CDC 3dx53 Set 2 Vol 1 Edit 03
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Human error causes approximately what percentage of all accidents?
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40.
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60.
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75.
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95.
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CDC 3DX53 Set 2 Vol 1 Edit 03 assesses knowledge in cyber surety, focusing on duties like intrusion detection and firewall protection, client systems operations, risk management processes, and network types. It prepares learners for roles in IT security.
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- 2.
Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?
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CAT–6.
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Coaxial.
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Fiber Optic.
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Twisted pair.
Correct Answer
A. Fiber Optic.Explanation
Fiber optic is the correct answer because it is the only type of bound media that has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic. CAT-6, coaxial, and twisted pair do not have this specific structure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?
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Fiber optic.
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Terrestrial.
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Radio frequency.
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Satellite microwave.
Correct Answer
A. Fiber optic.Explanation
An unbound media refers to a wireless communication medium that does not require physical connections. Fiber optic, on the other hand, is a bound media that uses cables made of glass or plastic fibers to transmit data. It is a type of guided media that requires a physical connection, making it the only option among the given choices that is not an example of unbound media.Rate this question:
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- 4.
How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
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32.
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64.
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128.
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256.
Correct Answer
A. 32.Explanation
An internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are 2^32 possible unique addresses within the IPv4 address space. Each bit in the address represents a binary digit (0 or 1), resulting in a total of 32 bits. This allows for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses, which are used to identify devices connected to the internet.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?
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B.
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C.
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D.
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E.
Correct Answer
A. E.Explanation
Class E IP addresses are reserved for experimental purposes and are not meant to be used in regular networks. These addresses are not assigned to any specific organization or location and are not routable on the internet. Therefore, they are not used for normal communication and are only used for research, development, and testing purposes.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
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0 to 1023.
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1024 to 23535.
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23536 to 49151.
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49152 to 65535.
Correct Answer
A. 0 to 1023.Explanation
The well-known ports are the port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023. These ports are reserved for specific services and protocols that are commonly used and recognized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). They include ports for popular services like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). The other port ranges mentioned in the options are not classified as well-known ports.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which port is used for telnet?
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7.
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20.
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23.
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53.
Correct Answer
A. 23.Explanation
Port 23 is used for telnet. Telnet is a network protocol that allows users to remotely access and control devices or systems over a network. It provides a virtual terminal connection to the remote device, allowing users to login and execute commands as if they were directly connected to the device. Port 23 is specifically designated for telnet communication, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?
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21.
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22.
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60.
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80.
Correct Answer
A. 80.Explanation
The correct answer is 80. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP communication. When a user requests a webpage, their web browser sends a request to the server on port 80, and the server responds with the requested webpage.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The definition of integrity as it’s applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
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Having information ready when needed.
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Not being able to deny who performed network actions.
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The protection of the network from those not authorized access.
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The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
Correct Answer
A. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.Explanation
The correct answer is the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission. This definition of integrity refers to the protection and preservation of data, ensuring that it remains unaltered and intact. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining the accuracy and reliability of information, preventing unauthorized modifications or deletions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A companion file virus is one that
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Writes itself before the original file.
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Writes itself to the end of the original file.
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Writes itself between file sections of 32-bit file.
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Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.
Correct Answer
A. Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.Explanation
A companion file virus is a type of virus that renames the original file and writes itself with the original file's name. This means that the virus disguises itself as the original file, making it difficult for users to detect. By renaming the file and replacing it with the virus, the attacker can execute malicious actions without raising suspicion. This technique allows the virus to spread and infect other files, potentially causing harm to the system.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What determines the number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization?
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Number of information systems.
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Number of personnel assigned.
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Type of organization.
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Mission need.
Correct Answer
A. Mission need.Explanation
The number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization is determined by the mission need. The organization's mission and the level of security required for its operations will determine the number of alternate IAOs needed to ensure information assurance. The mission need may vary based on the sensitivity of the information being handled, the potential risks and threats, and the complexity of the organization's information systems. Therefore, the number of alternate IAOs will be determined by the organization's specific mission requirements.Rate this question:
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- 12.
In which information assurance control must an organization ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user?
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Risk Assessment (RA).
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Personnel Security (PS).
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Audit and Accountability (AU).
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System and Information Integrity (SI).
Correct Answer
A. Audit and Accountability (AU).Explanation
In order to ensure that individual information system user actions can be traced back to the user, an organization must implement the Audit and Accountability (AU) control. This control involves the monitoring and recording of system activities and user actions, including logins, file accesses, and changes made to the system. By implementing this control, organizations can track and review user actions, detect any unauthorized activities or policy violations, and hold individuals accountable for their actions within the information system.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to?
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Major General (O–8).
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Brigadier General (O–7).
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Colonel (O–6).
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Lieutenant Colonel (O–5).
Correct Answer
A. Colonel (O–6).Explanation
The minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to is Colonel (O–6). This means that a Colonel is authorized to approve AFIN connections without needing higher level approval from a higher-ranking officer such as a Brigadier General or Major General.Rate this question:
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- 14.
In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?
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Bus.
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Star.
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Ring.
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Tree.
Correct Answer
A. Bus.Explanation
In a bus topology, a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network sends a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see. However, only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes the message. This is because in a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single shared communication line, and the message travels along the wire to reach the intended recipient. Other devices on the network receive the message, but they ignore it as it is not intended for them.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a
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Mask.
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Subnet.
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Hierarchy.
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Routing prefix.
Correct Answer
A. Routing prefix.Explanation
The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a routing prefix. A routing prefix is a numerical value that is used to determine the network address and subnet mask of an IP address. It helps in routing packets across different networks by providing information about the network portion of the IP address.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as
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A port.
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A protocol.
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A service point.
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An entrance point.
Correct Answer
A. A port.Explanation
A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as a port. A port is a virtual or physical endpoint on a device where data can be sent or received. It acts as a communication channel through which information can flow between different devices or services. Ports are commonly used in networking to establish connections and facilitate the exchange of data packets.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure point-to-point communication?
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Tunneling.
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Dual layer.
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Dual stack.
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Peer-to-peer.
Correct Answer
A. Tunneling.Explanation
Tunneling is the correct answer because it is a type of transition technology that is used to establish secure point-to-point communication. Tunneling encapsulates the original data packets within another packet, creating a "tunnel" through which the data can travel securely. This technique is commonly used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted between two endpoints.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?
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802.11a.
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802.11b.
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802.11g.
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802.11n.
Correct Answer
A. 802.11n.Explanation
The newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available is 802.11n. This standard offers faster speeds and better range compared to previous standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. It operates on both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequency bands, allowing for better performance in crowded areas. It also supports multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which improves signal quality and reduces interference. Overall, 802.11n provides a more reliable and efficient wireless connection, making it the newest standard widely adopted in various devices and networks.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least what type of secure socket layer?
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32-bit.
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64-bit.
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128-bit.
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256-bit.
Correct Answer
A. 128-bit.Explanation
Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least a 128-bit secure socket layer. This level of encryption ensures a high level of security for sensitive information such as login credentials. Higher bit encryption provides stronger protection against unauthorized access and data breaches.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?
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Digital.
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Biometric.
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Encryption.
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Identification.
Correct Answer
A. Identification.Explanation
The identification certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR) using a common access card (CAC). This certificate verifies the identity of the individual signing the report, ensuring that it is authentic and reliable. The identification certificate is commonly used for various purposes, including digital signatures and secure access to systems and information. It helps to establish trust and integrity in the signing process, making it an appropriate choice for signing important documents like an EPR.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?
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Wing (WG).
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Air Force (AF).
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Department of Defense (DOD).
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Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
Correct Answer
A. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).Explanation
The contract manager must use the Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA) to validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate. The LRA/TA is responsible for verifying the identity and need of individuals requesting PKI certificates, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to sensitive information and resources. Using the LRA/TA helps to maintain the security and integrity of the PKI system and prevent unauthorized access or misuse of certificates.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?
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End-user.
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Remote user.
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Administrative.
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Limited (general).
Correct Answer
A. Administrative.Explanation
Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given administrative access. This type of access allows them to have higher privileges and control over the system. Administrative users have the authority to make changes, install or uninstall software, modify settings, and manage user accounts, among other tasks. This level of access is necessary for performing advanced tasks and maintaining the system effectively.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered
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Threats.
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Exploits.
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Vulnerabilities.
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Breaches of security.
Correct Answer
A. Vulnerabilities.Explanation
Weaknesses or holes in a security system refer to vulnerabilities, which are potential points of exploitation that can be targeted by attackers. These vulnerabilities can be present in software, hardware, or even human processes, making the system susceptible to unauthorized access or compromise. By identifying and addressing these vulnerabilities, organizations can strengthen their security posture and reduce the risk of breaches or exploits.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?
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Shutting down ports.
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Using strong passwords.
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Ensuring remote access.
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Disabling unused/unneeded services.
Correct Answer
A. Ensuring remote access.Explanation
When securing a UNIX system, various measures are taken to protect it from unauthorized access. Shutting down ports helps in closing any potential entry points for attackers. Using strong passwords ensures that only authorized users can access the system. Disabling unused/unneeded services reduces the attack surface by eliminating unnecessary points of vulnerability. However, ensuring remote access is not directly related to securing the system as it involves allowing authorized users to access the system remotely. Remote access can be secured separately through measures like VPNs, firewalls, and authentication protocols.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products, Microsoft releases
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Notices.
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Postings.
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Bulletins.
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Announcements.
Correct Answer
A. Bulletins.Explanation
Microsoft releases bulletins when vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products. Bulletins are official notifications or announcements from Microsoft that provide information about the vulnerabilities, their severity, and any available patches or fixes. These bulletins are important for users and administrators to stay informed about potential security risks and take necessary actions to protect their systems.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the minimum grade requirement for an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team chief?
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NCO.
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SNCO.
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GS–07.
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GS–09.
Correct Answer
A. SNCO.Explanation
The correct answer is SNCO (Senior Non-Commissioned Officer). In an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team, the team chief is responsible for leading and supervising the team. This role requires a higher level of experience, expertise, and leadership skills, which are typically possessed by SNCOs. NCOs may have the necessary technical knowledge, but may not have the leadership abilities required for this position. The GS-07 and GS-09 options refer to the General Schedule (GS) pay scale used for civilian government employees and are not relevant to the grade requirement for an IAAP team chief.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How many times should you wipe each active surface of the media being degaussed when using a degaussing wand?
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2.
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3.
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4.
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5.
Correct Answer
A. 3.Explanation
When using a degaussing wand to degauss the media, it is recommended to wipe each active surface three times. This ensures that the magnetic information on the media is completely erased and cannot be recovered. Wiping the surface multiple times helps to ensure that all traces of data are effectively eliminated, providing a higher level of security.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How often must a degausser be recertified during its first 2 years of operation?
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Every 3 months.
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Every 6 months.
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Every 12 months.
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Only once during the first two years.
Correct Answer
A. Every 6 months.Explanation
A degausser must be recertified every 6 months during its first 2 years of operation. This is necessary to ensure that the degausser is functioning properly and effectively erasing data from magnetic media. Regular recertification helps to maintain the reliability and performance of the degausser over time.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which standard form (SF) label is used as a data descriptor label?
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SF 701.
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SF 706.
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SF 710.
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SF 711.
Correct Answer
A. SF 711.Explanation
SF 711 is used as a data descriptor label.Rate this question:
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- 30.
An installation commander can authorize keeping which classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage?
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Secret and top secret.
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Confidential and secret.
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Unclassified and confidential.
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All classifications may be kept on the flight line.
Correct Answer
A. Confidential and secret.Explanation
An installation commander can authorize keeping confidential and secret classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage. This means that any materials or documents that are classified as confidential or secret can be stored on the flight line under the authorization of the installation commander. Other classification types such as unclassified or top secret are not authorized for in-transit storage on the flight line.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which term identifies any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?
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TEMPEST.
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BLACK.
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EMSEC.
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RED.
Correct Answer
A. RED.Explanation
The term "RED" is used to identify any equipment or area in which classified information is processed. This term is commonly used in the context of information security and refers to systems that handle sensitive or classified data. It is important to have designated areas or equipment for processing classified information to ensure its confidentiality and prevent unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who is the installation’s focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters?
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Wing commander.
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Information security system manager (ISPM).
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Wing information assurance office (WIAO).
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Communications and information system officer (CSO).
Correct Answer
A. Wing information assurance office (WIAO).Explanation
The correct answer is the Wing information assurance office (WIAO). The WIAO is responsible for handling emission security (EMSEC) matters within the installation. They ensure that proper measures are in place to protect the communication and information systems from any potential threats or vulnerabilities. They work closely with other personnel, such as the Wing commander and the Communications and Information System Officer (CSO), to ensure the overall security of the installation.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
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4.
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5.
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6.
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7.
Correct Answer
A. 5.Explanation
The correct answer is 5. The risk management process typically consists of five steps: identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and review. In the identification step, potential risks are identified and documented. The assessment step involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of each identified risk. Mitigation involves developing and implementing strategies to reduce or eliminate the identified risks. Monitoring involves continuously monitoring the effectiveness of the mitigation strategies. Finally, the review step involves periodically reviewing and updating the risk management process to ensure its effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?
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4.
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6.
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8.
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10.
Correct Answer
A. 8.Explanation
Each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has 8 positions when viewed in binary form. In binary, each position represents a power of 2, ranging from 2^0 to 2^7. Since there are 8 positions in an octet, it means that each position can hold a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations (2^8). This allows for a wide range of unique IP addresses to be represented within the octet.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) by default?
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50.
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80.
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5050.
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8080.
Correct Answer
A. 80.Explanation
The correct answer is 80. HTTP uses the TCP protocol to transfer hypertext documents over the internet. By default, HTTP uses port 80 to establish a connection between the client and the server. This allows web browsers to communicate with web servers and retrieve web pages.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?
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Strobe scan.
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Sweep scan.
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Fragment packet scan.
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File transfer protocol (FTP) bounce scan.
Correct Answer
A. Sweep scan.Explanation
A sweep scan is a type of port scan where the scanner connects to the same port on multiple machines. This allows the scanner to quickly gather information about open ports on different systems. Unlike a strobe scan, which connects to a range of ports on a single machine, a sweep scan focuses on a specific port and checks it on multiple machines. A fragment packet scan involves sending fragmented packets to bypass firewall filters, while an FTP bounce scan exploits the FTP bounce feature to scan ports indirectly.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?
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Fragment packets.
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Synchronous (SYN) scan.
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User datagram protocol (UDP) scan.
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Transmission control protocol (TCP) scan.
Correct Answer
A. Synchronous (SYN) scan.Explanation
A Synchronous (SYN) scan is also known as a half open scan. This type of scan involves sending a SYN packet to the target host and waiting for a response. If the host responds with a SYN-ACK packet, it means the port is open. If the host responds with a RST packet, it means the port is closed. This scan is called a half open scan because it does not complete the full TCP handshake, making it more stealthy and harder to detect.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?
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Installing all applicable security patches.
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Creating continuity throughout the network.
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Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.
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Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
Correct Answer
A. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.Explanation
To ensure that replacement administrators can accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, it is important for administrators to keep complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference guide for the new administrators, allowing them to understand the network setup, configurations, and any changes that have been made in the past. By having this documentation, the new administrators can easily replicate the previous configurations and continue the tasks without any disruptions or delays. It also helps in maintaining continuity throughout the network and minimizing risks by ensuring that the network is properly configured and secured.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?
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802.11a.
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802.11b.
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802.11g.
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802.11n.
Correct Answer
A. 802.11b.Explanation
The correct answer is 802.11b. This WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive because it operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data transfer rate of 11 Mbps. While it may not offer the fastest speeds compared to other WiFi standards like 802.11n or 802.11ac, it is still widely used in older devices and is compatible with most routers. Additionally, 802.11b devices are generally more affordable compared to newer standards, making it a cost-effective option for basic internet browsing and light usage.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach for establishing
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An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.
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An adequate IA posture in the AF environment.
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A federal desktop configuration.
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A federal server configuration.
Correct Answer
A. An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.Explanation
Defense-in-depth is a strategy used by the Department of Defense (DOD) to establish an adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment. This approach involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against various threats and vulnerabilities. It recognizes that no single security measure is enough to fully protect an organization's information assets, so multiple layers are necessary to provide a comprehensive defense. By adopting this approach, the DOD aims to mitigate risks and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its information in a shared-risk environment.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is not a result of initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users?
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Users are aware of their role in IA.
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Users are trained on network security.
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Users have met investigative requirements.
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Users have satisfied network access requirements.
Correct Answer
A. Users have met investigative requirements.Explanation
The correct answer is "Users have met investigative requirements." This option suggests that initial IA awareness training does not involve meeting investigative requirements. The other options, such as users being aware of their role in IA, being trained on network security, and satisfying network access requirements, are all outcomes that can be expected from initial IA awareness training for network users.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When classified information is inadvertently sent through unclassified e-mail it is considered
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An e-mail incident.
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A message incident.
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A classified e-mail incident.
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A classified message incident.
Correct Answer
A. A classified message incident.Explanation
When classified information is sent through unclassified e-mail, it is considered a classified message incident. This means that sensitive and confidential information has been transmitted through a channel that is not authorized or secure enough to handle such information. It highlights a breach in security protocols and the potential risk of unauthorized access to classified information.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Where are thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges sent for sanitization?
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Communications squadron (CS).
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National Security Agency (NSA).
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General Services Administration (GSA).
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Wing Information Assurance Office (WIAO).
Correct Answer
A. National Security Agency (NSA).Explanation
Thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges are sent to the National Security Agency (NSA) for sanitization. The NSA is responsible for ensuring the security and confidentiality of sensitive information, and sanitizing these cartridges helps to prevent any potential data breaches or leaks. By sending the cartridges to the NSA, any residual data or information on them can be safely removed, ensuring that they can be reused or disposed of without any risk to national security.Rate this question:
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- 44.
An emission security (EMSEC) manager documents an EMSEC assessment on
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AF Form 4170.
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AF Form 6170.
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Standard Form 700.
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Standard Form 701.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 4170.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 4170. The AF Form 4170 is the appropriate form for documenting an EMSEC assessment. It is specifically designed for this purpose and contains the necessary fields and sections to record all relevant information related to the assessment. The other forms mentioned, AF Form 6170, Standard Form 700, and Standard Form 701, are not intended for EMSEC assessments and may not include the required fields or sections to accurately document the assessment.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered
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Secret.
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Top secret.
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Unclassified.
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Confidential.
Correct Answer
A. Confidential.Explanation
The correct answer is confidential. This is because an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered confidential.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What type of impact occurs when the loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) could be expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or people?
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Low.
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Moderate.
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High.
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Extreme.
Correct Answer
A. Moderate.Explanation
When the loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) could be expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, assets, or people, it indicates a moderate impact. This means that the impact would be significant but not severe enough to cause extreme damage or disruption. It suggests that there would be some negative consequences, but they can be managed and mitigated to a certain extent.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following is not a phase in the information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process?
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Design.
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Define need.
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Build and test.
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Define need review.
Correct Answer
A. Define need review.Explanation
The question asks for the phase that is not a part of the IT Lean reengineering process. The options given are Design, Define need, Build and test, and Define need review. Out of these options, all except Define need review are phases in the IT Lean reengineering process. Therefore, Define need review is the correct answer as it is not a phase in the process.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?
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Sustain cryptographic equipment.
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Install and maintain servers or other computer systems.
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Manage data, information, and knowledge sharing services.
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Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.
Correct Answer
A. Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.Explanation
A cyber surety journeyman is responsible for performing detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection. This means they are tasked with monitoring networks and systems for any unauthorized access or malicious activities. They are also responsible for setting up and maintaining firewalls to protect against cyber threats. This duty is crucial in ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address written?
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Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.
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Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.
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Four groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.
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Four groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.
Correct Answer
A. Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.Explanation
An Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address is written in eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons. This format is used to represent the 128-bit address space in IPv6. Each group consists of four hexadecimal digits, which can range from 0 to F (0-9 and A-F). The use of colons as separators helps to distinguish between the different groups and make the address more readable.Rate this question:
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Jun 12, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Aug 05, 2015Quiz Created by
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