Crj 200 Oral Test Bank
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- 1.Who is responsible to ensure a preflight inspection is accomplished?
- A.
First Officer
- B.
Captain (PIC)
- C.
Flight Attendant
- 2.
- A.
Prior to the first flight of the day
- B.
After significant maintenance has been performed
- C.
Anytime the aircraft's condition is in question
- D.
When the flight attendant tells you to
- 3.
- A.
An item that must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM
- B.
An item that is extra special
- 4.Before the first flight of the day: galley, ceiling, and sidewall lights must be illuminated bright for how long? ______ minutes to sufficiently charge the floors track photoluminescent lighting.
- 5.Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, what must you ensure?
- A.
There is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message
- B.
There is a APU FIRE FAIL caution message
- C.
The airplane is parked at an odd gate number
- 6.
- 7.At ____ % RPM the APU starter normally cuts out during the APU Start.
- 8.When does the APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminate?
- A.
99% + 4 seconds
- B.
95% + 4 seconds
- C.
95% + 5 seconds
- D.
99% + 5 seconds
- 9.What does the APU Green "AVAIL" light mean?
- A.
APU is available for AC Power
- B.
APU is available for Bleed air extraction
- C.
APU is single and wants an date
- 10.After the APU is started, how long must you wait before applying bleed air loads? ______ minutes, except when the APU is used for emergencies or abnormal conditions
- 11.How long does it take for the AHRS to initialize in the MAG mode?
- A.
30 to 70 seconds
- B.
45 seconds to 10 minutes
- C.
Up to 11 minutes
- 12.How long can it take for AHRS alignment in the DG mode?
- A.
Up to 11 minutes
- B.
30 to 70 seconds
- C.
5 minutes
- 13.What is the primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check?
- A.
To get the apu fire tested?
- B.
To apply electrical power to the aircraft
- C.
To have something to do when you get to the plane in the morning
- 14.
- A.
Aircraft's First Flight of the Day
- B.
Crew/Aircraft Change
- C.
Aircraft status is in question
- 15.What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection Check?
- A.
First Officer Duties
- B.
First Flight of the Day Items
- C.
Optional items on the checklist
- 16.What precautions must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check?
- A.
Make sure you clean the switch with an alcohol wipe
- B.
Ask a mechanic to use the switch
- C.
Confirm the Nose wheel area is clear or the Nose Door Closed
- 17.How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery Master switch has been turned on? ______ minutes, to prevent EICAS overheating
- 18.What documents are required to be checked and ensured to be on board the aircraft?
- A.
AML
- B.
QRH
- C.
MEL
- D.
CDL / DDL
- E.
Speed Cards
- F.
Airworthiness Certificate
- G.
Registration
- H.
Radio Station License
- I.
Cell Phone
- J.
US today
- 19.When should the Before Start Check be accomplished? Approximately ____ minutes prior to departure.
- 20.Reference the Cleared to Start Check response to "PAPERS.............ON BOARD." What papers must be onboard?
- A.
Manual Load Manifest (FT451) as required
- B.
Dispatch flight release / flight plan
- C.
Customs Clearance
- D.
Personal Logbook
- E.
Personal Schedule
- 21.When checking the Fuel Check Valve, what is the procedure if you do not get the R FUEL LO PRESS caution message after 20 seconds?(you have not attempted starting the right engine yet)
- A.
Stop the Left Engine and call maintenance
- B.
We never should get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message
- C.
Initiate the right engine start
- 22.If you do not get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message during the right engine start, you should discontinue the Right Engine Start and contact maintenance.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 23.When can the Wing Anti-ice Test be completed?
- A.
Only once both engines are running
- B.
Anytime after the Before Start Check
- 24.During the After Start Check, when can the APR Test be completed?
- A.
Only when both engines are running
- B.
Only when the first officer can dance on one leg
- 25.When conducting the APR TEST, what indications should be observed?
- A.
APR ICON illuminates on both N1 gauges
- B.
N1 gauges turn amber
- C.
APR TEST 1 OK (APR TEST 2 OK) advisory message
- D.
ITT gauges turn red
- 26.Referencing the After Start Check response to "Electrics....Checked" What is required to be checked?
- A.
All Buses powered
- B.
Loads, voltages, frequencies within normal ranges
- C.
Flow Lines green
- D.
Hydraulic pumps on
- E.
No abnormal messages displayed
- 27.When conducting the Single Engine Taxi Procedures, when should the second engine be started?
- A.
Number 2 for takeoff, 1 minute prior to takeoff
- B.
Number 4 for takeoff, at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff
- C.
Number 1 for takeoff, less than 1 minute prior to takeof
- 28.Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist?
- A.
First Officer
- B.
Captain
- 29.During the APU shutdown, the APU RPM must be below _____ % RPM before selecting the APU PWR FUEL switch light to OFF.
- 30.The minimum fuel for takeoff is?
- A.
BURN + RESV
- B.
BURN + ALT + RESV
- C.
BURN + ALT + RESV + CONT
- D.
BURN + ALT + RESV + TAXI
- E.
BURN + ALT + RESV + TANKER
- 31.When are the recognition and ice lights required to be ON?Recognition and ice lights are required for all operations conducted below _________ ft, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew
- 32.When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?The boxed items are performed upon reaching ________ ft, or cruise altitude if lower
- 33.
- 34.
- A.
On a really cold day because we don't want to be cold
- B.
If icing conditions are expected
- C.
To make the company spend more money on APU usage
- 35.
- 36.
- A.
To remove electrical power from the aircraft
- B.
To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.
- 37.
- A.
To remove electrical power from the aircraft
- B.
To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.
- 38.Perform a terminating check if the plane will be unattended in excess of _____ hour (s)
- 39.Perform a Exit Check if the plane will be unattended between ____ minutes and 1 hour.
- 40.What are the required certificates to operate as PIC?
- A.
ATP with Type Rating
- B.
Airplane Multi-Engine Land Class Rating
- C.
First Class Medical
- D.
Company Issued Photo Id
- E.
FCC License
- F.
Valid Passport
- G.
Bachelors Degree
- 41.
- A.
Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating
- B.
Instrument Rating
- C.
Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating
- D.
Second Class Medical
- E.
Company Issued Photo ID
- F.
FCC License
- G.
Valid Passport
- 42.By what day must you turn in your medical certificate to the chief pilots office?
- 43.
- 44.
- 45.No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many hours prior to duty? (Non-Training Events)
- 46.No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many hours prior to duty? (Training Events)
- 47.Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within how many hours prior to flying?
- 48.After donating blood or a transfusion, how long is a Crewmember restricted from flying?________ Hours
- 49.Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within how many hours of any scheduled flight duty?______ hrs
- 50.A Pinnacle crewmember may engage in commercial flying outside of Pinnacle.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 51.
- 52.
- 53.
- 54.
- 55.What is the maximum duty time a crewmember is allowed to work?
- 56.
- 57.
- 58.A high minimums captain must increase the visibility to commence the approach?
- 59.A high minimums captain must increase the ceiling to commence a approach, what is the amount in ft to increase by?
- 60.Can a High Minimum Captain conduct a CAT II approach?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 61.
- A.
3 Takeoffs and Landings within the last 90 days
- B.
3 Takeoffs and Landings during day / 3 Takeoffs and Landings during night
- C.
No requirements to maintain currency
- 62.
- A.
Prevailing visibility in the latest wx report for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile
- B.
RVR at or below 4000 ft
- C.
Runway to be used has water, slush, or similar conditions that may adversely affect aircraft performance
- D.
Braking Action less than "GOOD"
- E.
Crosswind is greater than 15 kts
- F.
Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
- G.
Any other conditions the PIC deems appropriate
- H.
LAHSO
- I.
Looks funny
- 63.
- A.
Taxiing
- B.
Takeoff / Landing
- C.
Turbulent Air Conditions
- 64.
- 65.
- A.
Oh snap, we be outta fuel!
- B.
The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without undue delays
- C.
The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight and fly in the pattern for 2 hours
- D.
There is no such thing as minimum fuel
- 66.Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling the aircraft at night.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 67.
- 68.
- A.
Any airport in the US
- B.
Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)
- C.
I don't dang well need an alternate! Stop bugging me fool
- 69.
- A.
+/- 1 hour from ETA the forecast is less than 2 miles visibility and 3000 overcast
- B.
+/- 2 hour from ETA the forecast is less than 1 mile visibility and 3000 overcast
- C.
+/- 1 hour from ETA the forecast is less than 3 miles visibility and 2000 overcast
- D.
Captain / Dispatcher determines or requests one
- E.
Braking Action reports is poor or nil
- F.
Braking Action is not GOOD
- G.
X-Wind component is greater than 20 kts
- H.
X-Wind component is greater than 25 kts
- I.
Headwind is greater than 10 kts
- J.
Never need an alternate
- 70.
- A.
Whenever the weather at the departure airport allows you to return given the current wx, airplane status, and crew qualifications
- B.
Departure airport is forecast to be less than 3 miles visibility and 2000 overcast
- C.
Does not meet the C-55 requirements
- 71.
- A.
Must be more than 1 hour from the departing airport at normal cruising speed and one engine inop
- B.
Must be less than 1 hour from the departing airport at normal cruising speed and one engine inop
- C.
Must be less than 1 hour from the departing airport at normal cruising speed with both engines running
- 72.Unless an emergency exists what is the lowest reported braking action report we are allowed to land with?
- A.
GOOD
- B.
FAIR
- C.
POOR - FAIR
- D.
FAIR - GOOD
- E.
POOR
- F.
NIL
- 73.
- A.
Dynamic
- B.
Viscous
- C.
Reverted Rubber
- D.
Rubber on da pavement
- 74.What are the primary sources of electrical power?
- A.
Two Engines
- B.
APU driven Generators
- C.
Pedal Power!
- D.
Rubbing your feet on the carpeted floor really quick and touching metal
- 75.The normal source of DC power is the Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs), how many does the CRJ have?
- 76.
- 77.The APU and Main Battery are what type of battery?
- 78.
- A.
Starter
- B.
35-kVA AC generator
- C.
30-kVA AC generator
- D.
Constant speed drive
- E.
Variable speed drive
- F.
Hydraulic pump
- 79.Under what conditions should an IDG automatically disconnect from the engine?
- A.
Over temperature
- B.
Over torque
- C.
Over Current
- 80.Under what conditions will a GCU remove its associated IDG/Generator from the bus system?
- A.
Under voltage
- B.
Over voltage
- C.
Under current
- D.
Over frequency
- E.
Under frequency
- F.
Generator or bus overcurrent
- 81.
- A.
Move the Generator to OFF/RESET
- B.
Pressing the IDG DISC switch
- 82.Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 83.
- A.
The ramper is available for a date tonight
- B.
Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency
- C.
Power is connected and is of correct voltage and amperage
- 84.If the AC ESS XFER switchlight is illuminated or pressed which bus is powering the AC ESS bus? (Just enter the number or name, do not enter AC or BUS in the answer)
- 85.
- A.
When AC Bus 2 is not powered
- B.
When DC Battery Bus isn't powered
- C.
When AC Bus 1 is not powered
- 86.Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated while on battery power only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 87.
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 88.
- A.
A bus fault or generator overcurrent condition
- B.
A bus fault or generator overfrequency condition
- C.
A big ole problem
- 89.
- 90.
- 91.
- A.
By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight
- B.
By turning the APU off
- C.
Asking the FA what to do
- 92.Which DC BUS TIE will not operate automatically?
- A.
DC TIE 1
- B.
DC ESSENTIAL TIE
- C.
DC TIE 2
- 93.
- A.
The DC BUS has been automatically tied to the Service TRU
- B.
The DC BUS has been automatically tied to the Essential TRU
- 94.
- A.
To ensure the Service TRU is not overloaded
- B.
To ensure the utility bus is powered
- C.
To ensure that you are ensured
- 95.What areas are protected by the fire and overheat detection system?
- A.
Engines
- B.
Jetpipe
- C.
Pylon
- D.
APU
- E.
Main landing gear
- F.
Cargo
- G.
Bathroom
- 96.
- A.
Redundancy
- B.
Disptachability
- C.
More maintenance required
- 97.How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?
- 98.
- 99.
- A.
In the air + 5 seconds
- B.
On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 seconds
- C.
On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 minutes
- 100.
- A.
A good feeling inside
- B.
A fire or overheat condition
- C.
A "false fire" condition or a loop short
- 101.
- A.
A good feeling inside
- B.
A fire or overheat condition
- C.
A "false fire" condition or a loop short
- 102.
- A.
Gravity Flow
- B.
Pressure Flow
- C.
Motive Flow
- 103.
- A.
Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps turn on
- B.
Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, one pump turns on
- 104.
- 105.
- A.
Space heater
- B.
Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers
- C.
Jet exhaust
- 106.On the ground, if low pressure is detected in the left engine fuel feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?
- A.
Both, if either is selected on
- B.
Left BOOST PUMP
- C.
Right BOOST PUMP
- 107.In flight, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?
- A.
The boost pump not detecting the low pressure
- B.
The boost pump detecting low pressure will activate itself and the cross-side boost pump if selected
- C.
Right BOOST PUMP
- D.
Left Boost Pump
- 108.
- A.
Motive flow (scavenger ejectors)
- B.
Motive flow (main ejectors)
- C.
Motive flow (transfer ejectors)
- D.
Fuel pumps
- 109.An amber FUEL BALANCE caution message is displayed when the fuel imbalance reaches ________ lbs.
- 110.
- A.
Fuel Synoptic page
- B.
EICAS primary page
- C.
EICAS status page
- 111.
- A.
Fuel Synoptic page
- B.
EICAS primary page
- C.
EICAS status page
- 112.Can fuel be transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks with the engines shutdown?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 113.
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 114.
- A.
Engine Starting
- B.
Wing anti-ice system
- C.
Air conditioning
- D.
Pressurization
- E.
Thrust Reversers
- F.
Avionics cooling
- 115.
- A.
Engine Starting
- B.
Wing anti-ice system
- C.
Air conditioning
- D.
Pressurization
- E.
Thrust Reversers
- F.
Avionics cooling
- 116.Describe the function of the TEST position of the DUCT MONITOR SELECTOR switch.
- A.
Simulates an overheat in both the 10th and 14th stage manifolds + the wing anti-ice duct
- B.
Simulates an overheat in the 10th stage manifolds
- C.
Simulates an overheat in the 14th stage manifolds
- 117.Describe the function of the LOOP A/B positions.
- A.
Tests the individual loops of the 10th stage leak detection system for shorts or failure
- B.
Tests the individual loops of the 14th stage leak detection system for shorts or failure
- C.
Tests the individual loops of the 1st stage leak detection system for shorts or failure
- 118.
- A.
A leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section
- B.
A funny smell in the associated duct section
- C.
A overheat in the associated duct section
- 119.
- A.
The APU LCV is stuck in the closed position when commanded opened by the interlock protection or pilot
- B.
The APU LCV is stuck in the open position when commanded closed by the interlock protection or pilot
- 120.Will the APU LCV open when the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is OPEN with the left engine running?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 121.
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 122.
- A.
Engine starting
- B.
Bleed air
- C.
AC Electrical Power
- 123.
- A.
Engine starting
- B.
Bleed air
- C.
AC Electrical Power
- 124.
- 125.
- A.
When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed
- B.
When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed out (off) and the BITE test is completed
- C.
When i tell it too
- 126.Under what conditions will the APU SOV close automatically?
- A.
Automatically with a fire detected
- B.
PWR FUEL switch pressed
- C.
APU FIRE PUSH switch pressed
- D.
When the Left Engine Shuts down
- 127.
- A.
Crossflow / APU pump has failed
- B.
Left BOOST pump has failed
- C.
The bleed air extractor pump has failed
- 128.
- A.
The APU LCV SOV failed
- B.
APU Fuel Feed SOV failed
- C.
APU Start motor has failed
- 129.
- A.
APU Start motor is engaged
- B.
APU is available for bleed air extraction
- C.
The crossflow / APU pump has failed
- 130.
- A.
The APU is single and ready for a date
- B.
APU is ready for AC Electrical Load
- C.
APU is ready for bleed air extraction
- 131.During APU start, at what RPM should the white status APU START and the START light in the START/STOP switchlight go out?
- 132.
- A.
The APU door fell off
- B.
APU door position is unknown
- C.
The door indicator has broke, hit it a couple of times and it should work
- 133.If the APU is being used for air conditioning, what are the proper bleed switch positions?
- A.
L & R 10th SOVs Open
- B.
L & R 10th SOV Closed
- C.
APU LCV CLOSED
- D.
APU LCV Open
- E.
10th ISOL Open
- F.
10th ISOL Closed
- 134.Is AC electrical power required for engine starting?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 135.When starting with DC power only, which engine is started first?
- A.
Right
- B.
Left
- C.
Can't start an engine with only DC power
- 136.Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?_______ %
- 137.Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated regardless of switch position?
- A.
Stall Warning
- B.
Engine Start
- C.
Dual Engine Flameout Restart
- D.
CONT IGNITION switchlight selected on
- 138.
- A.
Hydraulic power
- B.
Mechanical Actuated
- C.
Pulleys
- 139.The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?
- A.
System 1
- B.
System 2
- C.
System 3
- 140.Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as electric pumps?
- A.
System 1
- B.
System 2
- C.
System 3
- 141.
- 142.
- A.
Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered
- B.
Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated gen is operating, and the flaps are out of 0
- 143.Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine shutdown?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- 144.
- A.
It is load shed
- B.
It turns on and runs
- C.
Nothing happens to 2B, but 1B is load shed
- 145.Which ACMP runs continuously during normal operations?
- A.
1B
- B.
2B
- C.
3A
- D.
3B
- 146.With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B/2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?
- A.
Always
- B.
Flaps out of 0
- C.
Gear down
- 147.Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG bus during ADG deployment?
- A.
1B
- B.
2B
- C.
3B
- D.
3A
- 148.
- A.
Fuel synoptic page and verifying lines are green
- B.
Hydraulic synoptic page and verifying the fluid qty is green
- C.
EICAS primary page tells you
- 149.
- A.
Red
- B.
Amber
- C.
Green
- 150.If the left engine fails or is shut down, which hydraulic pumps will NOT be available?
- A.
1A
- B.
1B
- C.
3A
- D.
3B
- E.
2B
- F.
2A
- 151.Can the APU generator power hydraulic pump 1B and 2B?
- A.
Yes
- B.
Only with WOW and the pumps ON
- C.
Yes if the pumps are selected ON
- 152.
- A.
ELT is transmitting
- B.
The system meant to ask you for a BLT
- 153.
- A.
Regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves
- B.
Adding more or less air using the PACKs
- C.
Cabin isn't pressurized
- 154.
- A.
Sets the elevation of the departing airport
- B.
Sets the landing elevation on the status page
- 155.
- A.
Cabin Pressure control opens the outflow valves to full open and climbs the cabin to 14,250 ft +/- 750ft
- B.
Pressure controller drives the outflow valves to full close, climbing the cabin to 14,250 +/-750
- C.
Causes the passenger masks to drop immediately
- 156.
- A.
Allows you to manually control the pressurization
- B.
Switches Pressure Controls
- C.
Nothing
- 157.Flying at FL200, the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?
- A.
14,000ft
- B.
14,250 ft
- C.
14,250 +/- 750ft
- 158.
- A.
CFM
- B.
FOM
- C.
Systems Manual
- D.
QRH
- 159.
- A.
CFM
- B.
FOM
- C.
Systems Manual
- D.
QRH
- 160.
- A.
100 ft
- B.
Must be completely depressurized
- C.
-10 ft
- 161.
- A.
Recirculated cabin exhaust air to the cargo compartment
- B.
Recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay
- C.
Turns on a fan in the cargo bin to keep the rampers cool, doesn't do anything airborne
- 162.
- A.
Recirculated cabin exhaust air to the cargo compartment
- B.
Recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay
- C.
Turns on a fan in the cargo bin to keep the rampers cool, doesn't do anything airborne
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