Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2
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What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
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Conduct climate training surveys.
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Develop Career Development Courses.
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Review the occupational analysis report.
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Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
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This Z3DX5X VOL 1 & 2 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty roles, responsibilities, and management. It covers RF transmission systems, cable systems, and career field management, crucial for personnel in military communications and operations.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
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Management Inspection (MI).
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Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
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Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
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Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
A. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).Explanation
The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection is designed to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit and evaluate its ability to meet mission requirements. It combines traditional compliance and readiness inspections with additional elements to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness. The UEI helps identify areas for improvement and ensures that units are operating at the highest level of effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
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Remedy.
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Training Business Area.
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Telephone Management System.
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Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer
A. Remedy.Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It helps in the procurement, tracking, and retirement of IT assets, ensuring efficient management and optimization of resources. Remedy is a widely used system in the IT industry for asset management and has features that support various stages of an asset's lifecycle, including procurement, deployment, maintenance, and retirement. Therefore, Remedy is the most suitable option among the given choices for managing the entire lifecycle of IT assets.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
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Title 10.
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Title 18.
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Title 32.
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Title 50.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authorities of the DOD and its branches, providing the legal basis for their existence and operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
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Title 3.
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Title 8.
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Title 10.
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Title 18.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the military, including the rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that outline the legal framework for the military justice system, including offenses and punishments. Therefore, it is logical that the UCMJ is derived from Title 10 of the USC, which pertains to the military.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
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Title 10.
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Title 30.
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Title 50.
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Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
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Misuse of position.
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Covered relationships.
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Non-public information.
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Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationships.Explanation
Covered relationships refers to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a personal connection between the parties involved that could potentially compromise the fairness and objectivity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid such situations to maintain a professional and ethical work environment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
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Misuse of position.
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Covered relationship.
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Personal conflict of interest.
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None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer
A. Covered relationship.Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is within their professional sphere, such as a colleague, client, or in this case, a household member or relative. This type of situation can create conflicts of interest, as personal relationships may influence professional decisions and compromise objectivity. Therefore, considering the given scenario, the correct answer is covered relationship.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
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Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
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Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
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Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
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Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.Explanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This suggests that these two commands were specifically tasked with carrying out operations and activities related to cyberspace within the Air Force. The realignment indicates a strategic decision to consolidate and enhance the Air Force's capabilities in the cyber domain, potentially improving coordination, efficiency, and effectiveness in addressing cyber threats and conducting cyber operations.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?
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Active and reactive.
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Evasive and decisive.
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Subversive and divisive.
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Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive.Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively defend against cyber threats and mitigate the impact of successful intrusions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
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Counterintelligence (CI).
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Operation Security (OPSEC).
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Military deception (MILDEC).
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Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
A. Military deception (MILDEC).Explanation
MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy and create a false perception or understanding of military operations. It involves the use of tactics, techniques, and procedures to manipulate information and deceive the adversary. Since MISO and PA both target a specific audience, MILDEC would be the activity that aligns with their shared goal of misleading the audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering and analyzing information.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
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644th Combat Communication Squadron.
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85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
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83th Network Operations Squadron.
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4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer
A. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere at any time, making them an essential unit for ensuring effective communication and command capabilities in combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
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Coding.
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Positioning.
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Tempo bands.
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Unit type code.
Correct Answer
A. Unit type code.Explanation
Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes are used to identify and categorize units, allowing for efficient planning and coordination of forces in joint operations.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
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A rewriting of the main point.
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A well-written summary.
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A postscript message.
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None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. A well-written summary.Explanation
A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to accurately condense the main points of the message in a clear and concise manner, demonstrating your comprehension of the content and your skills in effectively communicating the main purpose to others.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
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Published doctrines.
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Geographical base maps.
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Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
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Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer
A. Library reference or museum exhibitions.Explanation
Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not typically created or maintained by government agencies. Official government records are typically documents or records that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties and are considered to have legal or administrative value. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony could all potentially be official government records depending on the context in which they were created or used.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Records that are considered to be in draft format
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Can be altered and are not officially released.
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Can’t be altered, but are officially released.
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Can’t be altered and are officially signed.
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Officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer
A. Can be altered and are not officially released.Explanation
The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or edited and they are not yet officially released or made public.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?
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The President.
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The Chief of Staff.
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The Vice President.
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The Deputy Secretary.
Correct Answer
A. The Deputy Secretary.Explanation
The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. While the President is the overall commander-in-chief, the Deputy Secretary holds a high-ranking position within the department itself. The Chief of Staff is an important position but does not hold the second-highest rank. The Vice President, although a significant political figure, does not have a direct role in the Department of Defense hierarchy. Therefore, the correct answer is the Deputy Secretary.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?
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Air Force Instructions (AFI).
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Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD).
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Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD).
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Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM).Explanation
Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM) publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPM publications have a limited lifespan and may be replaced or updated by higher-level directives.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?
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Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
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Office Automation System (OAS).
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Decision Support System (DSS).
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Training Business Area (TBA).
Correct Answer
A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).Explanation
The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is the system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of creating, distributing, and updating technical orders, ensuring that the correct information is readily available to those who need it. This system helps to improve efficiency and accuracy in managing technical orders, making it an essential tool in the field of technical information management.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
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Commerce.
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The Treasury.
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Defense.
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Labor.
Correct Answer
A. Labor.Explanation
The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that operates under the United States Department of Labor. Its main responsibility is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing workplace safety standards, providing training and education, and conducting inspections and investigations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
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Isolating operations.
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Providing administrative controls.
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Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
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Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
A. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only provides limited protection and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used when other control methods are not feasible or effective in eliminating or reducing the hazards.Rate this question:
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- 22.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
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1 to 2.
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2 to 2.5.
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2 to 4.5.
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2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
A. 2 to 2.5.Explanation
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers than for those in non-office jobs.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
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Evacuate personnel from the building.
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Extinguish the fire if possible.
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Call the fire department.
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Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
A. Sound the fire alarm.Explanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you are initiating the emergency response protocol and ensuring that everyone is aware of the danger. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step after sounding the alarm, followed by calling the fire department for professional assistance and attempting to extinguish the fire if possible.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
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Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
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Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
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Using a ladder as a scaffold.
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Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.Explanation
The use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and therefore does not pose a risk of electric shock. However, using a metal ladder or any conductive material near electrical circuits can be dangerous and is generally prohibited to prevent accidents.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
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Office of Administration.
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Office of Communications.
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Office of Public Engagement.
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Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer
A. Office of Management and Budget.Explanation
The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
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Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
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Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
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Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
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Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.Explanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and approvals. The drawing record contains the technical drawings and diagrams of the system installation. The maintenance record keeps track of all maintenance activities and repairs performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process, from administrative details to technical specifications and maintenance history.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
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There are no negative effects.
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A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
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Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
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When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point for communication. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the interconnected star networks will lose connectivity and communication between different parts of the network will be disrupted. Therefore, the negative effect that could occur when star networks are interconnected is the isolation of large portions of the network when the central node point fails.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
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Version Identification.
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Header Checksum.
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Time to Live.
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Flags.
Correct Answer
A. Header Checksum.Explanation
The correct answer is Header Checksum. The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical checksum calculated over the IP header fields and is used to verify the integrity of the header. If the calculated checksum does not match the value in the header, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the reliability and integrity of the IP packet.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
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0–1023.
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1024–49151.
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49152–65535.
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65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023.Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are commonly used by widely recognized applications and are standardized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). The other ranges mentioned (1024-49151, 49152-65535, and 65536-87000) are used for dynamic or private ports, which are typically assigned by the operating system or applications for temporary use.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is a peripheral device?
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A main internal component of a computer.
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Not a main internal component of a computer.
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A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
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Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
Correct Answer
A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.Explanation
A peripheral device is not considered a main component of a computer because it is not essential for the basic functioning of the computer. It can be either internal or external, depending on the specific device. Peripheral devices are used to input or output data from a computer and include devices such as keyboards, mice, printers, and scanners. They provide additional functionality and convenience to the user, but they are not required for the computer to operate.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?
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Local area network (LAN).
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Wide area network (WAN).
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Virtual private network (VPN).
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Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Local area network (LAN).Explanation
A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected through a common communications line and share resources such as a single processor or server. LANs are typically used within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or school. This type of network allows for easy sharing of files, printers, and other resources among the connected devices.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
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Local area network (LAN).
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Wide area network (WAN).
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Virtual private network (VPN).
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Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Virtual private network (VPN).Explanation
A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This is achieved by encrypting the data and routing it through a remote server, creating a secure and private connection. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to protect their sensitive data and maintain privacy while accessing the Internet.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?
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Word.
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Access.
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Outlook.
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PowerPoint.
Correct Answer
A. Access.Explanation
Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It is a software program specifically designed for managing and organizing large amounts of data. With Access, users can create tables, forms, queries, and reports to store and manipulate data efficiently. It provides a user-friendly interface and various tools for data entry, data analysis, and data reporting. Access is commonly used for creating and managing databases for businesses, organizations, and personal use.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
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Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).
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Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).
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Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.
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Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.
Correct Answer
A. Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).Explanation
The network that supports unclassified e-mail service to the user is the Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network is specifically designed for transmitting unclassified information and is accessible to authorized users who require access to unclassified resources. It ensures that sensitive but unclassified information can be securely transmitted and accessed by users without compromising classified data.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems
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Cable and Antenna Systems.
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This specialty focuses on the transmission of radio frequency signals and ensuring their proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
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Spectrum Operations.
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Ground Radar Systems.
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Cable and Antenna Systems.
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Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
A. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations is Cable and Antenna Systems. This AFS specifically focuses on the installation, maintenance, and repair of cable and antenna systems, ensuring that the network wiring is functioning properly for effective communication and connectivity.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
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Core task.
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Duty competency.
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Core competency.
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Duty position task.
Correct Answer
A. Duty position task.Explanation
According to AFI 36-2201, the supervisor assigns the duty position task as part of the Air Force Training Program. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks related to the individual's duty position, ensuring that they are trained and competent in their assigned responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
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Unit training manager (UTM).
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Base functional manager (BFM).
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Major command functional manager (MFM).
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Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development and advancement. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and can provide valuable insights and recommendations to individuals seeking guidance in their career.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
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Trend analysis.
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Quality System.
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Quality Assessments.
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Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis.Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and anomalies in the data, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements in their quality assurance processes. It plays a crucial role in monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of QA activities and identifying areas for improvement. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments are not specifically focused on data analysis and recording like trend analysis.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
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Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
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Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
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Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
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Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.Explanation
The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the network and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate these risks.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
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Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
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Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
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National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
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Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The DISA is an agency within the U.S. Department of Defense that provides information technology and communication support to the military and other government organizations. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and functionality of the GIG, which is the interconnected network of information systems used by the military. The other options, Defense Industrial Base (DIB), Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA), and National Reconnaissance Office (NRO), are not specifically responsible for GIG infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
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Manpower.
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Efficiency.
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Reduce costs.
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Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
Correct Answer
A. Efficiency.Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, it allows for better coordination and communication, leading to streamlined processes and faster response times. This ultimately enhances the overall efficiency of the network operations and support services.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?
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JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.
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JP 5–0, Joint Communications System.
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JP 5–0, Joint Operation Planning.
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JP 6–0, Joint Operations Series.
Correct Answer
A. JP 6–0, Joint Communications System.Explanation
JP 6-0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is identified as the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This publication provides the overarching guidance and principles for joint communications, serving as the foundation for all other related publications. It outlines the roles, responsibilities, and procedures for planning, implementing, and managing joint communications systems in military operations.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
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Defense Standardization Program (DSP).
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Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
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Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
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Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
A. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).Explanation
The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. The other options, Defense Standardization Program (DSP), Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA), and Information and Communications Technology (ICT), are not specifically responsible for developing standards for these types of components.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
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Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
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Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
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Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
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Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This includes preventing damage, loss, injury, and even death. The program aims to implement measures and practices that can mitigate risks and ensure the safety of individuals and the preservation of resources. By focusing on preventing accidents and mishaps, the program aims to create a safe environment and minimize any potential negative consequences.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which action is a physiological factor?
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Performing a task while fatigued.
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Performing a task while intoxicated.
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Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
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Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders. -
- 47.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
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Falls.
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Poor lighting.
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Horseplay.
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Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over loose wires or objects, or falling from a height such as a chair or ladder. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor bruises to more severe fractures or head injuries. It is important to maintain a safe and clutter-free work environment, ensure proper lighting, and provide training on proper ergonomics to prevent falls in the office.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How are fires classified?
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Fuel type.
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Heat source.
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Temperature.
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Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type.Explanation
Fires are classified based on fuel type because different types of fuel produce different types of fires. The classification helps in understanding the behavior and characteristics of the fire, which in turn aids in determining the appropriate firefighting techniques and strategies. By categorizing fires based on fuel type, firefighters can effectively combat the fire and minimize its spread and damage.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
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Evacuate personnel from the building.
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Extinguish the fire if possible.
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Call the fire department.
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Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
A. Extinguish the fire if possible.Explanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step is crucial in order to prevent the fire from spreading further and causing more damage. It involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and ultimately put out the fire. However, it is important to prioritize safety and evacuate personnel from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 19, 2017Quiz Created by
Joshua Stidham
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