Crj 200 Oral Test Bank

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  • 1/162 Questions

    During the After Start Check, when can the APR Test be completed?

    • Only when both engines are running
    • Only when the first officer can dance on one leg
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About This Quiz

The CRJ 200 Oral Test Bank is designed to assess a pilot's knowledge required for the CRJ 200 aircraft operation. It covers responsibilities of the captain, preflight inspections, emergency procedures, and technical requirements like APU and battery operations, ensuring readiness and compliance with aviation standards.

Crj 200 Oral Test Bank - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What does the EICAS caution message "ELT ON" mean?

    • ELT is transmitting

    • The system meant to ask you for a BLT

    Correct Answer
    A. ELT is transmitting
    Explanation
    The EICAS caution message "ELT ON" indicates that the Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) is transmitting. ELT is a device that is used to locate an aircraft or a person in distress. When the ELT is activated, it sends out a distress signal that can be picked up by search and rescue teams. Therefore, the message "ELT ON" means that the ELT system is functioning and transmitting its distress signal.

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  • 3. 

    What does an item with an asterisk (*) next to it indicate on the "Preflight Inspection"?

    • An item that must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM

    • An item that is extra special

    Correct Answer
    A. An item that must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM
    Explanation
    An item with an asterisk (*) next to it on the "Preflight Inspection" indicates that it must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM.

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  • 4. 

    When is it required to start the APU during the Approach Check?

    • On a really cold day because we don't want to be cold

    • If icing conditions are expected

    • To make the company spend more money on APU usage

    Correct Answer
    A. If icing conditions are expected
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "If icing conditions are expected." Starting the APU during the Approach Check is necessary when there is a possibility of encountering icing conditions. The APU generates additional electrical power and bleed air, which can be used for anti-icing systems to prevent ice formation on critical surfaces of the aircraft. Therefore, starting the APU in such conditions ensures the safety and performance of the aircraft during approach and landing.

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  • 5. 

    How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?

    • By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight

    • By turning the APU off

    • Asking the FA what to do

    Correct Answer
    A. By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight
    Explanation
    The correct answer is by pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight. This means that the automatic transfer of power from one source to another can be manually stopped by pressing the switchlight. This action allows the operator to have control over the power transfer process and prevent it from happening automatically.

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  • 6. 

    What precautions must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check?

    • Make sure you clean the switch with an alcohol wipe

    • Ask a mechanic to use the switch

    • Confirm the Nose wheel area is clear or the Nose Door Closed

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirm the Nose wheel area is clear or the Nose Door Closed
    Explanation
    Prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check, it is important to confirm that the nose wheel area is clear or the nose door is closed. This precaution ensures the safety of the aircraft and prevents any potential accidents or damage that could occur if the area is not clear or the door is not closed properly. It is not necessary to clean the switch with an alcohol wipe or involve a mechanic in this specific step of the safety check.

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  • 7. 

    What is the normal/ usual hydraulic quantities?

    • Red

    • Amber

    • Green

    Correct Answer
    A. Green
    Explanation
    The normal/usual hydraulic quantities are represented by the color green. Green typically indicates that the hydraulic system is functioning properly and operating within normal parameters. It suggests that there are no issues or abnormalities in the hydraulic system, and everything is running smoothly.

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  • 8. 

    How is cabin pressurization maintained?

    • Regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves

    • Adding more or less air using the PACKs

    • Cabin isn't pressurized

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves
    Explanation
    Cabin pressurization is maintained by regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves. These valves control the flow of air out of the cabin, allowing for the adjustment of cabin pressure. By controlling the outflow of air, the pressure inside the cabin can be maintained at a safe and comfortable level for passengers and crew. This ensures that the cabin remains pressurized during flight, allowing for a more comfortable and safe travel experience.

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  • 9. 

    How many days after your address changes must you notify the FAA?

    Correct Answer
    30
    Explanation
    After changing your address, it is necessary to notify the FAA within 30 days. This is important because the FAA needs accurate and up-to-date information about the address of pilots and aircraft owners for various purposes such as communication, safety regulations, and legal requirements. Notifying the FAA within the specified timeframe ensures that the FAA has the correct address on record and can reach out to you if needed.

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  • 10. 

    When is the Fasten Seatbelt sign required to be "ON"?

    • Taxiing

    • Takeoff / Landing

    • Turbulent Air Conditions

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Taxiing
    A. Takeoff / Landing
    A. Turbulent Air Conditions
    Explanation
    The Fasten Seatbelt sign is required to be "ON" during taxiing, takeoff, landing, and turbulent air conditions. This is because these are the times when there is a higher risk of turbulence or sudden movements that could potentially cause passengers to lose balance or get injured. By having the Fasten Seatbelt sign "ON" during these situations, it helps ensure the safety and well-being of the passengers on board the aircraft.

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  • 11. 

    How is fuel heated?

    • Space heater

    • Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers

    • Jet exhaust

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers
    Explanation
    Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers are used to heat the fuel. This process involves transferring heat from the engine oil to the fuel, increasing its temperature. By doing so, the heated fuel becomes more efficient and combustible, leading to better engine performance. This method is commonly used in various types of engines, including automotive and aircraft engines, to ensure optimal fuel combustion and overall engine efficiency.

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  • 12. 

    What does amber - - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate (on the status page)?

    • The APU door fell off

    • APU door position is unknown

    • The door indicator has broke, hit it a couple of times and it should work

    Correct Answer
    A. APU door position is unknown
    Explanation
    The amber indicator to the right of the APU DOOR status indicates that the position of the APU door is unknown. This means that it is unclear whether the APU door is fully closed or open.

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  • 13. 

    What is the primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check?

    • To get the apu fire tested?

    • To apply electrical power to the aircraft

    • To have something to do when you get to the plane in the morning

    Correct Answer
    A. To apply electrical power to the aircraft
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check is to apply electrical power to the aircraft. This check ensures that all the necessary electrical systems are functioning properly before the flight. It is an essential step in the pre-flight procedures to ensure the safety and readiness of the aircraft for departure.

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  • 14. 

    What are the landing requirements for Flight Crewmembers?

    • 3 Takeoffs and Landings within the last 90 days

    • 3 Takeoffs and Landings during day / 3 Takeoffs and Landings during night

    • No requirements to maintain currency

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 Takeoffs and Landings within the last 90 days
    Explanation
    Flight Crewmembers are required to have completed at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days in order to maintain their landing currency. This ensures that they have recent experience and proficiency in performing takeoffs and landings, which are critical skills for flight crewmembers. The other options mentioned, such as 3 takeoffs and landings during the day or night, are not specifically mentioned as landing requirements for flight crewmembers.

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  • 15. 

    What is the minimum rate of climb must you be able to maintain before reporting it to ATC?_____ fpm

    Correct Answer
    500
    Explanation
    The minimum rate of climb that must be maintained before reporting it to ATC is 500 feet per minute (fpm). This means that if an aircraft is climbing, it must maintain a vertical speed of at least 500 fpm before informing air traffic control. This reporting requirement helps ensure that ATC has accurate information about the aircraft's climb performance, which is important for maintaining safe separation between aircraft and coordinating traffic flow.

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  • 16. 

    What does the term Minimum Fuel mean?

    • Oh snap, we be outta fuel!

    • The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without undue delays

    • The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight and fly in the pattern for 2 hours

    • There is no such thing as minimum fuel

    Correct Answer
    A. The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without undue delays
    Explanation
    The term "Minimum Fuel" refers to the condition where the existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without any significant delays. This means that the aircraft has enough fuel to safely reach its destination without needing to make any unscheduled stops for refueling. It indicates that the fuel level is at or above the minimum required for the flight, ensuring that there is no risk of running out of fuel during the journey.

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  • 17. 

    Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling the aircraft at night.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling aircraft at night because they provide visibility and clear communication between the marshaller and the pilot. In low light conditions, the illuminated wands help the marshaller to guide the aircraft safely by signaling the pilot with specific hand movements and directions. Without illuminated hand wands, it would be difficult for the marshaller to effectively communicate with the pilot and ensure the safe movement of the aircraft on the ground. Therefore, it is true that illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling aircraft at night.

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  • 18. 

    What airports in our system route manuals are authorized for use as an alternate?

    • Any airport in the US

    • Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)

    • I don't dang well need an alternate! Stop bugging me fool

    Correct Answer
    A. Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)". This means that any airport listed in the System Route manual can be used as an alternate airport, as long as it is not specifically marked as not authorized.

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  • 19. 

    How are the primary flight controls actuated?

    • Hydraulic power

    • Mechanical Actuated

    • Pulleys

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydraulic power
    Explanation
    The primary flight controls are actuated using hydraulic power. Hydraulic power is a system that uses fluid under pressure to transmit force and motion. In aircraft, hydraulic power is used to operate various systems, including the flight controls. The hydraulic fluid is pressurized and directed to the control surfaces, such as the ailerons, elevators, and rudder, allowing the pilot to maneuver the aircraft. This method provides smooth and precise control over the aircraft's movements, ensuring safe and efficient flight.

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  • 20. 

    How many hydraulic systems are on the CRJ?

    Correct Answer
    3
    Explanation
    The CRJ (Canadair Regional Jet) has three hydraulic systems. These hydraulic systems are responsible for powering various components of the aircraft, such as the landing gear, brakes, and flight controls. Having multiple hydraulic systems ensures redundancy and reliability in case one system fails.

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  • 21. 

    There are two types of "Preflight Inspections" a "Detailed Inspection", and a "General Inspection", when is a detailed inspection required?

    • Prior to the first flight of the day

    • After significant maintenance has been performed

    • Anytime the aircraft's condition is in question

    • When the flight attendant tells you to

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Prior to the first flight of the day
    A. After significant maintenance has been performed
    A. Anytime the aircraft's condition is in question
    Explanation
    A detailed inspection is required prior to the first flight of the day, after significant maintenance has been performed, and anytime the aircraft's condition is in question. This means that before the aircraft takes off for the first time in a day, a thorough inspection must be conducted to ensure its airworthiness. Additionally, after any major maintenance work has been done, another detailed inspection is necessary to verify that the aircraft is in proper working order. Lastly, if there are any doubts or concerns about the condition of the aircraft, a detailed inspection should be carried out to address those concerns.

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  • 22. 

    What is the minimum voltage required on the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU? ____ volts

    Correct Answer(s)
    22
    22 volts
    Explanation
    The minimum voltage required on both the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU is 22 volts.

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  • 23. 

    Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?

    • Yes

    • No

    Correct Answer
    A. No
    Explanation
    The IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) cannot be reconnected in flight once it is disconnected. This is because the process of reconnecting the IDG requires shutting down the engine, which is not feasible during flight. Therefore, once the IDG is disconnected, it cannot be reconnected until the aircraft is on the ground and the engine can be safely shut down and restarted.

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  • 24. 

    What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?______ volts

    Correct Answer
    22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 22 volts. This means that a DC voltage of 22 volts is required to start the APU from battery power.

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  • 25. 

    What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B do?

    • Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered

    • Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated gen is operating, and the flaps are out of 0

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated gen is operating, and the flaps are out of 0
    Explanation
    The AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B causes the B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operating, and the flaps are out of 0. This means that the B pumps will only be activated when the necessary conditions are met, ensuring the efficient and appropriate use of the hydraulic system.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible to ensure a preflight inspection is accomplished?

    • First Officer

    • Captain (PIC)

    • Flight Attendant

    Correct Answer
    A. Captain (PIC)
    Explanation
    The Captain (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that a preflight inspection is accomplished. As the Pilot in Command, the Captain has the overall authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the aircraft. This includes ensuring that all necessary checks and inspections are completed before each flight. The First Officer and Flight Attendant may assist in the inspection process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Captain.

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  • 27. 

    When can the Wing Anti-ice Test be completed?

    • Only once both engines are running

    • Anytime after the Before Start Check

    Correct Answer
    A. Only once both engines are running
    Explanation
    The Wing Anti-ice Test can only be completed once both engines are running. This is because the Wing Anti-ice system requires the engines to be operational in order to function properly. The test is conducted to ensure that the Wing Anti-ice system is working correctly and is able to prevent ice from forming on the wings during flight. Conducting the test before both engines are running would not provide an accurate assessment of the system's effectiveness.

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  • 28. 

    Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist?

    • First Officer

    • Captain

    Correct Answer
    A. First Officer
    Explanation
    The Second Engine Start Checklist is performed by the First Officer. This checklist is a standard procedure that ensures all necessary steps are taken before starting the second engine of an aircraft. It includes tasks such as verifying fuel levels, checking engine controls, and ensuring all systems are ready for engine start. The First Officer is responsible for completing this checklist to ensure a safe and efficient start of the second engine.

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  • 29. 

    When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?The boxed items are performed upon reaching ________ ft, or cruise altitude if lower

    Correct Answer
    10000
    10,000
    Explanation
    Upon reaching 10,000 feet or the cruise altitude if lower, the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK are completed. This means that the checklist items in the box, which are likely related to specific actions or procedures during the climb phase of the flight, are performed at this altitude. The answer provided in both formats, "10000" and "10,000," indicates the altitude at which these boxed items are completed.

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  • 30. 

    Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within how many hours of any scheduled flight duty?______ hrs

    Correct Answer
    24
    Explanation
    Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within 24 hours of any scheduled flight duty. This is likely because scuba diving can cause nitrogen bubbles to form in the body, which can lead to decompression sickness. The high pressure experienced during scuba diving can affect the body's ability to handle the pressure changes that occur during flights. Therefore, it is important for crewmembers to wait at least 24 hours after scuba diving before engaging in any flight duties to ensure their safety and prevent any potential health risks.

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  • 31. 

    How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?

    • Move the Generator to OFF/RESET

    • Pressing the IDG DISC switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressing the IDG DISC switch
    Explanation
    To manually disconnect an IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) from its engine, the IDG DISC switch needs to be pressed. This switch is specifically designed to disconnect the IDG from the engine, allowing for isolation and maintenance if required. By pressing the IDG DISC switch, the mechanical connection between the IDG and the engine is severed, ensuring the generator is no longer powered by the engine. This action is necessary in situations where the IDG needs to be disconnected for troubleshooting or replacement purposes.

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  • 32. 

    When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?

    • In the air + 5 seconds

    • On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 seconds

    • On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 seconds
    Explanation
    The APU fire extinguishing system will activate automatically on the ground in the event of an APU fire, with a delay of 5 seconds. This means that if a fire is detected in the APU while the aircraft is on the ground, the fire extinguishing system will start operating after a 5-second delay.

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  • 33. 

    Where is the engine fuel feed temperature displayed?

    • Fuel Synoptic page

    • EICAS primary page

    • EICAS status page

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel Synoptic page
    Explanation
    The engine fuel feed temperature is displayed on the Fuel Synoptic page. This page provides a comprehensive overview of the fuel system, including various parameters such as fuel temperature, fuel quantity, and fuel flow. By accessing this page, pilots and engineers can monitor and analyze the fuel feed temperature to ensure optimal engine performance and prevent any potential issues related to fuel temperature.

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  • 34. 

    What does a red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicate?

    • A leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section

    • A funny smell in the associated duct section

    • A overheat in the associated duct section

    Correct Answer
    A. A leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section
    Explanation
    A red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicates a leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section.

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  • 35. 

    How is the APU fuel feed SOV opened?

    • When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed

    • When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed out (off) and the BITE test is completed

    • When i tell it too

    Correct Answer
    A. When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed
    Explanation
    The APU fuel feed SOV is opened when the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed. This means that when the switchlight is turned on and the Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) test is successfully completed, the APU fuel feed SOV is opened, allowing fuel to flow to the APU for operation.

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  • 36. 

    Flying at FL200, the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?

    • 14,000ft

    • 14,250 ft

    • 14,250 +/- 750ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 14,250 +/- 750ft
    Explanation
    When the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed while flying at FL200, the pressure altitude of the cabin should reach 14,250 +/- 750ft. This means that the cabin altitude will be maintained at a level between 13,500ft and 15,000ft. The EMER DEPRESS switchlight is used to initiate an emergency depressurization, allowing the cabin pressure to rapidly equalize with the outside pressure. The range of 14,250 +/- 750ft ensures that the cabin altitude remains within a safe and controlled range during the emergency depressurization procedure.

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  • 37. 

    What does selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON cause?

    • Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps turn on

    • Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, one pump turns on

    Correct Answer
    A. Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps turn on
    Explanation
    Selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON arms both pumps. Additionally, if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps will turn on. This means that when the boost pump switch is activated, it ensures that both pumps are ready to operate. If the system detects low fuel pressure, it will activate both pumps to provide the necessary fuel pressure.

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  • 38. 

    Where is the bulk fuel tempature displayed?

    • Fuel Synoptic page

    • EICAS primary page

    • EICAS status page

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel Synoptic page
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fuel Synoptic page. This page displays the bulk fuel temperature.

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  • 39. 

    What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection Check?

    • First Officer Duties

    • First Flight of the Day Items

    • Optional items on the checklist

    Correct Answer
    A. First Flight of the Day Items
    Explanation
    The " * " next to items on the Flight Deck Inspection Check indicates that they are the First Flight of the Day Items. These items are crucial to be checked before the first flight of the day to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft. They may include tasks like checking fuel levels, inspecting the exterior of the aircraft, verifying emergency equipment, and testing communication systems. These items are essential to be completed before each flight to ensure the aircraft is in a suitable condition for operation.

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  • 40. 

    How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?

    Correct Answer
    2
    Explanation
    There are two Firex bottles provided for engine fire extinguishing.

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  • 41. 

    What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenger, main)?

    • Gravity Flow

    • Pressure Flow

    • Motive Flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Motive Flow
    Explanation
    The fuel system ejector pumps are powered by motive flow. Motive flow refers to the flow of fuel that is generated by the motion of the aircraft. This flow is used to power various systems in the aircraft, including the ejector pumps. These pumps help transfer fuel from one part of the system to another, ensuring a continuous flow of fuel to the engine. The motive flow system utilizes the energy from the aircraft's motion to generate the necessary pressure to move the fuel through the system.

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  • 42. 

    With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B/2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?

    • Always

    • Flaps out of 0

    • Gear down

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaps out of 0
    Explanation
    The pumps will operate when the flaps are out of 0. This means that the pumps will only start operating when the flaps are extended from their fully retracted position.

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  • 43. 

    What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the main cabin door?

    • 100 ft

    • Must be completely depressurized

    • -10 ft

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be completely depressurized
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "must be completely depressurized." This means that in order to open the main cabin door, the cabin pressure must be reduced to zero. This is necessary to prevent any pressure imbalance between the inside and outside of the aircraft, which could make it difficult or impossible to open the door. By completely depressurizing the cabin, the pressure inside and outside the aircraft is equalized, allowing the door to be opened safely.

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  • 44. 

    Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, what must you ensure?

    • There is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message

    • There is a APU FIRE FAIL caution message

    • The airplane is parked at an odd gate number

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message
    Explanation
    Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, you must ensure that there is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message. This means that there are no indications or warnings of a potential fire in the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit). It is important to address any potential fire risks before conducting the test to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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  • 45. 

    When are the recognition and ice lights required to be ON?Recognition and ice lights are required for all operations conducted below _________ ft, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew

    Correct Answer
    10000
    10,000
    Explanation
    The recognition and ice lights are required to be ON for all operations conducted below 10,000 feet, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew.

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  • 46. 

    How many days is a Temporary Airman Certificate Valid?

    Correct Answer
    120
    Explanation
    A Temporary Airman Certificate is valid for 120 days. This means that after obtaining the certificate, the individual is allowed to perform certain aviation activities for a period of 120 days before it expires. It is important for individuals to keep track of the expiration date and renew the certificate if necessary to continue operating as an airman.

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  • 47. 

    How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar year?

    Correct Answer
    1000
    1,000
    Explanation
    A crewmember can be scheduled for a maximum of 1000 hours in a calendar year.

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  • 48. 

    How many batteries are installed? (not counting the emergency lights battery)

    Correct Answer
    2
    Explanation
    The given answer states that there are 2 batteries installed, excluding the emergency lights battery. This implies that there are additional batteries in the system, but they are not considered in the count. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 49. 

    What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external switchlight indicate?

    • The ramper is available for a date tonight

    • Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency

    • Power is connected and is of correct voltage and amperage

    Correct Answer
    A. Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency
    Explanation
    The green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external switchlight indicates that power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency. This means that the power supply is functioning properly and meets the required specifications for the device or system that it is connected to.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 19, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 20, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Japorter1983
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