CDC 3DX7X Vol 1
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In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at allresponsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
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10–401.
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33–360.
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38–101.
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64–117.
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The CDC 3DX7X Vol 1 quiz assesses knowledge crucial for various Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs), focusing on systems programming, skill level advancements, and manpower planning. It's designed for Air Force personnel aiming to enhance their understanding and proficiency in their respective fields.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC)cardholders?
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Making authorized transactions.
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Reconciling transactions.
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Logging transactions.
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Funds accountability.
Correct Answer
A. Funds accountability.Explanation
The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not directly responsible for managing or tracking the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. Instead, funds accountability is typically handled by higher-level financial management personnel within the government organization.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?
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Port 80.
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Port 110.
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Port 443.
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Port 8080.
Correct Answer
A. Port 8080.Explanation
Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative when the default port is already in use or blocked. This allows HTTP traffic to be redirected to port 8080, ensuring that web servers and proxies can still function properly. Ports 110 and 443 are used for different purposes, such as email (POP3) and secure web browsing (HTTPS), respectively.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area orregion like a city?
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Local Area Network (LAN).
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Wide Area Network (WAN).
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Virtual Private Network ( VPN).
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Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
Correct Answer
A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).Explanation
A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that connects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN), which typically covers a smaller area like a building or campus, a MAN covers a larger area and allows for the interconnection of multiple LANs. A Wide Area Network (WAN) covers an even larger area, such as multiple cities or countries, and a Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure network that allows remote users to access a private network over a public network. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?
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Token.
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Biometrics.
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Multifactor
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Knowledge-based.
Correct Answer
A. Knowledge-based.Explanation
The correct answer is knowledge-based. In this identity management process, a user is authenticated by providing a password. This method relies on the user's knowledge of a specific password to verify their identity. Other methods such as tokens, biometrics, and multifactor authentication may also be used for identity verification, but in this case, the use of a password is specifically mentioned.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force ElectronicData Processing Test?
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A. Computer Systems Programming.
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B. Cyber Systems Operations.
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C. Cyber Transport Systems.
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D. Cyber Surety.
Correct Answer
A. A. Computer Systems Programming.Explanation
The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for this specialty as it assesses the individual's knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is a crucial aspect of computer systems programming. The test ensures that members have the necessary proficiency in this area before being assigned to this AFSC.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but mayhave a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
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Communications Focal Point.
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Unit Deployment Monitor.
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Enterprise Service Desk.
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Quality Assurance.
Correct Answer
A. Communications Focal Point.Explanation
The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, but the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) can vary depending on the unit mission. This suggests that different units may have different requirements for the personnel in this role, and the AFSCs may be tailored to meet those specific needs.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized
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At major command functional managers.
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At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
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At the Air Force Personnel Center.
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With career field managers.
Correct Answer
A. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).Explanation
The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities are handled at the highest level of the Air Force organization.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon systemor support function?
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Program Element Code (PEC).
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Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
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Authorization Change Request (ACR).
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Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
A. Program Element Code (PEC).Explanation
Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. PEC is a unique code assigned to each element of a program, which helps in identifying and tracking the costs associated with that specific element. It allows for better budgeting, cost estimation, and resource allocation within a program. PEC helps in categorizing and organizing the costs related to different aspects of a weapon system or support function, making it an essential subdivision of programmed cost data.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager(AFCFM)?
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Construct career paths.
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Manage skill-level training requirements.
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Establish requirements for entry into the career field.
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Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
A. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower office within the MAJCOM.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team(STRT)?
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Draft and sign minutes.
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Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).
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Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory ( AFECD) specialty description.
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Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
Correct Answer
A. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.Explanation
The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to thework center?
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Master Task List.
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Job Qualification Standard.
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Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
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Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.
Correct Answer
A. Job Qualification Standard.Explanation
The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific job qualifications, such as certifications or specialized training, then the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not have any specific job qualifications, then the Job Qualification Standard will not be included in the Master Training Plan.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
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2
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4
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6
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8
Correct Answer
A. 6Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, risk reporting, and risk review. These steps help organizations proactively identify and address potential risks, ensuring the smooth functioning of their operations and minimizing the impact of any unforeseen events. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 6.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
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AF Form 55.
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AF Form 971.
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AF Form 623A.
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AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55.Explanation
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking safety training completion. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's safety training history, ensuring that supervisors can easily verify and maintain compliance with safety training requirements.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
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Job Safety Training (JST).
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Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).
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Task Hazard Analysis (THA).
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Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).
Correct Answer
A. Job Safety Training (JST).Explanation
The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies and analyzes potential hazards associated with a specific job or task. It involves breaking down the job into individual steps, identifying potential hazards, and determining the appropriate control measures to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their jobs safely. While training is an important component of job safety, it is not the same as Job Safety Analysis.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?
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Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
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Resources required to manage and use TOs.
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Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
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Training to manage and use TOs.
Correct Answer
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.Explanation
The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options mention the resources, infrastructure, and training required to manage and use TOs, but TCTO procedures are not included in TO 00-5-1.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
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Misuse of position.
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A covered relationships.
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Non-public information.
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Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. Misuse of position.Explanation
When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This refers to the abuse of authority or power for personal benefits, which is unethical and can lead to negative consequences such as corruption or favoritism.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation andMaintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
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$100,000.
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$250,000.
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$750,000.
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$1,000,000.
Correct Answer
A. $750,000.Explanation
Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normallypresented?
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Wing.
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Group.
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Squadron.
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Major command.
Correct Answer
A. Wing.Explanation
The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. This implies that within a larger organizational structure, such as the military or a corporation, the Wing is the highest level where these awards are typically given out. It suggests that there may be multiple levels within the organization, such as Groups and Squadrons, but the Wing is the highest level where these awards are recognized and celebrated.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
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Monitor.
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Scanner.
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Keyboard.
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Graphics card.
Correct Answer
A. Keyboard.Explanation
A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. Therefore, the correct answer is keyboard.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open SystemInterconnect (OSI) layer?
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Network
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Physical.
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Data Link
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Transport
Correct Answer
A. TransportExplanation
Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts and ensures reliable delivery of data. It establishes a connection-oriented virtual circuit, which provides a dedicated communication path between the sender and receiver. This virtual circuit is maintained throughout the communication session and terminated once the data transfer is complete. The Network layer is responsible for routing and addressing, the Physical layer deals with the physical transmission of data, and the Data Link layer handles data framing and error detection.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoDcalled?
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Defense Intelligence Agency.
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Defense Information Systems Agency.
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Defense Information Systems Network.
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Department of Defense Information Networks.
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency.Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides IT and communication support to the military services, combatant commands, and other DoD components. It is responsible for the planning, development, and management of the DoD's information systems and networks, ensuring secure and reliable communication capabilities for the defense community.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP)Data service?
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The customer.
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Security Manager.
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National Security Agency.
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Communications Squadron.
Correct Answer
A. The customer.Explanation
The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely. The Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron are not responsible for providing these encryption devices.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what musthappen before data is transmitted between clients?
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Authorization.
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Connection establishment.
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Establishment of a clear channel.
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End-to-end connectivity between host applications.
Correct Answer
A. Connection establishment.Explanation
In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, before data can be transmitted between clients, a connection must be established. This involves a series of steps where both the client and server exchange control messages to negotiate and establish a reliable connection. Once the connection is established, the clients can then transmit data to each other with the assurance of reliable delivery and error detection.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?
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0.0.0.0
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127.0.0.1.
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207.55.157.255.
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255.255.255.255.
Correct Answer
A. 127.0.0.1.Explanation
The loopback address is a reserved IP address used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It allows a computer to send and receive data to itself. In IPv4, the loopback address is represented by 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues or running local server software.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The range of well-known port numbers is
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1024 to 49151.
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49152 to 65535.
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0 to 1023.
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0 to 1024.
Correct Answer
A. 0 to 1023.Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols, such as HTTP (port 80) or FTP (port 21), and are commonly used by well-known applications. Ports in this range are considered privileged and can only be used by processes with administrative privileges. The other options, 1024 to 49151 and 49152 to 65535, represent the ranges for registered ports and dynamic or private ports, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralizedcomponent?
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Bus
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Star
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Ring
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Hybrid
Correct Answer
A. StarExplanation
A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all communication between the computers is routed through the central component, which helps to manage and control the network. This arrangement allows for easy troubleshooting and scalability, as adding or removing computers does not disrupt the entire network.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable oftransmission rates of
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256 Kbps.
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256 Mbps.
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144 Mbps.
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144 Kbps.
Correct Answer
A. 144 Kbps.Explanation
ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is a digital telecommunications network that allows for the transmission of voice, video, and data over traditional telephone lines. It uses a single pair cable, which limits the transmission rates. The correct answer of 144 Kbps indicates that ISDN is capable of transmitting data at a rate of 144 kilobits per second. This is a relatively low transmission rate compared to the other options provided, reflecting the limitations of ISDN technology.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A modem is a device that
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Transmits on every link attached to it.
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Modulates and demodulates data signals.
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Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.
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Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
Correct Answer
A. Modulates and demodulates data signals.Explanation
A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the analog signals back into digital data. Modems are commonly used to connect devices to the internet via telephone lines, cable lines, or wireless networks. They are responsible for encoding and decoding the data signals to enable communication between devices.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into twosegments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
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Hub.
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Bridge.
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Switch.
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Router.
Correct Answer
A. Bridge.Explanation
A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the destination MAC address of each incoming frame and deciding whether to forward it or discard it based on its own MAC address table. This allows for better network performance by reducing collisions and improving overall network efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
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2
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3
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4
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5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. This means that when a packet needs to be transmitted from one node to another in a network, dynamic routing algorithms are used to determine the most efficient route for the packet to take. These algorithms consider factors such as network congestion, link quality, and other metrics to determine the best path. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the most common wireless networking standard?
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802.3.
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802.9.
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802.11.
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802.14
Correct Answer
A. 802.11.Explanation
802.11 is the most common wireless networking standard. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands and provides high-speed wireless connectivity for devices such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets. 802.11 has evolved over time to include various versions such as 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ac, each offering improved speed and range. It is widely adopted and supported by various manufacturers, making it the most prevalent wireless networking standard in use today.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundaryprotection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and reportsuspicious/malicious activity?
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Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
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Base Defense Operations Center.
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624th Operations Center.
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Air Operations Center.
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).Explanation
The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by monitoring network activity and reports any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the Air Force network.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, inone’s favor?
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Information Management.
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Network-centric warfare.
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Information Superiority
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Information Operations.
Correct Answer
A. Information SuperiorityExplanation
Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having a superior understanding of the information available, being able to gather and analyze it effectively, and using it to make informed decisions and gain an advantage over others. This term highlights the importance of having superior information management and the ability to effectively use information for strategic purposes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent ofintrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executesresponse actions?
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Computer Forensics.
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Incident Prevention.
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Incident Detection.
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Incident Response.
Correct Answer
A. Incident Response.Explanation
Incident response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on promptly identifying and addressing cybersecurity incidents to minimize damage and restore normal operations. Computer forensics is more related to analyzing digital evidence, while incident prevention and incident detection are focused on proactive measures to prevent and detect cyber threats, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
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Virus.
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Spam.
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Spyware.
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Phishing
Correct Answer
A. Spam.Explanation
Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically advertising or promotional content. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or individual. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing are all malicious threats that can cause significant damage, such as stealing personal information, damaging files, or gaining unauthorized access to sensitive data.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developerscreate to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
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Patches
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Antivirus.
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Software removal.
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Vulnerability scanner.
Correct Answer
A. PatchesExplanation
Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and bugs in software, improving its security and functionality. Patches are often released by software vendors as updates or upgrades to their products, and they are essential for keeping software secure and up to date.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skilllevel?
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A. Minimum rank of SSgt.
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B. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.
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C. Completion of Air Force Specialty Code ( AFSC) specific requirements.
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D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.
Correct Answer
A. D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.Explanation
The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, a, b, and c, all mention requirements that are necessary for advancement, such as minimum rank, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements. However, completion of AETC supplemental training courses is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
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TO 00–5–15.
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MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.
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Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
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Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.Explanation
The correct answer is MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item withan assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
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Remedy.
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Situational Report (SITREP).
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Telephone Management System ( TMS).
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Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is a comprehensive system that allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance actions, providing a centralized database for maintenance data. It is commonly used in the military and aerospace industry to manage and document maintenance activities on various equipment and systems.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
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Communications Focal Point.
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Flight Commander/Chief.
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Production Controller.
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Commander.
Correct Answer
A. Flight Commander/Chief.Explanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and in accordance with established procedures. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and operational readiness of the organization, as periodic inspections help identify and address any potential issues or deficiencies. By assigning this responsibility to the Flight Commander/Chief, the organization can ensure that inspections are prioritized and carried out effectively.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air ReserveComponent (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
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30
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60
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90
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120
Correct Answer
A. 120Explanation
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after the ARC personnel have received and accepted new equipment or a new system, they must undergo a special evaluation within 120 days. This evaluation helps ensure that the personnel are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
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Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
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Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
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Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
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Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
Correct Answer
A. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.Explanation
The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessments into decision-making processes, and train leaders and employees to manage risk in all activities. The given statement contradicts the goal of ORM by suggesting that opportunities to decrease effectiveness should be identified, which goes against the objective of preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
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Library Custodian.
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Flight commander/chief.
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Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
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Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
Correct Answer
A. Flight commander/chief.Explanation
The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight and ensuring that all necessary procedures and documentation are in place for the equipment used. This includes determining if local checklists and work cards are necessary for the specific equipment being used by the flight.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
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The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).
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Commander/director responsible for the guidance.
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The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
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Publications Manager.
Correct Answer
A. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.Explanation
The correct answer is the authoring OPR’s supervisor. The Certifying Official for the AF Form 673 should be the supervisor of the authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR). This ensures that the form is endorsed by someone who has oversight and authority over the OPR, ensuring accountability and accuracy in the certification process.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domainthrough all federal and non-federal systems?
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Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
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Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
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Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
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Military only.
Correct Answer
A. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).Explanation
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain systems that can be used across both federal and non-federal systems. These systems are commercially available and can be easily integrated into existing infrastructure, allowing for interoperability and compatibility. They are designed to meet industry standards and are often more cost-effective and efficient compared to developing custom solutions. Therefore, COTS systems are the best choice for achieving a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across all federal and non-federal systems.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty areestablished in United States Code (USC) Title
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15
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18
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32
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37
Correct Answer
A. 32Explanation
The correct answer is 32 because United States Code (USC) Title 32 specifically outlines the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty. This title is important for understanding the legal framework and requirements for activating units of the military for federal service.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public andprivate websites?
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Wing Commander.
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Numbered Air Force Commander.
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Communications Squadron Commander.
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Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.
Correct Answer
A. Wing Commander.Explanation
The correct answer is Wing Commander. The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for both public and private websites. They have the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites, ensuring that the information is accurate, up-to-date, and meets the standards set by the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
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Military Personnel ( MILPERS).
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Military Construction (MILCON).
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Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
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Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).
Correct Answer
A. Military Construction (MILCON).Explanation
Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated for constructing, repairing, or renovating military facilities, including relocating them if necessary. This type of fund specifically focuses on infrastructure projects related to military facilities, such as building new bases or upgrading existing ones. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer as it directly relates to covering the cost of relocating facilities.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 14, 2017Quiz Created by
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