1.
What is the appropriate access-to-care standard for wellness & health promotions appointment?
Correct Answer
A. 28 days
Explanation
The appropriate access-to-care standard for wellness and health promotions appointment is 28 days. This means that individuals should be able to schedule an appointment for wellness and health promotions within a maximum of 28 days. This ensures that individuals have timely access to preventive care and can receive necessary screenings, vaccinations, and other services to maintain their overall health and well-being.
2.
Which is not a benefit of using the OA Model for booking appointments?
Correct Answer
C. Increased patient no-show and cancellations rates
Explanation
Increased patient no-show and cancellations rates is not a benefit of using the OA Model for booking appointments. The OA Model aims to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of appointment scheduling, allowing for timely access to care and increased provider schedule flexibility. It also enhances patient trust by providing a streamlined and convenient appointment booking process. However, increased patient no-show and cancellations rates would be a disadvantage as it can lead to wasted resources and decreased patient satisfaction.
3.
How often is the P2R2 access metric updated by the MTF point of contact?
Correct Answer
A. Monthly
Explanation
The P2R2 access metric is updated on a monthly basis by the MTF point of contact. This means that the metric is reviewed and revised every month to ensure that it accurately reflects the current status of P2R2 access. This frequent updating allows for timely monitoring and assessment of the access metric, enabling any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made promptly.
4.
Which report provides a preview of the availability of appointments by appointment type and by provider within a clinic on a given date and time?
Correct Answer
C. Next Available Appointment Report
Explanation
The Next Available Appointment Report provides a preview of the availability of appointments by appointment type and by provider within a clinic on a given date and time. This report allows clinic staff to quickly see which appointment slots are open and can be scheduled for patients. It helps in managing the clinic's workload and ensuring that patients can be accommodated efficiently.
5.
Who generates the CHCS access to care summary reports weekly?
Correct Answer
B. TOC
Explanation
The TOC (Theater Operations Center) generates the CHCS (Composite Health Care System) access to care summary reports weekly.
6.
Who uses the TAT to evaluate scheduling adequacy and sufficiency of a MTF's schedules and template in support if TRICARE Prime access standards?
Correct Answer
C. MTF
Explanation
The MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) uses the TAT (Turnaround Time) to evaluate scheduling adequacy and sufficiency of their schedules and templates in support of TRICARE Prime access standards. The TAT is a measure of the time it takes for a patient to receive care, and by evaluating it, the MTF can assess whether their schedules and templates are meeting the standards set for TRICARE Prime access.
7.
Which is not a responsibility of the TRO?
Correct Answer
B. Establish TRICARE provider networks
Explanation
The TRO, or TRICARE Regional Office, is responsible for various tasks related to managing the TRICARE program. This includes addressing enrollment issues, approving MOU's with the contractor, and monitoring customer satisfaction outcomes. However, establishing TRICARE provider networks is not a responsibility of the TRO. This task is typically handled by the TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) or the Defense Health Agency (DHA).
8.
What tool was developed to ease the burden of analyzing data from the many reports available in the CHCS?
Correct Answer
D. AIM
Explanation
AIM (Automated Information Management) is the correct answer. AIM is a tool that was developed to ease the burden of analyzing data from the many reports available in the CHCS (Composite Health Care System). It is designed to streamline data analysis and provide a comprehensive view of the information in an organized and easily accessible manner. AIM helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions by providing them with the necessary data and analysis tools.
9.
Where do MCS contractors and TRO receive overall guidance?
Correct Answer
D. TMA
Explanation
MCS contractors and TRO receive overall guidance from TMA.
10.
Who is responsible for ensuring the MCS contractor performs the technical aspects of the contract?
Correct Answer
C. COTR
Explanation
The Contracting Officer's Technical Representative (COTR) is responsible for ensuring that the MCS contractor performs the technical aspects of the contract. The COTR acts as a liaison between the contractor and the contracting officer, overseeing the technical performance of the contractor and ensuring that the deliverables meet the requirements specified in the contract. They play a crucial role in monitoring and evaluating the contractor's performance and ensuring that the project is executed according to the agreed-upon terms and technical standards.
11.
Which is not a purpose of the COTR contacts?
Correct Answer
C. Ensure adequate standards of care
Explanation
The purpose of the COTR contacts is to advise MTF commanders on contract matters, evaluate managed care support contractor performance, and resolve contract problems. Ensuring adequate standards of care, on the other hand, is not a specific purpose of the COTR contacts.
12.
The COTR will verify contractor's records regarding licensure, certification, and education remain current and will post changes to the
Correct Answer
A. COR Database
Explanation
The COTR, or Contracting Officer's Technical Representative, is responsible for verifying the contractor's records regarding licensure, certification, and education. This is important to ensure that the contractor meets the necessary qualifications for the job. The COTR will also post any changes to the COR Database, which is a centralized system used to track and manage contract information. This allows for easy access and reference to contractor records and updates. The other options, such as the Base bulletin board, TRICARE website, and DEERS database, are not specifically mentioned in relation to verifying contractor records, making the COR Database the correct answer.
13.
Supplement services provided at MTF are examples of which type of resource sharing?
Correct Answer
A. Internal
Explanation
The supplement services provided at MTF are examples of internal resource sharing. This means that the services are being shared within the organization itself, rather than with external entities or partners. Internal resource sharing allows for efficient utilization of resources within the organization, leading to improved productivity and cost-effectiveness.
14.
Who provides the contractor with written approval/disapproval within 30 days of receipt of resource-sharing agreement signed by the MTF commander and the contractor?
Correct Answer
D. TRO
Explanation
The TRO (Technical Review Officer) provides the contractor with written approval/disapproval within 30 days of receipt of the resource-sharing agreement signed by the MTF commander and the contractor.
15.
What policy states that the DOD and the VA will enter into direct care sharing agreements?
Correct Answer
B. DOD
Explanation
The Department of Defense (DOD) is the policy that states that the DOD and the VA will enter into direct care sharing agreements. This means that the DOD and the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) will work together to provide direct care to eligible individuals, ensuring that they receive the necessary medical services. This policy aims to improve coordination and collaboration between the two departments in order to better serve the healthcare needs of military personnel and veterans.
16.
How often will the MCS contractor submit a revised resource sharing plan to the TRO?
Correct Answer
C. Annually
Explanation
The MCS contractor will submit a revised resource sharing plan to the TRO annually. This suggests that the contractor will review and update their resource sharing plan once every year. It is important for the contractor to regularly assess and adjust their plan to ensure efficient allocation and utilization of resources. This periodic submission allows for the TRO to stay informed about any changes in the contractor's resource sharing strategy and make necessary adjustments or approvals accordingly.
17.
Who will implement a formal DOD/VA Health care Resource Sharing Program?
Correct Answer
B. TMA Director
Explanation
The TMA Director will implement a formal DOD/VA Health care Resource Sharing Program. The TMA Director is responsible for overseeing the Defense Health Agency's operations and ensuring the delivery of quality healthcare to the military community. Implementing a formal program for resource sharing between the Department of Defense and the Department of Veterans Affairs would fall under the purview of the TMA Director's responsibilities.
18.
In regards to internal resource sharing, before a provider is permitted to practice in the MTF, he or she must be granted privileges by the
Correct Answer
B. MTF/CC
Explanation
Before a provider is permitted to practice in the MTF (Military Treatment Facility), they must be granted privileges by the MTF/CC (MTF Commander). The MTF/CC is responsible for ensuring that providers have the necessary qualifications and skills to provide quality care to patients within the facility. Granting privileges is a way to ensure that only competent and qualified providers are allowed to practice in the MTF, ensuring the safety and well-being of patients.
19.
For external resource sharing military health care personnel, who will ensure that the military health care personnel are appropriately licensed and have clinical privileges with the network facility?
Correct Answer
B. MTF commander
Explanation
The MTF commander is responsible for ensuring that military health care personnel who are sharing external resources are appropriately licensed and have clinical privileges with the network facility. This means that the MTF commander is in charge of verifying and approving the credentials and privileges of these personnel before they can provide care at the network facility. The base commander may have overall authority over the base, but the specific responsibility for licensing and clinical privileges lies with the MTF commander. The contractor and provider may be involved in the external resource sharing, but they do not have the authority to ensure appropriate licensing and clinical privileges.
20.
Who shall have an independent certified public accounting firm perform audit procedures for each resource-sharing agreement to validate that resource-sharing activity is correctly reported under contract provision?
Correct Answer
A. Contractor
Explanation
The contractor shall have an independent certified public accounting firm perform audit procedures for each resource-sharing agreement to validate that resource-sharing activity is correctly reported under contract provision. This means that the responsibility lies with the contractor to ensure that the resource-sharing activity is accurately reported and validated by an independent auditing firm.
21.
To provide the combatant commanders with the best mix of forces, equipment, and support attainable within established fiscal constraints is the ultimate objective of the
Correct Answer
C. PPBES
Explanation
The PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System) is the military budget process that aims to provide the combatant commanders with the best combination of forces, equipment, and support while adhering to fiscal constraints. It involves the planning, programming, budgeting, and execution of resources to meet the military's objectives. This process ensures that the military budget is allocated efficiently and effectively to support the needs of the combatant commanders.
22.
Which phase of the PPBES is the process of determining objective ad specifying time-phased military force requirements to accomplish a mission?
Correct Answer
A. Planning
Explanation
The correct answer is Planning. In the PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System), the phase of determining objective and specifying time-phased military force requirements to accomplish a mission is known as planning. This phase involves analyzing the mission, identifying the resources needed, and developing a comprehensive plan to achieve the mission objectives.
23.
Which PPBES phase provides the opportunity to make assessments concerning current and previous resource allocations and whether the department achieved its planned performance goal?
Correct Answer
D. Execution
Explanation
Execution is the correct answer because it refers to the phase in the PPBES (Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System) where the department implements and carries out its planned activities. During the execution phase, assessments can be made to determine if the department has effectively utilized its allocated resources and achieved its planned performance goals. This phase allows for the evaluation of past resource allocations and their impact on the department's performance.
24.
What is the four-digit code used by the accounting system to monitor and report purchases by a work center?
Correct Answer
D. RC/CC
Explanation
The four-digit code used by the accounting system to monitor and report purchases by a work center is RC/CC. This code is likely an abbreviation for "Resource Center/Cost Center" and is used to track and categorize expenses related to specific work centers within an organization. It allows for accurate monitoring and reporting of purchases made by each work center, aiding in financial analysis and decision-making processes.
25.
What funding structure, mandated by the TMA, must MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders review and manage?
Correct Answer
B. BAG
Explanation
MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders must review and manage the funding structure mandated by the TMA, which is referred to as BAG.
26.
What is the grouping of forces, manpower, and costs associated with a military capability or support activity?
Correct Answer
A. PEC
Explanation
PEC stands for Program, Evaluation, and Costing. It refers to the grouping of forces, manpower, and costs associated with a military capability or support activity. This term is commonly used in military planning and budgeting processes to assess the resources required for a specific capability or activity. By analyzing the program, evaluating the effectiveness, and costing the resources needed, military organizations can effectively allocate their resources and make informed decisions.
27.
Which is not a responsibility of the CCM?
Correct Answer
C. Develop cost center management guide
Explanation
The responsibility of the CCM is to develop a cost center management guide. This guide will provide guidelines and instructions on how to manage cost centers effectively, ensuring that resources are allocated efficiently and expenditures are monitored. This guide will help in standardizing cost center management practices across the organization, promoting consistency and transparency. It will also serve as a reference for employees to understand their roles and responsibilities in managing cost centers.
28.
Through the medical logistics flight, which office prepares, and provides guidance for the DWCF, Medical-Dental Stock Division?
Correct Answer
D. AF Medical Logistics Office
Explanation
The AF Medical Logistics Office is responsible for preparing and providing guidance for the DWCF, Medical-Dental Stock Division. This office is in charge of managing the medical logistics flight and ensuring that the necessary medical and dental supplies are available for the military. They coordinate with the AF Material Command Medical-Dental Division and the USAF/SGOI to ensure efficient and effective medical logistics operations.
29.
How often must CCM meetings be conducted?
Correct Answer
B. Quarterly
Explanation
CCM meetings must be conducted on a quarterly basis, which means they should occur every three months. This frequency allows for regular communication and collaboration among team members, ensuring that important updates, decisions, and progress can be shared and discussed in a timely manner. Quarterly meetings also provide an opportunity to review and assess the effectiveness of ongoing projects or initiatives, identify any challenges or areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments to keep the team on track towards their goals.
30.
Who maintains the MTF's cost center management program?
Correct Answer
A. RMO
Explanation
The RMO (Resource Management Office) maintains the MTF's (Medical Treatment Facility's) cost center management program. The RMO is responsible for managing the financial resources of the MTF, including budgeting, accounting, and cost control. They ensure that the cost center management program is effectively implemented and maintained to track and manage the costs associated with different departments or units within the MTF.
31.
What form is used to establish unfilled customer orders between the ordering and performing activities in the accounting records?
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD)
Explanation
The AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document (MORD), is used to establish unfilled customer orders between the ordering and performing activities in the accounting records. This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking miscellaneous obligations and reimbursements, making it the most appropriate choice for establishing unfilled customer orders. The other forms listed are not specifically intended for this purpose.
32.
What document should be reviewed to ensure all commitments, obligations, and customer orders are recorded accurately?
Correct Answer
C. ODL
Explanation
The document that should be reviewed to ensure all commitments, obligations, and customer orders are recorded accurately is the ODL (Order Detail List). This document contains detailed information about customer orders, including the products or services ordered, quantities, delivery dates, and any special instructions. By reviewing the ODL, an organization can ensure that all commitments and obligations to customers are accurately recorded and fulfilled.
33.
Which form is used to issue funds to other AF units when it is impractical to route each request for funds through Accounting & Finance Office?
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization
Explanation
AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization is used to issue funds to other AF units when it is impractical to route each request for funds through the Accounting & Finance Office. This form authorizes the transfer of funds from one unit to another without the need for additional approval or processing. It allows for a more efficient and streamlined method of transferring funds within the AF units, especially in situations where routing each request through the Accounting & Finance Office would be time-consuming or impractical.
34.
What is the most important snapshot of financial activity the RMO has and serves as their checkbook?
Correct Answer
C. OBL
Explanation
The most important snapshot of financial activity that the RMO has and serves as their checkbook is the "Status of funds report." This report provides an overview of the current status of funds, including the available balance, pending transactions, and any outstanding obligations. It allows the RMO to track and manage their financial resources effectively and make informed decisions based on the available funds.
35.
The Long View Strategy will position the AFMS for the greatest return with the least risk. The outcome will be the highest state of readiness, the best health status, and the
Correct Answer
D. Lowest overall cost
Explanation
The Long View Strategy aims to optimize the AFMS's performance by balancing return and risk. By prioritizing readiness, health status, and environmental cost, the strategy ensures that the AFMS operates efficiently and effectively. By focusing on the overall cost, the strategy aims to minimize expenses while maximizing outcomes, resulting in the lowest overall cost. This approach allows the AFMS to allocate resources wisely and achieve its goals in the most cost-effective manner.
36.
Who develops the spend plan?
Correct Answer
A. RA
Explanation
The correct answer is RA. The RA, or Resource Advisor, is responsible for developing the spend plan. They work closely with the MTF commander and other key personnel to allocate funds and ensure that the budget is properly managed. The RA takes into account various factors such as operational needs, financial constraints, and strategic priorities when creating the spend plan. They play a crucial role in ensuring that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively to support the mission of the organization.
37.
How many AFMS panels will be used to identify and champion necessary changes?
Correct Answer
D. 9
Explanation
Nine AFMS panels will be used to identify and champion necessary changes. This suggests that multiple panels will be formed to address different areas or aspects of the necessary changes. Each panel will likely focus on a specific area or issue, allowing for a comprehensive assessment and implementation of the required changes.
38.
What is a tool a unit can use to request a change to the manning levels?
Correct Answer
B. ACR
Explanation
ACR stands for Authorization Change Request. It is a tool that a unit can use to request a change to the manning levels. This tool allows the unit to formally document and justify the need for a change in staffing levels, whether it is an increase or a decrease. By submitting an ACR, the unit can provide the necessary information and justifications to support their request and initiate the process of reviewing and approving the change in manning levels.
39.
What is the primary use of fallout dollars?
Correct Answer
C. Purchase equipment
Explanation
Fallout dollars are primarily used to purchase equipment. This suggests that fallout dollars are a form of currency or credit that is specifically designated for acquiring equipment. It implies that these dollars cannot be used for other purposes such as purchasing non-medical supplies, settling travel obligations, or covering first priority level expenses. The focus is on acquiring equipment, indicating that fallout dollars serve a specific purpose within a particular context or system.
40.
The Long View Strategy looks at the AFMS from a strategic viewpoint of how many years?
Correct Answer
D. Ten years and beyond
Explanation
The Long View Strategy takes into consideration the AFMS (Air Force Materiel Strategy) from a strategic perspective for a period of ten years and beyond. This approach aims to anticipate and plan for long-term needs, challenges, and opportunities, ensuring the organization's ability to adapt and succeed in the future. By considering a time frame of ten years and beyond, the Long View Strategy encourages forward-thinking and proactive decision-making that aligns with the organization's long-term goals and objectives.
41.
Which is not a key to a successful close-out?
Correct Answer
B. Last minute obligations
Explanation
Last minute obligations are not a key to a successful close-out because they can lead to rushed and incomplete work. Successful close-out requires careful pre-planning, constant review of management reports, and close coordination with base agencies to ensure all tasks are completed on time and to the required standard. Last minute obligations can introduce unnecessary stress and increase the likelihood of errors or omissions, which can jeopardize the success of the close-out process.
42.
Prior to submitting an ACR who must the RMO check with to ensure no impact is made on the unit's deployment requirements?
Correct Answer
B. Unit deployment manager
Explanation
The RMO must check with the Unit deployment manager prior to submitting an ACR to ensure no impact is made on the unit's deployment requirements. The Unit deployment manager is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of personnel and resources for the unit. By consulting with the Unit deployment manager, the RMO can ensure that any changes or adjustments made through the ACR will not disrupt the unit's deployment plans or requirements. This helps maintain the unit's readiness and effectiveness in carrying out its mission.
43.
What serves as both a planning and programming guidance document to build the POM?
Correct Answer
D. MAPPG
Explanation
MAPPG stands for Military Acquisition Programming and Planning Guidance. It serves as both a planning and programming guidance document to build the POM (Program Objective Memorandum). The POM is a document used by the Department of Defense to outline their budget and resource allocation for future programs and projects. The MAPPG provides instructions and guidelines for the development of the POM, ensuring that it aligns with the military's strategic goals and objectives. Therefore, MAPPG is the correct answer as it directly relates to the planning and programming process for building the POM.
44.
Who approves the interim use of civilian until military resources can be planned and made available?
Correct Answer
C. MAJCOM
Explanation
MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping their subordinate units. They have the authority to approve the interim use of civilian resources until military resources can be planned and made available. This means that they have the power to authorize the temporary use of civilian personnel or assets in situations where military resources are not immediately accessible.
45.
Which analysis is accomplished by analyzing the private sector and direct care risk?
Correct Answer
A. CCA
Explanation
CCA stands for Cost-Consequence Analysis. This type of analysis is accomplished by analyzing the private sector and direct care risk. Cost-Consequence Analysis is a method used to evaluate the costs and consequences of different healthcare interventions or strategies. It takes into account both the financial costs and the potential outcomes or consequences of each option. By analyzing the private sector and direct care risk, CCA helps in assessing the financial implications and potential risks associated with different healthcare interventions.
46.
Who is responsible for providing active military authorizations?
Correct Answer
C. MAJCOM
Explanation
MAJCOM, or Major Command, is responsible for providing active military authorizations. Major Commands are the highest level of command in the United States Air Force and are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces to carry out missions. They have the authority to assign units and resources to specific tasks and operations, including providing active military authorizations. Therefore, MAJCOM is the correct answer to this question.
47.
Which analysis places assets where the population drives the largest financial risk?
Correct Answer
C. BCA
Explanation
BCA stands for Business Continuity Analysis. This analysis places assets where the population drives the largest financial risk. It assesses the potential impact of a disruption on the organization's operations and identifies critical assets that need to be protected. By focusing on the population and the associated financial risk, BCA helps organizations prioritize their resources and develop strategies to mitigate potential disruptions.
48.
The decision process is used to determine the type of manpower to use when validating
Correct Answer
A. Manpower requirements
Explanation
The decision process is used to determine the type of manpower to use when validating manpower requirements. This means that when assessing the required workforce, the decision process helps in identifying the appropriate type of manpower needed to meet those requirements. It ensures that the right mix of personnel with the necessary skills, qualifications, and expertise is selected to fulfill the manpower needs of the organization effectively.
49.
Air Reserve Force authorizations must be identified to
Correct Answer
B. HQ USAF/XP
Explanation
The correct answer is HQ USAF/XP. This is because HQ USAF/XP is responsible for identifying and authorizing Air Reserve Force personnel. They oversee the management and administration of the Air Reserve Force, ensuring that all authorizations are properly identified and approved.
50.
Which is not a tool used to formulate the initial baseline manpower requirements for the MAPPG?
Correct Answer
C. MTF summary tool
Explanation
The MTF summary tool is not used to formulate the initial baseline manpower requirements for the MAPPG. The other options, DCT, IAT, and MRT, are tools that are used for this purpose.