Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Joshua Stidham
J
Joshua Stidham
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 430
Questions: 177 | Attempts: 430

SettingsSettingsSettings
Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This specialty focuses on the transmission of radio frequency signals and ensuring their proper functioning.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
    Explanation
    The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations is Cable and Antenna Systems. This AFS specifically focuses on the installation, maintenance, and repair of cable and antenna systems, ensuring that the network wiring is functioning properly for effective communication and connectivity.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

    • A.

      Core task.

    • B.

      Duty competency.

    • C.

      Core competency.

    • D.

      Duty position task.

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task.
    Explanation
    According to AFI 36-2201, the supervisor assigns the duty position task as part of the Air Force Training Program. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks related to the individual's duty position, ensuring that they are trained and competent in their assigned responsibilities.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development and advancement. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and can provide valuable insights and recommendations to individuals seeking guidance in their career.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, which includes the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions or waivers based on their expertise and knowledge of the specific career field. The AFCFM's role is to ensure that the training requirements align with the needs and goals of the Air Force career field, making them the appropriate authority to make such decisions.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    Explanation
    The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This role is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in discussions and decisions related to utilization and training within the career field. They contribute to the development of training plans and ensure that the MAJCOM's requirements are met. The MFM plays a crucial role in shaping the training and utilization strategies within the career field.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    Explanation
    The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field within a major command and ensuring that the necessary resources and expertise are available for training and development purposes. They work closely with the unit training manager (UTM) and other stakeholders to identify and select the appropriate SMEs who can contribute to the development of the SKT and CDC. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the training and development needs of the career field are met.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM).
    Explanation
    The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

    • A.

      Modify local training.

    • B.

      Allocate manpower.

    • C.

      Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

    • D.

      Assist the unit training manager in course development.

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) which provides training and development opportunities for individuals in those job roles. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys as it helps in creating targeted training programs to enhance the skills and knowledge of employees in specific occupations.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Conduct climate training surveys.

    • B.

      Develop Career Development Courses.

    • C.

      Review the occupational analysis report.

    • D.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is crucial for ensuring that individuals in a specific career field receive the necessary education and training to excel in their roles. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to provide a structured framework for career development and advancement within the field. Conducting climate training surveys, developing career development courses, and reviewing the occupational analysis report may be important tasks within the workshop, but they are not the main goal.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

    • A.

      Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • B.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.

    • C.

      MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).

    • D.

      AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM to determine and coordinate the scheduling of the STRT. This ensures that the necessary training requirements are met and that the team is scheduled effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

    • A.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

    • C.

      On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

    • D.

      Occupational Analysis Program.

    Correct Answer
    C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is On-the-Job Training (OJT) program. This program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. OJT allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in a real-world setting under the guidance of experienced professionals. It is a practical and hands-on approach to training that helps individuals gain the necessary expertise to excel in their specific job roles.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • A.

      Quality Assessments.

    • B.

      Quality Assurance.

    • C.

      Quality System.

    • D.

      Trend Analysis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Quality Assurance. Quality Assurance refers to the overall process and activities that ensure that the desired quality of a product or service is achieved. It includes quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. On the other hand, Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are essential elements in a Quality Assurance program. Quality Assessments involve evaluating and measuring the performance of the product or service against established standards. Quality System refers to the framework of policies, processes, and procedures that ensure quality in an organization. Trend Analysis involves analyzing data over time to identify patterns and make informed decisions for quality improvement.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

    • A.

      Technical Evaluation.

    • B.

      Personnel Evaluation.

    • C.

      Managerial Evaluation.

    • D.

      Standard Evaluation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Standard Evaluation.
    Explanation
    In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation evaluates the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance of the personnel involved, and Managerial Evaluation evaluates the managerial aspects of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

    • A.

      Trend analysis.

    • B.

      Quality System.

    • C.

      Quality Assessments.

    • D.

      Managerial Assessments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend analysis.
    Explanation
    Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and anomalies in the data, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements in their quality assurance processes. It plays a crucial role in monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of QA activities and identifying areas for improvement. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments are not specifically focused on data analysis and recording like trend analysis.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • A.

      Management Inspection (MI).

    • B.

      Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

    • C.

      Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).

    • D.

      Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
    Explanation
    The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection is designed to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit and evaluate its ability to meet mission requirements. It combines traditional compliance and readiness inspections with additional elements to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness. The UEI helps identify areas for improvement and ensures that units are operating at the highest level of effectiveness.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

    • A.

      Remedy.

    • B.

      Training Business Area.

    • C.

      Telephone Management System.

    • D.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy.
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It helps in the procurement, tracking, and retirement of IT assets, ensuring efficient management and optimization of resources. Remedy is a widely used system in the IT industry for asset management and has features that support various stages of an asset's lifecycle, including procurement, deployment, maintenance, and retirement. Therefore, Remedy is the most suitable option among the given choices for managing the entire lifecycle of IT assets.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Title 10.

    • B.

      Title 18.

    • C.

      Title 32.

    • D.

      Title 50.

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10.
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authorities of the DOD and its branches, providing the legal basis for their existence and operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

    • A.

      Title 3.

    • B.

      Title 8.

    • C.

      Title 10.

    • D.

      Title 18.

    Correct Answer
    C. Title 10.
    Explanation
    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the military, including the rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that outline the legal framework for the military justice system, including offenses and punishments. Therefore, it is logical that the UCMJ is derived from Title 10 of the USC, which pertains to the military.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

    • A.

      National Military Cyberspace Strategy.

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.

    • D.

      National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    Correct Answer
    B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for protecting the nation's critical infrastructure, promoting cyber education and awareness, and fostering international cooperation in cybersecurity efforts. The document emphasizes the importance of collaboration between government, private sector, and individual citizens to effectively address the evolving cyber threats.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

    • A.

      National Security Policy.

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C.

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

    • D.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

    Correct Answer
    B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
    Explanation
    The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is the policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It focuses on developing strategies and measures to protect the nation's cyberspace from potential threats and attacks. This policy recognizes the importance of securing critical infrastructure and aims to enhance the resilience of the nation's cyber defenses.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

    • A.

      National Security Policy.

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

    • C.

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.

    • D.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations. This policy outlines the US Armed Forces' strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to maintain superiority in the cyber domain. It provides a comprehensive plan for how the military will utilize cyberspace capabilities to protect national security interests and ensure military readiness. The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations focuses specifically on the military's role in cyberspace and how it can effectively leverage this domain to achieve its objectives.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

    • A.

      Title 10.

    • B.

      Title 30.

    • C.

      Title 50.

    • D.

      Title 52.

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10.
    Explanation
    Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

    • A.

      Misuse of position.

    • B.

      Covered relationships.

    • C.

      Non-public information.

    • D.

      Personal conflict of interest.

    Correct Answer
    B. Covered relationships.
    Explanation
    Covered relationships refers to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a personal connection between the parties involved that could potentially compromise the fairness and objectivity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid such situations to maintain a professional and ethical work environment.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

    • A.

      Misuse of position.

    • B.

      Covered relationship.

    • C.

      Personal conflict of interest.

    • D.

      None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Covered relationship.
    Explanation
    A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is within their professional sphere, such as a colleague, client, or in this case, a household member or relative. This type of situation can create conflicts of interest, as personal relationships may influence professional decisions and compromise objectivity. Therefore, considering the given scenario, the correct answer is covered relationship.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

    • A.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • D.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to provide network security and control within the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). It focuses on providing security and control for the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the correct answer because it serves as the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that only authorized users have access and protecting against cyber threats. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the Air Force's network infrastructure.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

    • A.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • D.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
  • 30. 

    What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide effective command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing the Air Force to maintain control and security over its networks and information systems while conducting operations globally.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

    • A.

      Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

    • C.

      Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the network and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate these risks.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.

    • B.

      Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.

    • C.

      Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
    Explanation
    Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This suggests that these two commands were specifically tasked with carrying out operations and activities related to cyberspace within the Air Force. The realignment indicates a strategic decision to consolidate and enhance the Air Force's capabilities in the cyber domain, potentially improving coordination, efficiency, and effectiveness in addressing cyber threats and conducting cyber operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

    • A.

      Active and reactive.

    • B.

      Evasive and decisive.

    • C.

      Subversive and divisive.

    • D.

      Offensive and defensive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and reactive.
    Explanation
    Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively defend against cyber threats and mitigate the impact of successful intrusions.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • A.

      Counterintelligence (CI).

    • B.

      Operation Security (OPSEC).

    • C.

      Military deception (MILDEC).

    • D.

      Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).

    Correct Answer
    C. Military deception (MILDEC).
    Explanation
    MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy and create a false perception or understanding of military operations. It involves the use of tactics, techniques, and procedures to manipulate information and deceive the adversary. Since MISO and PA both target a specific audience, MILDEC would be the activity that aligns with their shared goal of misleading the audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering and analyzing information.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

    • A.

      Strategic Considerations.

    • B.

      Military Strategic Framework.

    • C.

      Implementation and Assessment.

    • D.

      Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction for the Department of Defense's strategic planning process, including the development of plans and policies related to securing cyberspace. It outlines the overall strategic goals and objectives for the Department of Defense's cyber operations and provides a framework for coordinating and integrating efforts across the military.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

    • A.

      Defense Industrial Base (DIB).

    • B.

      Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).

    • C.

      National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).

    • D.

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The DISA is an agency within the U.S. Department of Defense that provides information technology and communication support to the military and other government organizations. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and functionality of the GIG, which is the interconnected network of information systems used by the military. The other options, Defense Industrial Base (DIB), Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA), and National Reconnaissance Office (NRO), are not specifically responsible for GIG infrastructure.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

    • A.

      644th Combat Communication Squadron.

    • B.

      85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

    • C.

      83th Network Operations Squadron.

    • D.

      4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.

    Correct Answer
    B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
    Explanation
    The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere at any time, making them an essential unit for ensuring effective communication and command capabilities in combat situations.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • D.

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is responsible for developing and implementing strategies and technologies that streamline training processes and enhance the operational capabilities of the warfighters. By doing so, the ESU helps to optimize the efficiency and effectiveness of the AFNetOps community in supporting the Air Force's mission.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • D.

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Area Processing Center (APC).
    Explanation
    An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. This means that the APC is responsible for handling and managing these services for businesses within a specific region. It is likely that the APC has the necessary infrastructure, resources, and expertise to ensure efficient and secure delivery of these services to meet the needs of the enterprise users.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • A.

      Manpower.

    • B.

      Efficiency.

    • C.

      Reduce costs.

    • D.

      Department of Defense 8570 mandate.

    Correct Answer
    B. Efficiency.
    Explanation
    The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, it allows for better coordination and communication, leading to streamlined processes and faster response times. This ultimately enhances the overall efficiency of the network operations and support services.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

    • A.

      2009.

    • B.

      2010.

    • C.

      2011.

    • D.

      2012.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2010.
    Explanation
    In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having separate ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

    • A.

      Subordinate unified command and geographical command.

    • B.

      Unified command and subordinate unified command.

    • C.

      Functional command and geographical command.

    • D.

      Unified command and functional command.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unified command and subordinate unified command.
    Explanation
    Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and control of the JTF, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational tasks within the JTF. This division allows for effective command and control structures, ensuring efficient execution of tasks and missions.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

    • A.

      Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).

    • B.

      Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).

    • C.

      Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).

    • D.

      Joint Force Commander (JFC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Joint Force Commander (JFC).
    Explanation
    The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating the air force forces within a joint force, working closely with other military branches. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for integrating and coordinating all military capabilities to achieve the mission. Therefore, the COMAFFOR's role is to support and execute the JFC's objectives in an air and space component.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

    • A.

      Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).

    • B.

      Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).

    • C.

      Unit type codes (UTC).

    • D.

      Stratum levels (SL).

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a structured and rotational manner, ensuring that the Air Force is able to provide the necessary capabilities and support to combatant commanders on a continuous basis. The AEF system allows for efficient planning, training, and deployment of forces, ensuring readiness and effectiveness in fulfilling mission requirements.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • A.

      Coding.

    • B.

      Positioning.

    • C.

      Tempo bands.

    • D.

      Unit type code.

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit type code.
    Explanation
    Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes are used to identify and categorize units, allowing for efficient planning and coordination of forces in joint operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

    • A.

      Service Transition.

    • B.

      Service Strategy.

    • C.

      Service Contact.

    • D.

      Service Design.

    Correct Answer
    C. Service Contact.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Service Contact. The ITIL Service Life Cycle stages consist of Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not one of the stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

    • A.

      Continual Service Improvement.

    • B.

      Service Transition.

    • C.

      Service Strategy.

    • D.

      Service Design.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual Service Improvement.
    Explanation
    Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving service quality. This stage involves constantly evaluating and identifying areas for improvement in order to enhance the overall efficiency and effectiveness of IT services. CSI aims to ensure that IT services align with business goals and meet customer expectations, making it the overarching stage for maintaining service quality.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

    • A.

      Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • B.

      Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

    • C.

      Improve the effectiveness of the mission.

    • D.

      Improve the efficiency of the mission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
    Explanation
    The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide tools and resources that allow users to effectively utilize and leverage information across the entire organization. By doing so, EIM can help improve decision-making, enhance operational efficiency, and drive innovation within the enterprise.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

    • A.

      Article 32.

    • B.

      Article 40.

    • C.

      Article 92.

    • D.

      Article 100.

    Correct Answer
    C. Article 92.
    Explanation
    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations, which includes the failure to comply with the rules and responsibilities outlined in AFMAN 33-153.

    Rate this question:

  • 50. 

    How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      Four.

    • C.

      Six.

    • D.

      Eight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Six.
    Explanation
    There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question is asking for the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.

    Rate this question:

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.