CDC 3DX7X Vol 1

1. Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

Port 80.

Port 110.

Port 443.

Port 8080.

Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative when the default port is already in use or blocked. This allows HTTP traffic to be redirected to port 8080, ensuring that web servers and proxies can still function properly. Ports 110 and 443 are used for different purposes, such as email (POP3) and secure web browsing (HTTPS), respectively.

Explanation

Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative when the default port is already in use or blocked. This allows HTTP traffic to be redirected to port 8080, ensuring that web servers and proxies can still function properly. Ports 110 and 443 are used for different purposes, such as email (POP3) and secure web browsing (HTTPS), respectively.

2. What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

Local Area Network (LAN).

Wide Area Network (WAN).

Virtual Private Network ( VPN).

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that connects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN), which typically covers a smaller area like a building or campus, a MAN covers a larger area and allows for the interconnection of multiple LANs. A Wide Area Network (WAN) covers an even larger area, such as multiple cities or countries, and a Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure network that allows remote users to access a private network over a public network. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that connects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN), which typically covers a smaller area like a building or campus, a MAN covers a larger area and allows for the interconnection of multiple LANs. A Wide Area Network (WAN) covers an even larger area, such as multiple cities or countries, and a Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure network that allows remote users to access a private network over a public network. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

3. Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

Token.

Biometrics.

Multifactor

Knowledge-based.

The correct answer is knowledge-based. In this identity management process, a user is authenticated by providing a password. This method relies on the user's knowledge of a specific password to verify their identity. Other methods such as tokens, biometrics, and multifactor authentication may also be used for identity verification, but in this case, the use of a password is specifically mentioned.

Explanation

The correct answer is knowledge-based. In this identity management process, a user is authenticated by providing a password. This method relies on the user's knowledge of a specific password to verify their identity. Other methods such as tokens, biometrics, and multifactor authentication may also be used for identity verification, but in this case, the use of a password is specifically mentioned.

4. In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

10–401.

33–360.

38–101.

64–117.

The correct answer is 64-117 because the question asks for the source of in-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels. The Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides detailed guidelines and procedures for the program, and AFI 64-117 specifically covers the Government Purchase Card program in the Air Force.

Explanation

The correct answer is 64-117 because the question asks for the source of in-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels. The Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides detailed guidelines and procedures for the program, and AFI 64-117 specifically covers the Government Purchase Card program in the Air Force.

5. Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

Making authorized transactions.

Reconciling transactions.

Logging transactions.

Funds accountability.

The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not directly responsible for managing or tracking the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. Instead, funds accountability is typically handled by higher-level financial management personnel within the government organization.

Explanation

The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not directly responsible for managing or tracking the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. Instead, funds accountability is typically handled by higher-level financial management personnel within the government organization.

6. Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

A. Computer Systems Programming.

B. Cyber Systems Operations.

C. Cyber Transport Systems.

D. Cyber Surety.

The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for this specialty as it assesses the individual's knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is a crucial aspect of computer systems programming. The test ensures that members have the necessary proficiency in this area before being assigned to this AFSC.

Explanation

The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for this specialty as it assesses the individual's knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is a crucial aspect of computer systems programming. The test ensures that members have the necessary proficiency in this area before being assigned to this AFSC.

7. Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

Communications Focal Point.

Unit Deployment Monitor.

Enterprise Service Desk.

Quality Assurance.

The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, but the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) can vary depending on the unit mission. This suggests that different units may have different requirements for the personnel in this role, and the AFSCs may be tailored to meet those specific needs.

Explanation

The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, but the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) can vary depending on the unit mission. This suggests that different units may have different requirements for the personnel in this role, and the AFSCs may be tailored to meet those specific needs.

8. Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

At major command functional managers.

At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

At the Air Force Personnel Center.

With career field managers.

The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities are handled at the highest level of the Air Force organization.

Explanation

The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities are handled at the highest level of the Air Force organization.

9. Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

Program Element Code (PEC).

Special Experience Identifier (SEI).

Authorization Change Request (ACR).

Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. PEC is a unique code assigned to each element of a program, which helps in identifying and tracking the costs associated with that specific element. It allows for better budgeting, cost estimation, and resource allocation within a program. PEC helps in categorizing and organizing the costs related to different aspects of a weapon system or support function, making it an essential subdivision of programmed cost data.

Explanation

Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. PEC is a unique code assigned to each element of a program, which helps in identifying and tracking the costs associated with that specific element. It allows for better budgeting, cost estimation, and resource allocation within a program. PEC helps in categorizing and organizing the costs related to different aspects of a weapon system or support function, making it an essential subdivision of programmed cost data.

10. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

Construct career paths.

Manage skill-level training requirements.

Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower office within the MAJCOM.

Explanation

The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower office within the MAJCOM.

11. Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Draft and sign minutes.

Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).

Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory ( AFECD) specialty description.

Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

Explanation

The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

12. Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

Master Task List.

Job Qualification Standard.

Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.

The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific job qualifications, such as certifications or specialized training, then the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not have any specific job qualifications, then the Job Qualification Standard will not be included in the Master Training Plan.

Explanation

The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific job qualifications, such as certifications or specialized training, then the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not have any specific job qualifications, then the Job Qualification Standard will not be included in the Master Training Plan.

13. How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

2

4

6

8

Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, risk reporting, and risk review. These steps help organizations proactively identify and address potential risks, ensuring the smooth functioning of their operations and minimizing the impact of any unforeseen events. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 6.

Explanation

Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, risk reporting, and risk review. These steps help organizations proactively identify and address potential risks, ensuring the smooth functioning of their operations and minimizing the impact of any unforeseen events. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 6.

14. Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

AF Form 55.

AF Form 971.

AF Form 623A.

AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking safety training completion. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's safety training history, ensuring that supervisors can easily verify and maintain compliance with safety training requirements.

Explanation

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking safety training completion. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's safety training history, ensuring that supervisors can easily verify and maintain compliance with safety training requirements.

15. Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

Job Safety Training (JST).

Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).

Task Hazard Analysis (THA).

Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies and analyzes potential hazards associated with a specific job or task. It involves breaking down the job into individual steps, identifying potential hazards, and determining the appropriate control measures to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their jobs safely. While training is an important component of job safety, it is not the same as Job Safety Analysis.

Explanation

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies and analyzes potential hazards associated with a specific job or task. It involves breaking down the job into individual steps, identifying potential hazards, and determining the appropriate control measures to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their jobs safely. While training is an important component of job safety, it is not the same as Job Safety Analysis.

16. Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

Resources required to manage and use TOs.

Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

Training to manage and use TOs.

The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options mention the resources, infrastructure, and training required to manage and use TOs, but TCTO procedures are not included in TO 00-5-1.

Explanation

The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options mention the resources, infrastructure, and training required to manage and use TOs, but TCTO procedures are not included in TO 00-5-1.

17. When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

Misuse of position.

A covered relationships.

Non-public information.

Personal conflict of interest.

When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This refers to the abuse of authority or power for personal benefits, which is unethical and can lead to negative consequences such as corruption or favoritism.

Explanation

When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This refers to the abuse of authority or power for personal benefits, which is unethical and can lead to negative consequences such as corruption or favoritism.

18. What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

$100,000.

$250,000.

$750,000.

$1,000,000.

Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

Explanation

Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

19. Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

Wing.

Group.

Squadron.

Major command.

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. This implies that within a larger organizational structure, such as the military or a corporation, the Wing is the highest level where these awards are typically given out. It suggests that there may be multiple levels within the organization, such as Groups and Squadrons, but the Wing is the highest level where these awards are recognized and celebrated.

Explanation

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. This implies that within a larger organizational structure, such as the military or a corporation, the Wing is the highest level where these awards are typically given out. It suggests that there may be multiple levels within the organization, such as Groups and Squadrons, but the Wing is the highest level where these awards are recognized and celebrated.

20. What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

Monitor.

Scanner.

Keyboard.

Graphics card.

A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. Therefore, the correct answer is keyboard.

Explanation

A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. Therefore, the correct answer is keyboard.

21. Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Network

Physical.

Data Link

Transport

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts and ensures reliable delivery of data. It establishes a connection-oriented virtual circuit, which provides a dedicated communication path between the sender and receiver. This virtual circuit is maintained throughout the communication session and terminated once the data transfer is complete. The Network layer is responsible for routing and addressing, the Physical layer deals with the physical transmission of data, and the Data Link layer handles data framing and error detection.

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts and ensures reliable delivery of data. It establishes a connection-oriented virtual circuit, which provides a dedicated communication path between the sender and receiver. This virtual circuit is maintained throughout the communication session and terminated once the data transfer is complete. The Network layer is responsible for routing and addressing, the Physical layer deals with the physical transmission of data, and the Data Link layer handles data framing and error detection.

22. What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

Defense Intelligence Agency.

Defense Information Systems Agency.

Defense Information Systems Network.

Department of Defense Information Networks.

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides IT and communication support to the military services, combatant commands, and other DoD components. It is responsible for the planning, development, and management of the DoD's information systems and networks, ensuring secure and reliable communication capabilities for the defense community.

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides IT and communication support to the military services, combatant commands, and other DoD components. It is responsible for the planning, development, and management of the DoD's information systems and networks, ensuring secure and reliable communication capabilities for the defense community.

23. Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

The customer.

Security Manager.

National Security Agency.

Communications Squadron.

The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely. The Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron are not responsible for providing these encryption devices.

Explanation

The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely. The Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron are not responsible for providing these encryption devices.

24. In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

Authorization.

Connection establishment.

Establishment of a clear channel.

End-to-end connectivity between host applications.

In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, before data can be transmitted between clients, a connection must be established. This involves a series of steps where both the client and server exchange control messages to negotiate and establish a reliable connection. Once the connection is established, the clients can then transmit data to each other with the assurance of reliable delivery and error detection.

Explanation

In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, before data can be transmitted between clients, a connection must be established. This involves a series of steps where both the client and server exchange control messages to negotiate and establish a reliable connection. Once the connection is established, the clients can then transmit data to each other with the assurance of reliable delivery and error detection.

25. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

0.0.0.0

127.0.0.1.

207.55.157.255.

255.255.255.255.

The loopback address is a reserved IP address used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a computer to send and receive data to itself. In IPv4, the loopback address is represented by 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues or running local server software.

Explanation

The loopback address is a reserved IP address used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a computer to send and receive data to itself. In IPv4, the loopback address is represented by 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues or running local server software.

26. The range of well-known port numbers is

1024 to 49151.

49152 to 65535.

0 to 1023.

0 to 1024.

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols, such as HTTP (port 80) or FTP (port 21), and are commonly used by well-known applications. Ports in this range are considered privileged and can only be used by processes with administrative privileges. The other options, 1024 to 49151 and 49152 to 65535, represent the ranges for registered ports and dynamic or private ports, respectively.

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols, such as HTTP (port 80) or FTP (port 21), and are commonly used by well-known applications. Ports in this range are considered privileged and can only be used by processes with administrative privileges. The other options, 1024 to 49151 and 49152 to 65535, represent the ranges for registered ports and dynamic or private ports, respectively.

27. What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

Bus

Star

Ring

Hybrid

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all communication between the computers is routed through the central component, which helps to manage and control the network. This arrangement allows for easy troubleshooting and scalability, as adding or removing computers does not disrupt the entire network.

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all communication between the computers is routed through the central component, which helps to manage and control the network. This arrangement allows for easy troubleshooting and scalability, as adding or removing computers does not disrupt the entire network.

28. Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of

256 Kbps.

256 Mbps.

144 Mbps.

144 Kbps.

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is a digital telecommunications network that allows for the transmission of voice, video, and data over traditional telephone lines. It uses a single pair cable, which limits the transmission rates. The correct answer of 144 Kbps indicates that ISDN is capable of transmitting data at a rate of 144 kilobits per second. This is a relatively low transmission rate compared to the other options provided, reflecting the limitations of ISDN technology.

Explanation

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is a digital telecommunications network that allows for the transmission of voice, video, and data over traditional telephone lines. It uses a single pair cable, which limits the transmission rates. The correct answer of 144 Kbps indicates that ISDN is capable of transmitting data at a rate of 144 kilobits per second. This is a relatively low transmission rate compared to the other options provided, reflecting the limitations of ISDN technology.

29. A modem is a device that

Transmits on every link attached to it.

Modulates and demodulates data signals.

Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.

Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the analog signals back into digital data. Modems are commonly used to connect devices to the internet via telephone lines, cable lines, or wireless networks. They are responsible for encoding and decoding the data signals to enable communication between devices.

Explanation

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the analog signals back into digital data. Modems are commonly used to connect devices to the internet via telephone lines, cable lines, or wireless networks. They are responsible for encoding and decoding the data signals to enable communication between devices.

30. What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Hub.

Bridge.

Switch.

Router.

A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the destination MAC address of each incoming frame and deciding whether to forward it or discard it based on its own MAC address table. This allows for better network performance by reducing collisions and improving overall network efficiency.

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the destination MAC address of each incoming frame and deciding whether to forward it or discard it based on its own MAC address table. This allows for better network performance by reducing collisions and improving overall network efficiency.

31. Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

2

3

4

5

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. This means that when a packet needs to be transmitted from one node to another in a network, dynamic routing algorithms are used to determine the most efficient route for the packet to take. These algorithms consider factors such as network congestion, link quality, and other metrics to determine the best path. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. This means that when a packet needs to be transmitted from one node to another in a network, dynamic routing algorithms are used to determine the most efficient route for the packet to take. These algorithms consider factors such as network congestion, link quality, and other metrics to determine the best path. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

32. What is the most common wireless networking standard?

802.3.

802.9.

802.11.

802.14

802.11 is the most common wireless networking standard. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands and provides high-speed wireless connectivity for devices such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets. 802.11 has evolved over time to include various versions such as 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ac, each offering improved speed and range. It is widely adopted and supported by various manufacturers, making it the most prevalent wireless networking standard in use today.

Explanation

802.11 is the most common wireless networking standard. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands and provides high-speed wireless connectivity for devices such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets. 802.11 has evolved over time to include various versions such as 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ac, each offering improved speed and range. It is widely adopted and supported by various manufacturers, making it the most prevalent wireless networking standard in use today.

33. Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

Base Defense Operations Center.

624th Operations Center.

Air Operations Center.

The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by monitoring network activity and reports any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the Air Force network.

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by monitoring network activity and reports any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the Air Force network.

34. Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

Information Management.

Network-centric warfare.

Information Superiority

Information Operations.

Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a superior understanding of the information available, being able to gather and analyze it effectively, and using it to make informed decisions and gain an advantage over others. This term highlights the importance of having superior information management and the ability to effectively use information for strategic purposes.

Explanation

Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a superior understanding of the information available, being able to gather and analyze it effectively, and using it to make informed decisions and gain an advantage over others. This term highlights the importance of having superior information management and the ability to effectively use information for strategic purposes.

35. Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

Computer Forensics.

Incident Prevention.

Incident Detection.

Incident Response.

Incident response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on promptly identifying and addressing cybersecurity incidents to minimize damage and restore normal operations. Computer forensics is more related to analyzing digital evidence, while incident prevention and incident detection are focused on proactive measures to prevent and detect cyber threats, respectively.

Explanation

Incident response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on promptly identifying and addressing cybersecurity incidents to minimize damage and restore normal operations. Computer forensics is more related to analyzing digital evidence, while incident prevention and incident detection are focused on proactive measures to prevent and detect cyber threats, respectively.

36. Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

Virus.

Spam.

Spyware.

Phishing

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically advertising or promotional content. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or individual. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing are all malicious threats that can cause significant damage, such as stealing personal information, damaging files, or gaining unauthorized access to sensitive data.

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically advertising or promotional content. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or individual. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing are all malicious threats that can cause significant damage, such as stealing personal information, damaging files, or gaining unauthorized access to sensitive data.

37. Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

Patches

Antivirus.

Software removal.

Vulnerability scanner.

Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and bugs in software, improving its security and functionality. Patches are often released by software vendors as updates or upgrades to their products, and they are essential for keeping software secure and up to date.

Explanation

Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and bugs in software, improving its security and functionality. Patches are often released by software vendors as updates or upgrades to their products, and they are essential for keeping software secure and up to date.

38. Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

A. Minimum rank of SSgt.

B. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.

C. Completion of Air Force Specialty Code ( AFSC) specific requirements.

D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, a, b, and c, all mention requirements that are necessary for advancement, such as minimum rank, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements. However, completion of AETC supplemental training courses is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, a, b, and c, all mention requirements that are necessary for advancement, such as minimum rank, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements. However, completion of AETC supplemental training courses is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level.

39. What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

TO 00–5–15.

MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.

Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.

Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.

The correct answer is MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.

Explanation

The correct answer is MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.

40. What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

Remedy.

Situational Report (SITREP).

Telephone Management System ( TMS).

Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is a comprehensive system that allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance actions, providing a centralized database for maintenance data. It is commonly used in the military and aerospace industry to manage and document maintenance activities on various equipment and systems.

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is a comprehensive system that allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance actions, providing a centralized database for maintenance data. It is commonly used in the military and aerospace industry to manage and document maintenance activities on various equipment and systems.

41. Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

Communications Focal Point.

Flight Commander/Chief.

Production Controller.

Commander.

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and in accordance with established procedures. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and operational readiness of the organization, as periodic inspections help identify and address any potential issues or deficiencies. By assigning this responsibility to the Flight Commander/Chief, the organization can ensure that inspections are prioritized and carried out effectively.

Explanation

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and in accordance with established procedures. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and operational readiness of the organization, as periodic inspections help identify and address any potential issues or deficiencies. By assigning this responsibility to the Flight Commander/Chief, the organization can ensure that inspections are prioritized and carried out effectively.

42. Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

30

60

90

120

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after the ARC personnel have received and accepted new equipment or a new system, they must undergo a special evaluation within 120 days. This evaluation helps ensure that the personnel are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment or system.

Explanation

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after the ARC personnel have received and accepted new equipment or a new system, they must undergo a special evaluation within 120 days. This evaluation helps ensure that the personnel are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment or system.

43. Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding healthand welfare.

Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of riskintegral to the activity and mission.

The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessments into decision-making processes, and train leaders and employees to manage risk in all activities. The given statement contradicts the goal of ORM by suggesting that opportunities to decrease effectiveness should be identified, which goes against the objective of preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

Explanation

The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessments into decision-making processes, and train leaders and employees to manage risk in all activities. The given statement contradicts the goal of ORM by suggesting that opportunities to decrease effectiveness should be identified, which goes against the objective of preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

44. Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

Library Custodian.

Flight commander/chief.

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight and ensuring that all necessary procedures and documentation are in place for the equipment used. This includes determining if local checklists and work cards are necessary for the specific equipment being used by the flight.

Explanation

The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight and ensuring that all necessary procedures and documentation are in place for the equipment used. This includes determining if local checklists and work cards are necessary for the specific equipment being used by the flight.

45. Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).

Commander/director responsible for the guidance.

The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

Publications Manager.

The correct answer is the authoring OPR’s supervisor. The Certifying Official for the AF Form 673 should be the supervisor of the authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR). This ensures that the form is endorsed by someone who has oversight and authority over the OPR, ensuring accountability and accuracy in the certification process.

Explanation

The correct answer is the authoring OPR’s supervisor. The Certifying Official for the AF Form 673 should be the supervisor of the authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR). This ensures that the form is endorsed by someone who has oversight and authority over the OPR, ensuring accountability and accuracy in the certification process.

46. What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

Military only.

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain systems that can be used across both federal and non-federal systems. These systems are commercially available and can be easily integrated into existing infrastructure, allowing for interoperability and compatibility. They are designed to meet industry standards and are often more cost-effective and efficient compared to developing custom solutions. Therefore, COTS systems are the best choice for achieving a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across all federal and non-federal systems.

Explanation

Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain systems that can be used across both federal and non-federal systems. These systems are commercially available and can be easily integrated into existing infrastructure, allowing for interoperability and compatibility. They are designed to meet industry standards and are often more cost-effective and efficient compared to developing custom solutions. Therefore, COTS systems are the best choice for achieving a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across all federal and non-federal systems.

47. Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

15

18

32

37

The correct answer is 32 because United States Code (USC) Title 32 specifically outlines the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty. This title is important for understanding the legal framework and requirements for activating units of the military for federal service.

Explanation

The correct answer is 32 because United States Code (USC) Title 32 specifically outlines the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty. This title is important for understanding the legal framework and requirements for activating units of the military for federal service.

48. Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

Wing Commander.

Numbered Air Force Commander.

Communications Squadron Commander.

Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.

The correct answer is Wing Commander. The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for both public and private websites. They have the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites, ensuring that the information is accurate, up-to-date, and meets the standards set by the Air Force.

Explanation

The correct answer is Wing Commander. The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for both public and private websites. They have the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites, ensuring that the information is accurate, up-to-date, and meets the standards set by the Air Force.

49. Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

Military Personnel ( MILPERS).

Military Construction (MILCON).

Operation and Maintenance (O&M).

Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).

Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated for constructing, repairing, or renovating military facilities, including relocating them if necessary. This type of fund specifically focuses on infrastructure projects related to military facilities, such as building new bases or upgrading existing ones. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer as it directly relates to covering the cost of relocating facilities.

Explanation

Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated for constructing, repairing, or renovating military facilities, including relocating them if necessary. This type of fund specifically focuses on infrastructure projects related to military facilities, such as building new bases or upgrading existing ones. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer as it directly relates to covering the cost of relocating facilities.

50. What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer ( SAF/CIO) annual awards?

1 October - 30 September.

1 January - 31 December.

1 April - 31 March.

1 July - 30 June.

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a one-year period starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

Explanation

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a one-year period starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

51. The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

53

63

73

83

FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows multiple devices to be connected to a computer. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is 63. This is because the FireWire specification allows for a maximum of 63 devices to be connected in a daisy-chain configuration, where each device is connected to the previous one in a linear chain. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

Explanation

FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows multiple devices to be connected to a computer. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is 63. This is because the FireWire specification allows for a maximum of 63 devices to be connected in a daisy-chain configuration, where each device is connected to the previous one in a linear chain. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

52. Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

Simple.

Relative.

Positive.

Absolute.

The question is asking to identify the type of UNIX pathname that does not exist. UNIX pathnames can be categorized into four types: simple, relative, absolute, and positive. Simple pathnames consist of a single name, relative pathnames are specified relative to the current directory, absolute pathnames start with the root directory, and positive pathnames are not a valid type of UNIX pathname. Therefore, the answer is positive.

Explanation

The question is asking to identify the type of UNIX pathname that does not exist. UNIX pathnames can be categorized into four types: simple, relative, absolute, and positive. Simple pathnames consist of a single name, relative pathnames are specified relative to the current directory, absolute pathnames start with the root directory, and positive pathnames are not a valid type of UNIX pathname. Therefore, the answer is positive.

53. Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

Norton Utilities.

Acrobat Reader.

Virus Scan.

WinZip.

Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection, making it an effective solution for maintaining the performance and security of a computer system. Acrobat Reader is a PDF reader, Virus Scan is an antivirus software, and WinZip is a file compression tool, none of which have the specific tools mentioned in the question.

Explanation

Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection, making it an effective solution for maintaining the performance and security of a computer system. Acrobat Reader is a PDF reader, Virus Scan is an antivirus software, and WinZip is a file compression tool, none of which have the specific tools mentioned in the question.

54. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

High Level Data Link Control ( HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

Distance Vector and Link State.

RS–232 and RS–530.

The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for managing communication between network layers and providing error control and flow control mechanisms. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling issues such as addressing, framing, and collision detection.

Explanation

The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for managing communication between network layers and providing error control and flow control mechanisms. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling issues such as addressing, framing, and collision detection.

55. What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

Classful and Connectionless Oriented.

Connectionless Oriented and Classless.

Classful and Classless.

The correct answer is "Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented." Transport protocols can be classified into two categories based on their behavior. Connection-oriented protocols establish a dedicated connection between the sender and receiver before transmitting data, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery. Examples include TCP (Transmission Control Protocol). Connectionless-oriented protocols, on the other hand, do not establish a dedicated connection and transmit data packets independently. They do not guarantee reliable or ordered delivery but offer faster transmission. Examples include UDP (User Datagram Protocol).

Explanation

The correct answer is "Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented." Transport protocols can be classified into two categories based on their behavior. Connection-oriented protocols establish a dedicated connection between the sender and receiver before transmitting data, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery. Examples include TCP (Transmission Control Protocol). Connectionless-oriented protocols, on the other hand, do not establish a dedicated connection and transmit data packets independently. They do not guarantee reliable or ordered delivery but offer faster transmission. Examples include UDP (User Datagram Protocol).

56. What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

Data receive message.

Sliding Window.

Buffer.

Socket.

The sliding window is a mechanism used in TCP to regulate the amount of data that can be sent without receiving an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to transmit multiple packets before waiting for an acknowledgement, improving efficiency and reducing latency. The size of the sliding window determines the number of packets that can be sent before an acknowledgement is required. As acknowledgements are received, the window slides forward, allowing the sender to transmit more data. Therefore, the sliding window is responsible for controlling the flow of information over a TCP connection.

Explanation

The sliding window is a mechanism used in TCP to regulate the amount of data that can be sent without receiving an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to transmit multiple packets before waiting for an acknowledgement, improving efficiency and reducing latency. The size of the sliding window determines the number of packets that can be sent before an acknowledgement is required. As acknowledgements are received, the window slides forward, allowing the sender to transmit more data. Therefore, the sliding window is responsible for controlling the flow of information over a TCP connection.

57. How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

16

32

64

128

An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are a total of 2^32 (over 4 billion) unique IPv4 addresses available. Each bit in the address represents a binary value of either 0 or 1, allowing for a wide range of possible combinations. This 32-bit address format is used to identify and locate devices on a network, enabling communication and data transfer between them.

Explanation

An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are a total of 2^32 (over 4 billion) unique IPv4 addresses available. Each bit in the address represents a binary value of either 0 or 1, allowing for a wide range of possible combinations. This 32-bit address format is used to identify and locate devices on a network, enabling communication and data transfer between them.

58. What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Class A

Class B

Class C

Class D

Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. Class A addresses are used for large networks and can support a maximum of 16 million hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always set to 0 in Class A addresses, which allows for the range of 1-126.

Explanation

Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. Class A addresses are used for large networks and can support a maximum of 16 million hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always set to 0 in Class A addresses, which allows for the range of 1-126.

59. Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Colon Hexadecimal Format.

Dotted Decimal Notation.

Hexadecimal.

Octal.

Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are expressed in colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format uses hexadecimal numbers separated by colons, making it easier to read and remember compared to the traditional dotted decimal notation used in IPv4 addresses. The use of hexadecimal numbers also allows for a larger address space, accommodating the increasing number of devices connected to the internet.

Explanation

Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are expressed in colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format uses hexadecimal numbers separated by colons, making it easier to read and remember compared to the traditional dotted decimal notation used in IPv4 addresses. The use of hexadecimal numbers also allows for a larger address space, accommodating the increasing number of devices connected to the internet.

60. The design of communications network is known as

An internet suite.

The physical layer.

Network architecture.

Network implementation.

The design of communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including its components, protocols, and policies. This encompasses the arrangement of different network elements, such as routers, switches, and servers, as well as the design principles and guidelines that govern their interactions. Therefore, network architecture is the most appropriate term to describe the design of a communications network. "Internet suite" refers to a collection of protocols and software used for internet communication, "the physical layer" refers to the lowest layer of the network model responsible for transmitting raw data, and "network implementation" refers to the actual deployment and installation of the network.

Explanation

The design of communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including its components, protocols, and policies. This encompasses the arrangement of different network elements, such as routers, switches, and servers, as well as the design principles and guidelines that govern their interactions. Therefore, network architecture is the most appropriate term to describe the design of a communications network. "Internet suite" refers to a collection of protocols and software used for internet communication, "the physical layer" refers to the lowest layer of the network model responsible for transmitting raw data, and "network implementation" refers to the actual deployment and installation of the network.

61. What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

Virtual Private Network (VPN).

Local Area Network (LAN).

Wide Area Network (WAN).

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as printers and files, and enables communication between connected devices. A LAN typically uses Ethernet cables or Wi-Fi to connect devices to a central router or switch. In contrast, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) covers a larger area, such as a city, and a Wide Area Network (WAN) covers even larger areas, such as multiple cities or countries. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure network connection that allows remote users to access a private network over the internet.

Explanation

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as printers and files, and enables communication between connected devices. A LAN typically uses Ethernet cables or Wi-Fi to connect devices to a central router or switch. In contrast, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) covers a larger area, such as a city, and a Wide Area Network (WAN) covers even larger areas, such as multiple cities or countries. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure network connection that allows remote users to access a private network over the internet.

62. What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Physical.

Logical.

Hybrid

Star

The correct answer is physical because the physical topology refers to the actual layout of devices and media in a network. It describes how the devices are physically connected and the physical arrangement of cables, switches, routers, and other networking components. This includes the physical location of devices, the type of cables used, and the overall structure of the network. Logical topology, on the other hand, refers to how data flows within a network, regardless of the physical layout. Hybrid and star are specific types of physical topologies.

Explanation

The correct answer is physical because the physical topology refers to the actual layout of devices and media in a network. It describes how the devices are physically connected and the physical arrangement of cables, switches, routers, and other networking components. This includes the physical location of devices, the type of cables used, and the overall structure of the network. Logical topology, on the other hand, refers to how data flows within a network, regardless of the physical layout. Hybrid and star are specific types of physical topologies.

63. Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

Modulation of datagrams through an internetwork.

Layer–1 error determination and correction through an internetwork .

Virtual Private Network ( VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork .

Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

The correct answer is "transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork." This is because one of the basic routing activities is to determine the optimal paths for transporting packets through an internetwork. Routing involves making decisions on how to forward packets from the source to the destination based on the network topology and various routing algorithms. Therefore, this option accurately describes one of the fundamental tasks of routing.

Explanation

The correct answer is "transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork." This is because one of the basic routing activities is to determine the optimal paths for transporting packets through an internetwork. Routing involves making decisions on how to forward packets from the source to the destination based on the network topology and various routing algorithms. Therefore, this option accurately describes one of the fundamental tasks of routing.

64. Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

Twisted pair cable.

Fiber optic cable.

Coaxial cable.

Twinax cable.

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a type of cable that consists of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together. These twisted pairs help to reduce electromagnetic interference, making it suitable for transmitting voice signals. Twisted pair cable is widely used in telephone networks and is capable of carrying analog or digital voice signals effectively over short to medium distances. Fiber optic cable, coaxial cable, and twinax cable are also used for various types of data transmission but are not primarily designed for voice communications.

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a type of cable that consists of pairs of insulated copper wires twisted together. These twisted pairs help to reduce electromagnetic interference, making it suitable for transmitting voice signals. Twisted pair cable is widely used in telephone networks and is capable of carrying analog or digital voice signals effectively over short to medium distances. Fiber optic cable, coaxial cable, and twinax cable are also used for various types of data transmission but are not primarily designed for voice communications.

65. What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

Policy, Security, Authority.

Authority, Security, Law.

Law, Authority, Policy

Security, Policy, Law.

The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are Law, Authority, and Policy. These considerations are crucial in ensuring the effective and lawful use of cyberspace. Law refers to the legal framework and regulations that govern cyberspace operations, ensuring compliance and accountability. Authority pertains to the allocation of power and decision-making capabilities within cyberspace operations, ensuring proper governance and control. Policy involves the development and implementation of guidelines and procedures that govern the use and management of cyberspace, promoting consistency and best practices in operations.

Explanation

The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are Law, Authority, and Policy. These considerations are crucial in ensuring the effective and lawful use of cyberspace. Law refers to the legal framework and regulations that govern cyberspace operations, ensuring compliance and accountability. Authority pertains to the allocation of power and decision-making capabilities within cyberspace operations, ensuring proper governance and control. Policy involves the development and implementation of guidelines and procedures that govern the use and management of cyberspace, promoting consistency and best practices in operations.

66. What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

Careful planning.

Reactive operations

Immediate response.

Information Operations

Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for proactive measures to be taken. By carefully planning and strategizing, potential risks and vulnerabilities can be identified and addressed in advance. This helps to prevent unintended consequences and minimize the impact of any adversary's actions. Additionally, careful planning enables the allocation of resources and the development of effective countermeasures to maintain control and dominance in cyberspace.

Explanation

Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for proactive measures to be taken. By carefully planning and strategizing, potential risks and vulnerabilities can be identified and addressed in advance. This helps to prevent unintended consequences and minimize the impact of any adversary's actions. Additionally, careful planning enables the allocation of resources and the development of effective countermeasures to maintain control and dominance in cyberspace.

67. Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

Electronic attack.

Electronic protection.

Network Exploitation.

Electronic warfare support.

Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming to disrupt or degrade the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). By jamming the adversary's communications or radar systems, electronic attack aims to deny or limit their ability to operate effectively in the electromagnetic environment. This capability is a key component of electronic warfare, which encompasses a range of activities aimed at gaining control over the electromagnetic spectrum.

Explanation

Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming to disrupt or degrade the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). By jamming the adversary's communications or radar systems, electronic attack aims to deny or limit their ability to operate effectively in the electromagnetic environment. This capability is a key component of electronic warfare, which encompasses a range of activities aimed at gaining control over the electromagnetic spectrum.

68. Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations ( CNO)?

EW concerns radiated energy.

CNO concerns radiated energy.

EW is only used for offensive purposes.

CNO is only used for defensive purposes.

Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control or attack an adversary's electronic systems. It includes activities such as jamming enemy communications, intercepting and analyzing enemy signals, and protecting friendly systems from electronic threats. Radiated energy is a key aspect of EW as it is used to disrupt or exploit enemy electronic systems. On the other hand, Computer Network Operations (CNO) refers to activities conducted in cyberspace to manipulate, disrupt, or exploit enemy computer networks. While both EW and CNO involve the use of energy and have offensive and defensive capabilities, the statement that EW concerns radiated energy is true.

Explanation

Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control or attack an adversary's electronic systems. It includes activities such as jamming enemy communications, intercepting and analyzing enemy signals, and protecting friendly systems from electronic threats. Radiated energy is a key aspect of EW as it is used to disrupt or exploit enemy electronic systems. On the other hand, Computer Network Operations (CNO) refers to activities conducted in cyberspace to manipulate, disrupt, or exploit enemy computer networks. While both EW and CNO involve the use of energy and have offensive and defensive capabilities, the statement that EW concerns radiated energy is true.

69. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

Supervisory System.

Remote Terminal Unit.

Human Machine Interface.

Programmable Logic Controller.

The correct answer is Remote Terminal Unit. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) is a key component of a SCADA system that connects to sensors in the process and converts sensor signals to digital data. It is responsible for collecting data from various sensors and transmitting it to the supervisory system for monitoring and control. The RTU acts as an interface between the physical process and the SCADA system, ensuring that accurate and reliable data is collected and transmitted for analysis and decision-making.

Explanation

The correct answer is Remote Terminal Unit. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) is a key component of a SCADA system that connects to sensors in the process and converts sensor signals to digital data. It is responsible for collecting data from various sensors and transmitting it to the supervisory system for monitoring and control. The RTU acts as an interface between the physical process and the SCADA system, ensuring that accurate and reliable data is collected and transmitted for analysis and decision-making.

70. Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Token.

Biometrics

Multifactor.

Knowledge-based.

Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometric authentication involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or voice recognition, to verify a person's identity. By comparing the captured biometric data with the stored data in a database, the system can determine if the user is genuine or not. This method is highly secure as it relies on an individual's unique biological traits, making it difficult for unauthorized users to gain access.

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometric authentication involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or voice recognition, to verify a person's identity. By comparing the captured biometric data with the stored data in a database, the system can determine if the user is genuine or not. This method is highly secure as it relies on an individual's unique biological traits, making it difficult for unauthorized users to gain access.

71. What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team ( STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).

Quality Training Package (QTP).

Subject Matter Experts (SME).

Job Quality Standards (JQS).

The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for a specific job or career field. It serves as a foundation for creating the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the CFETP and STS are based on a thorough understanding of the job and its requirements.

Explanation

The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for a specific job or career field. It serves as a foundation for creating the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the CFETP and STS are based on a thorough understanding of the job and its requirements.

72. Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

Program Element Code ( PEC).

Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

Authorization Change Request (ACR).

Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, responsibilities, and required qualifications. The UMD helps the organization to effectively allocate and manage its manpower resources, ensuring that the right personnel are in the right positions to meet operational needs. The other options listed, Program Element Code (PEC), Authorization Change Request (ACR), and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR), are not specifically related to providing manpower information or managing positions within an organization.

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, responsibilities, and required qualifications. The UMD helps the organization to effectively allocate and manage its manpower resources, ensuring that the right personnel are in the right positions to meet operational needs. The other options listed, Program Element Code (PEC), Authorization Change Request (ACR), and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR), are not specifically related to providing manpower information or managing positions within an organization.

73. Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

Segment 1.

Segment 2.

Segment 3.

Segment 4.

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed to provide appropriate training. It may include evaluating the current skill levels, identifying any gaps or areas for improvement, and allocating the necessary resources to meet the training requirements.

Explanation

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed to provide appropriate training. It may include evaluating the current skill levels, identifying any gaps or areas for improvement, and allocating the necessary resources to meet the training requirements.

74. Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

Information and Communications Technology ( ICT).

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

Explanation

The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.

75. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

10

15

37

50

The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This code outlines the legal framework for the organization and operation of the Department of Defense. It specifies the roles, responsibilities, and authorities of the DOD and its various components, such as the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. Title 10 is an important piece of legislation that ensures the DOD operates within the boundaries set by law and serves as the foundation for the defense of the United States.

Explanation

The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This code outlines the legal framework for the organization and operation of the Department of Defense. It specifies the roles, responsibilities, and authorities of the DOD and its various components, such as the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. Title 10 is an important piece of legislation that ensures the DOD operates within the boundaries set by law and serves as the foundation for the defense of the United States.

76. Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

36–2604.

36–2803.

36–2805.

36–2845.

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Explanation

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77. A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

At least 5.

No more than 10.

No more than 20.

20 or more.

A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, and the given answer states that it consists of no more than 20 computers. This means that a workgroup can have a maximum of 20 computers, but it can also have fewer than 20 computers. The answer does not provide an exact number, but it indicates that the number of computers in a workgroup does not exceed 20.

Explanation

A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, and the given answer states that it consists of no more than 20 computers. This means that a workgroup can have a maximum of 20 computers, but it can also have fewer than 20 computers. The answer does not provide an exact number, but it indicates that the number of computers in a workgroup does not exceed 20.

78. Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Network

Physical.

Data Link.

Transport.

Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI model. The Network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. They make decisions based on network layer information, such as IP addresses, to direct traffic across multiple networks. Therefore, the correct answer is Network.

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI model. The Network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. They make decisions based on network layer information, such as IP addresses, to direct traffic across multiple networks. Therefore, the correct answer is Network.

79. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

Class C

Class D

Class E

Class F

IPv4 addresses are divided into five classes: A, B, C, D, and E. Class D addresses are specifically reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple destinations simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, making it the appropriate class for multicast addressing.

Explanation

IPv4 addresses are divided into five classes: A, B, C, D, and E. Class D addresses are specifically reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple destinations simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, making it the appropriate class for multicast addressing.

80. Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

802.11a.

802.11b.

802.11g.

802.11n.

The 802.11n standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies. It is an improvement over previous standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g, which operate only at either 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz. 802.11n utilizes multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, allowing for increased data rates and improved network performance. This makes it capable of supporting higher bandwidth applications and providing better coverage and reliability in both frequency ranges.

Explanation

The 802.11n standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies. It is an improvement over previous standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g, which operate only at either 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz. 802.11n utilizes multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, allowing for increased data rates and improved network performance. This makes it capable of supporting higher bandwidth applications and providing better coverage and reliability in both frequency ranges.

81. Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Air Education and Training Command ( AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).

MAJCOM Functional Manager.

The AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This implies that their presence is not mandatory but they have the choice to attend the workshop if they wish to do so.

Explanation

The AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This implies that their presence is not mandatory but they have the choice to attend the workshop if they wish to do so.

82. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).

MAJCOM Functional Manager.

Career Field Manager (CFM).

SAF/CIO A6.

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are aligned with the command's needs and objectives. They work closely with the Career Field Manager (CFM) and other stakeholders to develop and implement effective training programs and strategies. The MAJCOM Functional Manager plays a crucial role in shaping the career field's training and development initiatives.

Explanation

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are aligned with the command's needs and objectives. They work closely with the Career Field Manager (CFM) and other stakeholders to develop and implement effective training programs and strategies. The MAJCOM Functional Manager plays a crucial role in shaping the career field's training and development initiatives.

83. Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Network.

Physical.

Data Link.

Transport.

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between adjacent network nodes, ensuring error-free communication over the physical network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets to their intended destinations within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address in the data link header of each packet and make forwarding decisions based on this information. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between adjacent network nodes, ensuring error-free communication over the physical network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets to their intended destinations within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address in the data link header of each packet and make forwarding decisions based on this information. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

84. Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.

Joint Publication 1–02.

Joint Publication 1–03.

AFI 10–401.

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Explanation

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85. Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

Air Force Chief of Staff.

Secretary of the Air Force.

Selected major command Command Chiefs.

Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds the highest-ranking position in the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the operations and organization of the entire force. As such, they have the authority to review and approve the selections made by the board, ensuring that the process is fair and in line with the Air Force's standards and values. The Air Force Chief of Staff's involvement in the review process adds an additional layer of scrutiny and ensures that the selection of the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year is of the highest caliber.

Explanation

After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds the highest-ranking position in the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the operations and organization of the entire force. As such, they have the authority to review and approve the selections made by the board, ensuring that the process is fair and in line with the Air Force's standards and values. The Air Force Chief of Staff's involvement in the review process adds an additional layer of scrutiny and ensures that the selection of the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year is of the highest caliber.

86. Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

Coaxial cable.

Fiber optic cable.

Shielded twisted-pair (STP).

Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).

The original designs of the Ethernet standard were associated with coaxial cable. Coaxial cable was widely used in the early days of Ethernet for its ability to carry signals over long distances without significant loss or interference. It provided a reliable and efficient means of transmitting data, making it the cable of choice for Ethernet networks. However, as technology advanced, other types of cables such as twisted-pair and fiber optic cables became more popular due to their improved performance and cost-effectiveness.

Explanation

The original designs of the Ethernet standard were associated with coaxial cable. Coaxial cable was widely used in the early days of Ethernet for its ability to carry signals over long distances without significant loss or interference. It provided a reliable and efficient means of transmitting data, making it the cable of choice for Ethernet networks. However, as technology advanced, other types of cables such as twisted-pair and fiber optic cables became more popular due to their improved performance and cost-effectiveness.

87. What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

Title 10.

Title 30.

Title 50.

Title 52.

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which allows them to be activated by the President or Congress for federal missions. This status grants them the authority to engage in cyber operations, which involve the use of technology to protect and defend against cyber threats.

Explanation

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which allows them to be activated by the President or Congress for federal missions. This status grants them the authority to engage in cyber operations, which involve the use of technology to protect and defend against cyber threats.

88. Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

Defense-in-Depth.

Proactive Defense

Situational Awareness.

Network Standardization.

Proactive Defense is the correct answer because it refers to the sub-discipline that conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information. Proactive defense involves actively identifying and addressing potential threats before they can cause harm. By continuously monitoring the network and systems, proactive defense aims to detect and mitigate any vulnerabilities or attacks in real-time, ensuring that critical information is delivered promptly and securely. This approach helps to prevent potential breaches or disruptions, enhancing the overall security and effectiveness of the Intranet Control Weapon System.

Explanation

Proactive Defense is the correct answer because it refers to the sub-discipline that conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information. Proactive defense involves actively identifying and addressing potential threats before they can cause harm. By continuously monitoring the network and systems, proactive defense aims to detect and mitigate any vulnerabilities or attacks in real-time, ensuring that critical information is delivered promptly and securely. This approach helps to prevent potential breaches or disruptions, enhancing the overall security and effectiveness of the Intranet Control Weapon System.

89. Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

Wing commander.

Authorizing Official (AO)

Wing information security office (WIAO).

Communications and information systems officer (CSO).

The Authorizing Official (AO) is responsible for providing the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk. This individual has the authority to make decisions regarding the system's authorization and ensures that all necessary security measures are in place before granting approval. The AO plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the information system.

Explanation

The Authorizing Official (AO) is responsible for providing the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk. This individual has the authority to make decisions regarding the system's authorization and ensures that all necessary security measures are in place before granting approval. The AO plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the information system.

90. The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

Only full costs.

Recommended course of action only

Full cost and recommended course of action

Full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes the full cost and recommended course of action. This means that the solution not only considers the financial implications but also provides guidance on the best course of action to address the requirement effectively. By including both aspects, the solution ensures that decision-makers have a comprehensive understanding of the costs involved and the recommended steps to take in order to meet the requirement successfully. Additionally, this approach allows for informed decision-making that takes into account both financial considerations and the desired outcome.

Explanation

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes the full cost and recommended course of action. This means that the solution not only considers the financial implications but also provides guidance on the best course of action to address the requirement effectively. By including both aspects, the solution ensures that decision-makers have a comprehensive understanding of the costs involved and the recommended steps to take in order to meet the requirement successfully. Additionally, this approach allows for informed decision-making that takes into account both financial considerations and the desired outcome.

91. Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data.

Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data.

Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

The correct answer is Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data. This is because these are the fields that are included in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment. The Source Port field identifies the port number of the sender, the Destination Port field identifies the port number of the receiver, the Length field specifies the length of the UDP segment including the header and data, the Checksum field is used for error detection, and the Data field contains the actual data being transmitted.

Explanation

The correct answer is Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data. This is because these are the fields that are included in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment. The Source Port field identifies the port number of the sender, the Destination Port field identifies the port number of the receiver, the Length field specifies the length of the UDP segment including the header and data, the Checksum field is used for error detection, and the Data field contains the actual data being transmitted.

92. Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

802.11a.

802.11b.

802.11g.

802.11n.

The correct answer is 802.11b. This standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency. 802.11a operates at a higher frequency of 5 GHz and has a higher throughput of up to 54 Mbps. 802.11g also operates at 2.4 GHz but has a higher throughput of up to 54 Mbps. 802.11n is a newer standard that operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies and has a higher throughput of up to 600 Mbps.

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.11b. This standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency. 802.11a operates at a higher frequency of 5 GHz and has a higher throughput of up to 54 Mbps. 802.11g also operates at 2.4 GHz but has a higher throughput of up to 54 Mbps. 802.11n is a newer standard that operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies and has a higher throughput of up to 600 Mbps.

93. What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems.

End-to-End Performance Monitoring.

Vulnerability scanners.

Capacity Planning.

Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves analyzing long-term trends of network devices. This analysis helps to identify potential future constraints and allows for the incorporation of these findings into future technical baselines. Capacity planning is essential for ensuring that the network infrastructure can handle the expected workload and can proactively address any potential limitations or bottlenecks. It helps organizations optimize their resources, improve performance, and avoid unexpected downtime or performance issues. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems, End-to-End Performance Monitoring, and Vulnerability scanners are not directly related to long-term trend analysis and future constraints identification.

Explanation

Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves analyzing long-term trends of network devices. This analysis helps to identify potential future constraints and allows for the incorporation of these findings into future technical baselines. Capacity planning is essential for ensuring that the network infrastructure can handle the expected workload and can proactively address any potential limitations or bottlenecks. It helps organizations optimize their resources, improve performance, and avoid unexpected downtime or performance issues. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems, End-to-End Performance Monitoring, and Vulnerability scanners are not directly related to long-term trend analysis and future constraints identification.

94. Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflectedproperly.

Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).

Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

The correct answer is "Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)." This duty is not commonly performed by the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The other options, such as reviewing IMDS reports, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions, are common duties of the MDC monitor.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)." This duty is not commonly performed by the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The other options, such as reviewing IMDS reports, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions, are common duties of the MDC monitor.

95. Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

AFTO Form 673.

AFTO Form 22.

AF Form 673.

AF Form 22.

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Explanation

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96. At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

Approval Official ( AO).

Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).

Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensure compliance with regulations and policies, provide guidance and training to cardholders, and monitor card usage to prevent fraud and abuse. They serve as the main point of contact for cardholders and are responsible for maintaining accurate records and reporting on program activities.

Explanation

The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensure compliance with regulations and policies, provide guidance and training to cardholders, and monitor card usage to prevent fraud and abuse. They serve as the main point of contact for cardholders and are responsible for maintaining accurate records and reporting on program activities.

97. What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

Line encryption.

Link encryption.

Device encryption.

End-to-end encryption.

Link encryption is the type of encryption that is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network and ensures that all information flowing through the line is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder. This means that the encryption is specifically applied to the link or connection between the two ends of the communication, rather than at the individual devices or endpoints. End-to-end encryption, on the other hand, refers to a different type of encryption where the data is encrypted at the source device and remains encrypted until it reaches the intended recipient, providing protection throughout the entire communication path. Therefore, link encryption is the correct answer in this context.

Explanation

Link encryption is the type of encryption that is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network and ensures that all information flowing through the line is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder. This means that the encryption is specifically applied to the link or connection between the two ends of the communication, rather than at the individual devices or endpoints. End-to-end encryption, on the other hand, refers to a different type of encryption where the data is encrypted at the source device and remains encrypted until it reaches the intended recipient, providing protection throughout the entire communication path. Therefore, link encryption is the correct answer in this context.

98. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

Supervisory System.

Remote Terminal Unit.

Human Machine Interface.

Programmable Logic Controller.

The Supervisory System is the SCADA subsystem that gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit, collecting and analyzing data from various sensors and devices, and then making decisions or sending commands to the processor based on that data. This subsystem plays a crucial role in monitoring and controlling industrial processes, ensuring efficient and safe operations.

Explanation

The Supervisory System is the SCADA subsystem that gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit, collecting and analyzing data from various sensors and devices, and then making decisions or sending commands to the processor based on that data. This subsystem plays a crucial role in monitoring and controlling industrial processes, ensuring efficient and safe operations.

99. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Class C

Class D

Class E

Class F

Class C is the correct answer because it is used for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for a maximum of 254 hosts on the network. This class of address is commonly used for small to medium-sized networks, making it suitable for a network with about 250 nodes. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is reserved for future use.

Explanation

Class C is the correct answer because it is used for networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for a maximum of 254 hosts on the network. This class of address is commonly used for small to medium-sized networks, making it suitable for a network with about 250 nodes. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is reserved for future use.

100. Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

Electronic Industries Alliance ( EIA).

American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

Information and Communications Technology (ICT).

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

Explanation

ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).