CDC 3DX7X Vol 1
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force ElectronicData Processing Test?
- A.
A. Computer Systems Programming.
- B.
B. Cyber Systems Operations.
- C.
C. Cyber Transport Systems.
- D.
D. Cyber Surety.
Correct Answer
A. A. Computer Systems Programming.Explanation
The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for this specialty as it assesses the individual's knowledge and skills in electronic data processing, which is a crucial aspect of computer systems programming. The test ensures that members have the necessary proficiency in this area before being assigned to this AFSC.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skilllevel?
- A.
A. Minimum rank of SSgt.
- B.
B. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.
- C.
C. Completion of Air Force Specialty Code ( AFSC) specific requirements.
- D.
D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.
Correct Answer
D. D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.Explanation
The correct answer is d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses. This is because the question asks for a requirement that is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, a, b, and c, all mention requirements that are necessary for advancement, such as minimum rank, on-the-job training, and completion of AFSC specific requirements. However, completion of AETC supplemental training courses is not mandatory for advancement to the 7-skill level.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but mayhave a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A.
Communications Focal Point.
- B.
Unit Deployment Monitor.
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk.
- D.
Quality Assurance.
Correct Answer
A. Communications Focal Point.Explanation
The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, but the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) can vary depending on the unit mission. This suggests that different units may have different requirements for the personnel in this role, and the AFSCs may be tailored to meet those specific needs.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
- A.
TO 00–5–15.
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.
- C.
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.
Correct Answer
B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.Explanation
The correct answer is MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized
- A.
At major command functional managers.
- B.
At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
- C.
At the Air Force Personnel Center.
- D.
With career field managers.
Correct Answer
B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).Explanation
The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities are handled at the highest level of the Air Force organization.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organizationand is used as a tool to manage positions?
- A.
Program Element Code ( PEC).
- B.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, responsibilities, and required qualifications. The UMD helps the organization to effectively allocate and manage its manpower resources, ensuring that the right personnel are in the right positions to meet operational needs. The other options listed, Program Element Code (PEC), Authorization Change Request (ACR), and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR), are not specifically related to providing manpower information or managing positions within an organization.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon systemor support function?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC).
- B.
Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
A. Program Element Code (PEC).Explanation
Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. PEC is a unique code assigned to each element of a program, which helps in identifying and tracking the costs associated with that specific element. It allows for better budgeting, cost estimation, and resource allocation within a program. PEC helps in categorizing and organizing the costs related to different aspects of a weapon system or support function, making it an essential subdivision of programmed cost data.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager(AFCFM)?
- A.
Construct career paths.
- B.
Manage skill-level training requirements.
- C.
Establish requirements for entry into the career field.
- D.
Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower office within the MAJCOM.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career fieldSpecialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).
- B.
MAJCOM Functional Manager.
- C.
Career Field Manager (CFM).
- D.
SAF/CIO A6.
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.Explanation
The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization are aligned with the command's needs and objectives. They work closely with the Career Field Manager (CFM) and other stakeholders to develop and implement effective training programs and strategies. The MAJCOM Functional Manager plays a crucial role in shaping the career field's training and development initiatives.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty TrainingRequirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and trainingresourcing?
- A.
Segment 1.
- B.
Segment 2.
- C.
Segment 3.
- D.
Segment 4.
Correct Answer
B. Segment 2.Explanation
Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment likely involves assessing the proficiency levels of individuals or teams and determining the resources needed to provide appropriate training. It may include evaluating the current skill levels, identifying any gaps or areas for improvement, and allocating the necessary resources to meet the training requirements.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team(STRT)?
- A.
Draft and sign minutes.
- B.
Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).
- C.
Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory ( AFECD) specialty description.
- D.
Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
Correct Answer
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.Explanation
The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education. They draft and sign minutes, finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalize the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, they do not finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop(U&TW)?
- A.
Air Education and Training Command ( AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
- B.
AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.
- C.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
- D.
MAJCOM Functional Manager.
Correct Answer
B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.Explanation
The AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This implies that their presence is not mandatory but they have the choice to attend the workshop if they wish to do so.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan(CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training RequirementsTeam ( STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).
- B.
Quality Training Package (QTP).
- C.
Subject Matter Experts (SME).
- D.
Job Quality Standards (JQS).
Correct Answer
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).Explanation
The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for a specific job or career field. It serves as a foundation for creating the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the CFETP and STS are based on a thorough understanding of the job and its requirements.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item withan assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A.
Remedy.
- B.
Situational Report (SITREP).
- C.
Telephone Management System ( TMS).
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
Correct Answer
D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is a comprehensive system that allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance actions, providing a centralized database for maintenance data. It is commonly used in the military and aerospace industry to manage and document maintenance activities on various equipment and systems.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC)monitor?
- A.
Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.
- B.
Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
- C.
Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).
- D.
Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.
Correct Answer
B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).Explanation
The correct answer is "Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)." This duty is not commonly performed by the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The other options, such as reviewing IMDS reports, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions, are common duties of the MDC monitor.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A.
Communications Focal Point.
- B.
Flight Commander/Chief.
- C.
Production Controller.
- D.
Commander.
Correct Answer
B. Flight Commander/Chief.Explanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They have the authority and oversight to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and in accordance with established procedures. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and operational readiness of the organization, as periodic inspections help identify and address any potential issues or deficiencies. By assigning this responsibility to the Flight Commander/Chief, the organization can ensure that inspections are prioritized and carried out effectively.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to thework center?
- A.
Master Task List.
- B.
Job Qualification Standard.
- C.
Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- D.
Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.
Correct Answer
B. Job Qualification Standard.Explanation
The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific job qualifications, such as certifications or specialized training, then the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not have any specific job qualifications, then the Job Qualification Standard will not be included in the Master Training Plan.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air ReserveComponent (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
D. 120Explanation
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after the ARC personnel have received and accepted new equipment or a new system, they must undergo a special evaluation within 120 days. This evaluation helps ensure that the personnel are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
- B.
Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
- C.
Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
- D.
Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
Correct Answer
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.Explanation
The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessments into decision-making processes, and train leaders and employees to manage risk in all activities. The given statement contradicts the goal of ORM by suggesting that opportunities to decrease effectiveness should be identified, which goes against the objective of preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, risk reporting, and risk review. These steps help organizations proactively identify and address potential risks, ensuring the smooth functioning of their operations and minimizing the impact of any unforeseen events. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 6.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
- A.
AF Form 55.
- B.
AF Form 971.
- C.
AF Form 623A.
- D.
AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55.Explanation
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking safety training completion. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's safety training history, ensuring that supervisors can easily verify and maintain compliance with safety training requirements.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A.
Job Safety Training (JST).
- B.
Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).
- C.
Task Hazard Analysis (THA).
- D.
Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).
Correct Answer
A. Job Safety Training (JST).Explanation
The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies and analyzes potential hazards associated with a specific job or task. It involves breaking down the job into individual steps, identifying potential hazards, and determining the appropriate control measures to mitigate those hazards. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers to the training provided to employees to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their jobs safely. While training is an important component of job safety, it is not the same as Job Safety Analysis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?
- A.
Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
- B.
Resources required to manage and use TOs.
- C.
Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
- D.
Training to manage and use TOs.
Correct Answer
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.Explanation
The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options mention the resources, infrastructure, and training required to manage and use TOs, but TCTO procedures are not included in TO 00-5-1.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on
- A.
AFTO Form 673.
- B.
AFTO Form 22.
- C.
AF Form 673.
- D.
AF Form 22.
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 22. -
- 25.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
- A.
Library Custodian.
- B.
Flight commander/chief.
- C.
Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
- D.
Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
Correct Answer
B. Flight commander/chief.Explanation
The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight and ensuring that all necessary procedures and documentation are in place for the equipment used. This includes determining if local checklists and work cards are necessary for the specific equipment being used by the flight.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?
- A.
Electronic Industries Alliance ( EIA).
- B.
American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
- C.
Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
- D.
Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).Explanation
ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E)electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation ofElectronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- A.
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
- B.
American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
- C.
Information and Communications Technology ( ICT).
- D.
Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).Explanation
The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
- A.
The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).
- B.
Commander/director responsible for the guidance.
- C.
The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
- D.
Publications Manager.
Correct Answer
C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.Explanation
The correct answer is the authoring OPR’s supervisor. The Certifying Official for the AF Form 673 should be the supervisor of the authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR). This ensures that the form is endorsed by someone who has oversight and authority over the OPR, ensuring accountability and accuracy in the certification process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domainthrough all federal and non-federal systems?
- A.
Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
- B.
Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
- C.
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
- D.
Military only.
Correct Answer
C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).Explanation
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain systems that can be used across both federal and non-federal systems. These systems are commercially available and can be easily integrated into existing infrastructure, allowing for interoperability and compatibility. They are designed to meet industry standards and are often more cost-effective and efficient compared to developing custom solutions. Therefore, COTS systems are the best choice for achieving a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across all federal and non-federal systems.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized byUnited States Code (USC) Title
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
37
- D.
50
Correct Answer
A. 10Explanation
The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This code outlines the legal framework for the organization and operation of the Department of Defense. It specifies the roles, responsibilities, and authorities of the DOD and its various components, such as the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. Title 10 is an important piece of legislation that ensures the DOD operates within the boundaries set by law and serves as the foundation for the defense of the United States.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty areestablished in United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
15
- B.
18
- C.
32
- D.
37
Correct Answer
C. 32Explanation
The correct answer is 32 because United States Code (USC) Title 32 specifically outlines the procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty. This title is important for understanding the legal framework and requirements for activating units of the military for federal service.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public andprivate websites?
- A.
Wing Commander.
- B.
Numbered Air Force Commander.
- C.
Communications Squadron Commander.
- D.
Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.
Correct Answer
A. Wing Commander.Explanation
The correct answer is Wing Commander. The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for both public and private websites. They have the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites, ensuring that the information is accurate, up-to-date, and meets the standards set by the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
- A.
Misuse of position.
- B.
A covered relationships.
- C.
Non-public information.
- D.
Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. Misuse of position.Explanation
When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This refers to the abuse of authority or power for personal benefits, which is unethical and can lead to negative consequences such as corruption or favoritism.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
- A.
Military Personnel ( MILPERS).
- B.
Military Construction (MILCON).
- C.
Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
- D.
Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).
Correct Answer
B. Military Construction (MILCON).Explanation
Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated for constructing, repairing, or renovating military facilities, including relocating them if necessary. This type of fund specifically focuses on infrastructure projects related to military facilities, such as building new bases or upgrading existing ones. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer as it directly relates to covering the cost of relocating facilities.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation andMaintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
- A.
$100,000.
- B.
$250,000.
- C.
$750,000.
- D.
$1,000,000.
Correct Answer
C. $750,000.Explanation
Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at allresponsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
- A.
10–401.
- B.
33–360.
- C.
38–101.
- D.
64–117.
Correct Answer
D. 64–117.Explanation
The correct answer is 64-117 because the question asks for the source of in-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels. The Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides detailed guidelines and procedures for the program, and AFI 64-117 specifically covers the Government Purchase Card program in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 37.
At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation,administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
- A.
Approval Official ( AO).
- B.
Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
- C.
DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).
- D.
Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).
Correct Answer
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).Explanation
The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensure compliance with regulations and policies, provide guidance and training to cardholders, and monitor card usage to prevent fraud and abuse. They serve as the main point of contact for cardholders and are responsible for maintaining accurate records and reporting on program activities.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC)cardholders?
- A.
Making authorized transactions.
- B.
Reconciling transactions.
- C.
Logging transactions.
- D.
Funds accountability.
Correct Answer
D. Funds accountability.Explanation
The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not directly responsible for managing or tracking the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. Instead, funds accountability is typically handled by higher-level financial management personnel within the government organization.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.
- B.
Joint Publication 1–02.
- C.
Joint Publication 1–03.
- D.
AFI 10–401.
Correct Answer
D. AFI 10–401. -
- 40.
Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
- A.
Air Force Chief of Staff.
- B.
Secretary of the Air Force.
- C.
Selected major command Command Chiefs.
- D.
Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Chief of Staff.Explanation
After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds the highest-ranking position in the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the operations and organization of the entire force. As such, they have the authority to review and approve the selections made by the board, ensuring that the process is fair and in line with the Air Force's standards and values. The Air Force Chief of Staff's involvement in the review process adds an additional layer of scrutiny and ensures that the selection of the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year is of the highest caliber.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normallypresented?
- A.
Wing.
- B.
Group.
- C.
Squadron.
- D.
Major command.
Correct Answer
A. Wing.Explanation
The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. This implies that within a larger organizational structure, such as the military or a corporation, the Wing is the highest level where these awards are typically given out. It suggests that there may be multiple levels within the organization, such as Groups and Squadrons, but the Wing is the highest level where these awards are recognized and celebrated.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction
- A.
36–2604.
- B.
36–2803.
- C.
36–2805.
- D.
36–2845.
Correct Answer
D. 36–2845. -
- 43.
What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer( SAF/CIO) annual awards?
- A.
1 October - 30 September.
- B.
1 January - 31 December.
- C.
1 April - 31 March.
- D.
1 July - 30 June.
Correct Answer
A. 1 October - 30 September.Explanation
The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a one-year period starting in October and ending in September of the following year.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to
- A.
53
- B.
63
- C.
73
- D.
83
Correct Answer
B. 63Explanation
FireWire is a high-speed serial bus interface that allows multiple devices to be connected to a computer. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is 63. This is because the FireWire specification allows for a maximum of 63 devices to be connected in a daisy-chain configuration, where each device is connected to the previous one in a linear chain. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
- A.
Monitor.
- B.
Scanner.
- C.
Keyboard.
- D.
Graphics card.
Correct Answer
C. Keyboard.Explanation
A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. Therefore, the correct answer is keyboard.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
- A.
At least 5.
- B.
No more than 10.
- C.
No more than 20.
- D.
20 or more.
Correct Answer
C. No more than 20.Explanation
A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, and the given answer states that it consists of no more than 20 computers. This means that a workgroup can have a maximum of 20 computers, but it can also have fewer than 20 computers. The answer does not provide an exact number, but it indicates that the number of computers in a workgroup does not exceed 20.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?
- A.
Simple.
- B.
Relative.
- C.
Positive.
- D.
Absolute.
Correct Answer
C. Positive.Explanation
The question is asking to identify the type of UNIX pathname that does not exist. UNIX pathnames can be categorized into four types: simple, relative, absolute, and positive. Simple pathnames consist of a single name, relative pathnames are specified relative to the current directory, absolute pathnames start with the root directory, and positive pathnames are not a valid type of UNIX pathname. Therefore, the answer is positive.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computerfailure?
- A.
Norton Utilities.
- B.
Acrobat Reader.
- C.
Virus Scan.
- D.
WinZip.
Correct Answer
A. Norton Utilities.Explanation
Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection, making it an effective solution for maintaining the performance and security of a computer system. Acrobat Reader is a PDF reader, Virus Scan is an antivirus software, and WinZip is a file compression tool, none of which have the specific tools mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open SystemInterconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
- A.
High Level Data Link Control ( HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
- B.
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
- C.
Distance Vector and Link State.
- D.
RS–232 and RS–530.
Correct Answer
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).Explanation
The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The LLC sublayer is responsible for managing communication between network layers and providing error control and flow control mechanisms. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling issues such as addressing, framing, and collision detection.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
Network.
- B.
Physical.
- C.
Data Link.
- D.
Transport.
Correct Answer
C. Data Link.Explanation
Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between adjacent network nodes, ensuring error-free communication over the physical network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets to their intended destinations within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address in the data link header of each packet and make forwarding decisions based on this information. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 14, 2017Quiz Created by
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