2.
What does the EICAS caution message "ELT ON" mean?
Correct Answer
A. ELT is transmitting
Explanation
The EICAS caution message "ELT ON" indicates that the Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) is transmitting. ELT is a device that is used to locate an aircraft or a person in distress. When the ELT is activated, it sends out a distress signal that can be picked up by search and rescue teams. Therefore, the message "ELT ON" means that the ELT system is functioning and transmitting its distress signal.
3.
What does an item with an asterisk (*) next to it indicate on the "Preflight Inspection"?
Correct Answer
A. An item that must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM
Explanation
An item with an asterisk (*) next to it on the "Preflight Inspection" indicates that it must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM.
4.
When is it required to start the APU during the Approach Check?
Correct Answer
A. If icing conditions are expected
Explanation
The correct answer is "If icing conditions are expected." Starting the APU during the Approach Check is necessary when there is a possibility of encountering icing conditions. The APU generates additional electrical power and bleed air, which can be used for anti-icing systems to prevent ice formation on critical surfaces of the aircraft. Therefore, starting the APU in such conditions ensures the safety and performance of the aircraft during approach and landing.
5.
How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?
Correct Answer
A. By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight
Explanation
The correct answer is by pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight. This means that the automatic transfer of power from one source to another can be manually stopped by pressing the switchlight. This action allows the operator to have control over the power transfer process and prevent it from happening automatically.
6.
What precautions must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check?
Correct Answer
A. Confirm the Nose wheel area is clear or the Nose Door Closed
Explanation
Prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check, it is important to confirm that the nose wheel area is clear or the nose door is closed. This precaution ensures the safety of the aircraft and prevents any potential accidents or damage that could occur if the area is not clear or the door is not closed properly. It is not necessary to clean the switch with an alcohol wipe or involve a mechanic in this specific step of the safety check.
7.
What is the normal/ usual hydraulic quantities?
Explanation
The normal/usual hydraulic quantities are represented by the color green. Green typically indicates that the hydraulic system is functioning properly and operating within normal parameters. It suggests that there are no issues or abnormalities in the hydraulic system, and everything is running smoothly.
8.
How is cabin pressurization maintained?
Correct Answer
A. Regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves
Explanation
Cabin pressurization is maintained by regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves. These valves control the flow of air out of the cabin, allowing for the adjustment of cabin pressure. By controlling the outflow of air, the pressure inside the cabin can be maintained at a safe and comfortable level for passengers and crew. This ensures that the cabin remains pressurized during flight, allowing for a more comfortable and safe travel experience.
9.
How many days after your address changes must you notify the FAA?
Correct Answer
30
Explanation
After changing your address, it is necessary to notify the FAA within 30 days. This is important because the FAA needs accurate and up-to-date information about the address of pilots and aircraft owners for various purposes such as communication, safety regulations, and legal requirements. Notifying the FAA within the specified timeframe ensures that the FAA has the correct address on record and can reach out to you if needed.
10.
When is the Fasten Seatbelt sign required to be "ON"?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Taxiing
A. Takeoff / Landing
A. Turbulent Air Conditions
Explanation
The Fasten Seatbelt sign is required to be "ON" during taxiing, takeoff, landing, and turbulent air conditions. This is because these are the times when there is a higher risk of turbulence or sudden movements that could potentially cause passengers to lose balance or get injured. By having the Fasten Seatbelt sign "ON" during these situations, it helps ensure the safety and well-being of the passengers on board the aircraft.
11.
How is fuel heated?
Correct Answer
A. Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers
Explanation
Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers are used to heat the fuel. This process involves transferring heat from the engine oil to the fuel, increasing its temperature. By doing so, the heated fuel becomes more efficient and combustible, leading to better engine performance. This method is commonly used in various types of engines, including automotive and aircraft engines, to ensure optimal fuel combustion and overall engine efficiency.
12.
What does amber - - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate (on the status page)?
Correct Answer
A. APU door position is unknown
Explanation
The amber indicator to the right of the APU DOOR status indicates that the position of the APU door is unknown. This means that it is unclear whether the APU door is fully closed or open.
13.
What is the primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check?
Correct Answer
A. To apply electrical power to the aircraft
Explanation
The primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check is to apply electrical power to the aircraft. This check ensures that all the necessary electrical systems are functioning properly before the flight. It is an essential step in the pre-flight procedures to ensure the safety and readiness of the aircraft for departure.
14.
What are the landing requirements for Flight Crewmembers?
Correct Answer
A. 3 Takeoffs and Landings within the last 90 days
Explanation
Flight Crewmembers are required to have completed at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days in order to maintain their landing currency. This ensures that they have recent experience and proficiency in performing takeoffs and landings, which are critical skills for flight crewmembers. The other options mentioned, such as 3 takeoffs and landings during the day or night, are not specifically mentioned as landing requirements for flight crewmembers.
15.
What is the minimum rate of climb must you be able to maintain before reporting it to ATC?_____ fpm
Correct Answer
500
Explanation
The minimum rate of climb that must be maintained before reporting it to ATC is 500 feet per minute (fpm). This means that if an aircraft is climbing, it must maintain a vertical speed of at least 500 fpm before informing air traffic control. This reporting requirement helps ensure that ATC has accurate information about the aircraft's climb performance, which is important for maintaining safe separation between aircraft and coordinating traffic flow.
16.
What does the term Minimum Fuel mean?
Correct Answer
A. The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without undue delays
Explanation
The term "Minimum Fuel" refers to the condition where the existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without any significant delays. This means that the aircraft has enough fuel to safely reach its destination without needing to make any unscheduled stops for refueling. It indicates that the fuel level is at or above the minimum required for the flight, ensuring that there is no risk of running out of fuel during the journey.
17.
Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling the aircraft at night.
Explanation
Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling aircraft at night because they provide visibility and clear communication between the marshaller and the pilot. In low light conditions, the illuminated wands help the marshaller to guide the aircraft safely by signaling the pilot with specific hand movements and directions. Without illuminated hand wands, it would be difficult for the marshaller to effectively communicate with the pilot and ensure the safe movement of the aircraft on the ground. Therefore, it is true that illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling aircraft at night.
18.
What airports in our system route manuals are authorized for use as an alternate?
Correct Answer
A. Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)
Explanation
The correct answer is "Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)". This means that any airport listed in the System Route manual can be used as an alternate airport, as long as it is not specifically marked as not authorized.
19.
How are the primary flight controls actuated?
Correct Answer
A. Hydraulic power
Explanation
The primary flight controls are actuated using hydraulic power. Hydraulic power is a system that uses fluid under pressure to transmit force and motion. In aircraft, hydraulic power is used to operate various systems, including the flight controls. The hydraulic fluid is pressurized and directed to the control surfaces, such as the ailerons, elevators, and rudder, allowing the pilot to maneuver the aircraft. This method provides smooth and precise control over the aircraft's movements, ensuring safe and efficient flight.
20.
How many hydraulic systems are on the CRJ?
Correct Answer
3
Explanation
The CRJ (Canadair Regional Jet) has three hydraulic systems. These hydraulic systems are responsible for powering various components of the aircraft, such as the landing gear, brakes, and flight controls. Having multiple hydraulic systems ensures redundancy and reliability in case one system fails.
21.
There are two types of "Preflight Inspections" a "Detailed Inspection", and a "General Inspection", when is a detailed inspection required?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Prior to the first flight of the day
A. After significant maintenance has been performed
A. Anytime the aircraft's condition is in question
Explanation
A detailed inspection is required prior to the first flight of the day, after significant maintenance has been performed, and anytime the aircraft's condition is in question. This means that before the aircraft takes off for the first time in a day, a thorough inspection must be conducted to ensure its airworthiness. Additionally, after any major maintenance work has been done, another detailed inspection is necessary to verify that the aircraft is in proper working order. Lastly, if there are any doubts or concerns about the condition of the aircraft, a detailed inspection should be carried out to address those concerns.
22.
What is the minimum voltage required on the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU? ____ volts
Correct Answer(s)
22
22 volts
Explanation
The minimum voltage required on both the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU is 22 volts.
23.
Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?
Explanation
The IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) cannot be reconnected in flight once it is disconnected. This is because the process of reconnecting the IDG requires shutting down the engine, which is not feasible during flight. Therefore, once the IDG is disconnected, it cannot be reconnected until the aircraft is on the ground and the engine can be safely shut down and restarted.
24.
What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?______ volts
Correct Answer
22
Explanation
The correct answer is 22 volts. This means that a DC voltage of 22 volts is required to start the APU from battery power.
25.
What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B do?
Correct Answer
A. Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated gen is operating, and the flaps are out of 0
Explanation
The AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B causes the B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operating, and the flaps are out of 0. This means that the B pumps will only be activated when the necessary conditions are met, ensuring the efficient and appropriate use of the hydraulic system.
26.
Who is responsible to ensure a preflight inspection is accomplished?
Correct Answer
A. Captain (PIC)
Explanation
The Captain (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that a preflight inspection is accomplished. As the Pilot in Command, the Captain has the overall authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the aircraft. This includes ensuring that all necessary checks and inspections are completed before each flight. The First Officer and Flight Attendant may assist in the inspection process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Captain.
27.
When can the Wing Anti-ice Test be completed?
Correct Answer
A. Only once both engines are running
Explanation
The Wing Anti-ice Test can only be completed once both engines are running. This is because the Wing Anti-ice system requires the engines to be operational in order to function properly. The test is conducted to ensure that the Wing Anti-ice system is working correctly and is able to prevent ice from forming on the wings during flight. Conducting the test before both engines are running would not provide an accurate assessment of the system's effectiveness.
28.
Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist?
Correct Answer
A. First Officer
Explanation
The Second Engine Start Checklist is performed by the First Officer. This checklist is a standard procedure that ensures all necessary steps are taken before starting the second engine of an aircraft. It includes tasks such as verifying fuel levels, checking engine controls, and ensuring all systems are ready for engine start. The First Officer is responsible for completing this checklist to ensure a safe and efficient start of the second engine.
29.
When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?The boxed items are performed upon reaching ________ ft, or cruise altitude if lower
Correct Answer
10000
10,000
Explanation
Upon reaching 10,000 feet or the cruise altitude if lower, the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK are completed. This means that the checklist items in the box, which are likely related to specific actions or procedures during the climb phase of the flight, are performed at this altitude. The answer provided in both formats, "10000" and "10,000," indicates the altitude at which these boxed items are completed.
30.
Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within how many hours of any scheduled flight duty?______ hrs
Correct Answer
24
Explanation
Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within 24 hours of any scheduled flight duty. This is likely because scuba diving can cause nitrogen bubbles to form in the body, which can lead to decompression sickness. The high pressure experienced during scuba diving can affect the body's ability to handle the pressure changes that occur during flights. Therefore, it is important for crewmembers to wait at least 24 hours after scuba diving before engaging in any flight duties to ensure their safety and prevent any potential health risks.
31.
How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?
Correct Answer
A. Pressing the IDG DISC switch
Explanation
To manually disconnect an IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) from its engine, the IDG DISC switch needs to be pressed. This switch is specifically designed to disconnect the IDG from the engine, allowing for isolation and maintenance if required. By pressing the IDG DISC switch, the mechanical connection between the IDG and the engine is severed, ensuring the generator is no longer powered by the engine. This action is necessary in situations where the IDG needs to be disconnected for troubleshooting or replacement purposes.
32.
When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?
Correct Answer
A. On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 seconds
Explanation
The APU fire extinguishing system will activate automatically on the ground in the event of an APU fire, with a delay of 5 seconds. This means that if a fire is detected in the APU while the aircraft is on the ground, the fire extinguishing system will start operating after a 5-second delay.
33.
Where is the engine fuel feed temperature displayed?
Correct Answer
A. Fuel Synoptic page
Explanation
The engine fuel feed temperature is displayed on the Fuel Synoptic page. This page provides a comprehensive overview of the fuel system, including various parameters such as fuel temperature, fuel quantity, and fuel flow. By accessing this page, pilots and engineers can monitor and analyze the fuel feed temperature to ensure optimal engine performance and prevent any potential issues related to fuel temperature.
34.
What does a red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicate?
Correct Answer
A. A leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section
Explanation
A red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicates a leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section.
35.
How is the APU fuel feed SOV opened?
Correct Answer
A. When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed
Explanation
The APU fuel feed SOV is opened when the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed. This means that when the switchlight is turned on and the Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) test is successfully completed, the APU fuel feed SOV is opened, allowing fuel to flow to the APU for operation.
36.
Flying at FL200, the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?
Correct Answer
A. 14,250 +/- 750ft
Explanation
When the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed while flying at FL200, the pressure altitude of the cabin should reach 14,250 +/- 750ft. This means that the cabin altitude will be maintained at a level between 13,500ft and 15,000ft. The EMER DEPRESS switchlight is used to initiate an emergency depressurization, allowing the cabin pressure to rapidly equalize with the outside pressure. The range of 14,250 +/- 750ft ensures that the cabin altitude remains within a safe and controlled range during the emergency depressurization procedure.
37.
What does selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON cause?
Correct Answer
A. Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps turn on
Explanation
Selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON arms both pumps. Additionally, if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps will turn on. This means that when the boost pump switch is activated, it ensures that both pumps are ready to operate. If the system detects low fuel pressure, it will activate both pumps to provide the necessary fuel pressure.
38.
Where is the bulk fuel tempature displayed?
Correct Answer
A. Fuel Synoptic page
Explanation
The correct answer is Fuel Synoptic page. This page displays the bulk fuel temperature.
39.
What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection Check?
Correct Answer
A. First Flight of the Day Items
Explanation
The " * " next to items on the Flight Deck Inspection Check indicates that they are the First Flight of the Day Items. These items are crucial to be checked before the first flight of the day to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft. They may include tasks like checking fuel levels, inspecting the exterior of the aircraft, verifying emergency equipment, and testing communication systems. These items are essential to be completed before each flight to ensure the aircraft is in a suitable condition for operation.
40.
How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?
Correct Answer
2
Explanation
There are two Firex bottles provided for engine fire extinguishing.
41.
What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenger, main)?
Correct Answer
A. Motive Flow
Explanation
The fuel system ejector pumps are powered by motive flow. Motive flow refers to the flow of fuel that is generated by the motion of the aircraft. This flow is used to power various systems in the aircraft, including the ejector pumps. These pumps help transfer fuel from one part of the system to another, ensuring a continuous flow of fuel to the engine. The motive flow system utilizes the energy from the aircraft's motion to generate the necessary pressure to move the fuel through the system.
42.
With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B/2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?
Correct Answer
A. Flaps out of 0
Explanation
The pumps will operate when the flaps are out of 0. This means that the pumps will only start operating when the flaps are extended from their fully retracted position.
43.
What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the main cabin door?
Correct Answer
A. Must be completely depressurized
Explanation
The correct answer is "must be completely depressurized." This means that in order to open the main cabin door, the cabin pressure must be reduced to zero. This is necessary to prevent any pressure imbalance between the inside and outside of the aircraft, which could make it difficult or impossible to open the door. By completely depressurizing the cabin, the pressure inside and outside the aircraft is equalized, allowing the door to be opened safely.
44.
Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, what must you ensure?
Correct Answer
A. There is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message
Explanation
Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, you must ensure that there is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message. This means that there are no indications or warnings of a potential fire in the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit). It is important to address any potential fire risks before conducting the test to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.
45.
When are the recognition and ice lights required to be ON?Recognition and ice lights are required for all operations conducted below _________ ft, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew
Correct Answer
10000
10,000
Explanation
The recognition and ice lights are required to be ON for all operations conducted below 10,000 feet, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew.
46.
How many days is a Temporary Airman Certificate Valid?
Correct Answer
120
Explanation
A Temporary Airman Certificate is valid for 120 days. This means that after obtaining the certificate, the individual is allowed to perform certain aviation activities for a period of 120 days before it expires. It is important for individuals to keep track of the expiration date and renew the certificate if necessary to continue operating as an airman.
47.
How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar year?
Correct Answer
1000
1,000
Explanation
A crewmember can be scheduled for a maximum of 1000 hours in a calendar year.
48.
How many batteries are installed? (not counting the emergency lights battery)
Correct Answer
2
Explanation
The given answer states that there are 2 batteries installed, excluding the emergency lights battery. This implies that there are additional batteries in the system, but they are not considered in the count. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.
49.
What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external switchlight indicate?
Correct Answer
A. Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency
Explanation
The green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external switchlight indicates that power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency. This means that the power supply is functioning properly and meets the required specifications for the device or system that it is connected to.