working together towards a common objective. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as it aligns with the COMAFFOR's role in providing unity of command within a joint force.

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  • 42. 

    What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

    • JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.

    • JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.

    • JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.

    • JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.

    Correct Answer
    A. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
    Explanation
    JP 6–0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is stated in the question that it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This implies that JP 6–0 is the foundational document that serves as a guide for all other publications in the series, making it the most important and central document.

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  • 43. 

    What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

    • 644th Combat Communication Squadron.

    • 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

    • 83th Network Operations Squadron.

    • 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.

    Correct Answer
    A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
    Explanation
    The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere and at any time, ensuring that the necessary communication and information systems are in place for effective military operations.

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  • 44. 

    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an “official government record?”

    • AFI 33−321

    • AFI 33−322

    • AFI 33−329

    • AFI 33−332

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33−322
    Explanation
    AFI 33-322 is the correct answer because it specifically defines an "official government record." This instruction provides the guidelines and criteria for determining what qualifies as an official government record within the Air Force. By referencing this AFI, individuals can understand the requirements for creating, managing, and preserving official government records, ensuring compliance with regulations and maintaining the integrity of important information.

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  • 45. 

    What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or lows?

    • Air Force Instructions (AFI).

    • Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD).

    • Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).

    • Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Instructions (AFI).
    Explanation
    Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive source of information and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure compliance with established policies and procedures. They provide step-by-step guidance on how to carry out specific tasks and activities, ensuring consistency and standardization across the Air Force. AFPDs, AFMDs, and AFPMs may also provide guidance, but AFI is specifically designed to provide procedural guidance on implementation.

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  • 46. 

    What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

    • Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • Area Processing Center (APC).

    • Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Area Processing Center (APC).
    Explanation
    An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. It is responsible for processing and managing data for a specific geographical area or region. These centers ensure that businesses and organizations have access to essential services for communication and data storage, allowing them to operate efficiently and securely.

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  • 47. 

    Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

    • The President.

    • The Chief of Staff.

    • The Vice President.

    • The Deputy Secretary.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Deputy Secretary.
    Explanation
    The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. While the President is the Commander-in-Chief and has ultimate authority, the Deputy Secretary is responsible for assisting the Secretary of Defense in managing the department's operations and policies. The Chief of Staff is an important position but does not hold the second-highest rank. The Vice President, although a high-ranking government official, does not have a direct role in the Department of Defense.

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  • 48. 

    What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

    • DODD 8140.01.

    • DODD 5515.01.

    • DODD 8220.01.

    • DODD 8570.01.

    Correct Answer
    A. DODD 8570.01.
    Explanation
    DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for IA training, certification, and workforce management for DOD personnel.

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  • 49. 

    Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with “31” and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

    • Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).

    • Operation and Maintenance TO.

    • Methods and Procedures TO.

    • General TO.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 13, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Pogey777

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