Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2

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| By Joshua Stidham
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Joshua Stidham
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1. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy and create a false perception or understanding of military operations. It involves the use of tactics, techniques, and procedures to manipulate information and deceive the adversary. Since MISO and PA both target a specific audience, MILDEC would be the activity that aligns with their shared goal of misleading the audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering and analyzing information.

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About This Quiz
Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2 - Quiz

This Z3DX5X VOL 1 & 2 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force Specialty roles, responsibilities, and management. It covers RF transmission systems, cable systems, and career field management,... see morecrucial for personnel in military communications and operations. see less

2. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that operates under the United States Department of Labor. Its main responsibility is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing workplace safety standards, providing training and education, and conducting inspections and investigations.

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3. What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are commonly used by widely recognized applications and are standardized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). The other ranges mentioned (1024-49151, 49152-65535, and 65536-87000) are used for dynamic or private ports, which are typically assigned by the operating system or applications for temporary use.

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4. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan is crucial for ensuring that individuals in a specific career field receive the necessary education and training to excel in their roles. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop aims to provide a structured framework for career development and advancement within the field. Conducting climate training surveys, developing career development courses, and reviewing the occupational analysis report may be important tasks within the workshop, but they are not the main goal.

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5. What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is not considered a main component of a computer because it is not essential for the basic functioning of the computer. It can be either internal or external, depending on the specific device. Peripheral devices are used to input or output data from a computer and include devices such as keyboards, mice, printers, and scanners. They provide additional functionality and convenience to the user, but they are not required for the computer to operate.

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6. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection is designed to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit and evaluate its ability to meet mission requirements. It combines traditional compliance and readiness inspections with additional elements to provide a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and effectiveness. The UEI helps identify areas for improvement and ensures that units are operating at the highest level of effectiveness.

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7. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets. It helps in the procurement, tracking, and retirement of IT assets, ensuring efficient management and optimization of resources. Remedy is a widely used system in the IT industry for asset management and has features that support various stages of an asset's lifecycle, including procurement, deployment, maintenance, and retirement. Therefore, Remedy is the most suitable option among the given choices for managing the entire lifecycle of IT assets.

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8. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The network that supports unclassified e-mail service to the user is the Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network is specifically designed for transmitting unclassified information and is accessible to authorized users who require access to unclassified resources. It ensures that sensitive but unclassified information can be securely transmitted and accessed by users without compromising classified data.

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9. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and authorities of the DOD and its branches, providing the legal basis for their existence and operations.

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10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Explanation

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the military, including the rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ is a set of laws that outline the legal framework for the military justice system, including offenses and punishments. Therefore, it is logical that the UCMJ is derived from Title 10 of the USC, which pertains to the military.

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11. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to perform these tasks anywhere at any time, making them an essential unit for ensuring effective communication and command capabilities in combat situations.

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12. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Explanation

Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.

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13. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Explanation

Covered relationships refers to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This means that there is a personal connection between the parties involved that could potentially compromise the fairness and objectivity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid such situations to maintain a professional and ethical work environment.

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14. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Explanation

A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is within their professional sphere, such as a colleague, client, or in this case, a household member or relative. This type of situation can create conflicts of interest, as personal relationships may influence professional decisions and compromise objectivity. Therefore, considering the given scenario, the correct answer is covered relationship.

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15. Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This is achieved by encrypting the data and routing it through a remote server, creating a secure and private connection. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to protect their sensitive data and maintain privacy while accessing the Internet.

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16. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only provides limited protection and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE is the last line of defense and should only be used when other control methods are not feasible or effective in eliminating or reducing the hazards.

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17. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a network of computers and devices that are connected through a common communications line and share resources such as a single processor or server. LANs are typically used within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or school. This type of network allows for easy sharing of files, printers, and other resources among the connected devices.

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18. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to accurately condense the main points of the message in a clear and concise manner, demonstrating your comprehension of the content and your skills in effectively communicating the main purpose to others.

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19. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not typically created or maintained by government agencies. Official government records are typically documents or records that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties and are considered to have legal or administrative value. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony could all potentially be official government records depending on the context in which they were created or used.

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20. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

The correct answer is "can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or edited and they are not yet officially released or made public.

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21. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense. While the President is the overall commander-in-chief, the Deputy Secretary holds a high-ranking position within the department itself. The Chief of Staff is an important position but does not hold the second-highest rank. The Vice President, although a significant political figure, does not have a direct role in the Department of Defense hierarchy. Therefore, the correct answer is the Deputy Secretary.

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22. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, you are initiating the emergency response protocol and ensuring that everyone is aware of the danger. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step after sounding the alarm, followed by calling the fire department for professional assistance and attempting to extinguish the fire if possible.

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23. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers than for those in non-office jobs.

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24. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

The use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and therefore does not pose a risk of electric shock. However, using a metal ladder or any conductive material near electrical circuits can be dangerous and is generally prohibited to prevent accidents.

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25. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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26. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM) publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPM publications have a limited lifespan and may be replaced or updated by higher-level directives.

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27. What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Explanation

The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary documentation related to the installation, such as contracts, permits, and approvals. The drawing record contains the technical drawings and diagrams of the system installation. The maintenance record keeps track of all maintenance activities and repairs performed on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process, from administrative details to technical specifications and maintenance history.

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28. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point for communication. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated. This means that the interconnected star networks will lose connectivity and communication between different parts of the network will be disrupted. Therefore, the negative effect that could occur when star networks are interconnected is the isolation of large portions of the network when the central node point fails.

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29. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes are used to identify and categorize units, allowing for efficient planning and coordination of forces in joint operations.

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30. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This suggests that these two commands were specifically tasked with carrying out operations and activities related to cyberspace within the Air Force. The realignment indicates a strategic decision to consolidate and enhance the Air Force's capabilities in the cyber domain, potentially improving coordination, efficiency, and effectiveness in addressing cyber threats and conducting cyber operations.

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31. What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Explanation

The correct answer is Header Checksum. The header checksum is a field in the IP datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is a mathematical checksum calculated over the IP header fields and is used to verify the integrity of the header. If the calculated checksum does not match the value in the header, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the reliability and integrity of the IP packet.

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32. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). ETIMS is the system that manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders. It is designed to streamline and automate the process of creating, distributing, and updating technical orders, ensuring that the correct information is readily available to those who need it. This system helps to improve efficiency and accuracy in managing technical orders, making it an essential tool in the field of technical information management.

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33. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively defend against cyber threats and mitigate the impact of successful intrusions.

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34. What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It is a software program specifically designed for managing and organizing large amounts of data. With Access, users can create tables, forms, queries, and reports to store and manipulate data efficiently. It provides a user-friendly interface and various tools for data entry, data analysis, and data reporting. Access is commonly used for creating and managing databases for businesses, organizations, and personal use.

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35. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission-critical information via its communications and information systems. Unlike malware, denial of service attacks, and inadvertent employee activity, hostile information operations involve deliberate and targeted actions aimed at compromising an organization's information systems. These operations can include activities such as hacking, espionage, or spreading disinformation, all of which can have severe consequences for an organization's ability to protect its critical information and carry out its mission effectively.

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36. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Explanation

The given question is asking for a computer system vulnerability that is not one in a computer system. The correct answer is "Attacker's lack of ability." This means that the vulnerability is not caused by the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw in the system. Instead, vulnerabilities usually arise from the attacker's capability to exploit a flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, or the attacker's access to the flaw.

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37. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This includes preventing damage, loss, injury, and even death. The program aims to implement measures and practices that can mitigate risks and ensure the safety of individuals and the preservation of resources. By focusing on preventing accidents and mishaps, the program aims to create a safe environment and minimize any potential negative consequences.

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38. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on the processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and anomalies in the data, allowing organizations to make informed decisions and improvements in their quality assurance processes. It plays a crucial role in monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of QA activities and identifying areas for improvement. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments are not specifically focused on data analysis and recording like trend analysis.

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39. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The DISA is an agency within the U.S. Department of Defense that provides information technology and communication support to the military and other government organizations. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and functionality of the GIG, which is the interconnected network of information systems used by the military. The other options, Defense Industrial Base (DIB), Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA), and National Reconnaissance Office (NRO), are not specifically responsible for GIG infrastructure.

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40. Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

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41. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. It uses light and sensors to capture the information from the source and then converts it into a digital format that can be viewed or edited on a computer. This makes it a useful tool for digitizing physical documents or images and storing them electronically.

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42. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best described method of hiding a message in a special code in wireless local area network (WLAN) security. Encryption transforms the original message into an unreadable format using an algorithm and a key, making it difficult for unauthorized users to understand the message. It provides confidentiality and ensures that only authorized parties can access and decipher the message.

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43. What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Portal. The Air Force Portal is a major program that provides a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It is an online platform that offers various resources, such as news, career information, training materials, and access to other Air Force systems and applications. It serves as a centralized hub for Air Force personnel to access important information and tools necessary for their duties and responsibilities.

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44. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This specialty focuses on the transmission of radio frequency signals and ensuring their proper functioning.

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45. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, it allows for better coordination and communication, leading to streamlined processes and faster response times. This ultimately enhances the overall efficiency of the network operations and support services.

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46. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Explanation

The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations is Cable and Antenna Systems. This AFS specifically focuses on the installation, maintenance, and repair of cable and antenna systems, ensuring that the network wiring is functioning properly for effective communication and connectivity.

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47. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

According to AFI 36-2201, the supervisor assigns the duty position task as part of the Air Force Training Program. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks related to the individual's duty position, ensuring that they are trained and competent in their assigned responsibilities.

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48. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks. It acts as an entry point or exit point for data packets to travel between a remote network and a host network. It enables communication and data transfer between these networks by converting protocols, addressing, and routing information. A switch, on the other hand, is a network device that connects multiple devices within a local network. A modem is used to connect a network to the internet, and a converter is used to convert signals from one form to another. Therefore, a gateway is the correct network device that provides connectivity between a remote network and a host network.

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49. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects multiple local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) over long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the sharing of resources and information between different LANs and MANs located in different geographical locations.

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50. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

The greatest hazard in a typical office is falls. This can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, tripping over loose wires or objects, or falling from a height such as a chair or ladder. Falls can result in injuries ranging from minor bruises to more severe fractures or head injuries. It is important to maintain a safe and clutter-free work environment, ensure proper lighting, and provide training on proper ergonomics to prevent falls in the office.

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51. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development and advancement. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and can provide valuable insights and recommendations to individuals seeking guidance in their career.

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52. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission over the physical layer, and the LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control and error control between two connected devices.

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53. What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step is crucial in order to prevent the fire from spreading further and causing more damage. It involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and ultimately put out the fire. However, it is important to prioritize safety and evacuate personnel from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire.

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54. How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on fuel type because different types of fuel produce different types of fires. The classification helps in understanding the behavior and characteristics of the fire, which in turn aids in determining the appropriate firefighting techniques and strategies. By categorizing fires based on fuel type, firefighters can effectively combat the fire and minimize its spread and damage.

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55. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System is the correct answer because it is identified as the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. This publication provides the overarching guidance and principles for joint communications, serving as the foundation for all other related publications. It outlines the roles, responsibilities, and procedures for planning, implementing, and managing joint communications systems in military operations.

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56. What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

Explanation

Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the regulations and guidelines set by the federal government. These requirements ensure that the Air Force architectures align with the overall national defense strategy and objectives. State level, Congressional level, and Department of Defense level may have their own specific requirements, but in the context of this question, the correct answer is federal level.

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57. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easier management and troubleshooting of the network, as any changes or issues can be addressed at the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies, making it a popular choice for many networks.

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58. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA is tasked with providing secure and reliable communications and IT services to support the military's mission. They oversee the operation and maintenance of the DOD's information infrastructure and play a critical role in ensuring effective and secure communication capabilities for the DOD.

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59. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in cyberspace and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the network and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate these risks.

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60. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for interconnect, passive, and electro-mechanical electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. The other options, Defense Standardization Program (DSP), Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA), and Information and Communications Technology (ICT), are not specifically responsible for developing standards for these types of components.

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61. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Explanation

The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the well-being of personnel and the proper implementation of safety protocols. The Air Staff, Civil Engineering, and Squadron commander may have their own roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, but the installation safety office is specifically tasked with advising on safety matters.

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62. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the stage in the ITIL framework that focuses on maintaining and improving service quality. This stage involves constantly evaluating and identifying areas for improvement in order to enhance the overall efficiency and effectiveness of IT services. CSI aims to ensure that IT services align with business goals and meet customer expectations, making it the overarching stage for maintaining service quality.

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63. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Explanation

The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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64. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and tasks within an organization. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC) which provides training and development opportunities for individuals in those job roles. Therefore, developing a CDC is another use for occupational surveys as it helps in creating targeted training programs to enhance the skills and knowledge of employees in specific occupations.

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65. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is a type of computer software that is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is often installed on a user's computer without their knowledge or permission and can track their online activities, gather sensitive data such as passwords and credit card information, and send this information to third parties. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, and trojans, which disguise themselves as legitimate software, spyware specifically focuses on gathering personal information covertly. Therefore, spyware is the correct answer to the question.

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66. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Explanation

The correct answer is On-the-Job Training (OJT) program. This program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. OJT allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in a real-world setting under the guidance of experienced professionals. It is a practical and hands-on approach to training that helps individuals gain the necessary expertise to excel in their specific job roles.

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67. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

Explanation

Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, as this could potentially compromise the security of the materials. However, cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination, as it does not pose a direct threat to the security of the classified materials.

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68. Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form specifically designed to record the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form ensures that proper documentation is maintained and the destruction process is properly recorded and authorized. The other forms mentioned, AF Form 88, AF Form 144, and AF Form 1776, do not serve this specific purpose and are used for different types of documentation or processes within the Air Force.

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69. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. This network is specifically designed for sensitive and classified communications within the Department of Defense. It ensures that information is transmitted securely and reliably, making it the ideal choice for C2 and crisis management operations.

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70. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It enables the connection between different types of network media, allowing for seamless communication between devices using different types of cabling. A modem is used to connect to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. Therefore, the correct answer is media converter.

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71. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

Explanation

In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that instead of having separate ticketing systems for different locations, they consolidated everything into one system, making it more efficient and streamlined.

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72. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hard hats have two impact classifications: Type I and Type II. Type I hard hats are designed to protect against impacts to the top of the head, while Type II hard hats provide additional protection against impacts to the sides and top of the head. Therefore, the correct answer is two.

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73. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to an electrical current of 50 milliamps or higher, it can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to a potentially fatal condition. It is important to note that even lower currents can still cause serious harm or injury, so caution should always be exercised around electricity.

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74. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Explanation

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating the air force forces within a joint force, working closely with other military branches. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, responsible for integrating and coordinating all military capabilities to achieve the mission. Therefore, the COMAFFOR's role is to support and execute the JFC's objectives in an air and space component.

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75. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-directive publications in the Air Force are informational and suggest guidance that can be modified to fit the circumstances. These publications provide general information and offer suggestions without imposing specific requirements or directives. They allow for flexibility and adaptation based on individual situations and needs.

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76. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Explanation

A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of data between the sender and receiver. It allows the sender to transmit a certain amount of data without waiting for an acknowledgement from the receiver. Once the receiver acknowledges the data, the window slides forward, allowing the sender to transmit more data. This helps in optimizing the network performance by ensuring that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too much data, and also allows for efficient error recovery and congestion control.

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77. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures." This is because the question asks for the option that does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The other three options (resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs) all describe information that would be outlined in TO 00-5-1. TCTO procedures, on the other hand, would not be specifically outlined in TO 00-5-1, as they are a separate set of procedures for addressing urgent safety issues.

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78. What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It allows users to manage their emails, calendars, contacts, tasks, and notes in one place. With features like email organization, scheduling meetings, and setting reminders, Outlook helps individuals stay organized and efficient in managing their personal information. Word, Access, and PowerPoint are other Microsoft applications, but they do not have the same personal information management capabilities as Outlook.

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79. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Explanation

The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode is five GB/S. This means that data can be transferred at a rate of five gigabytes per second. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed is an enhanced version of USB technology that allows for faster data transfer compared to previous versions.

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80. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it can result in a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information intended for a higher level of security has been mistakenly or intentionally shared with a lower level system, potentially compromising the confidentiality and integrity of the data. This incident can lead to unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse of classified information.

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81. Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This role is responsible for ensuring the security of classified information and making decisions regarding its handling and transportation. The Classified Information Program Manager, Information Assurance Officer, and Supervisor may have related responsibilities, but the Security Manager specifically holds the authority in this scenario.

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82. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area network (WLAN) uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing collisions. It works by having devices listen to the medium before transmitting to check if it is clear. If the medium is busy, the device waits for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again, thus reducing the chances of collisions and improving overall network efficiency.

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83. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction for the Department of Defense's strategic planning process, including the development of plans and policies related to securing cyberspace. It outlines the overall strategic goals and objectives for the Department of Defense's cyber operations and provides a framework for coordinating and integrating efforts across the military.

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84. Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Explanation

The network that provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet is the Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

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85. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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86. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation evaluates the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance of the personnel involved, and Managerial Evaluation evaluates the managerial aspects of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program.

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87. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet classes A, B, D, and E are designed to provide varying levels of protection against electrical hazards, while class C helmets do not provide any protection against electrical conductors.

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88. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to minimize potential negative impacts. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in effectively managing risks. Instead, risk management should be integrated into operations and planning at all levels, risks should be accepted only when necessary, and risk decisions should be made at the appropriate level.

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89. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This is because Class C fuels are those that are electrically conductive. The introduction of an electric current causes the fuels to become conductive and therefore they are reclassified as Class C.

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90. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, the other characteristics mentioned - electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security - are all advantages of fiber optic cables. They are immune to electromagnetic interference, have low signal loss over long distances, and provide a higher level of security compared to other cables.

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91. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, which includes the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions or waivers based on their expertise and knowledge of the specific career field. The AFCFM's role is to ensure that the training requirements align with the needs and goals of the Air Force career field, making them the appropriate authority to make such decisions.

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92. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing technical order requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that technical orders are properly managed, organized, and distributed to the appropriate personnel. This office plays a crucial role in ensuring that all technical orders are accessible to those who need them, facilitating efficient communication and adherence to organizational procedures and guidelines.

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93. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are used to identify the highest level of classification in classified documents. They typically appear at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the document's classification level, special handling instructions, and the agency or organization that originated the document. These markings are essential in ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to sensitive information and that it is properly protected.

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94. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the correct person to seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because the Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information systems. They are knowledgeable about security protocols and procedures, including the proper handling and transportation of classified information. Seeking their guidance would ensure that the transportation of Top Secret information is done securely and in compliance with regulations.

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95. What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in that year, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE technology, which allows for data transfer rates of 1 gigabit per second over Ethernet networks.

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96. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 is the correct answer because it establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems must receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access, and they must also complete annual IA refresher awareness. This directive outlines the requirements for IA training, certification, and workforce management within the DOD, ensuring that all personnel have the necessary knowledge and skills to protect DOD information systems and networks.

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97. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single communication line, resembling a linear structure. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology.

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98. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and arrangement of the systems, as well as any necessary technical specifications. It is an important part of the CSIR as it allows for easy reference and understanding of the physical layout of the installed systems.

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99. What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions related to network communication. These functions include network connectivity, data routing, addressing, and data transfer between devices. The Network layer specifically deals with the logical addressing and routing of data packets across different networks. It ensures that data is properly delivered from the source to the destination by selecting the most efficient path and managing network congestion.

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100. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address that is used by a process to request network services. It is passed as an argument between layers in the networking stack. This allows the process to establish a connection and communicate with another process on a different machine over the network. The port number helps identify the specific application or process on each machine, while the IP address identifies the machine itself. By using a TCP socket, the process can request and utilize network services efficiently.

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101. What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet represents 8 bits or one byte. The maximum value that can be represented by 8 bits is 255. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.

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102. What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The Global HF system is the system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network that provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war. This system is designed to ensure effective communication in various scenarios and is specifically tailored to meet the needs of the United States government.

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103. How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be completed. This assessment involves evaluating the potential risks and vulnerabilities of the system or network. By analyzing the likelihood and impact of potential threats, the assessment can identify the level of security measures needed. This process helps in determining whether an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks. The General Service Administration (GSA), Office of Special Investigation (OSI), and Wing information office may have roles in the overall security management, but the decision regarding the need for an intrusion detection system is based on the risk assessment.

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104. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Explanation

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to enable users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide tools and resources that allow users to effectively utilize and leverage information across the entire organization. By doing so, EIM can help improve decision-making, enhance operational efficiency, and drive innovation within the enterprise.

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105. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and safety of individuals. This includes identifying potential hazards, conducting risk assessments, and recommending control measures such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment. They work closely with other departments and supervisors to ensure that the recommended controls are implemented effectively.

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106. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides a framework for protecting the nation's critical infrastructure, promoting cyber education and awareness, and fostering international cooperation in cybersecurity efforts. The document emphasizes the importance of collaboration between government, private sector, and individual citizens to effectively address the evolving cyber threats.

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107. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it without accessing the slower main memory. This helps to improve the overall performance of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, resulting in faster execution of tasks.

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108. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Explanation

Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and control of the JTF, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational tasks within the JTF. This division allows for effective command and control structures, ensuring efficient execution of tasks and missions.

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109. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending a message to a group of hosts simultaneously. In IPv4, multicast addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. Class D addresses start with the binary pattern 1110, which corresponds to the first 4 bits of the address. This class is specifically designated for multicast communication and is not used for regular unicast or broadcast communication.

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110. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Quality Assurance. Quality Assurance refers to the overall process and activities that ensure that the desired quality of a product or service is achieved. It includes quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. On the other hand, Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are essential elements in a Quality Assurance program. Quality Assessments involve evaluating and measuring the performance of the product or service against established standards. Quality System refers to the framework of policies, processes, and procedures that ensure quality in an organization. Trend Analysis involves analyzing data over time to identify patterns and make informed decisions for quality improvement.

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111. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering directives are a type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) that establish the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of the Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies. These directives provide a framework for the operations and decision-making processes within the OSD and other agencies, outlining their specific roles and responsibilities. They are essential in ensuring clarity and alignment in the functioning of the OSD and its component heads.

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112. What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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113. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups.

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114. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps involve identifying and assessing risks, developing strategies to mitigate them, implementing those strategies, monitoring the effectiveness of the risk management plan, and making necessary adjustments. Each step is crucial in ensuring that potential risks are identified and managed effectively, minimizing their impact on the organization.

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115. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Explanation

The word "topology" typically refers to the arrangement of nodes and connections in a network. When used alone, it commonly refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of the network, including the placement of devices and the way they are connected. This is different from the logical topology, which refers to the way data flows in the network, and the physical medium, which refers to the actual cables or wireless signals used for communication.

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116. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Handbook (AFH). AF Handbooks are a type of non-directive Air Force publication that is not subject to frequent change. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Handbook, AF Pamphlet, and AF Visual Aid, AF Handbooks are designed to provide more detailed guidance and information on specific topics. They are typically updated less frequently, allowing for more stability and consistency in their content.

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117. How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

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118. What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Explanation

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. The NMCC serves as the focal point for the operational and strategic command and control of the U.S. military forces. It provides real-time situational awareness, coordination, and decision-making capabilities to the highest levels of military leadership, ensuring effective communication and command during times of crisis or conflict.

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119. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data. This means that as long as a user has the necessary training and authorization, they have the ability to make updates to the technical order. This allows for flexibility and efficiency in keeping the technical order up to date and accurate.

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120. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Explanation

The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This role is responsible for representing the interests and needs of the MAJCOM in discussions and decisions related to utilization and training within the career field. They contribute to the development of training plans and ensure that the MAJCOM's requirements are met. The MFM plays a crucial role in shaping the training and utilization strategies within the career field.

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121. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The UNIX kernel is the core component of the operating system that interacts directly with the hardware. It is responsible for managing resources, such as memory and processors, and providing essential services to user programs. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, allowing them to access and utilize the hardware resources efficiently. The shell, user programs, and dynamic-link libraries are all built on top of the kernel and interact with it to perform various tasks, but they do not have the same level of direct interaction with the hardware.

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122. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves analyzing the task to identify potential hazards and develop appropriate safety measures to mitigate those hazards. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can ensure that employees are aware of the risks associated with the task and are equipped with the necessary safety precautions to perform the task safely.

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123. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Explanation

The aerial layer is the correct answer because it refers to the use of manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages, which allows for continuous communications coverage over large geographic areas. This can include the use of drones, aircraft, or other airborne platforms to provide additional communications capacity. SATCOM, on the other hand, specifically refers to satellite communication and does not involve the use of manned or unmanned systems.

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124. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question is asking for the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.

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125. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a structured and rotational manner, ensuring that the Air Force is able to provide the necessary capabilities and support to combatant commanders on a continuous basis. The AEF system allows for efficient planning, training, and deployment of forces, ensuring readiness and effectiveness in fulfilling mission requirements.

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126. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including any repairs, replacements, or upgrades. It helps to track the history of maintenance and ensures that the systems are properly maintained and functioning optimally.

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127. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). This means that the AFCFM, who oversees the career field, works together with the TPM to determine and coordinate the scheduling of the STRT. This ensures that the necessary training requirements are met and that the team is scheduled effectively.

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128. Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). GCCS is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. This system is responsible for collecting, processing, and disseminating information to support military operations and decision-making at all levels of command. It provides real-time situational awareness, facilitates communication and coordination among different military units, and enables effective command and control of forces in various operational environments. GCCS plays a crucial role in ensuring the DOD's ability to achieve full spectrum dominance by integrating and synchronizing military operations across multiple domains.

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129. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is the policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It focuses on developing strategies and measures to protect the nation's cyberspace from potential threats and attacks. This policy recognizes the importance of securing critical infrastructure and aims to enhance the resilience of the nation's cyber defenses.

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130. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on a SharePoint Server. These capabilities include the out-of-the-box workflows, which are pre-built and ready to use, the SharePoint Designer workflows, which allow for more customization and flexibility, and the Microsoft Power Automate workflows, which provide advanced automation and integration options.

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131. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior gateway protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems and exchanging routing information between them. EGP enables the exchange of routing information between autonomous systems, allowing them to communicate and route traffic across the interconnected networks. This protocol is commonly used in large-scale networks where multiple autonomous systems need to be interconnected.

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132. Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection as it ensures that the information is fully encoded from the source to the destination, without any intermediaries being able to access or decipher the data. This type of encryption guarantees that only the intended users' end terminals can decrypt and access the information, making it highly secure and resistant to eavesdropping or unauthorized access throughout the network.

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133. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because the Class C address range is from 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, with the first three octets reserved for the network address and the last octet used for host addresses. Since the last octet can have 256 possible values (0-255), but the first and last addresses in each network are reserved for network address and broadcast address respectively, we are left with 254 usable host addresses.

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134. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO)". This type of technical order has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices.

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135. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

The correct answer is Service Contact. The ITIL Service Life Cycle stages consist of Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not one of the stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle.

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136. Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are categorized into eight different categories. These categories help in identifying and understanding the various types of vulnerabilities that exist in computer systems. By classifying vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to prioritize and address them effectively. These categories include software vulnerabilities, hardware vulnerabilities, network vulnerabilities, physical vulnerabilities, personnel vulnerabilities, policy vulnerabilities, configuration vulnerabilities, and design vulnerabilities. Each category represents a different aspect of computer security that needs to be protected and secured.

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137. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment and conditions in which humans operate. Physiological factors involve the study of human capabilities and limitations, including cognitive processes, perception, and motor skills. Organizational factors consider the impact of work design, communication, and management on human performance. These three sub-categories collectively contribute to understanding and improving human performance in various settings.

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138. Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

The correct answer is GSORTS because it is the system within the GCCS-AF that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It provides decision makers with an accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion, ensuring that they have the necessary information to make informed decisions.

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139. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations, which includes the failure to comply with the rules and responsibilities outlined in AFMAN 33-153.

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140. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage. This means that the APC is responsible for handling and managing these services for businesses within a specific region. It is likely that the APC has the necessary infrastructure, resources, and expertise to ensure efficient and secure delivery of these services to meet the needs of the enterprise users.

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141. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the correct answer because it serves as the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, ensuring that only authorized users have access and protecting against cyber threats. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the Air Force's network infrastructure.

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142. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

Explanation

The two categories of the seven layers in the OSI reference model are the lower layers (also known as the data transport layers) and the upper layers (also known as the application layers). The lower layers include the Physical, Data Link, and Network layers, which handle the transmission and routing of data. The upper layers include the Session, Presentation, and Application layers, which focus on the interaction between the user and the network, data formatting, and application-specific protocols. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Transport and Application.

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143. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This means that it is responsible for establishing and maintaining a reliable connection between two devices that are directly connected by a single physical link. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is properly encapsulated and transmitted over the link, handles flow control to prevent data loss or congestion, and provides error detection and correction mechanisms. It also handles addressing and synchronization between the devices.

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144. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). This system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope. The BCS-F is designed to provide comprehensive situational awareness and command and control capabilities for air defense operations. It helps in tracking and correlating radar data to identify and monitor airborne threats effectively.

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145. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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146. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

Explanation

The correct answer is the National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations. This policy outlines the US Armed Forces' strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to maintain superiority in the cyber domain. It provides a comprehensive plan for how the military will utilize cyberspace capabilities to protect national security interests and ensure military readiness. The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations focuses specifically on the military's role in cyberspace and how it can effectively leverage this domain to achieve its objectives.

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147. How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

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148. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of the Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within their office. They have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who are suitable for the role of record custodian and can delegate this responsibility accordingly. The Chief of the Office of Records ensures that record custodians are appointed based on their qualifications and ability to handle and protect sensitive information in accordance with organizational policies and procedures.

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149. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is given to liquids that have a flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Class B flammable liquids include gasoline, alcohol, and oil-based paints. They can easily catch fire and ignite, making them highly dangerous if not handled properly. Class B fire extinguishers are specifically designed to combat fires caused by flammable liquids.

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150. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD). AFMD is a directive publication that outlines the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs (Major Commands), FOAs (Field Operating Agencies), and DRUs (Direct Reporting Units) with their respective units. This publication provides guidance and instructions for these entities to carry out their assigned tasks and responsibilities within the Air Force.

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151. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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152. What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is their volatility. ROM is non-volatile, meaning that its contents are retained even when power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that its contents are lost when power is removed. This fundamental distinction between the two types of memory is crucial in determining their functionality and purpose in computer systems.

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153. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This network operates using high-frequency radio waves, allowing for long-range communication capabilities across various platforms and locations. It is specifically designed to support military operations and ensure effective communication between different branches and units. The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is a nuclear command and control system, the Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS) is an intelligence system, and the Global Combat Support System (GCSS) is a logistics support system, none of which directly relate to the mission of providing two-way communications between air, land, and sea users.

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154. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions serve as a comprehensive source of information and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure compliance and proper implementation of policies and laws. They outline specific procedures, responsibilities, and requirements that must be followed within the Air Force. Therefore, AFI is the correct answer as it is the primary source of procedural guidance for implementing policies and laws within the Air Force.

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155. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority." The classification authority marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and is used to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking helps to identify who has the authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified.

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156. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The duties mentioned in the question, including providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically performed by a base records manager. This role is responsible for overseeing the organization, maintenance, and retrieval of records within a military base or organization. They ensure that records are properly managed and accessible to authorized personnel, and they may also provide support and training to other staff members regarding records management procedures. The other options, such as the Chief of Office of Records, Command records manager, and Functional area records manager, may have different responsibilities and roles within the records management hierarchy.

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157. What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless channels, to transmit and receive data. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices take turns using the medium, avoid collisions, and adhere to the agreed-upon rules for accessing the network. It is responsible for assigning unique MAC addresses to each device and implementing protocols like Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) or Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA).

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158. In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Explanation

The correct answer is six because operating system tasks can be categorized into six main categories: process management, memory management, file system management, device management, network management, and user interface management. Each category represents a different aspect of the operating system's functionality and plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of the system.

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159. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field within a major command and ensuring that the necessary resources and expertise are available for training and development purposes. They work closely with the unit training manager (UTM) and other stakeholders to identify and select the appropriate SMEs who can contribute to the development of the SKT and CDC. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the training and development needs of the career field are met.

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160. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 978. The AF form 978 is used to report ground mishaps in the Air Force. This form is specifically designed to document and report any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground, such as vehicle collisions, equipment damage, or injuries. It allows for a thorough investigation and analysis of the mishap to determine the causes and implement preventive measures in the future. This form is an important tool in maintaining safety and preventing future incidents in the Air Force.

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161. Describe a network bridge.

Explanation

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It allows for the efficient transfer of data between different network segments, preventing collisions and improving network performance. By separating the network into segments, the bridge can also help to isolate network issues and improve network security.

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162. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities. These directives provide guidance and instructions for Air Force personnel to follow in order to ensure compliance with established policies and procedures. AFPDs are official documents that outline the Secretary of the Air Force's intent and expectations for the organization and its members, and they serve as a framework for decision-making and implementation of policies within the Air Force.

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163. What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the correct answer because it provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. SACCS is specifically designed to ensure the secure and reliable transmission of critical information for strategic operations, making it an essential system for the Air Force's command and control capabilities.

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164. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space. It is divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is specifically designed to support the Department of Defense (DoD) and its various agencies, providing secure and reliable communication capabilities to military users worldwide.

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165. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). It focuses on providing security and control for the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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166. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records specific to their functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies, and providing guidance and support to personnel within their area of responsibility. The functional area records manager plays a crucial role in organizing and preserving records, facilitating information retrieval, and promoting efficient record-keeping practices within the organization.

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167. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers are properly trained and equipped to handle their duties related to record management within the command. The command records manager is in charge of overseeing and coordinating the training efforts to ensure consistency and compliance with established standards and procedures.

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168. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. This suggests that the ESU is responsible for developing and implementing strategies and technologies that streamline training processes and enhance the operational capabilities of the warfighters. By doing so, the ESU helps to optimize the efficiency and effectiveness of the AFNetOps community in supporting the Air Force's mission.

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169. Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

The Global Broadcast System (GBS) is a space-based high data rate communications link that facilitates the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It is specifically designed to provide timely and reliable delivery of critical data and intelligence to military personnel in the field. GBS enables real-time dissemination of video, imagery, and other forms of digital information, ensuring that deployed forces have access to the information they need for mission success.

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170. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. This system is specifically designed for command and control purposes, allowing for secure and efficient communication between the NMCC and the commanders. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), are not specifically designed for the transmission of emergency action messages and do not serve as the primary network for this purpose.

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171. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

The correct answer is 475. The Air Force uses AF form 475 to report a hazard. This form is specifically designed for reporting hazards and is used to document and track potential risks or dangers within the Air Force. By using this form, the Air Force can effectively identify and address hazards in order to maintain a safe and secure environment for its personnel and operations.

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172. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. These components work together to provide network security and control within the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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173. How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is comprised of four volumes. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the framework, including the introduction, architecture data and views, systems and services views, and the products and tools necessary for implementation.

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174. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

Explanation

There are two different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI). This suggests that there are two distinct categories or classifications of DODI, each serving a different purpose or addressing different aspects within the Department of Defense.

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175. Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system. It is a network-centric system that allows for the integration and sharing of intelligence data from various sources, enabling better situational awareness and decision-making. DCGS provides a comprehensive and unified platform for ISR operations, making it the primary system for these functions within the Air Forces.

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176. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide effective command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing the Air Force to maintain control and security over its networks and information systems while conducting operations globally.

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177. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. It is a global network that provides secure and reliable communication capabilities to the Department of Defense (DoD) and other government agencies. DISN enables the transmission of classified and unclassified information, supports command and control functions, and facilitates collaboration and information sharing among military and civilian personnel. It plays a critical role in ensuring the DoD's information superiority and is therefore the correct answer to the question.

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Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public...
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of...
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop...
What is a peripheral device?
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with...
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of...
Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the...
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what...
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for...
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber...
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of...
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close...
Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards...
Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that...
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability...
Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
Records that are considered to be in draft format
Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of...
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)...
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality...
What directive publications expire one year after their effective date...
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems...
What negative effect could occur when star networks are...
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and...
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to...
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP...
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical...
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and...
What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to...
What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an...
Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles,...
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the...
Which action is a physiological factor?
Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and...
Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best...
What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force...
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control...
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the...
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in...
What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a...
Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and...
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open...
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
How are fires classified?
What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the...
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT)...
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides...
Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and...
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers,...
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an...
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D...
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test...
Which computer software is designed to collect personal information...
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and...
Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a...
Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret...
Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for...
Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical...
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy...
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause...
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air...
What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance...
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control...
Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in...
What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed...
Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data...
Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials...
Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance...
What document directs the development of the National Military...
Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with...
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government...
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA)...
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with...
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what...
What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training...
What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution...
Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of...
Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top...
What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers...
What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all...
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
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What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection...
What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
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How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required...
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide...
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What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance...
What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office...
What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force...
What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances...
The risk management process includes how many steps?
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's
What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject...
How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed...
What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense...
Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained...
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during...
What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a...
Which of the following services provides additional communications...
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
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Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation...
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements...
Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control...
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's...
How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint...
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Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection...
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator...
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how...
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force...
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN...
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services...
What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry...
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open...
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link...
Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on...
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of...
What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces'...
How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do...
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of...
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of...
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access...
What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way...
What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on...
Which classified document marking appears on the face of each...
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and...
What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link...
In general, how many operating system task categories are there?
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter...
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
Describe a network bridge.
What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force...
What system provides a secure communications path for command and...
What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange...
What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative...
Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within...
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for...
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps)...
Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for...
Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency...
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network...
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture...
How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI)...
Which system is the Air Forces' primary intelligence, surveillance and...
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission...
What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing...
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