Maintainence Management Analysis Volume 2 CDC 2r051

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (206) What does the 754th Electronic Systems Group (ELSG) send out to the field right away if a software problem is discovered but a system advisory notice (SAN) might be delayed?

    • A. Wireless email.
    • B. Instant text messaging.
    • C. Heads up message (HUM).
    • D. Facsimile message (FAX).
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About This Quiz

This is the second volume of multiple choice CDC Volume 2 2R051

Maintenance Management Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    (202) The database manager must inform users when a batch program is scheduled to be run

    • A. very long.

    • B. in the middle of the day.

    • C. by the defense enterprise computing center.

    • D. requiring the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) online processing to be down.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. requiring the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) online processing to be down.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. requiring the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) online processing to be down. This answer is correct because it states that the batch program being run will require the IMDS online processing to be down. This means that users will not be able to access the IMDS system during the time the batch program is running. Informing users of this downtime is important so that they are aware of the temporary unavailability of the system and can plan their work accordingly.

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  • 3. 

    (216) What type(s) of database system(s) compose the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) central database?

    • A. Network only.

    • B. Relational only.

    • C. Network and relational.

    • D. Network and non-networked.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Network and relational.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) central database is composed of both network and relational database systems. This means that the database utilizes both the network model, which organizes data in a hierarchical structure, and the relational model, which organizes data in tables with relationships between them. This combination allows for efficient storage and retrieval of data, as well as the ability to handle complex relationships between different data entities.

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  • 4. 

    (222) Which type of linkage would be present when the owner record points to the first member record, the first member record points to the next member, and the last member points back to the owner?

    • A. Prior.

    • B. Relationship.

    • C. One-way circular.

    • D. Two-way circular.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. One-way circular.
    Explanation
    In a one-way circular linkage, the owner record points to the first member record, the first member record points to the next member, and the last member points back to the owner. This creates a circular chain where each member is linked to the next one, but the owner record does not have a direct link to the last member. This type of linkage allows for easy traversal of the chain starting from the owner record and going through each member in a sequential manner.

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  • 5. 

    (201) What system best describes the operating concept of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A. User-oriented.

    • B. Event-oriented.

    • C. Database-centered.

    • D. Information-centered.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Event-oriented.
    Explanation
    The operating concept of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is best described as event-oriented. This means that the system focuses on capturing and recording specific events, such as maintenance actions or repairs, rather than being centered around users, databases, or general information. The event-oriented approach ensures that all relevant information related to a specific event is properly documented and can be easily accessed and analyzed.

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  • 6. 

    (202) Make sure your notification checklist includes the

    • A. last result of a database verify.

    • B. last result of a delete history run.

    • C. user IDs of each user to be notified.

    • D. address and phone number of each user to be notified.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. address and phone number of each user to be notified.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. address and phone number of each user to be notified. This is because in order to notify users, their contact information such as address and phone number is necessary. The other options, a, b, and c, do not provide any relevant information for notifying users.

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  • 7. 

    (204) How many days of history does program NFS760 retain on the database?

    • A. 92.

    • B. 102.

    • C. No more than 92.

    • D. No more than 102.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. No more than 92.
    Explanation
    The program NFS760 retains a maximum of 92 days of history on the database. This means that the program may retain fewer than 92 days of history, but it will not retain more than that.

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  • 8. 

    (204) Which program is used to verify program NFS760 runs each week?

    • A. NFS760.

    • B. NFS910.

    • C. NFSO40.

    • D. NFSRU0.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. NFSRU0.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. NFSRU0. The program NFSRU0 is used to verify program NFS760 runs each week.

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  • 9. 

    (205) What is the reason for establishing an alternate Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) processing site?

    • A. Uninterrupted batch processing.

    • B. Continuous inprocessing of new IMDS users.

    • C. Uninterrupted database management operation.

    • D. Continuous reporting of reliability and maintainability information system reportable job data documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Continuous reporting of reliability and maintainability information system reportable job data documentation.
    Explanation
    The reason for establishing an alternate Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) processing site is to ensure continuous reporting of reliability and maintainability information system reportable job data documentation. This means that even if the primary processing site experiences any issues or downtime, the alternate site can take over and ensure that the reporting of important data is not interrupted. This is crucial for maintaining an accurate and up-to-date record of reliability and maintainability information.

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  • 10. 

    (211) In G081, when you see three asterisks (*) in a row, it means you need to press

    • A. enter to logoff G081.

    • B. escape to continue.

    • C. enter to continue.

    • D. F1 to continue.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. enter to continue.
    Explanation
    In G081, when you see three asterisks (*) in a row, it means you need to press enter to continue. This is because the question states that the three asterisks indicate a specific action that needs to be taken, and out of the given options, pressing enter is the correct action to continue.

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  • 11. 

    (212) In addition to creating a new G081 User ID in the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility, which program must the G081 manager process in order to grant access to G081?

    • A. F9057, Terminal/User Master Record Update.

    • B. F9077A, 8033/User Master Record Update.

    • C. F9007, Work Center Update.

    • D. F0045, Shop Updates.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. F9057, Terminal/User Master Record Update.
    Explanation
    The G081 manager needs to process the F9057 program, Terminal/User Master Record Update, in order to grant access to G081. This program is responsible for updating the master record of terminals and users, which includes creating new user IDs. Therefore, it is the appropriate program for the G081 manager to use in order to grant access.

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  • 12. 

    (230) In the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema diagram, the tables in an area are drawn in

    • A. boxes.

    • B. circles.

    • C. oblong.

    • D. triangles.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. boxes.
    Explanation
    In the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema diagram, the tables in an area are drawn in boxes. This is because boxes are commonly used to represent tables in schema diagrams. Each box represents a table and contains the name of the table. The columns of the table are also shown within the box, along with their data types. This visual representation helps to easily identify and understand the structure of the database, making it easier to design and manage the database efficiently.

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  • 13. 

    (205) The two basic procedures for data recovery are processing

    • A. pseudo remote and off-line.

    • B. manual remote and off-line.

    • C. pseudo remote and manual remote.

    • D. manual remote and straight-line input.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. pseudo remote and manual remote.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. pseudo remote and manual remote. This means that there are two basic procedures for data recovery: pseudo remote and manual remote. Pseudo remote refers to a method where data recovery is done using a remote connection, but not in real-time. Manual remote, on the other hand, involves physically accessing the device and recovering the data manually. Both procedures are commonly used in data recovery processes.

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  • 14. 

    (211) Which option on the G081 Session Selection menu brings up the G081 Time Sharing Option (TSO) menu?

    • A. ATAIMTI1 TDSC –IMSC Development.

    • B. IMSA CAMS (G081) Production.

    • C. IMSB CAMS (G081) Test.

    • D. ATATS TSO.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. ATATS TSO.
    Explanation
    Option d. ATATS TSO brings up the G081 Time Sharing Option (TSO) menu.

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  • 15. 

    (204) When contacted by supply, which screen does the database manager (DBM) run for an annual Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) reconciliation?

    • A. 126.

    • B. 349.

    • C. 730.

    • D. 899.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 126.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. 126. The annual Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) reconciliation is performed by the database manager (DBM) when contacted by supply. The specific screen used for this reconciliation is screen 126.

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  • 16. 

    (201) Which subsystem process does Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) automate?

    • A. Aircraft status.

    • B. Aircraft location.

    • C. Aircrew debriefing.

    • D. Personnel inprocessing.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Aircrew debriefing.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) automates the process of aircrew debriefing. This means that IMDS is responsible for collecting and organizing information from aircrew members after a flight or mission. It helps to streamline the debriefing process and ensures that important data is recorded accurately and efficiently. By automating this subsystem process, IMDS can help to improve communication and analysis within the aviation maintenance system.

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  • 17. 

    (202) When monitoring computer maintenance as a database manager, your efforts must be directed toward

    • A. requesting hardware and software.

    • B. updating the capabilities on an as needed basis.

    • C. the analysis of unscheduled and scheduled downtime.

    • D. technical maintenance of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. the analysis of unscheduled and scheduled downtime.
    Explanation
    As a database manager, monitoring computer maintenance involves analyzing both unscheduled and scheduled downtime. Unscheduled downtime refers to unexpected disruptions or failures in the system, while scheduled downtime refers to planned maintenance activities. By analyzing both types of downtime, the database manager can identify patterns, root causes, and potential solutions to minimize disruptions and optimize system performance. This analysis helps in improving the overall efficiency and reliability of the computer system.

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  • 18. 

    (231) A profile is a list of Transaction Identifier Codes (TRIC) that allows access to certain Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) programs based on the user’s

    • A. rank.

    • B. role.

    • C. seniority.

    • D. capability.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. role.
    Explanation
    A profile is a list of Transaction Identifier Codes (TRIC) that allows access to certain Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) programs based on the user's role. This means that the user's access to specific programs within the IMDS is determined by their assigned role. The role could be a job position or a specific level of authority within the organization.

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  • 19. 

    (208) A difficulty report (DIREP) is submitted when the

    • A. Integrated Maintenance Data System functional manager cannot provide a workaround for the problem.

    • B. field assistance branch receives the problem from the database manager.

    • C. database manager calls the Field Assistance Service to submit one.

    • D. Defense Enterprise Computing Center approves the submission.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Integrated Maintenance Data System functional manager cannot provide a workaround for the problem.
    Explanation
    A difficulty report (DIREP) is submitted when the Integrated Maintenance Data System functional manager cannot provide a workaround for the problem. This means that when the functional manager is unable to find a solution or temporary fix for the issue, a DIREP is submitted to report the problem and seek further assistance. This indicates that the DIREP is used as a means to escalate and address unresolved issues within the system.

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  • 20. 

    (215) What must you immediately do in G081 if there is an aircraft mishap?

    • A. Run history reports.

    • B. Run a database save.

    • C. Secure the database.

    • D. Secure the aircraft records.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Secure the aircraft records.
    Explanation
    In G081, if there is an aircraft mishap, the immediate action that must be taken is to secure the aircraft records. This is important to ensure that all relevant information regarding the aircraft is preserved and protected for investigation and analysis purposes. Securing the aircraft records will help in determining the cause of the mishap and taking appropriate measures to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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  • 21. 

    (216) The most distinguishing characteristic of a relational query language, like Structured Query Language (SQL), is

    • A. its non-procedural language.

    • B. it’s the oldest retrieval language.

    • C. the use of a complex data language.

    • D. the use of an exact procedural language.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. its non-procedural language.
    Explanation
    The most distinguishing characteristic of a relational query language, like SQL, is its non-procedural language. This means that instead of specifying how to retrieve the data, the user only needs to specify what data they want to retrieve. The database management system then determines the most efficient way to retrieve the data. This allows for a more declarative and intuitive approach to querying the database, as the user does not need to worry about the implementation details.

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  • 22. 

    (243) Which words in a Query Language Processor (QLP) syntax skeleton are mandatory if they are underlined?

    • A. Proper.

    • B. Generic.

    • C. Uppercase.

    • D. Lowercase.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Uppercase.
    Explanation
    In a Query Language Processor (QLP) syntax skeleton, the underlined words are mandatory. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Uppercase. This means that when using the QLP, the words must be written in uppercase letters in order for the syntax to be correct.

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  • 23. 

    (206) What document is used by the Field Assistance Service to communicate with field agencies?

    • A. System advisory notice (SAN).

    • B. Heads up messages (HUM).

    • C. Printed newsletter.

    • D. System release.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Heads up messages (HUM).
    Explanation
    The Field Assistance Service uses Heads up messages (HUM) to communicate with field agencies. These messages serve as a way to provide important information, updates, and alerts to the field agencies in a timely manner. They are typically used to address urgent issues or changes that require immediate attention or action from the field agencies.

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  • 24. 

    (207) For which situation may the user submit an Air Force IMT 3215, C4 Systems Requirements Document regarding Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A. Add new capabilities to IMDS.

    • B. Change user name and password in IMDS.

    • C. Report a problem while using an IMDS screen.

    • D. Correct a data entered in error on an IMDS screen.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Add new capabilities to IMDS.
    Explanation
    The user may submit an Air Force IMT 3215, C4 Systems Requirements Document regarding Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) in order to add new capabilities to IMDS. This document allows the user to outline the specific requirements and details for the desired new capabilities that they want to integrate into the IMDS system. By submitting this document, the user is requesting the necessary changes and enhancements to be made to the IMDS system in order to accommodate the new capabilities.

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  • 25. 

    (212) Which option would you select on the Time Sharing Option (TSO) Primary Option Menu in order to start the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility?

    • A. Option 6 Command.

    • B. Option S Security.

    • C. Option 3 Utilities.

    • D. Option SD SDSF.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Option S Security.
    Explanation
    To start the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility on the Time Sharing Option (TSO) Primary Option Menu, you would select option S for Security. This suggests that the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility is related to security functions or user ID management within the TSO system.

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  • 26. 

    (214) As the result of an aircraft mishap, an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database save tape expiration date is changed to

    • A. 14 days.

    • B. 1 month.

    • C. 6 months.

    • D. 1 year.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 1 year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 1 year. In an aircraft mishap, the expiration date of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database save tape is changed to 1 year. This means that the data on the tape will remain valid and usable for a period of one year before it needs to be updated or replaced. This allows for sufficient time to analyze and investigate the mishap, as well as to ensure that the necessary maintenance and repairs are carried out.

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  • 27. 

    (223) When viewing the rectangle box on an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) schematic, the area consisting of one schematic page is denoted by

    • A. a whole number.

    • B. a first digit of the set number.

    • C. the first digit of the area code.

    • D. the Transaction Interface Package (TIP) number.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. a whole number.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. a whole number. In the context of an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) schematic, the area consisting of one schematic page is denoted by a whole number. This means that the area code used to represent the schematic page is a complete number without any fractions or decimals. This helps in easily identifying and referencing specific schematic pages within the IMDS system.

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  • 28. 

    (233) The adding or subtracting of a transaction interface code (TRIC) with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual is known as

    • A. ELCI.

    • B. DELTA.

    • C. File Update.

    • D. Allowed ELC.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. DELTA.
    Explanation
    The process described in the question, where a transaction interface code (TRIC) and its options and sub-options are added or subtracted from a loaded profile on an individual, is known as a DELTA.

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  • 29. 

    (220) Record placement in the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database depends on association, distribution, and

    • A. data.

    • B. volatility.

    • C. page size.

    • D. relationship.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. volatility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. volatility. Record placement in the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database depends on volatility, which refers to how frequently the data is accessed or updated. The more volatile the data, the more frequently it needs to be accessed and updated, and therefore it may be placed in a location that allows for faster access. This ensures that frequently accessed or updated data is readily available and can be efficiently managed within the database.

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  • 30. 

    (234) Up to how many user-identifications (User ID) can the enterprise location codes (ELC) Profile Manager By Profile ID program load to a single Master Profile?

    • A. 10.

    • B. 15.

    • C. 20.

    • D. 25.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 25.
    Explanation
    The enterprise location codes (ELC) Profile Manager By Profile ID program can load up to 25 user-identifications (User ID) to a single Master Profile.

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  • 31. 

    (256) Which FOCUS command is used to create a “logical link” between two databases?

    • A. BY command.

    • B. JOIN command.

    • C. TABLE FILE command.

    • D. DEFINE LINK command.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. JOIN command.
    Explanation
    The JOIN command is used to create a "logical link" between two databases. This command allows data from multiple tables or databases to be combined based on a common field or key. By using the JOIN command, users can retrieve data from different databases and create a virtual table that contains information from both sources. This enables efficient data analysis and reporting by consolidating data from multiple sources into a single view.

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  • 32. 

    (209) The responsibility for initializing Interactive Communication Interface (ICI) via screen #891 lies with

    • A. the host data base manager (DBM).

    • B. the system monitor.

    • C. unit level DBMs.

    • D. functional users.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. the host data base manager (DBM).
    Explanation
    The responsibility for initializing Interactive Communication Interface (ICI) via screen #891 lies with the host data base manager (DBM). This means that the DBM is responsible for setting up and initiating the ICI through the screen #891. The DBM is in charge of managing and controlling the database, so it makes sense that it would be responsible for initializing the ICI.

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  • 33. 

    (218) What does the schema of a database describe?

    • A. The user of the database.

    • B. The location of the database.

    • C. Physical relationships between every type of area.

    • D. Physical layout of records and logical relationships between records.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Physical layout of records and logical relationships between records.
    Explanation
    The schema of a database describes the physical layout of records and the logical relationships between records. This includes information about how the data is organized, such as the tables, fields, and relationships between them. The schema defines the structure and organization of the database, allowing users to understand how the data is stored and how it can be accessed. It does not describe the user of the database or the location of the database, and it goes beyond just physical relationships between different areas.

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  • 34. 

    (219) How many base level areas does the enterprise location code (ELC) database have?

    • A. 10.

    • B. 11.

    • C. 12.

    • D. 13.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 11.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. 11. The question is asking about the number of base level areas in the enterprise location code (ELC) database. The ELC database has a total of 11 base level areas.

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  • 35. 

    (222) What clause in the set section determines the logical placement of a new member record added to a set?

    • A. Code.

    • B. Mode.

    • C. Order.

    • D. Set selection.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Order.
    Explanation
    The clause in the set section that determines the logical placement of a new member record added to a set is the "Order" clause. This clause specifies the sequence in which the member records are organized within the set. By defining the order, the system knows where to place the new record in relation to the existing records in the set.

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  • 36. 

    (205) Which is an option for off-line processing?

    • A. Creating input text files.

    • B. Running a database save.

    • C. Updating the audit trail tape.

    • D. Memorizing every transaction made.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Creating input text files.
    Explanation
    Creating input text files is an option for off-line processing because it allows for the collection and storage of data that can be processed at a later time. By creating input text files, data can be gathered from various sources and organized in a format that can be easily read and manipulated by a computer program. This method is often used when there is a large volume of data to be processed or when the processing needs to be done at a different time or location from where the data is collected.

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  • 37. 

    (210) Which Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) interface program reschedules REMIS inventory reconciliations?

    • A. REMIS table load.

    • B. REMIS error inquiry.

    • C. REMIS error correction menu.

    • D. Defense Data Network (DDN) address record.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Defense Data Network (DDN) address record.
    Explanation
    The Defense Data Network (DDN) address record is the correct answer because it is the interface program that reschedules REMIS inventory reconciliations. This program is responsible for managing the communication and data exchange between REMIS and the DDN, ensuring that inventory reconciliations are scheduled and completed accurately and on time.

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  • 38. 

    (210) Which Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) interface program provides a list of all files which have been received from or transmitted to REMIS within the last 72 hours?

    • A. Defense Data Network (DDN) Address Record.

    • B. Table Validation Problem Reporting.

    • C. Debriefing MOA Builder.

    • D. REMIS Error Inquiry.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Defense Data Network (DDN) Address Record.
    Explanation
    The Defense Data Network (DDN) Address Record interface program provides a list of all files that have been received from or transmitted to REMIS within the last 72 hours. This program allows users to track and monitor the data exchange between REMIS and other systems. It ensures that all files are properly transmitted and received, enhancing the reliability and maintainability of the REMIS system.

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  • 39. 

    (224) What is the first step in building an effective data model?

    • A. Schema design.

    • B. Adding key attributes to the model.

    • C. Planning and requirements analysis.

    • D. Adding non-key attributes to the model.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Planning and requirements analysis.
    Explanation
    The first step in building an effective data model is planning and requirements analysis. This involves understanding the needs and goals of the project, identifying the data that needs to be captured and analyzed, and determining the relationships and dependencies between different data elements. By conducting thorough planning and requirements analysis, the data model can be designed in a way that accurately represents the organization's data and supports its business objectives. This step is crucial in ensuring that the data model aligns with the organization's needs and sets a solid foundation for the rest of the data modeling process.

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  • 40. 

    (226) Which of the following data relationships cannot be represented in a relational database?

    • A. One-to-one.

    • B. Three-to-one.

    • C. One-to-many.

    • D. Many-to-many.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Many-to-many.
    Explanation
    A many-to-many data relationship refers to a situation where multiple records in one table are associated with multiple records in another table. This type of relationship cannot be directly represented in a relational database because it violates the fundamental principle of relational databases, which is to have a single value in each cell of a table. To represent a many-to-many relationship, a junction table or an associative entity is used to break it down into two one-to-many relationships, which can be represented in a relational database.

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  • 41. 

    (232) The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) master profile Generic_User_Profile contains

    • A. all the transaction identifiers codes (TRIC) in IMDS.

    • B. the basic TRICs for the maintenance analysts only.

    • C. all the enterprise location codes (ELC) in IMDS.

    • D. the basic TRICs that all users need.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. the basic TRICs that all users need.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) master profile Generic_User_Profile contains the basic TRICs that all users need. This means that the profile includes the essential transaction identifier codes (TRIC) that are required by all users of the IMDS system. These basic TRICs are necessary for users to perform their maintenance tasks effectively and efficiently. The profile does not include all the transaction identifiers codes (TRIC) in IMDS, the basic TRICs for maintenance analysts only, or all the enterprise location codes (ELC) in IMDS.

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  • 42. 

    (205) Implement pseudo processing when

    • A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) will not come back on-line.

    • B. IMDS is running slow in transaction interface (TIP) mode.

    • C. the system is unavailable for only a short period of time.

    • D. the system is unavailable for a long time.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. the system is unavailable for a long time.
  • 43. 

    . (208) A difficulty report (DIREP) in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is used when

    • A. a user has difficulty using IMDS.

    • B. IMDS is not operating as designed.

    • C. the DBM cannot fix an IMDS problem.

    • D. a user wants to make changes to an IMDS program.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. IMDS is not operating as designed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. IMDS is not operating as designed. This means that when there is a problem with the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and it is not functioning according to its intended design or specifications, a difficulty report (DIREP) is used to report and address the issue. This helps to identify and resolve any operational problems or malfunctions in the IMDS system. The other options are not relevant to the purpose of a DIREP in IMDS.

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  • 44. 

    (213) Which option of the virtual telecommunications access method (VTAM) Printing System Virtual Machine Communications Facility (VMCF) F Printer Selection List is used to access a particular printer’s command page?

    • A. Option H.

    • B. Option Q.

    • C. Option C.

    • D. Option D.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Option C.
    Explanation
    Option C is used to access a particular printer's command page in the VTAM Printing System VMCF F Printer Selection List.

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  • 45. 

    (217) Within the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) section of the central database (CDB), reference tables that include equipment and aircraft are provided by

    • A. general-purpose records.

    • B. transactional data from enterprise location code (ELC).

    • C. traditional legacy Core Automated Maintenance system (CAMS) data.

    • D. data from Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. data from Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).
    Explanation
    The reference tables that include equipment and aircraft in the RDMS section of the CDB are provided by the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS). This system is specifically designed to track and manage information related to the reliability and maintainability of equipment and aircraft. It is likely that REMIS collects and stores data from various sources, such as maintenance records and performance data, to provide accurate and up-to-date information for the reference tables in the RDMS.

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  • 46. 

    (244) Query Language Processor (QLP) can be initialized online only in the

    • A. EDIT mode.

    • B. ECHO mode.

    • C. DEMAND mode.

    • D. Transaction Interface Package (TIP) mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. DEMAND mode.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. DEMAND mode. The Query Language Processor (QLP) can only be initialized online in DEMAND mode. This mode allows users to submit ad-hoc queries and retrieve data on-demand. It is a real-time mode that provides immediate results to user queries. The other options, such as EDIT mode, ECHO mode, and Transaction Interface Package (TIP) mode, do not support online initialization of the QLP.

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  • 47. 

    (204) How many options are there for program NFS7U0?

    • A. 2.

    • B. 3.

    • C. 4.

    • D. 5.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 3.
    Explanation
    There are three options available for program NFS7U0.

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  • 48. 

    (248) When printing a Query Language Processor (QLP) output, what command do you use to activate a side-by printer?

    • A. PRNT.

    • B. PRINT.

    • C. @PRNT.

    • D. @@PRNT.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. @@PRNT.
    Explanation
    To activate a side-by printer when printing a Query Language Processor (QLP) output, the command to use is @@PRNT. This command is specific to QLP and is used to activate the side-by printer. The double @ symbol indicates that it is a special command in QLP. The other options (a, b, and c) are not the correct commands to activate a side-by printer in QLP.

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  • 49. 

    (225) What type of key establishes the relationship with records in one table to records in another table?

    • A. Table Key.

    • B. Foreign Key.

    • C. Primary Key.

    • D. Relational Key.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Foreign Key.
    Explanation
    A foreign key is a type of key that establishes the relationship between records in one table to records in another table. It is used to link two tables together by referencing the primary key of one table as a foreign key in another table. This allows for the establishment of relationships and maintains data integrity within a database system.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Magniciousx
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