Crj 200 Oral Test Bank

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| By Japorter1983
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1. What does the EICAS caution message "ELT ON" mean?

Explanation

The EICAS caution message "ELT ON" indicates that the Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) is transmitting. ELT is a device that is used to locate an aircraft or a person in distress. When the ELT is activated, it sends out a distress signal that can be picked up by search and rescue teams. Therefore, the message "ELT ON" means that the ELT system is functioning and transmitting its distress signal.

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About This Quiz
Crj 200 Oral Test Bank - Quiz

The CRJ 200 Oral Test Bank is designed to assess a pilot's knowledge required for the CRJ 200 aircraft operation. It covers responsibilities of the captain, preflight inspections,... see moreemergency procedures, and technical requirements like APU and battery operations, ensuring readiness and compliance with aviation standards. see less

2. During the After Start Check, when can the APR Test be completed?

Explanation

The APR (Automatic Performance Reserve) Test can only be completed during the After Start Check when both engines are running. This test is specifically designed to assess the performance of the engines, so it requires both engines to be operational in order to accurately measure their performance. Therefore, the test cannot be completed if only one engine is running or if the first officer can dance on one leg, as these factors are unrelated to the performance of the engines.

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3. What does an item with an asterisk (*) next to it indicate on the "Preflight Inspection"?

Explanation

An item with an asterisk (*) next to it on the "Preflight Inspection" indicates that it must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM.

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4. When is it required to start the APU during the Approach Check?

Explanation

The correct answer is "If icing conditions are expected." Starting the APU during the Approach Check is necessary when there is a possibility of encountering icing conditions. The APU generates additional electrical power and bleed air, which can be used for anti-icing systems to prevent ice formation on critical surfaces of the aircraft. Therefore, starting the APU in such conditions ensures the safety and performance of the aircraft during approach and landing.

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5. How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?

Explanation

The correct answer is by pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight. This means that the automatic transfer of power from one source to another can be manually stopped by pressing the switchlight. This action allows the operator to have control over the power transfer process and prevent it from happening automatically.

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6. What precautions must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check?

Explanation

Prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check, it is important to confirm that the nose wheel area is clear or the nose door is closed. This precaution ensures the safety of the aircraft and prevents any potential accidents or damage that could occur if the area is not clear or the door is not closed properly. It is not necessary to clean the switch with an alcohol wipe or involve a mechanic in this specific step of the safety check.

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7. What is the normal/ usual hydraulic quantities?

Explanation

The normal/usual hydraulic quantities are represented by the color green. Green typically indicates that the hydraulic system is functioning properly and operating within normal parameters. It suggests that there are no issues or abnormalities in the hydraulic system, and everything is running smoothly.

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8. How is cabin pressurization maintained?

Explanation

Cabin pressurization is maintained by regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves. These valves control the flow of air out of the cabin, allowing for the adjustment of cabin pressure. By controlling the outflow of air, the pressure inside the cabin can be maintained at a safe and comfortable level for passengers and crew. This ensures that the cabin remains pressurized during flight, allowing for a more comfortable and safe travel experience.

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9. How many days after your address changes must you notify the FAA?

Explanation

After changing your address, it is necessary to notify the FAA within 30 days. This is important because the FAA needs accurate and up-to-date information about the address of pilots and aircraft owners for various purposes such as communication, safety regulations, and legal requirements. Notifying the FAA within the specified timeframe ensures that the FAA has the correct address on record and can reach out to you if needed.

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10. What airports in our system route manuals are authorized for use as an alternate?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)". This means that any airport listed in the System Route manual can be used as an alternate airport, as long as it is not specifically marked as not authorized.

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11. How is fuel heated?

Explanation

Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers are used to heat the fuel. This process involves transferring heat from the engine oil to the fuel, increasing its temperature. By doing so, the heated fuel becomes more efficient and combustible, leading to better engine performance. This method is commonly used in various types of engines, including automotive and aircraft engines, to ensure optimal fuel combustion and overall engine efficiency.

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12. What does amber - - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate (on the status page)?

Explanation

The amber indicator to the right of the APU DOOR status indicates that the position of the APU door is unknown. This means that it is unclear whether the APU door is fully closed or open.

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13. What is the primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check?

Explanation

The primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check is to apply electrical power to the aircraft. This check ensures that all the necessary electrical systems are functioning properly before the flight. It is an essential step in the pre-flight procedures to ensure the safety and readiness of the aircraft for departure.

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14. What are the landing requirements for Flight Crewmembers?

Explanation

Flight Crewmembers are required to have completed at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days in order to maintain their landing currency. This ensures that they have recent experience and proficiency in performing takeoffs and landings, which are critical skills for flight crewmembers. The other options mentioned, such as 3 takeoffs and landings during the day or night, are not specifically mentioned as landing requirements for flight crewmembers.

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15. When is the Fasten Seatbelt sign required to be "ON"?

Explanation

The Fasten Seatbelt sign is required to be "ON" during taxiing, takeoff, landing, and turbulent air conditions. This is because these are the times when there is a higher risk of turbulence or sudden movements that could potentially cause passengers to lose balance or get injured. By having the Fasten Seatbelt sign "ON" during these situations, it helps ensure the safety and well-being of the passengers on board the aircraft.

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16. What is the minimum rate of climb must you be able to maintain before reporting it to ATC?

_____ fpm

Explanation

The minimum rate of climb that must be maintained before reporting it to ATC is 500 feet per minute (fpm). This means that if an aircraft is climbing, it must maintain a vertical speed of at least 500 fpm before informing air traffic control. This reporting requirement helps ensure that ATC has accurate information about the aircraft's climb performance, which is important for maintaining safe separation between aircraft and coordinating traffic flow.

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17. What does the term Minimum Fuel mean?

Explanation

The term "Minimum Fuel" refers to the condition where the existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without any significant delays. This means that the aircraft has enough fuel to safely reach its destination without needing to make any unscheduled stops for refueling. It indicates that the fuel level is at or above the minimum required for the flight, ensuring that there is no risk of running out of fuel during the journey.

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18. Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling the aircraft at night.

Explanation

Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling aircraft at night because they provide visibility and clear communication between the marshaller and the pilot. In low light conditions, the illuminated wands help the marshaller to guide the aircraft safely by signaling the pilot with specific hand movements and directions. Without illuminated hand wands, it would be difficult for the marshaller to effectively communicate with the pilot and ensure the safe movement of the aircraft on the ground. Therefore, it is true that illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling aircraft at night.

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19. How are the primary flight controls actuated?

Explanation

The primary flight controls are actuated using hydraulic power. Hydraulic power is a system that uses fluid under pressure to transmit force and motion. In aircraft, hydraulic power is used to operate various systems, including the flight controls. The hydraulic fluid is pressurized and directed to the control surfaces, such as the ailerons, elevators, and rudder, allowing the pilot to maneuver the aircraft. This method provides smooth and precise control over the aircraft's movements, ensuring safe and efficient flight.

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20. How many hydraulic systems are on the CRJ?

Explanation

The CRJ (Canadair Regional Jet) has three hydraulic systems. These hydraulic systems are responsible for powering various components of the aircraft, such as the landing gear, brakes, and flight controls. Having multiple hydraulic systems ensures redundancy and reliability in case one system fails.

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21. Who is responsible to ensure a preflight inspection is accomplished?

Explanation

The Captain (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that a preflight inspection is accomplished. As the Pilot in Command, the Captain has the overall authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the aircraft. This includes ensuring that all necessary checks and inspections are completed before each flight. The First Officer and Flight Attendant may assist in the inspection process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Captain.

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22. There are two types of "Preflight Inspections" a "Detailed Inspection", and a "General Inspection", when is a detailed inspection required?

Explanation

A detailed inspection is required prior to the first flight of the day, after significant maintenance has been performed, and anytime the aircraft's condition is in question. This means that before the aircraft takes off for the first time in a day, a thorough inspection must be conducted to ensure its airworthiness. Additionally, after any major maintenance work has been done, another detailed inspection is necessary to verify that the aircraft is in proper working order. Lastly, if there are any doubts or concerns about the condition of the aircraft, a detailed inspection should be carried out to address those concerns.

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23. What is the minimum voltage required on the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU? ____ volts

Explanation

The minimum voltage required on both the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU is 22 volts.

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24. Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?

Explanation

The IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) cannot be reconnected in flight once it is disconnected. This is because the process of reconnecting the IDG requires shutting down the engine, which is not feasible during flight. Therefore, once the IDG is disconnected, it cannot be reconnected until the aircraft is on the ground and the engine can be safely shut down and restarted.

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25. What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?

______ volts

Explanation

The correct answer is 22 volts. This means that a DC voltage of 22 volts is required to start the APU from battery power.

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26. When can the Wing Anti-ice Test be completed?

Explanation

The Wing Anti-ice Test can only be completed once both engines are running. This is because the Wing Anti-ice system requires the engines to be operational in order to function properly. The test is conducted to ensure that the Wing Anti-ice system is working correctly and is able to prevent ice from forming on the wings during flight. Conducting the test before both engines are running would not provide an accurate assessment of the system's effectiveness.

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27. When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?

The boxed items are performed upon reaching ________ ft, or cruise altitude if lower

Explanation

Upon reaching 10,000 feet or the cruise altitude if lower, the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK are completed. This means that the checklist items in the box, which are likely related to specific actions or procedures during the climb phase of the flight, are performed at this altitude. The answer provided in both formats, "10000" and "10,000," indicates the altitude at which these boxed items are completed.

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28. Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within how many hours of any scheduled flight duty?

______ hrs

Explanation

Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within 24 hours of any scheduled flight duty. This is likely because scuba diving can cause nitrogen bubbles to form in the body, which can lead to decompression sickness. The high pressure experienced during scuba diving can affect the body's ability to handle the pressure changes that occur during flights. Therefore, it is important for crewmembers to wait at least 24 hours after scuba diving before engaging in any flight duties to ensure their safety and prevent any potential health risks.

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29. How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?

Explanation

To manually disconnect an IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) from its engine, the IDG DISC switch needs to be pressed. This switch is specifically designed to disconnect the IDG from the engine, allowing for isolation and maintenance if required. By pressing the IDG DISC switch, the mechanical connection between the IDG and the engine is severed, ensuring the generator is no longer powered by the engine. This action is necessary in situations where the IDG needs to be disconnected for troubleshooting or replacement purposes.

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30. When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?

Explanation

The APU fire extinguishing system will activate automatically on the ground in the event of an APU fire, with a delay of 5 seconds. This means that if a fire is detected in the APU while the aircraft is on the ground, the fire extinguishing system will start operating after a 5-second delay.

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31. Where is the engine fuel feed temperature displayed?

Explanation

The engine fuel feed temperature is displayed on the Fuel Synoptic page. This page provides a comprehensive overview of the fuel system, including various parameters such as fuel temperature, fuel quantity, and fuel flow. By accessing this page, pilots and engineers can monitor and analyze the fuel feed temperature to ensure optimal engine performance and prevent any potential issues related to fuel temperature.

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32. What does a red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicate?

Explanation

A red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicates a leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section.

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33. How is the APU fuel feed SOV opened?

Explanation

The APU fuel feed SOV is opened when the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed. This means that when the switchlight is turned on and the Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) test is successfully completed, the APU fuel feed SOV is opened, allowing fuel to flow to the APU for operation.

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34. What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B do?

Explanation

The AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B causes the B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operating, and the flaps are out of 0. This means that the B pumps will only be activated when the necessary conditions are met, ensuring the efficient and appropriate use of the hydraulic system.

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35. Flying at FL200, the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?

Explanation

When the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed while flying at FL200, the pressure altitude of the cabin should reach 14,250 +/- 750ft. This means that the cabin altitude will be maintained at a level between 13,500ft and 15,000ft. The EMER DEPRESS switchlight is used to initiate an emergency depressurization, allowing the cabin pressure to rapidly equalize with the outside pressure. The range of 14,250 +/- 750ft ensures that the cabin altitude remains within a safe and controlled range during the emergency depressurization procedure.

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36. Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist?

Explanation

The Second Engine Start Checklist is performed by the First Officer. This checklist is a standard procedure that ensures all necessary steps are taken before starting the second engine of an aircraft. It includes tasks such as verifying fuel levels, checking engine controls, and ensuring all systems are ready for engine start. The First Officer is responsible for completing this checklist to ensure a safe and efficient start of the second engine.

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37. How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?

Explanation

There are two Firex bottles provided for engine fire extinguishing.

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38. What does selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON cause?

Explanation

Selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON arms both pumps. Additionally, if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps will turn on. This means that when the boost pump switch is activated, it ensures that both pumps are ready to operate. If the system detects low fuel pressure, it will activate both pumps to provide the necessary fuel pressure.

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39. Where is the bulk fuel tempature displayed?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuel Synoptic page. This page displays the bulk fuel temperature.

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40. Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, what must you ensure?

Explanation

Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, you must ensure that there is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message. This means that there are no indications or warnings of a potential fire in the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit). It is important to address any potential fire risks before conducting the test to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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41. What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection Check?

Explanation

The " * " next to items on the Flight Deck Inspection Check indicates that they are the First Flight of the Day Items. These items are crucial to be checked before the first flight of the day to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft. They may include tasks like checking fuel levels, inspecting the exterior of the aircraft, verifying emergency equipment, and testing communication systems. These items are essential to be completed before each flight to ensure the aircraft is in a suitable condition for operation.

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42. What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenger, main)?

Explanation

The fuel system ejector pumps are powered by motive flow. Motive flow refers to the flow of fuel that is generated by the motion of the aircraft. This flow is used to power various systems in the aircraft, including the ejector pumps. These pumps help transfer fuel from one part of the system to another, ensuring a continuous flow of fuel to the engine. The motive flow system utilizes the energy from the aircraft's motion to generate the necessary pressure to move the fuel through the system.

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43. With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B/2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?

Explanation

The pumps will operate when the flaps are out of 0. This means that the pumps will only start operating when the flaps are extended from their fully retracted position.

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44. What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the main cabin door?

Explanation

The correct answer is "must be completely depressurized." This means that in order to open the main cabin door, the cabin pressure must be reduced to zero. This is necessary to prevent any pressure imbalance between the inside and outside of the aircraft, which could make it difficult or impossible to open the door. By completely depressurizing the cabin, the pressure inside and outside the aircraft is equalized, allowing the door to be opened safely.

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45. When are the recognition and ice lights required to be ON?

Recognition and ice lights are required for all operations conducted below _________ ft, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew

Explanation

The recognition and ice lights are required to be ON for all operations conducted below 10,000 feet, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew.

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46. How many days is a Temporary Airman Certificate Valid?

Explanation

A Temporary Airman Certificate is valid for 120 days. This means that after obtaining the certificate, the individual is allowed to perform certain aviation activities for a period of 120 days before it expires. It is important for individuals to keep track of the expiration date and renew the certificate if necessary to continue operating as an airman.

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47. How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar year?

Explanation

A crewmember can be scheduled for a maximum of 1000 hours in a calendar year.

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48. How many batteries are installed? (not counting the emergency lights battery)

Explanation

The given answer states that there are 2 batteries installed, excluding the emergency lights battery. This implies that there are additional batteries in the system, but they are not considered in the count. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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49. What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external switchlight indicate?

Explanation

The green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external switchlight indicates that power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency. This means that the power supply is functioning properly and meets the required specifications for the device or system that it is connected to.

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50. Describe the function of the TEST position of the DUCT MONITOR SELECTOR switch.

Explanation

The TEST position of the DUCT MONITOR SELECTOR switch simulates an overheat in both the 10th and 14th stage manifolds, as well as the wing anti-ice duct. This allows for testing and troubleshooting of the system without actually causing an overheat condition.

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51. What does the LND ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel do?

Explanation

The LND ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel is used to set the landing elevation on the status page. This means that it adjusts the displayed elevation information on the status page, which is important for accurate altitude readings during landing. It does not set the elevation of the departing airport, as that is determined by other factors such as the airport's location and altitude.

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52. Where is the unpressurized takeoff procedure found?

Explanation

The unpressurized takeoff procedure is found in the CFM (Continuous Flow Management) documentation. This documentation provides guidelines and procedures for managing the flow of air traffic and ensuring efficient operations. It is specifically designed to address the specific requirements and procedures for unpressurized takeoffs, which involve taking off without pressurizing the aircraft cabin. The CFM documentation is a comprehensive resource for pilots and air traffic controllers to ensure safe and efficient operations during unpressurized takeoffs.

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53. Perform a terminating check if the plane will be unattended in excess of _____ hour (s)

Explanation

The question asks about performing a terminating check if the plane will be unattended for a certain number of hours. The given answer of 1 hour suggests that the terminating check should be done if the plane will be unattended for 1 hour or more.

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54. What are the requirements for a takeoff alternate?

Explanation

A takeoff alternate is a backup airport that an aircraft can divert to in case it is unable to continue its flight after takeoff. The requirement for a takeoff alternate is that it must be less than 1 hour away from the departing airport at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. This means that the alternate airport should be close enough to reach within 1 hour of flying time, considering that the aircraft may be operating with reduced engine power.

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55. Which DC BUS TIE will not operate automatically?

Explanation

The DC ESSENTIAL TIE will not operate automatically.

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56. When conducting the Single Engine Taxi Procedures, when should the second engine be started?

Explanation

The correct answer is Number 4 for takeoff, at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff. This is because starting the second engine early allows it to stabilize and reach the required operating parameters before takeoff. Starting the second engine too late may result in insufficient time for it to stabilize, which can affect the performance and safety of the aircraft during takeoff. Therefore, starting the second engine at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff ensures that both engines are fully operational and ready for takeoff.

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57. After donating blood or a transfusion, how long is a Crewmember restricted from flying?

________ Hours

Explanation

After donating blood or receiving a transfusion, a crewmember is typically restricted from flying for 24 hours. This restriction is in place to ensure the safety of the crewmember and passengers, as donating blood or receiving a transfusion can temporarily affect the individual's physical condition and potentially compromise their ability to perform their duties effectively during a flight. By allowing a 24-hour recovery period, the crewmember can fully regain their strength and ensure that they are fit to operate an aircraft.

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58. How many Firex bottles are provided for APU fire extinguishing?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 because only one Firex bottle is provided for APU fire extinguishing.

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59. How does the crew know there is adequate hydraulic fluid and quantity?

Explanation

The crew knows there is adequate hydraulic fluid and quantity by checking the hydraulic synoptic page and verifying that the fluid quantity is green. This page provides a visual representation of the hydraulic system and its components, including the fluid level. If the fluid quantity is green, it indicates that there is enough hydraulic fluid for normal operations. This allows the crew to ensure that the hydraulic system is functioning properly and that there is sufficient fluid to operate the aircraft's hydraulic systems.

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60. During the APU shutdown, the APU RPM must be below _____ % RPM before selecting the APU PWR FUEL switch light to OFF.

Explanation

During the APU shutdown, it is important to ensure that the APU RPM (Rotations Per Minute) is below 50% RPM before turning off the APU PWR FUEL switch light. This is necessary to prevent any potential damage or issues that may occur if the APU is abruptly shut down while still running at a higher RPM. By ensuring that the APU RPM is below 50% RPM, a safe and controlled shutdown process can be carried out.

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61. The minimum fuel for takeoff is?

Explanation

The minimum fuel for takeoff includes the fuel burned during the flight (BURN), the fuel required to reach the alternate airport (ALT), and the reserve fuel (RESV) needed for any unforeseen circumstances or delays. Therefore, the correct answer is BURN + ALT + RESV.

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62. When completing the After Landing Checklist, what flap setting are we required to leave in if the approach was made in icing conditions, or if the runway was covered in snow or slush?

_______ degrees

Explanation

In icing conditions or when the runway is covered in snow or slush, it is required to leave the flaps at 20 degrees when completing the After Landing Checklist. This flap setting helps to ensure that the aircraft maintains the necessary lift and control during landing and taxiing on slippery surfaces.

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63. A Pinnacle crewmember may engage in commercial flying outside of Pinnacle.

Explanation

A Pinnacle crewmember is not allowed to engage in commercial flying outside of Pinnacle. This means that they are not permitted to work for any other airline or engage in any commercial flying activities outside of their employment with Pinnacle. Therefore, the statement is false.

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64. What are the different types of hydroplanning?

Explanation

The different types of hydroplaning are dynamic, viscous, and reverted rubber. Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when a layer of water separates the tires from the road surface, resulting in a loss of traction. Viscous hydroplaning happens when a thin film of water is present on the road, causing the tires to ride on top of it instead of making contact with the pavement. Reverted rubber hydroplaning occurs when the heat generated by the friction between the tires and the road surface causes the rubber to become sticky, reducing traction.

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65. When a DC BUS TIE is closed why is the DC Utility Bus shed?

Explanation

When a DC BUS TIE is closed, it connects two or more DC buses together. This can lead to an increase in the amount of power being transferred between the buses. If the Service TRU (Transformer Rectifier Unit) is already operating at its maximum capacity, the additional power from the utility bus can overload the TRU. To prevent this, the DC Utility Bus is shed or disconnected, ensuring that the Service TRU is not overloaded and can continue to operate within its limits.

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66. Can fuel be transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks with the engines shutdown?

Explanation

needs motive flow to transfer (transfer ejectors)

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67. What does the amber PUMP FAIL light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Crossflow / APU pump has failed." The amber PUMP FAIL light indicates that there is a failure in the crossflow or APU pump. This means that there is an issue with the pump that is responsible for transferring fuel between the fuel tanks or the auxiliary power unit.

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68. What happens to ACMP 2B is the left engine fails?

Explanation

When the left engine fails, ACMP 2B is load shed. This means that the load on ACMP 2B is removed or disconnected in order to prevent any further damage or imbalance caused by the failed engine. Load shedding is a safety measure to ensure the continued operation and stability of the aircraft in such situations.

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69. What happens when EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed in (ON)?

Explanation

When the EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed in the ON position, it activates the Cabin Pressure control system. This system opens the outflow valves fully, allowing the cabin pressure to equalize with the outside air pressure. As a result, the cabin climbs to an altitude of 14,250 ft with a tolerance of +/- 750 ft. This action ensures that the cabin pressure remains stable and comfortable for the passengers and crew onboard the aircraft.

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70. Where is the unpressurized landing procedure found?

Explanation

The unpressurized landing procedure is found in the CFM (Crew Flight Manual).

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71. Reference the Cleared to Start Check response to "PAPERS.............ON BOARD." What papers must be onboard?

Explanation

The papers that must be onboard according to the Cleared to Start Check response are the Manual Load Manifest (FT451) as required, Dispatch flight release / flight plan, and Customs Clearance. These documents are necessary for ensuring the safety and legality of the flight. The Manual Load Manifest provides information about the cargo and its distribution in the aircraft. The Dispatch flight release / flight plan contains important details about the flight, such as the route, fuel requirements, and weather conditions. The Customs Clearance document is necessary for complying with customs regulations when crossing international borders.

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72. What is the purpose of the Termination Check?

Explanation

The purpose of the Termination Check is to remove electrical power from the aircraft. This is important for safety reasons, as it ensures that all electrical systems are properly shut down and reduces the risk of any potential electrical hazards or malfunctions. By removing power, it also helps conserve energy and prevent any unnecessary drain on the aircraft's batteries.

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73. When is a Flight Deck Inspection required

Explanation

A Flight Deck Inspection is required in three situations:
1) Aircraft's First Flight of the Day: This ensures that the flight deck is in proper working condition before the aircraft takes off for the first flight of the day.
2) Crew/Aircraft Change: Whenever there is a change in crew or aircraft, a Flight Deck Inspection is necessary to ensure that everything is in order and ready for the next flight.
3) Aircraft status is in question: If there are any doubts or concerns about the aircraft's status, a Flight Deck Inspection is required to assess and address any issues before proceeding with the flight.

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74. What are the required certificates to operate as PIC?

Explanation

To operate as a PIC (Pilot in Command), the individual must possess the following certificates: ATP (Airline Transport Pilot) with Type Rating, Airplane Multi-Engine Land Class Rating, First Class Medical certificate, Company Issued Photo ID, FCC (Federal Communications Commission) License, and a Valid Passport. Additionally, a Bachelor's Degree is not mentioned as a required certificate, so it is not necessary to have one to operate as a PIC.

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75. No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many hours prior to duty? (Training Events)

Explanation

Crewmembers are not permitted to consume alcohol, including beer and wine, within 8 hours prior to their duty during training events. This rule is in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the crewmembers and to maintain a professional and responsible environment during their duties.

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76. How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar month?

Explanation

A crewmember can be scheduled for a maximum of 100 hours in a calendar month. This implies that the crewmember's work schedule cannot exceed 100 hours within that specific month.

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77. How many hours must a pilot fly, for consolidation of knowledge, upon completing their initial proficiency check or type rating if new to an aircraft type?

_____ hrs line operations within 120 days.

Explanation

Upon completing their initial proficiency check or type rating, a pilot must fly 100 hours of line operations within 120 days for consolidation of knowledge. This means that they need to gain practical experience and apply their newly acquired skills in real-world flying situations. Flying for this duration will help the pilot become more proficient and confident in operating the specific aircraft type.

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78. A high minimums captain must increase the ceiling to commence a approach, what is the amount in ft to increase by?

Explanation

The answer provided, "100,100 ft," suggests that the high minimums captain must increase the ceiling by 100,100 feet in order to commence an approach.

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79. When will power to the AC Essential Bus automatically switch from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2?

Explanation

The power to the AC Essential Bus will automatically switch from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2 when AC Bus 1 is not powered. This means that if AC Bus 1 loses power or is turned off, the system will automatically transfer power to AC Bus 2 to ensure continuous power supply to the AC Essential Bus.

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80. What are the benefits of the dual detection loop system? (FIRE)

Explanation

The benefits of the dual detection loop system include redundancy and dispatchability. Redundancy ensures that if one loop fails, there is a backup loop to continue detecting and alerting for fires. This increases the reliability and effectiveness of the system. Dispatchability refers to the ability to pinpoint the exact location of the fire, allowing for a quicker response from emergency services. This helps in minimizing damage and ensuring the safety of individuals.

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81. What does 14th stage bleed air supply?

Explanation

The 14th stage bleed air is used to supply air to the wing anti-ice system and the thrust reversers. The wing anti-ice system is responsible for preventing ice from forming on the wings, which could affect the aircraft's performance. The thrust reversers, on the other hand, are used to redirect the engine's thrust forward, helping to slow down the aircraft during landing. Therefore, the 14th stage bleed air is crucial for ensuring the safety and efficiency of these systems.

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82. Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine shutdown?

Explanation

The B pumps do not activate automatically after an engine shutdown.

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83. What does the APU Green "AVAIL" light mean?

Explanation

The APU Green "AVAIL" light indicates that the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) is available for bleed air extraction. Bleed air is used to power various aircraft systems such as air conditioning, pressurization, and engine starting. This light indicates that the APU is ready to provide this necessary air supply.

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84. What documents are required to be checked and ensured to be on board the aircraft?

Explanation

The documents that are required to be checked and ensured to be on board the aircraft include the Aircraft Maintenance Log (AML), Quick Reference Handbook (QRH), Minimum Equipment List (MEL), Configuration Deviation List (CDL) or Dispatch Deviation List (DDL), Speed Cards, Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, and Radio Station License. These documents are necessary for the safe operation and compliance of the aircraft with regulatory requirements. The inclusion of "Cell Phone" and "US today" in the list seems to be irrelevant and does not pertain to the required documents for the aircraft.

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85. By what day must you turn in your medical certificate to the chief pilots office?

Explanation

The correct answer is 25th. This is the day by which you must turn in your medical certificate to the chief pilot's office.

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86. Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within how many hours prior to flying?

Explanation

Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within 12 hours prior to flying. This restriction is likely in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the crewmembers and passengers. Viagra is a medication that can cause side effects such as dizziness and changes in vision, which could potentially impair a crewmember's ability to perform their duties effectively during a flight. It is important for crewmembers to be in a clear state of mind and physically capable when operating an aircraft, hence the restriction on taking Viagra within 12 hours of flying.

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87. Can a High Minimum Captain conduct a CAT II approach?

Explanation

A High Minimum Captain is not qualified to conduct a CAT II approach. A CAT II approach requires a minimum visibility of 1200 meters and a decision height of 100 feet, which can only be conducted by a CAT II qualified pilot. A High Minimum Captain is restricted to CAT I approaches, which have higher visibility and decision height requirements. Therefore, the correct answer is no.

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88. What are the primary sources of electrical power?

Explanation

The primary sources of electrical power are two engines and APU driven generators. Engines are typically used in vehicles and machinery to generate power, while APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) driven generators are commonly found in aircrafts to provide electrical power when the main engines are not running. These sources are reliable and efficient in producing electricity for various applications.

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89. On the ground, if low pressure is detected in the left engine fuel feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?

Explanation

If low pressure is detected in the left engine fuel feed line, both the left and right boost pump ON lights will illuminate if either the left or right boost pump is selected on. This means that if either boost pump is turned on, both lights will come on to indicate that there is low pressure in the left engine fuel feed line.

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90. How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?

Explanation

Fuel is transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks through motive flow (transfer ejectors). Transfer ejectors are devices that use high-pressure fuel from the engine to create a vacuum and draw fuel from the center tank into the wing tanks. This method allows for efficient and controlled transfer of fuel between the tanks without the need for additional fuel pumps.

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91. Is AC electrical power required for engine starting?

Explanation

AC electrical power is not required for engine starting. Engines can be started using DC electrical power or other means such as manual starting mechanisms. AC electrical power is typically used for powering electrical systems and devices once the engine is running.

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92. At ____ % RPM the APU starter normally cuts out during the APU Start.

Explanation

At 50% RPM, the APU starter normally cuts out during the APU start. This means that once the APU reaches 50% of its maximum rotational speed, the starter motor disengages and stops assisting in starting the APU. This is a normal operating procedure and indicates that the APU is running smoothly and can continue to operate independently without the assistance of the starter motor.

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93. How long does it take for the AHRS to initialize in the MAG mode?

Explanation

The AHRS (Attitude and Heading Reference System) takes approximately 30 to 70 seconds to initialize in the MAG (Magnetic) mode. During this time, the system calibrates and aligns itself to accurately measure and display the aircraft's attitude and heading based on magnetic sensors. This initialization process is necessary to ensure the AHRS provides reliable and accurate information to the pilot.

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94. The normal source of DC power is the Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs), how many does the CRJ have?

Explanation

The CRJ has five Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) as its normal source of DC power.

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95. When is automatic fuel transfer initiated (wing tank to wing tank)?

______ lbs

Explanation

When the fuel level in one wing tank reaches 200 pounds, the automatic fuel transfer is initiated from that wing tank to the other wing tank.

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96. The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?

Explanation

The rudder system is powered by all three hydraulic systems, namely System 1, System 2, and System 3. This means that each hydraulic system contributes to the functioning of the rudder system, providing the necessary hydraulic power to control the movement of the rudder.

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97. When does the APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminate?

Explanation

The APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminates when the APU reaches a speed of 95% and remains at that speed for 4 seconds. This indicates that the APU is available and ready to be used for various aircraft functions.

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98. How long can it take for AHRS alignment in the DG mode?

Explanation

The AHRS alignment in DG mode can take up to 11 minutes. This process involves aligning the Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) to the Directional Gyro (DG) in order to ensure accurate attitude and heading information. The alignment time may vary depending on factors such as the aircraft's equipment and the specific AHRS system being used. However, in this case, the maximum time it can take is 11 minutes.

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99. Unless an emergency exists what is the lowest reported braking action report we are allowed to land with?

Explanation

The lowest reported braking action report that we are allowed to land with, unless an emergency exists, is "POOR".

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100. In flight, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?

Explanation

If low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, the boost pump detecting low pressure will activate itself and the cross-side boost pump if selected. This means that the boost pump will turn on to provide additional fuel pressure to the left engine, and if the cross-side boost pump is selected, it will also turn on to provide fuel pressure from the right engine to the left engine. Therefore, the correct answer is Left Boost Pump.

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101. What is the secondary function of the APU?

Explanation

The secondary function of the APU is to provide bleed air. Bleed air is used to power various aircraft systems, such as air conditioning, anti-icing, and pressurization. It is taken from the compressor stage of the APU and directed to these systems, allowing them to operate efficiently. This helps to enhance the overall performance and safety of the aircraft during flight.

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102. When do we need a Takeoff Alternate?

Explanation

A takeoff alternate is needed when the weather at the departure airport is forecasted to be below certain visibility and cloud cover requirements (less than 3 miles visibility and 2000 overcast) and does not meet the C-55 requirements. In this case, the correct answer states that a takeoff alternate is needed whenever the weather at the departure airport allows for a return given the current weather conditions, airplane status, and crew qualifications. This means that if the weather is not suitable for a safe landing at the departure airport, a takeoff alternate must be identified before the flight can proceed.

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103. If the AC ESS XFER switchlight is illuminated or pressed which bus is powering the AC ESS bus?
(Just enter the number or name, do not enter AC or BUS in the answer)

Explanation

If the AC ESS XFER switchlight is illuminated or pressed, bus number 2 is powering the AC ESS bus.

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104. During APU start, at what RPM should the white status APU START and the START light in the START/STOP switchlight go out?

Explanation

During APU start, the white status APU START and the START light in the START/STOP switchlight should go out at 50 RPM or when the APU reaches 50% of its maximum speed.

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105. What is the purpose of the Exit Checklist?

Explanation

The purpose of the Exit Checklist is to leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time. This checklist ensures that all necessary systems and equipment are properly secured before leaving the aircraft, allowing for brief periods of unattended operation. It serves as a safety measure to prevent any potential accidents or malfunctions while the aircraft is temporarily unoccupied.

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106. What are the required certificates to operate as SIC?

Explanation

To operate as a Second in Command (SIC), the individual must possess the following certificates: Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating, Instrument Rating, Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating, Second Class Medical, Company Issued Photo ID, FCC License, and Valid Passport. These certificates are necessary to ensure that the SIC has the required training, skills, and qualifications to perform their duties effectively and safely. The Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating, Instrument Rating, and Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating demonstrate the pilot's ability to operate specific types of aircraft. The Second Class Medical ensures that the pilot meets the necessary health requirements. The Company Issued Photo ID, FCC License, and Valid Passport are necessary for identification and compliance purposes.

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107. How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled in seven (7) consecutive day?

Explanation

A Crewmember can be scheduled for a maximum of 30 hours in seven consecutive days. This implies that the maximum number of hours a Crewmember can work in a week is 30.

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108. When a SIC has less than 100 hours of flight time in revenue operations for the company as second-in-command in the type airplane being flow, and the PIC is not a check airman, the PIC must make all takeoffs and landings under what conditions?

Explanation

The PIC must make all takeoffs and landings under the conditions listed because when a SIC has less than 100 hours of flight time in revenue operations for the company as second-in-command in the type airplane being flown, and the PIC is not a check airman, the PIC is responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft. These conditions ensure that the PIC has the necessary experience and knowledge to handle potentially challenging situations, such as low visibility, adverse runway conditions, crosswinds, windshear, and any other conditions that the PIC deems appropriate.

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109. What does 10th stage bleed air supply?

Explanation

The 10th stage bleed air supplies engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization, and avionics cooling. This means that it is responsible for providing the necessary air for starting the engine, cooling the avionics system, maintaining the desired cabin pressure, and regulating the temperature inside the aircraft.

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110. What is the primary function of the APU?

Explanation

The primary function of the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) is to provide AC Electrical Power. The APU is a small gas turbine engine located at the rear of an aircraft, and it is responsible for generating electrical power to operate various systems and equipment on the aircraft, such as lighting, avionics, and cabin services. It acts as an independent power source, allowing the aircraft to operate without relying on external power sources, such as ground power units or the main engines. The APU also provides power during engine start-up.

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111. Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as electric pumps?

Explanation

System 1 and System 2 have both engine driven pumps and electric pumps. This means that these hydraulic systems can be powered by either the engine or electricity, providing flexibility and redundancy in case of any failure or maintenance issues with one of the pumps. Having both types of pumps ensures that the hydraulic system can continue to function even if one power source is unavailable or not functioning properly.

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112. What does the FAIL light illuminated in an AUTO XFER switchlight along with the amber EICAS AUTO XFER FAIL indicate?

Explanation

The FAIL light illuminated in an AUTO XFER switchlight along with the amber EICAS AUTO XFER FAIL indicate a bus fault or generator overcurrent condition. This means that there is a fault in the electrical bus or the generator is experiencing an overcurrent situation.

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113. Can the APU generator power hydraulic pump 1B and 2B?

Explanation

The APU generator can only power hydraulic pump 1B and 2B if the WOW (Weight on Wheels) is active and the pumps are turned on. This means that the aircraft must be on the ground and the pumps must be manually selected to the ON position for the APU generator to provide power to these hydraulic pumps.

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114. When should the Before Start Check be accomplished? Approximately ____ minutes prior to departure.

Explanation

The Before Start Check should be accomplished approximately 10 minutes prior to departure. This check is usually conducted by the flight crew to ensure that all necessary pre-flight tasks and inspections have been completed before the aircraft takes off. It involves verifying the aircraft's systems, instruments, controls, and other important components to ensure they are in proper working order and ready for flight. Completing this check 10 minutes before departure allows enough time for any necessary adjustments or corrections to be made before the aircraft begins its journey.

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115. When conducting the APR TEST, what indications should be observed?

Explanation

During the APR TEST, the indications that should be observed are the APR ICON illuminating on both N1 gauges and the APR TEST 1 OK (APR TEST 2 OK) advisory message. The other options mentioned, such as the N1 gauges turning amber and the ITT gauges turning red, are not the correct indications to be observed during the APR TEST.

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116. The APU and Main Battery are what type of battery?

Explanation

The APU and Main Battery are NiCad batteries.

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117. Describe the function of the LOOP A/B positions.

Explanation

The LOOP A/B positions are used to test the individual loops of the 10th stage leak detection system for shorts or failure.

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118. What does the green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?

Explanation

The green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicates that the APU is ready for bleed air extraction. This means that the APU is capable of supplying bleed air to power various aircraft systems such as air conditioning and pressurization.

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119. What does the COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?

Explanation

The COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provides recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air that is warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay. This helps to maintain a controlled temperature in the cargo compartment, ensuring that the cargo is not exposed to extreme temperatures.

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120. When checking the Fuel Check Valve, what is the procedure if you do not get the R FUEL LO PRESS caution message after 20 seconds?(you have not attempted starting the right engine yet)

Explanation

If the R FUEL LO PRESS caution message is not received after 20 seconds, it indicates that there is no issue with the fuel pressure in the left engine. Therefore, the correct course of action would be to proceed with initiating the right engine start as there is no indication of any fuel problem.

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121. Perform a Exit Check if the plane will be unattended between ____ minutes and 1 hour.

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 because if the plane will be unattended for a period of time between 5 minutes and 1 hour, it is necessary to perform an exit check. This check ensures that everything is in order before leaving the plane unattended for an extended period of time.

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122. No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many hours prior to duty? (Non-Training Events)

Explanation

According to the given information, no crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine, within 10 hours prior to duty for non-training events. This rule is most likely in place to ensure that crewmembers are not under the influence of alcohol while performing their duties, as it can impair their judgment and ability to carry out their responsibilities safely and effectively.

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123. What is the maximum Fuel on Board can be over the RELEASE FUEL and not require an amendment to the release?

_____ lbs

Explanation

The maximum Fuel on Board can be over the RELEASE FUEL without requiring an amendment to the release is 200 lbs.

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124. What does a white closed light illuminated on the DC BUS TIE 1 or 2 switchlights indicate?

Explanation

When the white closed light is illuminated on the DC BUS TIE 1 or 2 switchlights, it indicates that the DC BUS has been automatically tied to the Service TRU.

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125. What does the amber SOV FAIL light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?

Explanation

The amber SOV FAIL light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicates that the APU Fuel Feed SOV (Shut-Off Valve) has failed. This means that there is a problem with the valve responsible for shutting off the fuel supply to the APU.

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126. When starting with DC power only, which engine is started first?

Explanation

When starting with DC power only, the right engine is started first. This is because the right engine is typically the "number one" engine, and it is common practice to start the engines in numerical order. Additionally, starting with the right engine allows for better control during the starting process, as the right engine provides better visibility from the cockpit.

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127. What does pressing the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice do?

Explanation

Pressing the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice switches the pressure controls. This means that it activates or changes the settings for controlling the pressurization. By pressing the switchlight twice, the user can adjust or toggle between different pressure control options, allowing for manual control over the pressurization process.

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128. What is the maximum duty time a crewmember is allowed to work?

Explanation

The maximum duty time a crewmember is allowed to work is 16 hours. This means that the crewmember can work continuously for a maximum of 16 hours before they are required to take a break or rest period. This limit is in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the crewmember, as working for extended periods without rest can lead to fatigue and impaired performance, which can be dangerous in certain industries such as aviation or transportation.

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129. What does the WARN position of the TEST toggle switch simulate? (FIRE)

Explanation

The WARN position of the TEST toggle switch simulates a fire or overheat condition. This means that when the switch is in the WARN position, it will mimic the effects and indications of a fire or overheat situation. This is likely used for testing and training purposes, allowing individuals to practice responding to such emergencies without actually putting themselves or the equipment at risk.

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130. Which ACMP runs continuously during normal operations?

Explanation

ACMP 3A is the correct answer because it is the only option that specifies a continuous operation. The other options (1B, 2B, and 3B) do not mention continuous operation, so they can be ruled out. ACMP 3A is likely a component or system that is designed to run continuously without interruption during normal operations.

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131. Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG bus during ADG deployment?

Explanation

During the deployment of the Aircraft Deployable Ground (ADG) system, the hydraulic pump that automatically operates from the ADG bus is 3B.

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132. If you do not get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message during the right engine start, you should discontinue the Right Engine Start and contact maintenance.

Explanation

If a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message is not displayed during the right engine start, it indicates that there may be a problem with the fuel pressure in the right engine. This could potentially lead to a loss of fuel supply and cause the engine to malfunction. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the right engine start and contact maintenance to investigate and resolve the issue before proceeding further.

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133. What areas are protected by the fire and overheat detection system?

Explanation

The fire and overheat detection system is designed to protect various areas of an aircraft. These areas include the engines, jetpipe, pylon, APU (Auxiliary Power Unit), and main landing gear. These components are critical for the safe operation of the aircraft, and the detection system helps to identify any potential fire or overheating issues in these areas. This ensures the safety of the passengers and crew on board and helps to prevent any catastrophic incidents that could occur due to fire or overheating in these important aircraft components.

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134. What does the FAIL position of the TEST toggle switch simulate? (FIRE)

Explanation

The FAIL position of the TEST toggle switch simulates a "false fire" condition or a loop short. This means that when the switch is in the FAIL position, it will create a scenario where there is either a false indication of a fire or an electrical loop short. This allows for testing and simulation of these conditions without actually causing any harm or danger.

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135. A high minimums captain must increase the visibility to commence the approach?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1/2 mile. A high minimums captain must increase the visibility to commence the approach. This means that in order for the captain to begin the approach, the visibility must be at least 1/2 mile. The other options of 1.5 and 1.5 miles are incorrect as they do not meet the requirement for a high minimums captain.

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136. Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated while on battery power only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start?

Explanation

Yes, the bus logic is working correctly, but because there is no AC power on AC Bus 1, the bus attempts to transfer to the alternate.

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137. What does the amber FAIL light in the LCV switchlight indicate?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the amber FAIL light in the LCV switchlight indicates that the APU LCV (Low Cycle Valve) is stuck in the open position when it should be closed. This could be due to a malfunction or failure in the interlock protection system or the pilot's command. The amber FAIL light serves as a warning to alert the operator of this issue.

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138. Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?

_______ %

Explanation

The correct answer is 55%. This means that above 55% RPM (Revolutions Per Minute), the starter will not be engaged. This indicates that the starter motor will not activate or turn the engine when it reaches or exceeds this RPM threshold.

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139. What does the FAN position of the CARGO switch provide?

Explanation

The FAN position of the CARGO switch provides recirculated cabin exhaust air to the cargo compartment.

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140. Before the first flight of the day: galley, ceiling, and sidewall lights must be illuminated bright for how long? ______ minutes to sufficiently charge the floors track photoluminescent lighting.

Explanation

The galley, ceiling, and sidewall lights must be illuminated bright for 15 minutes before the first flight of the day in order to sufficiently charge the floors track photoluminescent lighting. This ensures that the photoluminescent lighting will have enough energy to emit light during the flight, providing visibility and safety for passengers and crew.

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141. What is the minimum required rest for a crewmember that has exceeded a fifteen (15) hour duty period?

Explanation

A crewmember who has exceeded a fifteen-hour duty period requires a minimum of 10 hours of rest. This is necessary to ensure that the crewmember gets sufficient time to rest and recover before their next duty period. Rest periods are crucial for maintaining the crewmember's alertness and overall performance, as fatigue can have serious implications for aviation safety. Therefore, a 10-hour rest period is necessary to comply with regulations and ensure the crewmember is adequately rested.

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142. Under what conditions should an IDG automatically disconnect from the engine?

Explanation

An IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) should automatically disconnect from the engine under the conditions of over temperature and over torque. Over temperature indicates that the IDG is operating at an excessively high temperature, which can lead to damage or failure if not addressed. Over torque refers to the IDG experiencing a torque load beyond its designed capacity, which can also cause damage or malfunction. Both of these conditions are critical and require the IDG to disconnect from the engine to prevent further damage and ensure safe operation. Over current, on the other hand, is not mentioned as a condition for automatic disconnection in this question.

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143. An amber FUEL BALANCE caution message is displayed when the fuel imbalance reaches ________ lbs.

Explanation

When the fuel imbalance reaches 800 lbs, an amber FUEL BALANCE caution message is displayed. This indicates that there is an uneven distribution of fuel between the aircraft's fuel tanks, which could potentially affect the balance and stability of the aircraft during flight. It serves as a warning to the pilot to take corrective action to address the fuel imbalance and ensure safe operation of the aircraft.

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144. Referencing the After Start Check response to "Electrics....Checked" What is required to be checked?

Explanation

The correct answer is all the mentioned items need to be checked. The After Start Check response states that the electrics should be checked and all buses should be powered. Additionally, loads, voltages, and frequencies should be within normal ranges. The flow lines should be green and there should be no abnormal messages displayed. Therefore, all of these items need to be checked.

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145. How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled to fly between required rest periods?

Explanation

A Crewmember can be scheduled to fly for a maximum of 8 hours between required rest periods. This is to ensure that they have adequate time to rest and recover before their next flight. It is important for crewmembers to have enough rest to maintain their alertness and ensure the safety of the flight.

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146. Are the fuel check valves that are checked during the first flight of the day checks depicted on the FUEL synoptic page?

Explanation

The fuel check valves that are checked during the first flight of the day are not depicted on the FUEL synoptic page.

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147. How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery Master switch has been turned on?  ______ minutes, to prevent EICAS overheating

Explanation

AC electrical power must be established within 5 minutes after the Battery Master switch has been turned on to prevent EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) overheating. This is important because the EICAS is a critical system that provides essential information to the flight crew regarding the status and performance of the aircraft's engines and other systems. Delaying the establishment of AC electrical power beyond this timeframe could lead to overheating of the EICAS, potentially causing malfunctions or failures in the system, which could compromise the safety of the flight.

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148. If the left engine fails or is shut down, which hydraulic pumps will NOT be available?

Explanation

If the left engine fails or is shut down, the hydraulic pumps that will not be available are 1A and 2B.

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149. Will the APU LCV open when the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is OPEN with the left engine running?

Explanation

The APU LCV (Auxiliary Power Unit Load Control Valve) will not open when the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is OPEN with the left engine running. The APU LCV is responsible for regulating the flow of air from the APU to the aircraft systems. When the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is OPEN, it means that the bleed air from the left engine is being used to power the aircraft systems. In this scenario, there is no need for the APU LCV to open as the left engine is already providing the necessary air supply. Therefore, the correct answer is "no."

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150. If the APU is being used for air conditioning, what are the proper bleed switch positions?

Explanation

The proper bleed switch positions when the APU is being used for air conditioning are: L & R 10th SOV Closed, APU LCV Open, and 10th ISOL Open. This configuration ensures that the bleed air from the APU is directed to the air conditioning system while preventing any leakage or cross-contamination of air from other sources.

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151. After the APU is started, how long must you wait before applying bleed air loads? ______ minutes, except when the APU is used for emergencies or abnormal conditions

Explanation

After the APU is started, you must wait for 2 minutes before applying bleed air loads, except when the APU is used for emergencies or abnormal conditions. This waiting period allows the APU to stabilize and reach its optimal operating conditions before any additional loads are applied. Applying bleed air loads too soon could potentially disrupt the APU's operation and cause issues with the aircraft's systems.

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152. What does the white START light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?

Explanation

The white START light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicates that the APU Start motor is engaged. This means that the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) is in the process of starting up and its start motor is currently active.

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153. Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated regardless of switch position?

Explanation

Both ignition systems will be activated regardless of switch position when the CONT IGNITION switchlight is selected on. Additionally, the stall warning system will also activate the ignition systems. However, the engine start and dual engine flameout restart do not necessarily activate both ignition systems.

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154. How long after engine shutdown is complete, do we do the engine oil check? _____ minutes to ____ hours after engine shutdown (enter it as "___ / ____")  

Explanation

The engine oil check is done 3 minutes to 2 hours after the engine shutdown is complete. This is likely because it takes some time for the oil to settle and for any potential issues or leaks to become apparent. Waiting for a few minutes to a couple of hours allows for a more accurate assessment of the engine oil level and condition.

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155. How do we determine whether we need an "Alternate" at a non-Cat II airport?

Explanation

The correct answer includes several factors that determine whether an "Alternate" is needed at a non-Cat II airport. These factors include the forecasted visibility and cloud cover within +/- 1 hour from ETA, with less than 3 miles visibility and 2000 overcast. Additionally, the decision to have an alternate can be made by the Captain or Dispatcher, especially if there are poor or nil Braking Action reports. Furthermore, if the X-Wind component exceeds 25 kts, it is also necessary to have an alternate.

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156. Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated while on battery power only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start?

In this scenario is the AC Essential Bus being powered?

Explanation

In this scenario, it is not normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated while on battery power only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start. The AC Essential Bus is not being powered in this situation.

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157. What is the power source priority for AC Bus 2?

Enter it as IDG or APU or Ext Pwr

So it should look like: "IDG, IDG, IDG, IDG"  (not the actual answer)

Explanation

The power source priority for AC Bus 2 is IDG 2, APU, IDG 1, and then External Power. This means that the second Integrated Drive Generator (IDG 2) is the primary power source for AC Bus 2. If IDG 2 is not available, the next priority is the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU). If both IDG 2 and APU are not available, the first Integrated Drive Generator (IDG 1) is used. Finally, if none of the previous sources are available, External Power is used as the last resort.

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158. Will the APU LCV open if the right 10th stage bleed switchlight is pressed OPEN with the ISOL valve CLOSED?

Explanation

If the right 10th stage bleed switchlight is pressed OPEN with the ISOL valve CLOSED, the APU LCV (Airframe Bleed Control Valve) will open. This means that the air from the 10th stage bleed will be allowed to flow into the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) for various purposes such as starting the APU or providing air conditioning.

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159. Under what conditions will a GCU remove its associated IDG/Generator from the bus system?

Explanation

A GCU (Generator Control Unit) will remove its associated IDG/Generator from the bus system under various conditions such as under voltage, over voltage, over frequency, under frequency, and generator or bus overcurrent. These conditions indicate potential issues or abnormalities in the electrical system, and removing the IDG/Generator helps to prevent further damage or malfunction. By disconnecting the generator from the bus system, the GCU ensures the safety and stability of the overall electrical system.

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160. What is the power source priority for AC Bus 1?

Enter it as IDG or APU or Ext Pwr

So it should look like: "IDG, IDG, IDG, IDG"  (not the actual answer)

Explanation

The power source priority for AC Bus 1 is IDG 1, APU, IDG 2, Ext Pwr. This means that the primary power source for AC Bus 1 is the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) 1. If IDG 1 is not available, the next priority is the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU). If both IDG 1 and APU are not available, the power source switches to IDG 2. And if none of these sources are available, the last priority is External Power (Ext Pwr).

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161. What are the individual components that make up an IDG?

Explanation

The individual components that make up an IDG are a 30-kVA AC generator, a constant speed drive, and a variable speed drive. The 30-kVA AC generator is responsible for producing the electrical power, while the constant speed drive ensures that the generator operates at a consistent speed. The variable speed drive, on the other hand, allows for the adjustment of the generator's speed as needed. These components work together to provide a reliable and adjustable source of electrical power.

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162. Under what conditions will the APU SOV close automatically?

Explanation

The APU SOV (APU Shut-off Valve) will close automatically under the following conditions: when a fire is detected, when the PWR FUEL switch is pressed, and when the APU FIRE PUSH switch is pressed. These actions are taken to ensure the safety of the aircraft and to prevent any further damage or spread of fire.

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What does the EICAS caution message "ELT ON" mean?
During the After Start Check, when can the APR Test be completed?
What does an item with an asterisk (*) next to it indicate on the...
When is it required to start the APU during the Approach Check?
How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?
What precautions must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on...
What is the normal/ usual hydraulic quantities?
How is cabin pressurization maintained?
How many days after your address changes must you notify the FAA?
What airports in our system route manuals are authorized for use as an...
How is fuel heated?
What does amber - - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate...
What is the primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check?
What are the landing requirements for Flight Crewmembers?
When is the Fasten Seatbelt sign required to be "ON"?
What is the minimum rate of climb must you be able to maintain before...
What does the term Minimum Fuel mean?
Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling the aircraft at...
How are the primary flight controls actuated?
How many hydraulic systems are on the CRJ?
Who is responsible to ensure a preflight inspection is accomplished?
There are two types of "Preflight Inspections" a "Detailed...
What is the minimum voltage required on the APU and Main batteries...
Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?
What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?______...
When can the Wing Anti-ice Test be completed?
When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?The boxed items...
Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving...
How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?
When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?
Where is the engine fuel feed temperature displayed?
What does a red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight...
How is the APU fuel feed SOV opened?
What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B do?
Flying at FL200, the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed, what...
Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist?
How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?
What does selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON cause?
Where is the bulk fuel tempature displayed?
Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety...
What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection...
What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenger, main)?
With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B/2B selected to the AUTO...
What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the main...
When are the recognition and ice lights required to be ON?Recognition...
How many days is a Temporary Airman Certificate Valid?
How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar year?
How many batteries are installed? (not counting the emergency lights...
What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external...
Describe the function of the TEST position of the DUCT MONITOR...
What does the LND ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel do?
Where is the unpressurized takeoff procedure found?
Perform a terminating check if the plane will be unattended in excess...
What are the requirements for a takeoff alternate?
Which DC BUS TIE will not operate automatically?
When conducting the Single Engine Taxi Procedures, when should the...
After donating blood or a transfusion, how long is a Crewmember...
How many Firex bottles are provided for APU fire extinguishing?
How does the crew know there is adequate hydraulic fluid and quantity?
During the APU shutdown, the APU RPM must be below _____ % RPM before...
The minimum fuel for takeoff is?
When completing the After Landing Checklist, what flap setting are we...
A Pinnacle crewmember may engage in commercial flying outside of...
What are the different types of hydroplanning?
When a DC BUS TIE is closed why is the DC Utility Bus shed?
Can fuel be transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks with...
What does the amber PUMP FAIL light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL...
What happens to ACMP 2B is the left engine fails?
What happens when EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed in (ON)?
Where is the unpressurized landing procedure found?
Reference the Cleared to Start Check response to...
What is the purpose of the Termination Check?
When is a Flight Deck Inspection required
What are the required certificates to operate as PIC?
No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine...
How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar month?
How many hours must a pilot fly, for consolidation of knowledge, upon...
A high minimums captain must increase the ceiling to commence a...
When will power to the AC Essential Bus automatically switch from AC...
What are the benefits of the dual detection loop system? (FIRE)
What does 14th stage bleed air supply?
Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine shutdown?
What does the APU Green "AVAIL" light mean?
What documents are required to be checked and ensured to be on board...
By what day must you turn in your medical certificate to the chief...
Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within how many hours prior...
Can a High Minimum Captain conduct a CAT II approach?
What are the primary sources of electrical power?
On the ground, if low pressure is detected in the left engine fuel...
How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?
Is AC electrical power required for engine starting?
At ____ % RPM the APU starter normally cuts out during the APU Start.
How long does it take for the AHRS to initialize in the MAG mode?
The normal source of DC power is the Transformer Rectifier Units...
When is automatic fuel transfer initiated (wing tank to wing...
The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?
When does the APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminate?
How long can it take for AHRS alignment in the DG mode?
Unless an emergency exists what is the lowest reported braking action...
In flight, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line,...
What is the secondary function of the APU?
When do we need a Takeoff Alternate?
If the AC ESS XFER switchlight is illuminated or pressed which bus is...
During APU start, at what RPM should the white status APU START and...
What is the purpose of the Exit Checklist?
What are the required certificates to operate as SIC?
How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled in seven (7) consecutive...
When a SIC has less than 100 hours of flight time in revenue...
What does 10th stage bleed air supply?
What is the primary function of the APU?
Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as...
What does the FAIL light illuminated in an AUTO XFER switchlight along...
Can the APU generator power hydraulic pump 1B and 2B?
When should the Before Start Check be accomplished? Approximately ____...
When conducting the APR TEST, what indications should be observed?
The APU and Main Battery are what type of battery?
Describe the function of the LOOP A/B positions.
What does the green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL...
What does the COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?
When checking the Fuel Check Valve, what is the procedure if you do...
Perform a Exit Check if the plane will be unattended between ____...
No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine...
What is the maximum Fuel on Board can be over the RELEASE FUEL and not...
What does a white closed light illuminated on the DC BUS TIE 1 or 2...
What does the amber SOV FAIL light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL...
When starting with DC power only, which engine is started first?
What does pressing the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice do?
What is the maximum duty time a crewmember is allowed to work?
What does the WARN position of the TEST toggle switch simulate? (FIRE)
Which ACMP runs continuously during normal operations?
Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG bus during...
If you do not get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message during the right...
What areas are protected by the fire and overheat detection system?
What does the FAIL position of the TEST toggle switch simulate? (FIRE)
A high minimums captain must increase the visibility to commence the...
Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated...
What does the amber FAIL light in the LCV switchlight indicate?
Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?_______ %
What does the FAN position of the CARGO switch provide?
Before the first flight of the day: galley, ceiling, and sidewall...
What is the minimum required rest for a crewmember that has exceeded a...
Under what conditions should an IDG automatically disconnect from the...
An amber FUEL BALANCE caution message is displayed when the fuel...
Referencing the After Start Check response to "Electrics....Checked"...
How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled to fly between required...
Are the fuel check valves that are checked during the first flight of...
How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery...
If the left engine fails or is shut down, which hydraulic pumps will...
Will the APU LCV open when the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is...
If the APU is being used for air conditioning, what are the proper...
After the APU is started, how long must you wait before applying bleed...
What does the white START light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL...
Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated...
How long after engine shutdown is complete, do we do the engine oil...
How do we determine whether we need an "Alternate" at a non-Cat II...
Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated ...
What is the power source priority for AC Bus 2?Enter it as IDG or APU...
Will the APU LCV open if the right 10th stage bleed switchlight is...
Under what conditions will a GCU remove its associated IDG/Generator...
What is the power source priority for AC Bus 1?Enter it as IDG or APU...
What are the individual components that make up an IDG?
Under what conditions will the APU SOV close automatically?
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