2A851 Vol 1 UREs Aircraft

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 711

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2A851 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The AFI that governs the current wing organization and operation is
    • A. 

      53-3

    • B. 

      39-1

    • C. 

      21-166

    • D. 

      21-101

  • 2. 
    If you are assigned to a base with an OG and a MXG, then the base is applying which wing structure?
    • A. 

      Detached structure

    • B. 

      Centralized structure

    • C. 

      Operational structure

    • D. 

      Decentralized structure

  • 3. 
    Who is the key individual who allocates the resources for maintenance to meet required mission requirements? 
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Resource commander

    • C. 

      Operations commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance commander

  • 4. 
    Which individual manages the squadron's cannibalization program?
    • A. 

      Section chief

    • B. 

      Flight line expediter

    • C. 

      Flight commander/chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

  • 5. 
    Directing the overall maintenance effort of their unit is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Production superintendent

    • D. 

      Maintenance super intendent

  • 6. 
    Who is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans?
    • A. 

      Pro super

    • B. 

      MOO

    • C. 

      QA

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 7. 
    Whose role is it to asses, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; asses the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition; and improve reliability/maintainability of aircraft and support equipment?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      QA

    • C. 

      Weapons standardization

    • D. 

      MOC

  • 8. 
    Who or what coordinating/facilitating entity is responsible for monitoring and supporting the flight line maintenance effort?
    • A. 

      WOC

    • B. 

      MOC

    • C. 

      OG/CC

    • D. 

      MXG/CC

  • 9. 
    When the need for controlling authority is created by more than one squadron involved in aircraft maintenance, or when squadrons must share resources or facilities, this need is filled by
    • A. 

      QA

    • B. 

      The maintenance squadron

    • C. 

      The MOC

    • D. 

      The MXG/CC

  • 10. 
    Which activity is the responsibility of the MOC?
    • A. 

      Review the guidance provided by the MXG commander on cross-functional areas

    • B. 

      Ensure maintenance training is provided office, classroom, and hangar space

    • C. 

      Notify appropriate agencies of severe weather warnings

    • D. 

      Ensure quality assurance guidelines are being followed

  • 11. 
    What flight in the maintenance squadron primarily performs off equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems?
    • A. 

      TMDE flight

    • B. 

      Avionics flight

    • C. 

      Accessory flight

    • D. 

      Maintenance support flight

  • 12. 
    If you are working on an aircraft with a nondestructive inspection, then which flight would most likely be dispatched from the maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Avionics flight

    • B. 

      Fabrication flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance support flight

    • D. 

      TMDE flight

  • 13. 
    What publications contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and employing airforce resources?
    • A. 

      Mission directives

    • B. 

      Airforce manuals

    • C. 

      Airforce policy directives

    • D. 

      Airforce doctrine documents

  • 14. 
    What are AF policy directives?
    • A. 

      Directives the prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, responsibilities, and command relationship of AF units

    • B. 

      Orders of the SAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by AF activities at any level

    • C. 

      Orders of the SAF approved in the secretariat or the air staff and issue as departmental publications

    • D. 

      Guidance documents consisting of procedures that usually provide samples for performing standard tasks

  • 15. 
    Statements of the office of the secretary of the airforce and headquarters of the united states airforce that are used to initiate govern, or regulate actions are called
    • A. 

      Mission directives

    • B. 

      Airforce manuals

    • C. 

      Airforce instructions

    • D. 

      Airforce policy directives

  • 16. 
    Informational publications that include procedures for implementing airforce policies are called
    • A. 

      Indexes

    • B. 

      Pamphlets

    • C. 

      Directories

    • D. 

      Supplements

  • 17. 
    Informational publications that guide, point out, or otherwise facilitate research are called
    • A. 

      Supplememnts

    • B. 

      Directories

    • C. 

      Pamphlets

    • D. 

      Indexes

  • 18. 
    Informational publications that are compilations of systematically arranged information are called 
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Directories

    • C. 

      Pamphlets

    • D. 

      Indexes

  • 19. 
    Who uses MDC system information for validating manpower requirements?
    • A. 

      CC

    • B. 

      Material command

    • C. 

      HQ USAF

    • D. 

      Work center supervisors

  • 20. 
    The REMIS is designed to provide information to support airforce 
    • A. 

      Equipment maintenance program

    • B. 

      Date for the DDN

    • C. 

      Date for the IMDS

    • D. 

      Document production data for the MDC

  • 21. 
    If you need to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job, which MCD system data element do you use?
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      Job control number

    • D. 

      Identification number

  • 22. 
    The first 5 digits of a JCN indicates the
    • A. 

      Year and julian date

    • B. 

      Last 5 digits of the equipment serial number

    • C. 

      First 5 digits of the equipment serial number

    • D. 

      Month and year the maintenance discrepancy was discovered

  • 23. 
    Which work center contributes labor towards a maintenance requirement?
    • A. 

      Owning work center

    • B. 

      Reporting work center

    • C. 

      Performing work center

    • D. 

      Nonreporting work center

  • 24. 
    The base computer translates equipment ID numbers into all the following categories except
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Repair action taken

    • C. 

      Owning work center

    • D. 

      Standard reporting designator

  • 25. 
    Which MCD system data element is published in manuals and REMIS tables for each weapon and support system?
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      Job control number

    • D. 

      Identification number

  • 26. 
    The number entered in the tag number block of the AFTO Form 349 comes from
    • A. 

      A WUC manual

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • C. 

      A manufacturer's data plate

    • D. 

      The illustrated parts breakdown

  • 27. 
    What is enterd in column C of AFTO Form 349 to document a TCTO?
    • A. 

      The WUC

    • B. 

      The TCTO support general code

    • C. 

      First five characters of the national item identification number

    • D. 

      First five characters of the TCTO data code or command assigned data code

  • 28. 
    An entry of any number greater than 1 in column G of AFTO Form 349 indicates the number of 
    • A. 

      Units completed

    • B. 

      Units requiring maintenance

    • C. 

      Technicians per unit of work

    • D. 

      Times the action taken was performed

  • 29. 
    The entry of the CAT LAB block on AFTO Form 349 indicates the 
    • A. 

      Rank/rating of the technician

    • B. 

      Type of work hour ependiture

    • C. 

      Type of equipment being repaired

    • D. 

      Number of technicians performing the work

  • 30. 
    An X placed in the SCH CODE block of the AFTO Form 349 indicates
    • A. 

      Additional maintenance must be scheduled

    • B. 

      The maintenance action must be completed

    • C. 

      An unscheduled maintenance action has been performed

    • D. 

      The computer must calculate the next calibration or maintenance due date

  • 31. 
    What block of AFTO Form 349 is checked to indicate actions that affect the historical record of an end item?
    • A. 

      UNITS

    • B. 

      SCH CODE

    • C. 

      TYPE MAINT

    • D. 

      RECORDS ACTION

  • 32. 
    Which form provides an interface between on and off equipment maintenance documentation and serves as an identification and status tag?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2413

    • B. 

      AF Form 2005

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 349

  • 33. 
    What form is used as an accountability document for items managed under the DIFM program?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 244

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 781

  • 34. 
    What is entered in block 15 of AFTO Form 350 if an item is not repairable?
    • A. 

      A description of the malfunction

    • B. 

      The letters NRTS and the NRTS code

    • C. 

      A brief description of the repair efforts

    • D. 

      signature of the performing work center supervisor

  • 35. 
    How often are IMDS reports produced and sent to higher headquarters? 
    • A. 

      Whenever requested

    • B. 

      At scheduled intervals

    • C. 

      At the end of each duty day

    • D. 

      Whenever the form entry count reaches 500

  • 36. 
    The IMDS is event oriented and user friendly, which means that is
    • A. 

      Accepts any input

    • B. 

      Requires no password

    • C. 

      Restricts unauthorized access

    • D. 

      Checks keyboard entries for compatibility

  • 37. 
    What type of errors my not be detected by IMDS?
    • A. 

      One of a kind entries

    • B. 

      Incorrect menu selections

    • C. 

      Mismatched ID number and Work Unit codes

    • D. 

      Mismatched HOW MAL and ACTION TAKEN codes

  • 38. 
    Which IMDS screen my be viewed and option selected to allow narratives in a specific job data record that is to be modified?
    • A. 

      907, option 12

    • B. 

      907, option 14

    • C. 

      929, option 12

    • D. 

      929, option 14

  • 39. 
    An online inquiry option can be selected from IMDS screen 099 by inputting the
    • A. 

      Option number

    • B. 

      ID ASSIGNED and the option number

    • C. 

      YR/EVENT ID and the option number

    • D. 

      YR/EVENT ID, WCE, and the option number

  • 40. 
    What IMDS screen displays a maintenance snapshot inquiry?
    • A. 

      054

    • B. 

      122

    • C. 

      142

    • D. 

      380

  • 41. 
    What is not a function of the G081 automated maintenance information system?
    • A. 

      Mission scheduling

    • B. 

      Maintenance sheduling

    • C. 

      Personnel leave scheduling

    • D. 

      Personnel training management

  • 42. 
    Which is not part of G081 automated maintenance information system advanced technology?
    • A. 

      Internet access

    • B. 

      World wide SATCOM access

    • C. 

      Mobile terminals in flightline trucks

    • D. 

      Windows based computer operating system

  • 43. 
    Under the G081 automated maintenance information system profanity program, who is not contacted by the G081 system when profanity is detected?
    • A. 

      HQ AMC

    • B. 

      G081 system user

    • C. 

      G081 management section

    • D. 

      Logistics group commander?

  • 44. 
    What must the G081 automated information system user have prior to accessing the system?
    • A. 

      SSSN/ID and password

    • B. 

      USER/ID and password

    • C. 

      USER/ID and access code

    • D. 

      SSSN/ID and access code

  • 45. 
    Of the four types of programs used in the G081 automated maintenance information system, which is considered to be the heart of the system?
    • A. 

      VIRP

    • B. 

      Batch

    • C. 

      Data input

    • D. 

      Data output

  • 46. 
    One of the basic principles of supply discipline is to
    • A. 

      Use supplies to fulfill any purpose

    • B. 

      Know all equipment items on hand

    • C. 

      Stock excess property untill needed

    • D. 

      Effectively safeguard and protect property

  • 47. 
    Supply discipline is best decribed as
    • A. 

      Protection given to the airforce resources

    • B. 

      Command-directed supply proceadures

    • C. 

      Instructions given to protect airforce resources

    • D. 

      Extra consideration to get the most from available resources

  • 48. 
    Which is one of the main reasons airforce property becomes excess to a unit?
    • A. 

      Hoarding

    • B. 

      Inaccurate records

    • C. 

      Slow consumption rate

    • D. 

      Items rendered obsolete

  • 49. 
    What type of property responsibility requires that directives and instructions be issued?
    • A. 

      Custodial

    • B. 

      Command

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 50. 
    What type of property responsibility is applicable when a sergeant takes possession of a box that fell off an airforce supply truck?
    • A. 

      Custodial

    • B. 

      Command

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 51. 
    One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to
    • A. 

      Turn the property into supply

    • B. 

      Have the property declared surplus

    • C. 

      Have the property declared unserviceable

    • D. 

      Call the base equipment management office

  • 52. 
    What document is used to explain and record the circumstances involving the loss, damage, or destruction of a government equipment item that cost more than $500?
    • A. 

      Report of survey

    • B. 

      A statement of charges

    • C. 

      DD Form 114

    • D. 

      DD Form 362

  • 53. 
    What document is used to acquire a piece of nonexpendable equipment?
    • A. 

      Tables of allowances

    • B. 

      Custodian authorization/custody reciept

    • C. 

      AF Form 601

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1

  • 54. 
    The purpose of the aircraft parts store is to
    • A. 

      Support the normal supply squadron functions

    • B. 

      Make assets immediately available to the using activity

    • C. 

      Maintain accurate supply records for each using activity

    • D. 

      Provide one time issue of tools maintenance personnel

  • 55. 
    The on hand quantity of bench stock items does not normally exceed 
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 56. 
    How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
    • A. 

      Through process standardization

    • B. 

      Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle

    • C. 

      Allows investigative findings to be applied to the reapperances

    • D. 

      Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field

  • 57. 
    The originator sends a draft deficiency report for screening to 
    • A. 

      Base supply

    • B. 

      The screening point

    • C. 

      The squadron commander

    • D. 

      The depot from which the item came

  • 58. 
    What type of deficiency report requires submission by message within 3 work days after the discovery of the deficiency?
    • A. 

      CAT I

    • B. 

      CAT II

    • C. 

      Material

    • D. 

      Software

  • 59. 
    Who determines the supply delivery priority based on the severity of the malfunction and its impact on the mission?
    • A. 

      Technician

    • B. 

      Base supply

    • C. 

      Lead technician

    • D. 

      Production superintendent

  • 60. 
    What UJC would be used for a routine aircraft part?
    • A. 

      AA

    • B. 

      BA

    • C. 

      CA

    • D. 

      DA

  • 61. 
    The To numbering system is explained in detail in TO
    • A. 

      0-4-2

    • B. 

      0-1-01

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-18

  • 62. 
    The first group of characters in TO number 33D7-10-1 identifies the 
    • A. 

      Kind of TO

    • B. 

      Equipment's major system

    • C. 

      Specific item of equipment

    • D. 

      Section of sectionalized TO

  • 63. 
    The JG in TO 1C-17A-2-92JG-10 indicates the
    • A. 

      Specific type of equipment

    • B. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

    • C. 

      Functional indicator of the TO

    • D. 

      Specific model

  • 64. 
    In the TO system, an index TO contains
    • A. 

      A listing of other TOs

    • B. 

      An index of TO revisions

    • C. 

      A group breakdown of category specific TOs

    • D. 

      A group breakdown of major airforce equipment

  • 65. 
    In the TO system, which index TO contains a cross-reference listing of data code numbers assigned to activate TCTOs?
    • A. 

      0-4-1

    • B. 

      0-4-2

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-2

  • 66. 
    Which airforce technical manuals contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment?
    • A. 

      Job guides

    • B. 

      Aircraft TOs

    • C. 

      Commercial manuals

    • D. 

      Other equipment TOs

  • 67. 
    Which publications contain instructions for use of equipment, in addition to data contained in other manuals?
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Other equipment TOs

    • C. 

      Supplemental manuals

    • D. 

      COTS manuals

  • 68. 
    In the airforce, COTS technical manuals are normally identified by a
    • A. 

      Assigned TO number

    • B. 

      Equipment part number

    • C. 

      Airforce stock number

    • D. 

      Equipment manufacturer ID number

  • 69. 
    What type of TCTO is used to correct conditions that could reult in fatal or serious injury?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 70. 
    What type of TCTO can be identified by red boarder markings, either red Xs or circled red Xs alternately spaced?
    • A. 

      Routine and urgent

    • B. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • C. 

      Routine and emergency

    • D. 

      Emergency and immediate

  • 71. 
    Which index lists all airforce MPTOs?
    • A. 

      TO 0-1-1

    • B. 

      TO 0-1-02

    • C. 

      TO 00-1-02

    • D. 

      TO00-1-20

  • 72. 
    THe TO that is not an abbreviated TO is the
    • A. 

      Checklist

    • B. 

      Automation guide

    • C. 

      Inspection work card

    • D. 

      Inspection sequence chart

  • 73. 
    What type of TO is prepared in limited quantities?
    • A. 

      Automation

    • B. 

      Preliminary

    • C. 

      Abbreviated

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures

  • 74. 
    Where are change pages inserted in existing TOs?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      After the page of the same number

    • C. 

      Before the page of the same number

    • D. 

      In place of the page of the same number

  • 75. 
    The authorized types of TO supplements are
    • A. 

      Routine, safety, and formal

    • B. 

      Routine, safety and operational

    • C. 

      Safety, operational, and inerim

    • D. 

      Inerim, safety, and operational

  • 76. 
    Before an AFTO Form 22 is submitted, the submitter's supervisor assesses it in terms of mission impact, personnel and system safety, and
    • A. 

      Budget constraints

    • B. 

      Time required to implement

    • C. 

      Urgency of need for change

    • D. 

      Approving official's workload

  • 77. 
    The type of TO improvement reports are
    • A. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • B. 

      Emergency and urgent

    • C. 

      Emergency, urgent, and routine

    • D. 

      Emergency, immediate, and routine

  • 78. 
    What does the -003 in system/subsystem/subject number 34-11-10-003 indentify?
    • A. 

      LRU indentification

    • B. 

      SRU identifiacation

    • C. 

      General procedure

    • D. 

      Functional procedure

  • 79. 
    What part of GRT number 40- GRT-27-05 identifies the specific test procedure?
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      -GRT

    • C. 

      -27

    • D. 

      -05

  • 80. 
    What type of OMMS manual would you use to find an overall description of aircraft?
    • A. 

      WD

    • B. 

      GS

    • C. 

      GV

    • D. 

      IPB

  • 81. 
    A GS manual provides
    • A. 

      General overview of the aircraft

    • B. 

      Detailed schematics of system wiring

    • C. 

      Fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures

    • D. 

      Detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance

  • 82. 
    An FR manual provides
    • A. 

      Detailed schematics of system wiring

    • B. 

      A means of conveying fault information

    • C. 

      Identity of fault codes at preflight briefings

    • D. 

      Fault description and fault isolation procedures

  • 83. 
    In fault code 32-41-19-001-2, the -001 identifies faulty
    • A. 

      Subsystem

    • B. 

      Sub-subsystem

    • C. 

      SRU

    • D. 

      LRU

  • 84. 
    The introduction of section I of the IPB provides the user the capability of cross-referencing
    • A. 

      Part numbers and figure numbers

    • B. 

      Part numbers and reference designators

    • C. 

      Reference designators and index numbers

    • D. 

      Reference designators and figure numbers

  • 85. 
    In section III of the IPB, parts numbers are arranged
    • A. 

      Numerically

    • B. 

      Alphabetically

    • C. 

      Alphanumerically

    • D. 

      By order of assembly

  • 86. 
    The ACPINS provide a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except 
    • A. 

      Manage software

    • B. 

      Develop software

    • C. 

      Identify software

    • D. 

      Distribute software

  • 87. 
    Which major function of the ACPINS provide a short summary of information for each CPIN?
    • A. 

      Compendium requirements

    • B. 

      Interactive CPIN assignments

    • C. 

      Compendiums and cross-references

    • D. 

      CPIN data entry and data base management

  • 88. 
    Which ACPINS major function is used to deny unauthorized requests?
    • A. 

      Distribution

    • B. 

      Requirements

    • C. 

      Management products

    • D. 

      Data entry and databased maintenance

  • 89. 
    How many separate components may a CPIN have?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 90. 
    A CPIN prefix indicates that a CPIN is
    • A. 

      A revision

    • B. 

      Identified for a specific category

    • C. 

      Assigned a major function identifier

    • D. 

      Assigned to a country standard CSCI

  • 91. 
    How many CPIN identifier fields are there?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 92. 
    In the CPIN identifier, the first field consists of 
    • A. 

      Software-type code

    • B. 

      CSCI baseline code

    • C. 

      Subsystem and system codes

    • D. 

      Category and major function codes

  • 93. 
    How many general types of ACPINs compendiums are there?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 94. 
    An ACPINS cross-reference compendium contains
    • A. 

      Command manage CPINS

    • B. 

      Quick references for research aids

    • C. 

      CSCIs assigned to major equipment

    • D. 

      A list of currently published ACPINS compenidums

  • 95. 
    An ACPINS command compendium contains
    • A. 

      Country standard CSCIs

    • B. 

      Equipment to part number CPINS

    • C. 

      CSCIs assigned to fields of technology

    • D. 

      CPINS identified with a MAJCOM desgnator

  • 96. 
    Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?
    • A. 

      Hardware

    • B. 

      Operational data

    • C. 

      Performance and capabillities

    • D. 

      Funding, procurement, and production

  • 97. 
    The SF 702 is used to
    • A. 

      List and record security inspection items

    • B. 

      Approve the storage of classified materials

    • C. 

      Documenting opening and closure of the security container

    • D. 

      Provide an inventory of classified material in the security container

  • 98. 
    If you order a secret classified asset from base supply, what do you need to receive custody of that asset?
    • A. 

      Have military identification card and valid need to know

    • B. 

      Hold a top secret security clearance and have a valid need to know

    • C. 

      Have a valid need to know and be listed on an authorized roster

    • D. 

      Have a military identification card and be listed on an authorized roster

  • 99. 
    If an owner or user does not stay with an aircraft containing secret classified equipment, how often will security forces perform periodic checks?
    • A. 

      On an hourly basis

    • B. 

      Once every eight hours

    • C. 

      No less than every three hours

    • D. 

      a continuous guard will be posted

  • 100. 
    In the event of an emergency landing, responsibility for the security of classified equipment on an aircraft results with
    • A. 

      Aircraft commander

    • B. 

      Unit commander

    • C. 

      Allied base commander

    • D. 

      Receiving base's wing commander