CDC 2r051 EOC Practice Test

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CDC 2r051 EOC Practice Test - Quiz

As much as pilots, especially those of military planes are deemed to be experts, those in control rooms on the ground help keep the pilots on air. The quiz below tests on different aspects of aircrafts.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Air Force policy on air and space equipment maintenance expects maintenance to be performed at the

    • A.

      Lowest level

    • B.

      Highest level

    • C.

      Depot facility

    • D.

      Contractor facility

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest level
    Explanation
    Air Force policy on air and space equipment maintenance states that maintenance should be performed at the lowest level. This means that maintenance tasks should be carried out by the personnel who are closest to the equipment and have the necessary skills and resources to perform the maintenance efficiently. By conducting maintenance at the lowest level, the Air Force can minimize downtime and costs associated with transporting equipment to higher-level facilities. Additionally, this approach allows for faster response times and ensures that maintenance is performed by individuals who are most familiar with the specific equipment.

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  • 2. 

    (001) What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

    • A.

      Abort

    • B.

      Break

    • C.

      Cannibalization

    • D.

      Mission Capability

    Correct Answer
    D. Mission Capability
    Explanation
    Mission Capability is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance. This metric assesses the overall ability of an aircraft or space system to perform its intended mission. It takes into account factors such as the availability of necessary resources, the operational status of key components, and the proficiency of the maintenance personnel. By evaluating mission capability, maintenance teams can determine the readiness level of their assets and identify any areas that may require improvement or attention.

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  • 3. 

    (001) What provides the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment?

    • A.

      Maintenance organization

    • B.

      Maintenance planning

    • C.

      Increased manning

    • D.

      Increased funding

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance planning
    Explanation
    Maintenance planning is the correct answer because it involves the systematic and strategic scheduling of maintenance activities to ensure that resources such as people, facilities, and equipment are utilized in the most effective and efficient manner. By planning maintenance tasks in advance, organizations can optimize their operations, reduce downtime, and allocate resources appropriately, resulting in improved productivity and cost-effectiveness. Increased manning and funding may provide additional resources, but without proper planning, these resources may not be utilized effectively. Therefore, maintenance planning is crucial for maximizing the use of resources in a maintenance organization.

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  • 4. 

    (001) The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on

    • A.

      Preventive maintenance

    • B.

      Corrective maintenance

    • C.

      Backshop maintenance

    • D.

      Depot maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive maintenance
    Explanation
    The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on preventive maintenance. This means that the main emphasis should be on preventing equipment or systems from breaking down or malfunctioning in the first place. By regularly inspecting, servicing, and replacing parts as needed, potential issues can be identified and addressed before they become major problems. This proactive approach helps to minimize downtime, extend the lifespan of equipment, and reduce overall maintenance costs.

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  • 5. 

    (002) When a maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information systems and procedures that enhance productivity, it is accomplished by

    • A.

      Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency.

    • B.

      Continuously evaluating resources to meet mission changes and contingencies.

    • C.

      Command channel communications, documentation, and reporting communications with support commands and agencies.

    • D.

      Effectively scheduling aircraft, support equipment, facilities, and personnel to meet maintenance requirements and flying schedules.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency. This is because encouraging the development of automated information systems and procedures can help streamline administrative tasks and make them more efficient, ultimately improving productivity.

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  • 6. 

    (002) Unit–level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on size, similar wartime mission, and

    • A.

      Training

    • B.

      Budgetary constraints

    • C.

      Geographical location

    • D.

      Assigned weapon systems

    Correct Answer
    D. Assigned weapon systems
    Explanation
    Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on assigned weapon systems. This means that the organization and structure of these maintenance units are designed to support the specific weapon systems they are responsible for. This allows for specialization and expertise in maintaining and repairing these specific systems, ensuring that they are kept in optimal working condition. By aligning the maintenance organizations with the assigned weapon systems, it allows for efficient and effective maintenance practices to be implemented.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Which squadron is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staffrelated functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?

    • A.

      Maintenance

    • B.

      Aircraft maintenance

    • C.

      Maintenance operations

    • D.

      Helicopter maintenance

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance operations
    Explanation
    The squadron responsible for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG is the Maintenance Operations squadron. This squadron is specifically tasked with managing and coordinating the various maintenance operations within the MXG, ensuring that all necessary staff and resources are available to support aircraft maintenance activities.

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  • 8. 

    (003) What is the title for the senior maintenance manager responsible for communicationselectronics (C-E) maintenance?

    • A.

      Officer-in-Charge (OIC).

    • B.

      Chief of Maintenance (COM).

    • C.

      C-E Maintenance Officer.

    • D.

      Deputy Commander for C-E Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Maintenance (COM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Chief of Maintenance (COM)". This title is given to the senior maintenance manager who is responsible for communication electronics (C-E) maintenance. The Chief of Maintenance oversees and manages all maintenance activities related to C-E equipment and systems. They are responsible for ensuring the proper functioning and upkeep of communication electronics equipment and coordinating maintenance efforts within the organization.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Any personnel, other than 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, performing maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment, whether assigned to a communications unit or not, is referred to as

    • A.

      Non-traditional technicians.

    • B.

      Outsourced technicians.

    • C.

      Irregular technicians.

    • D.

      Contract technicians.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-traditional technicians.
    Explanation
    Any personnel, other than 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, performing maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment, whether assigned to a communications unit or not, is referred to as non-traditional technicians. This term is used to describe individuals who do not have the specific Air Force specialty code but are still involved in the maintenance of C-E equipment. It distinguishes them from regular technicians who have the designated specialty code. The term "non-traditional" implies that these technicians do not fit the traditional or standard role but are still performing the required maintenance tasks.

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  • 10. 

    (003) What kind of communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance unit provides specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance (O&M) units?

    • A.

      Special maintenance teams (SMT).

    • B.

      Consolidated repair activity (CRA).

    • C.

      Deployable elements of fixed units.

    • D.

      Functionally supported maintenance activity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special maintenance teams (SMT).
    Explanation
    Special maintenance teams (SMT) provide specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance (O&M) units. These teams are specifically trained and equipped to handle complex and specialized maintenance tasks that may require expertise beyond what is available in regular O&M units. They are able to provide higher levels of support and ensure that critical communications-electronics (C-E) equipment is properly maintained and repaired.

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  • 11. 

    (004) For what program does the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) hold squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible?

    • A.

      Nuclear Surety.

    • B.

      Weight and Balance.

    • C.

      Vehicle Management.

    • D.

      Dedicated Crew Chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Vehicle Management.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) holds squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible for the Vehicle Management program. This means that they are accountable for the management and maintenance of the vehicles within their respective squadrons. This includes ensuring that vehicles are properly maintained, serviced, and in compliance with regulations and safety standards. The MXG/CC expects squadron CCs and supervisors to effectively manage the vehicle fleet and ensure that vehicles are available and operational when needed.

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  • 12. 

    (004) Who is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program?

    • A.

      Maintenance flight commander.

    • B.

      Maintenance squadron commander.

    • C.

      Maintenance group commander.

    • D.

      Base commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program. This program involves the procedures and protocols for impounding aircraft, which may include grounding or restricting an aircraft from flying due to safety concerns or maintenance issues. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and expertise to establish and oversee this program to ensure the safe operation and maintenance of aircraft within their jurisdiction.

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  • 13. 

    (004) Which commander (CC) does the maintenance group CC coordinate with concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program?

    • A.

      Transportation squadron.

    • B.

      Operations squadron.

    • C.

      Operations group.

    • D.

      Wing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Operations group.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group CC coordinates with the Operations group concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program. This suggests that the Operations group is responsible for overseeing and managing the overall operations and activities of the maintenance group, including the High-Speed Taxi Check program. The Transportation squadron may not be directly involved in this coordination, and the Wing is a higher-level command that may not be directly involved in day-to-day coordination with the maintenance group CC.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Who is responsible for directing cannibalization (CANN) on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?

    • A.

      Technician.

    • B.

      Flight chief.

    • C.

      Flightline expiditer.

    • D.

      Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Production supervisor.
    Explanation
    The production supervisor is responsible for directing cannibalization on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply. This role involves making decisions on which parts can be cannibalized from one aircraft to another to ensure that maintenance and repair operations can be completed efficiently. The production supervisor is also responsible for coordinating with the MOC and supply to ensure that the necessary parts are available for cannibalization when needed. The technician, flight chief, and flightline expediter may have roles in the cannibalization process, but the production supervisor is ultimately responsible for directing and coordinating these actions.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Who selects qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwards names to maintenance supervision for approval?

    • A.

      Flight chief.

    • B.

      Section chief.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight chief.
    Explanation
    The flight chief is responsible for selecting qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwarding their names to maintenance supervision for approval. This role involves ensuring that the individuals chosen have the necessary skills and expertise to carry out the inspections effectively. The flight chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and safety of the production process by ensuring that only qualified personnel are involved in the inspections.

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  • 16. 

    (005) On what does the section chief perform spot checks for authorized levels?

    • A.

      Tool storage.

    • B.

      Bench stock.

    • C.

      Reparable parts.

    • D.

      Cannibalization.

    Correct Answer
    B. Bench stock.
    Explanation
    The section chief performs spot checks for authorized levels on bench stock. Bench stock refers to the inventory of commonly used items that are kept readily available at workstations or benches for immediate use. Spot checks help ensure that the correct quantity of bench stock items is maintained, preventing shortages or excess inventory. This allows for efficient and uninterrupted workflow within the section.

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  • 17. 

    (005) Who manages the Bad Actor Program?

    • A.

      Flight chief.

    • B.

      Section chief.

    • C.

      Flightline expediter.

    • D.

      Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    B. Section chief.
    Explanation
    The Section chief manages the Bad Actor Program.

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  • 18. 

    (005) Who updates status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft?

    • A.

      Flight chief.

    • B.

      Section chief.

    • C.

      Flightline expediter.

    • D.

      Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flightline expediter.
    Explanation
    The flightline expediter is responsible for updating the status of cannibalization actions on assigned aircraft. This means that they are in charge of keeping track of any cannibalization activities that are taking place, such as the removal of parts from one aircraft to be used on another. The flightline expediter plays a crucial role in ensuring that these actions are properly documented and that the status of the aircraft is accurately recorded.

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  • 19. 

    (005) Who reviews aircraft forms before exceptional release?

    • A.

      Flight chief.

    • B.

      Flightline expediter.

    • C.

      Dedicated crew chief.

    • D.

      Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flightline expediter.
    Explanation
    The flightline expediter is responsible for reviewing aircraft forms before exceptional release. They ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation is in order before the aircraft is released for flight. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and compliance of the aircraft operations. The flight chief, dedicated crew chief, and production supervisor may have other responsibilities related to aircraft maintenance, but the flightline expediter specifically handles the review of aircraft forms.

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  • 20. 

    (005) Who is responsible for on-aircraft –21 equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function?

    • A.

      Flight chief.

    • B.

      Flightline expediter.

    • C.

      Dedicated crew chief.

    • D.

      Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Dedicated crew chief.
    Explanation
    The dedicated crew chief is responsible for on-aircraft equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function. This means that if no other role or individual has been specifically assigned to handle the inventories, it falls under the responsibility of the dedicated crew chief.

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  • 21. 

    (006) Who is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?

    • A.

      Systems monitor.

    • B.

      Database manager.

    • C.

      Database designer.

    • D.

      Database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Database manager.
    Explanation
    The database manager is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the database, ensuring its integrity and performance. They have the necessary expertise and knowledge to troubleshoot and resolve complex issues that may arise in the IMDS system.

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  • 22. 

    (007) Which of the following provides information and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the united states?

    • A.

      Database management (DBM).

    • B.

      Base Network Control Center (BNCC).

    • C.

      Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).

    • D.

      Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center.

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).
    Explanation
    The Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC) provides information and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the United States. This center is specifically designed to support the computing needs of these organizations and ensure the security and reliability of their data and communication systems. DBM, BNCC, and REMIS Management Center do not specifically cater to military and government organizations or provide region-specific services.

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  • 23. 

    (008) The two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) are the...

    • A.

      Functional analysis and database administrator.

    • B.

      Database administrator and Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • C.

      Systems program office (SPO) adn Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • D.

      Interactive Customer Service Facility and database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    C. Systems program office (SPO) adn Field Assistance Service (FAS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS). This answer is supported by the information given in the question, which states that the two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) are being asked for. The other options mentioned in the question do not match the given information. Therefore, Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS) is the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Who is the initial point of contact (POC) at the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) when an Integrated Maintenance System (IMDS) database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level?

    • A.

      Host database manager (DBM).

    • B.

      Systems Program Office (SPO).

    • C.

      Database administrator. (DBA).

    • D.

      Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Field Assistance Service (FAS).
    Explanation
    The Field Assistance Service (FAS) is the initial point of contact at the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) when an Integrated Maintenance System (IMDS) database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level. The FAS provides on-site assistance and support for resolving technical issues that cannot be resolved by the base level personnel. This includes database problems that require specialized expertise and knowledge. Therefore, the FAS is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 25. 

    (009) The Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center is operated by...

    • A.

      754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG).

    • B.

      Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • C.

      Database Manager (DBM).

    • D.

      Northrop Grumman.

    Correct Answer
    D. Northrop Grumman.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Northrop Grumman. The Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center is operated by Northrop Grumman.

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  • 26. 

    (010) The local area network (LAN) component that provides services to the users on the network is known as the...

    • A.

      Server.

    • B.

      Protocols.

    • C.

      Workstation.

    • D.

      Server Network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Server.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Server". In a local area network (LAN), the server component is responsible for providing services to the users on the network. Servers can perform various functions such as hosting files, managing user accounts, running applications, and providing access to shared resources. They play a crucial role in managing and coordinating network activities, ensuring efficient communication and resource utilization among the connected workstations.

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  • 27. 

    (010) Operating rules used in local area network (LAN) applications are known as...

    • A.

      Protocols.

    • B.

      Networking.

    • C.

      Topologies.

    • D.

      Data Language.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protocols.
    Explanation
    Operating rules used in local area network (LAN) applications are known as protocols. Protocols are a set of rules and guidelines that govern the communication between devices in a network. They define how data is transmitted, received, and interpreted, ensuring that devices can understand and communicate with each other effectively. Networking refers to the practice of connecting devices and creating networks, topologies refer to the physical or logical arrangement of devices in a network, and data language is not a commonly used term in the context of LAN applications.

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  • 28. 

    (011) Which software is required to access Integrated Maintenance Data System graphical user interface (IMDS GUI)?

    • A.

      Photo editor.

    • B.

      Image reader.

    • C.

      Media player.

    • D.

      Internet browser.

    Correct Answer
    D. Internet browser.
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System graphical user interface (IMDS GUI) is a web-based application that allows users to access and interact with the system. To access the IMDS GUI, a software tool is required, and in this case, it is an internet browser. An internet browser is the software that allows users to browse and navigate the internet, making it the necessary tool to access the IMDS GUI.

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  • 29. 

    (011) Which one of the following must the database manager (DBM) obtain from the base network control center (BNCC) to gain terminal access to Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      IMDS Password.

    • B.

      Security Clearance.

    • C.

      Server Address Setting.

    • D.

      Remote Identification (ID).

    Correct Answer
    D. Remote Identification (ID).
    Explanation
    The database manager (DBM) needs to obtain the Remote Identification (ID) from the base network control center (BNCC) in order to gain terminal access to Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). This ID is necessary for authentication and to establish a secure connection between the DBM and the IMDS system.

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  • 30. 

    (012) The transaction interface package (TIP) provides...

    • A.

      Access to multiple mainframes.

    • B.

      Users with fast-file control system.

    • C.

      For background scheduling of transactions.

    • D.

      Users with the capability to access application programs.

    Correct Answer
    B. Users with fast-file control system.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Users with fast-file control system." The transaction interface package (TIP) provides users with a fast-file control system. This means that users are able to efficiently and effectively control and manage their files within the transaction interface. TIP allows users to quickly access, modify, and organize their files, enhancing their overall user experience and productivity.

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  • 31. 

    (012) DEMAND processing is a...

    • A.

      Mode that directs the activity of the operating system.

    • B.

      Mode in which several runs are grouped before processing.

    • C.

      Method for maintaining historical data for laod, change, inquiry, and deletion.

    • D.

      Manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS)." This means that in DEMAND processing, users have the freedom to access and process information from various automated information systems without being limited to a specific one. It allows users to have flexibility and adaptability in their information processing needs.

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  • 32. 

    (012) Which best describes on-line processing?

    • A.

      Programs are printed at Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).

    • B.

      Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe.

    • C.

      Programs are processed by the console operator.

    • D.

      Equipment must remain on at all times.

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe.
    Explanation
    On-line processing refers to a type of data processing where the equipment or devices are directly controlled by the mainframe computer. This means that the mainframe has the ability to directly interact with and control the equipment, without the need for manual intervention or processing by a console operator. This allows for real-time processing and immediate responses to user requests or inputs. Keeping the equipment on at all times is not necessarily a requirement for on-line processing, and the printing of programs at DECC or processing by a console operator are not directly related to on-line processing.

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  • 33. 

    (012) Online processing may be called...

    • A.

      Batch processing.

    • B.

      Real-time processing.

    • C.

      Pseudo remote processing.

    • D.

      Remote job entry terminal processing.

    Correct Answer
    B. Real-time processing.
    Explanation
    Online processing refers to a method of data processing where transactions are processed immediately as they occur, providing real-time results. This is in contrast to batch processing, where transactions are collected and processed in groups at a later time. Pseudo remote processing and remote job entry terminal processing are not accurate terms to describe online processing. Therefore, the correct answer is real-time processing.

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  • 34. 

    (012) What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?

    • A.

      Running the NFS0A0 program.

    • B.

      Creating the data file in demand mode.

    • C.

      Uploading required data before using a pseudo file.

    • D.

      Manually inputting data into a personal computer (PC) file then upload to pseudo file.

    Correct Answer
    A. Running the NFS0A0 program.
    Explanation
    Running the NFS0A0 program is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing. This program is specifically designed for creating data files for pseudo processing, making it a straightforward and efficient option.

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  • 35. 

    (013) In what mode do you run pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB)?

    • A.

      None.

    • B.

      DEMAND.

    • C.

      Windows.

    • D.

      Transaction interface package (TIP).

    Correct Answer
    B. DEMAND.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DEMAND. The question is asking about the mode in which the pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) runs. The term "pseudo remote processor" refers to a system that allows for remote processing of tasks. The term "batch" refers to the execution of a series of tasks without user interaction. Therefore, running PSURPB in DEMAND mode means that it will process tasks remotely and in a batch fashion, without requiring user input or interaction.

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  • 36. 

    (013) What indicator tells you that a pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing?

    • A.

      A line on the monitor screen says, “PSURPB COMPLETE.”

    • B.

      The start of entry (SOE) character appears.

    • C.

      The monitor gives a beep to notify you.

    • D.

      You receive an E-mail notification.

    Correct Answer
    B. The start of entry (SOE) character appears.
    Explanation
    When the start of entry (SOE) character appears, it indicates that the pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing.

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  • 37. 

    (014) Which application program file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in transaction interface package (TIP)?

    • A.

      FS$$0000*00.

    • B.

      0FS0*DBRUN$.

    • C.

      0FS0*DBALIB$.

    • D.

      0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP.

    Correct Answer
    D. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP. This file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in the transaction interface package (TIP).

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  • 38. 

    (014) Which application program file contains the element used to troubleshoot the database?

    • A.

      FS$$0000*00.

    • B.

      0FS0*DBALIB$.

    • C.

      0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL.

    • D.

      0FS00000*PABTAG054-AP.

    Correct Answer
    C. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL.
  • 39. 

    (014) Which support program file controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS)?

    • A.

      TIP FILE 611.

    • B.

      IRU processor.

    • C.

      VALTAB.

    • D.

      SUPUR processor.

    Correct Answer
    C. VALTAB.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is VALTAB. VALTAB is a support program file that controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS). It is responsible for managing the validation tables used by the system, which contain data that is used to validate and control the input and output of the online programs.

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  • 40. 

    (014) Which support program file ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database?

    • A.

      TIP File 611.

    • B.

      0FS0*DBRUN$.

    • C.

      VALTAB.

    • D.

      SUPUR processor.

    Correct Answer
    A. TIP File 611.
    Explanation
    TIP File 611 is the support program file that ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database.

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  • 41. 

    (015) The basic keyin console mode allows

    • A.

      A user to use unsolicited keyins.

    • B.

      A user to use all basic console keyins.

    • C.

      A user to request the status on a user’s run.

    • D.

      Database managers (DBM) to operate in full screen mode.

    Correct Answer
    C. A user to request the status on a user’s run.
    Explanation
    The basic keyin console mode allows a user to request the status on a user's run. This means that the user can use the console to check the progress or status of a specific task or process that they are running. It provides a way for the user to monitor their own activity and see if it is running as expected.

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  • 42. 

    (015) What console mode command displays a list of active runs?

    • A.

      T,B.

    • B.

      T D.

    • C.

      @@RUN,A.

    • D.

      @@TM.

    Correct Answer
    B. T D.
    Explanation
    The console mode command "T D" displays a list of active runs.

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  • 43. 

    (016) What executive control language (ECL) command will provide you with the mainframe file transfer protocol (FTP) address?

    • A.

      @CAT.

    • B.

      @RUN.

    • C.

      @DATA.

    • D.

      @WHOAMI.

    Correct Answer
    D. @WHOAMI.
    Explanation
    The @WHOAMI command in executive control language (ECL) is used to provide information about the user's identity and privileges. In this context, it can be used to retrieve the mainframe file transfer protocol (FTP) address.

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  • 44. 

    (016) What do you call the filename you created on your personal computer (PC) when you do a file transfer?

    • A.

      PC file.

    • B.

      User file.

    • C.

      Local file.

    • D.

      Remote file.

    Correct Answer
    C. Local file.
    Explanation
    When you do a file transfer on your personal computer (PC), the filename you create is called a local file. This means that the file is stored and accessed on your own computer, as opposed to being stored on a remote server or accessed by other users.

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  • 45. 

    (017) A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called

    • A.

      An element.

    • B.

      A program.

    • C.

      A granule.

    • D.

      A file.

    Correct Answer
    B. A program.
    Explanation
    A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called a program. Programs are designed to perform specific tasks or functions and can be written in various programming languages. They are executed by a computer or other electronic device to carry out the desired operations.

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  • 46. 

    (018) What executive control language (ECL) command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the system an option is to follow?

    • A.

      Splat (*).

    • B.

      Comma (,).

    • C.

      Semicolon (;).

    • D.

      Master Space (@).

    Correct Answer
    B. Comma (,).
    Explanation
    The comma (,) is used in executive control language (ECL) command syntax to indicate that an option is to follow.

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  • 47. 

    (018) A /WRITE-KEY, when used, is presented

    • A.

      After the filename and before the @.

    • B.

      Before the filename and after the period.

    • C.

      After the filename and before the period.

    • D.

      Before the element name and after the comma.

    Correct Answer
    C. After the filename and before the period.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "after the filename and before the period." This is because the /WRITE-KEY is a parameter that is used in a specific format in a file system. In this format, the filename is specified first, followed by the /WRITE-KEY parameter, and then the period is used to separate the filename and the file extension. Therefore, the /WRITE-KEY is presented after the filename and before the period.

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  • 48. 

    (018) What should be used when constructing an executive control language (ECL) file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?

    • A.

      Cycle.

    • B.

      /VERSION.

    • C.

      Qualifier.

    • D.

      Master Space (@).

    Correct Answer
    B. /VERSION.
    Explanation
    When constructing an ECL file, the /VERSION command should be used to differentiate between two elements with identical names. The /VERSION command allows for version control and helps to distinguish between different versions of the same element. This ensures that the correct version is used and prevents confusion or conflicts when working with elements that have the same name.

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  • 49. 

    (019) What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command?

    • A.

      25 characters.

    • B.

      45 characters.

    • C.

      48 characters.

    • D.

      50 characters.

    Correct Answer
    C. 48 characters.
    Explanation
    The maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command is 48 characters.

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  • 50. 

    (019) What is the purpose of the executive control language (ECL) information command @FAC?

    • A.

      Places the user in the conversational timesharing (CTS) environment.

    • B.

      Analyzes a 12-digit octal number when a facility reject occurs.

    • C.

      Lists basic information about a specified file.

    • D.

      Suppresses the display to the console.

    Correct Answer
    B. Analyzes a 12-digit octal number when a facility reject occurs.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 11, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Chris7781
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