CDC 3dx53 Set 2 Vol 1 Edit 03

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  • 1/90 Questions

    Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?

    • Sustain cryptographic equipment.
    • Install and maintain servers or other computer systems.
    • Manage data, information, and knowledge sharing services.
    • Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.
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About This Quiz

CDC 3DX53 Set 2 Vol 1 Edit 03 assesses knowledge in cyber surety, focusing on duties like intrusion detection and firewall protection, client systems operations, risk management processes, and network types. It prepares learners for roles in IT security.

CDC 3dx53 Set 2 Vol 1 Edit 03 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments?

    • Client Systems (3D1X1).

    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

    • Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

    • Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

    Correct Answer
    A. Client Systems (3D1X1).
    Explanation
    Client Systems (3D1X1) is the correct answer because this career field is responsible for deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in both fixed and deployed environments. This includes setting up and maintaining computer systems, networks, and communication equipment for military operations.

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  • 3. 

    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • 4.

    • 5.

    • 6.

    • 7.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5. The risk management process typically consists of five steps: identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and review. In the identification step, potential risks are identified and documented. The assessment step involves evaluating the likelihood and impact of each identified risk. Mitigation involves developing and implementing strategies to reduce or eliminate the identified risks. Monitoring involves continuously monitoring the effectiveness of the mitigation strategies. Finally, the review step involves periodically reviewing and updating the risk management process to ensure its effectiveness.

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  • 4. 

    What is the third step in the risk management (RM) process?

    • Assets hazards.

    • Implement controls.

    • Supervise and evaluate.

    • Develop controls and make decisions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop controls and make decisions.
    Explanation
    The third step in the risk management process is to develop controls and make decisions. This involves identifying potential risks and determining the best course of action to mitigate or eliminate them. By developing controls, organizations can implement measures to prevent or minimize the impact of risks. Making decisions involves evaluating the available options and choosing the most effective strategies to manage risks. Supervising and evaluating, as mentioned in the other options, are important steps in the risk management process but they come after developing controls and making decisions.

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  • 5. 

    Human error causes approximately what percentage of all accidents?

    • 40.

    • 60.

    • 75.

    • 95.

    Correct Answer
    A. 95.
    Explanation
    Human error is responsible for a significant percentage of accidents, and the given answer of 95% indicates that the majority of accidents are caused by human mistakes or negligence. This implies that only a small fraction of accidents are attributed to other factors such as mechanical failures or natural disasters. The high percentage highlights the importance of human factors in accident prevention and the need for improving safety measures, training, and awareness to reduce human errors and their consequences.

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  • 6. 

    Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?

    • Global network.

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    • Wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless wide area network (WWAN).
    Explanation
    A wireless wide area network (WWAN) typically provides wireless broadband data services. This type of network is designed to cover large geographical areas, such as cities or even entire countries, and allows users to access the internet and other data services wirelessly. WWANs use cellular technology, such as 3G, 4G, or 5G, to provide high-speed data connectivity to mobile devices. Unlike wireless local area networks (WLANs) which cover smaller areas like homes or offices, WWANs provide broader coverage and are commonly used by mobile network operators to offer internet access to their customers.

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  • 7. 

    Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

    • CAT–6.

    • Coaxial.

    • Fiber Optic.

    • Twisted pair.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber Optic.
    Explanation
    Fiber optic is the correct answer because it is the only type of bound media that has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic. CAT-6, coaxial, and twisted pair do not have this specific structure.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?

    • Fiber optic.

    • Terrestrial.

    • Radio frequency.

    • Satellite microwave.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber optic.
    Explanation
    An unbound media refers to a wireless communication medium that does not require physical connections. Fiber optic, on the other hand, is a bound media that uses cables made of glass or plastic fibers to transmit data. It is a type of guided media that requires a physical connection, making it the only option among the given choices that is not an example of unbound media.

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  • 9. 

    In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?

    • Bus.

    • Star.

    • Ring.

    • Tree.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus.
    Explanation
    In a bus topology, a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network sends a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see. However, only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes the message. This is because in a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single shared communication line, and the message travels along the wire to reach the intended recipient. Other devices on the network receive the message, but they ignore it as it is not intended for them.

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  • 10. 

    When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?

    • 4.

    • 6.

    • 8.

    • 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 8.
    Explanation
    Each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has 8 positions when viewed in binary form. In binary, each position represents a power of 2, ranging from 2^0 to 2^7. Since there are 8 positions in an octet, it means that each position can hold a value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 256 possible combinations (2^8). This allows for a wide range of unique IP addresses to be represented within the octet.

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  • 11. 

    How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

    • 32.

    • 64.

    • 128.

    • 256.

    Correct Answer
    A. 32.
    Explanation
    An internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are 2^32 possible unique addresses within the IPv4 address space. Each bit in the address represents a binary digit (0 or 1), resulting in a total of 32 bits. This allows for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses, which are used to identify devices connected to the internet.

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  • 12. 

    Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?

    • B.

    • C.

    • D.

    • E.

    Correct Answer
    A. E.
    Explanation
    Class E IP addresses are reserved for experimental purposes and are not meant to be used in regular networks. These addresses are not assigned to any specific organization or location and are not routable on the internet. Therefore, they are not used for normal communication and are only used for research, development, and testing purposes.

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  • 13. 

    Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited broadcasts?

    • X.x.x.0.

    • X.x.x.255.

    • 127.x.x.x.

    • 255.255.255.255.

    Correct Answer
    A. 255.255.255.255.
    Explanation
    The IP address 255.255.255.255 is used for limited broadcasts. This address is known as the broadcast address and is used to send a message to all devices on a network. When a device sends a message to this address, it is received by all devices on the network, allowing for communication with all devices simultaneously.

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  • 14. 

    The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a

    • Mask.

    • Subnet.

    • Hierarchy.

    • Routing prefix.

    Correct Answer
    A. Routing prefix.
    Explanation
    The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a routing prefix. A routing prefix is a numerical value that is used to determine the network address and subnet mask of an IP address. It helps in routing packets across different networks by providing information about the network portion of the IP address.

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  • 15. 

    Which protocol does the Internet support as the "language" computers use to find and connect with each other?

    • User datagram protocol (UDP).

    • Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    • Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
    Explanation
    The Internet supports the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as the "language" computers use to find and connect with each other. TCP/IP is a set of protocols that allows for the reliable transmission of data over the Internet. It provides a standardized way for computers to communicate and ensures that data packets are delivered accurately and in the correct order. TCP/IP is the foundation of the Internet and is used by all devices connected to it.

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  • 16. 

    Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) by default?

    • 50.

    • 80.

    • 5050.

    • 8080.

    Correct Answer
    A. 80.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 80. HTTP uses the TCP protocol to transfer hypertext documents over the internet. By default, HTTP uses port 80 to establish a connection between the client and the server. This allows web browsers to communicate with web servers and retrieve web pages.

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  • 17. 

    Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) based network?

    • Internet protocol (IP).

    • Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • Transmission control protocol (TCP).

    • Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
    Explanation
    The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IETF standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP based network. DHCP allows hosts to automatically obtain an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server. This eliminates the need for manual configuration of network settings on each individual host, making it easier to manage and administer the network.

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  • 18. 

    A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as

    • A port.

    • A protocol.

    • A service point.

    • An entrance point.

    Correct Answer
    A. A port.
    Explanation
    A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as a port. A port is a virtual or physical endpoint on a device where data can be sent or received. It acts as a communication channel through which information can flow between different devices or services. Ports are commonly used in networking to establish connections and facilitate the exchange of data packets.

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  • 19. 

    Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

    • 0 to 1023.

    • 1024 to 23535.

    • 23536 to 49151.

    • 49152 to 65535.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 to 1023.
    Explanation
    The well-known ports are the port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023. These ports are reserved for specific services and protocols that are commonly used and recognized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). They include ports for popular services like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). The other port ranges mentioned in the options are not classified as well-known ports.

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  • 20. 

    Which port is used for telnet?

    • 7.

    • 20.

    • 23.

    • 53.

    Correct Answer
    A. 23.
    Explanation
    Port 23 is used for telnet. Telnet is a network protocol that allows users to remotely access and control devices or systems over a network. It provides a virtual terminal connection to the remote device, allowing users to login and execute commands as if they were directly connected to the device. Port 23 is specifically designated for telnet communication, making it the correct answer.

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  • 21. 

    Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?

    • 21.

    • 22.

    • 60.

    • 80.

    Correct Answer
    A. 80.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 80. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP communication. When a user requests a webpage, their web browser sends a request to the server on port 80, and the server responds with the requested webpage.

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  • 22. 

    In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?

    • Strobe scan.

    • Sweep scan.

    • Fragment packet scan.

    • File transfer protocol (FTP) bounce scan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sweep scan.
    Explanation
    A sweep scan is a type of port scan where the scanner connects to the same port on multiple machines. This allows the scanner to quickly gather information about open ports on different systems. Unlike a strobe scan, which connects to a range of ports on a single machine, a sweep scan focuses on a specific port and checks it on multiple machines. A fragment packet scan involves sending fragmented packets to bypass firewall filters, while an FTP bounce scan exploits the FTP bounce feature to scan ports indirectly.

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  • 23. 

    Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?

    • Fragment packets.

    • Synchronous (SYN) scan.

    • User datagram protocol (UDP) scan.

    • Transmission control protocol (TCP) scan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Synchronous (SYN) scan.
    Explanation
    A Synchronous (SYN) scan is also known as a half open scan. This type of scan involves sending a SYN packet to the target host and waiting for a response. If the host responds with a SYN-ACK packet, it means the port is open. If the host responds with a RST packet, it means the port is closed. This scan is called a half open scan because it does not complete the full TCP handshake, making it more stealthy and harder to detect.

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  • 24. 

    Which organization is responsible for developing Air Force ports, protocols and services (PPS) policies and procedures?

    • Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps).

    • Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC).

    • Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • Air Force Information, Services and Integration Directorate (SAF/XCIA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC) is responsible for developing Air Force ports, protocols, and services (PPS) policies and procedures. They are tasked with ensuring that the Air Force's network operations are integrated and functioning efficiently. AFNIC plays a crucial role in managing and securing the Air Force's network infrastructure, making them the appropriate organization for developing PPS policies and procedures.

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  • 25. 

    How is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address written?

    • Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.

    • Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.

    • Four groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.

    • Four groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.
    Explanation
    An Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address is written in eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons. This format is used to represent the 128-bit address space in IPv6. Each group consists of four hexadecimal digits, which can range from 0 to F (0-9 and A-F). The use of colons as separators helps to distinguish between the different groups and make the address more readable.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure point-to-point communication?

    • Tunneling.

    • Dual layer.

    • Dual stack.

    • Peer-to-peer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling.
    Explanation
    Tunneling is the correct answer because it is a type of transition technology that is used to establish secure point-to-point communication. Tunneling encapsulates the original data packets within another packet, creating a "tunnel" through which the data can travel securely. This technique is commonly used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted between two endpoints.

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  • 27. 

    Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while

    • Installing all applicable security patches.

    • Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

    • Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.
    Explanation
    Consistently monitoring and controlling networked resources is important to ensure access to the network while also addressing various cyberspace threats. By minimizing these risks, organizations can protect their network from potential attacks and vulnerabilities. This involves implementing security measures, such as installing security patches, conducting regular vulnerability assessments, and implementing security controls to mitigate potential threats. By doing so, organizations can maintain the integrity and security of their network, protecting sensitive data and ensuring uninterrupted access for authorized users.

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  • 28. 

    Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?

    • Installing all applicable security patches.

    • Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

    • Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
    Explanation
    To ensure that replacement administrators can accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, it is important for administrators to keep complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference guide for the new administrators, allowing them to understand the network setup, configurations, and any changes that have been made in the past. By having this documentation, the new administrators can easily replicate the previous configurations and continue the tasks without any disruptions or delays. It also helps in maintaining continuity throughout the network and minimizing risks by ensuring that the network is properly configured and secured.

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  • 29. 

    Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?

    • 802.11a.

    • 802.11b.

    • 802.11g.

    • 802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11b.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.11b. This WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive because it operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data transfer rate of 11 Mbps. While it may not offer the fastest speeds compared to other WiFi standards like 802.11n or 802.11ac, it is still widely used in older devices and is compatible with most routers. Additionally, 802.11b devices are generally more affordable compared to newer standards, making it a cost-effective option for basic internet browsing and light usage.

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  • 30. 

    What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?

    • 802.11a.

    • 802.11b.

    • 802.11g.

    • 802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11n.
    Explanation
    The newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available is 802.11n. This standard offers faster speeds and better range compared to previous standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. It operates on both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequency bands, allowing for better performance in crowded areas. It also supports multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which improves signal quality and reduces interference. Overall, 802.11n provides a more reliable and efficient wireless connection, making it the newest standard widely adopted in various devices and networks.

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  • 31. 

    Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?

    • WiFi protected access (WPA).

    • Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).
    Explanation
    Wired equivalency privacy (WEP) was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption. WEP was the first security protocol used in wireless networks and aimed to provide confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over the wireless network. However, it was later found to have significant security flaws and was replaced by WiFi protected access (WPA) as a more secure alternative.

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  • 32. 

    Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach for establishing

    • An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.

    • An adequate IA posture in the AF environment.

    • A federal desktop configuration.

    • A federal server configuration.

    Correct Answer
    A. An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.
    Explanation
    Defense-in-depth is a strategy used by the Department of Defense (DOD) to establish an adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment. This approach involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against various threats and vulnerabilities. It recognizes that no single security measure is enough to fully protect an organization's information assets, so multiple layers are necessary to provide a comprehensive defense. By adopting this approach, the DOD aims to mitigate risks and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its information in a shared-risk environment.

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  • 33. 

    What is assigned to all Department of Defense (DOD) information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives?

    • Secure location.

    • System classification.

    • Defense-in-depth code.

    • Mission assurance category.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission assurance category.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mission assurance category." In the Department of Defense (DOD), information systems are assigned a mission assurance category based on the importance of the information contained within them in relation to achieving DOD goals and objectives. This categorization helps determine the level of protection and security measures required for these systems.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a result of initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users?

    • Users are aware of their role in IA.

    • Users are trained on network security.

    • Users have met investigative requirements.

    • Users have satisfied network access requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Users have met investigative requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Users have met investigative requirements." This option suggests that initial IA awareness training does not involve meeting investigative requirements. The other options, such as users being aware of their role in IA, being trained on network security, and satisfying network access requirements, are all outcomes that can be expected from initial IA awareness training for network users.

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  • 35. 

    Who is the approval authority for foreign nationals to access unclassified systems?

    • Wing commander.

    • Wing information assurance officer (WIAO).

    • AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander.

    • AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC) commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander.
    Explanation
    The AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander is the approval authority for foreign nationals to access unclassified systems. This individual is responsible for overseeing network operations and ensuring the security and integrity of the network. They have the authority to grant or deny access to foreign nationals based on their assessment of the potential risks and the need for access. The Wing commander and Wing information assurance officer (WIAO) may have roles in the approval process, but the ultimate authority lies with the AFNETOPS commander.

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  • 36. 

    Who initiates a local files check prior to allowing volunteers access to the AF network?

    • Unit commander.

    • Unit security manager.

    • Information system security officer (ISSO).

    • Wing information system security office (WISSO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit security manager.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Unit security manager. The Unit security manager is responsible for ensuring the security of the AF network and its resources. They are in charge of conducting local files checks to verify the background and suitability of volunteers before granting them access to the network. This is an important step in maintaining the security and integrity of the network and preventing unauthorized access or potential threats.

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  • 37. 

    The definition of integrity as it’s applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • Having information ready when needed.

    • Not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • The protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

    Correct Answer
    A. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission. This definition of integrity refers to the protection and preservation of data, ensuring that it remains unaltered and intact. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining the accuracy and reliability of information, preventing unauthorized modifications or deletions.

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  • 38. 

    Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least what type of secure socket layer?

    • 32-bit.

    • 64-bit.

    • 128-bit.

    • 256-bit.

    Correct Answer
    A. 128-bit.
    Explanation
    Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least a 128-bit secure socket layer. This level of encryption ensures a high level of security for sensitive information such as login credentials. Higher bit encryption provides stronger protection against unauthorized access and data breaches.

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  • 39. 

    Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?

    • Digital.

    • Biometric.

    • Encryption.

    • Identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identification.
    Explanation
    The identification certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR) using a common access card (CAC). This certificate verifies the identity of the individual signing the report, ensuring that it is authentic and reliable. The identification certificate is commonly used for various purposes, including digital signatures and secure access to systems and information. It helps to establish trust and integrity in the signing process, making it an appropriate choice for signing important documents like an EPR.

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  • 40. 

    What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provide?

    • Integrity.

    • Availability.

    • Confidentiality.

    • Non-repudiation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-repudiation.
    Explanation
    The common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provides non-repudiation. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender of the email cannot deny sending it, as the CAC certificate serves as a digital signature that uniquely identifies the sender. This helps in verifying the authenticity of the email and prevents the sender from later denying their involvement in the communication.

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  • 41. 

    The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?

    • Wing (WG).

    • Air Force (AF).

    • Department of Defense (DOD).

    • Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
    Explanation
    The contract manager must use the Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA) to validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate. The LRA/TA is responsible for verifying the identity and need of individuals requesting PKI certificates, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to sensitive information and resources. Using the LRA/TA helps to maintain the security and integrity of the PKI system and prevent unauthorized access or misuse of certificates.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following represents a strong password?

    • 1234!@#$asAShi.

    • P@ssw0rd123456.

    • Wsob^@49fg91*hd.

    • GwL18!np*Z&fB3q.

    Correct Answer
    A. GwL18!np*Z&fB3q.
    Explanation
    The password "GwL18!np*Z&fB3q." represents a strong password because it includes a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. It also has a sufficient length of 15 characters, making it harder to guess or crack. The use of a mix of characters and the inclusion of special characters adds complexity and increases the password's strength.

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  • 43. 

    Which category of information must be stored on removable media?

    • Classified.

    • Unclassified.

    • Sensitive but unclassified.

    • For official use only (FOUO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified.
    Explanation
    The category of information that must be stored on removable media is classified. Classified information refers to sensitive data that has been assigned a level of confidentiality, such as top secret, secret, or confidential. Storing classified information on removable media allows for easier transport and protection of the data, as it can be physically secured and controlled. This ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the information and reduces the risk of unauthorized disclosure or loss.

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  • 44. 

    Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?

    • End-user.

    • Remote user.

    • Administrative.

    • Limited (general).

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative.
    Explanation
    Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given administrative access. This type of access allows them to have higher privileges and control over the system. Administrative users have the authority to make changes, install or uninstall software, modify settings, and manage user accounts, among other tasks. This level of access is necessary for performing advanced tasks and maintaining the system effectively.

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  • 45. 

    Which device provides the initial entry point into a network?

    • Router.

    • Firewall.

    • Proxy server.

    • Network access server.

    Correct Answer
    A. Network access server.
    Explanation
    A network access server (NAS) provides the initial entry point into a network. It is responsible for authenticating and authorizing users to access the network. NAS acts as a gateway between the user's device and the network, allowing users to connect and gain access to network resources. It verifies the user's credentials and ensures that they have the necessary permissions to access the network. Once authenticated, the NAS establishes a secure connection and manages the user's network access.

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  • 46. 

    Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered

    • Threats.

    • Exploits.

    • Vulnerabilities.

    • Breaches of security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerabilities.
    Explanation
    Weaknesses or holes in a security system refer to vulnerabilities, which are potential points of exploitation that can be targeted by attackers. These vulnerabilities can be present in software, hardware, or even human processes, making the system susceptible to unauthorized access or compromise. By identifying and addressing these vulnerabilities, organizations can strengthen their security posture and reduce the risk of breaches or exploits.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?

    • Shutting down ports.

    • Using strong passwords.

    • Ensuring remote access.

    • Disabling unused/unneeded services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring remote access.
    Explanation
    When securing a UNIX system, various measures are taken to protect it from unauthorized access. Shutting down ports helps in closing any potential entry points for attackers. Using strong passwords ensures that only authorized users can access the system. Disabling unused/unneeded services reduces the attack surface by eliminating unnecessary points of vulnerability. However, ensuring remote access is not directly related to securing the system as it involves allowing authorized users to access the system remotely. Remote access can be secured separately through measures like VPNs, firewalls, and authentication protocols.

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  • 48. 

    Which UNIX command allows remote logins?

    • Rsh.

    • Telnet.

    • Finger.

    • File transfer protocol (FTP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Telnet.
    Explanation
    Telnet is the correct answer because it is a UNIX command that allows remote logins. It is a network protocol that enables users to connect to remote computers and access their command line interface. Telnet establishes a virtual terminal connection, allowing users to log in and interact with the remote system as if they were physically present. This command is commonly used for remote administration, troubleshooting, and accessing resources on remote machines.

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  • 49. 

    When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products, Microsoft releases

    • Notices.

    • Postings.

    • Bulletins.

    • Announcements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulletins.
    Explanation
    Microsoft releases bulletins when vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products. Bulletins are official notifications or announcements from Microsoft that provide information about the vulnerabilities, their severity, and any available patches or fixes. These bulletins are important for users and administrators to stay informed about potential security risks and take necessary actions to protect their systems.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 12, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 05, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    0tharez

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