3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection –internal Control
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3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection – Internal Control URE's
- 1.(001) The Cyber Surety journeyman monitors all of the following programs except
- A.
Communications security (COMSEC).
- B.
Computer security (COMPUSEC).
- C.
Information security (INFOSEC).
- D.
Emissions security (EMSEC).
- 2.(002) What is the fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM) process?
- A.
Analyze controls and implement strategies to reduce or eliminate risk.
- B.
Make decisions based on overall cost versus benefit.
- C.
Develop and apply implementation strategies.
- D.
Supervise and review.
- 3.(002) What minimum milli-ampere current can be lethal?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
- 4.(003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?
- A.
Global Network
- B.
Wireless local area network (WLAN).
- C.
Wireless wide area network (WWAN).
- D.
Wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN).
- 5.(003) To use VPN products, obtain interim approval from?
- A.
Services and Integration Division (SAF/XC).
- B.
Air Force Virtual Private Network (AF VPN).
- C.
AFNIC Architecture and Analysis Flight (EAC).
- D.
AFNIC Network Infrastructure Flight (ECN).
- 6.(004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?
- A.
Twisted pair.
- B.
Fiber optic.
- C.
Coaxial.
- D.
WiFi.
- 7.(005) In which network does every device have exactly two neighbors?
- A.
Bus
- B.
Star
- C.
Tree
- D.
Ring
- 8.(005) Which network integrates multiple topologies?
- A.
Bus
- B.
Star
- C.
Tree
- D.
Ring
- 9.(006) Which class of internet protocol addresses is used for very large networks?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- 10.(007) Which protocol has the job of verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server?
- A.
Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
- B.
Transmission control protocol (TCP).
- C.
Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).
- D.
Internet protocol (IP).
- 11.(007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-based network?
- A.
Internet protocol (IP).
- B.
Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).
- C.
Transmission control protocol (TCP).
- D.
Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
- 12.(008) As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many organizations rely upon what to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses?
- A.
Prefixing.
- B.
Subnetting.
- C.
Transition technology.
- D.
Classless Inter-Domain Routing.
- 13.(008) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called?
- A.
Routing prefix.
- B.
Hierarchy.
- C.
Subnet.
- D.
Mask.
- 14.(009) Breaking down the packets’ addresses to act as a gateway to allow traffic to pass between networks involves which transition technology?
- A.
Dual stack.
- B.
Dual layer.
- C.
Tunneling.
- D.
Peer-to-peer.
- 15.(009) Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called
- A.
Dual stack.
- B.
Dual layer.
- C.
Tunneling.
- D.
Peer-to-peer
- 16.(010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while
- A.
Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
- B.
Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats
- C.
Creating continuity throughout the network.
- D.
Installing all applicable security patches.
- 17.(010) To make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, administrators must be in the habit of
- A.
Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
- B.
Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.
- C.
Creating continuity throughout the network.
- D.
Installing all applicable security patches.
- 18.(011) When coupled with standardized network policy, the standard desktop configuration (SDC) substantially
- A.
Reduces the number of network users with administrative privileges.
- B.
Achieves near end-to-end command and control capability.
- C.
Guards against the insider threat.
- D.
Improves network security.
- 19.(011) With the consolidation of the several Network Operations and Security Centers (NOSC), the Air Force
- A.
Reduces the number of network users with administrative privileges.
- B.
Achieves near end-to-end command and control capability.
- C.
Guards against the insider threat.
- D.
Improves network security.
- 20.(012) Which WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive?
- A.
802.11a
- B.
802.11b
- C.
802.11g
- D.
802.11n
- 21.(012) Which wireless standard originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?
- A.
WiFi protected access (WPA).
- B.
Wireless local area network (WLAN).
- C.
Wireless wide area network (WWAN).
- D.
Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).
- 22.(013) What shall be assigned to all Department of Defense information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives?
- A.
Mission assurance category.
- B.
Defense-in-depth code.
- C.
System classification.
- D.
Secure location.
- 23.(013) Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with
- A.
Information classification.
- B.
Mission assurance.
- C.
Need-to-know.
- D.
Sensitivity.
- 24.(014) Who is responsible for verifying proper security clearances and background investigation checks prior to granting a network user access to the Air Force Provisioned Portion of the Global Information Grid (AF GIG)?
- A.
Information assurance officer (IAO) only.
- B.
IAO and security manager.
- C.
Information assurance officer.
- D.
System administrator.
- 25.(014) Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users ensures all of the following except that users
- A.
Are aware of their role in IA.
- B.
Are trained on network security.
- C.
Have met investigative requirements.
- D.
Have satisfied network access requirements.
- 26.(015) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?
- A.
Digital.
- B.
Biometric.
- C.
Encryption.
- D.
Identification.
- 27.(015) With what agency must the contract manager validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government PKI certificate?
- A.
Wing.
- B.
Air Force.
- C.
Department of Defense.
- D.
Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
- 28.(016) When network password composition rules are not automatically enforced, what process should network administrators use to enforce good password stringency?
- A.
Cracking.
- B.
Evaluation.
- C.
Identification.
- D.
Authentication.
- 29.(017) Report loss or suspected loss of removable media containing controlled unclassified information (CUI) or personally identifiable information (PII) according to reporting procedures in which Air Force Instruction (AFI)?
- A.
AFI 33–138, Enterprise Network Operations Notification and Tracking.
- B.
AFI 31–401, Information Security Program Management.
- C.
AFI 31–501, Personnel Security Program Management.
- D.
AFI 31–601, Industrial Security Program Management.
- 30.(017) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) guides security policy and guidance for government contractors?
- A.
AFI 33–332, Privacy Act Program.
- B.
AFI 31–401, Information Security Program Management.
- C.
AFI 31–501, Personnel Security Program Management.
- D.
AFI 31–601, Industrial Security Program Management.
- 31.(018) What type of access is given to remote users who access, download, or upload data?
- A.
Limited (general) access.
- B.
Administrative access.
- C.
Remote user access.
- D.
End-user access.
- 32.(018) What type of access is given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews?
- A.
Limited (general).
- B.
Administrative.
- C.
Remote user.
- D.
End-user.
- 33.(019) Whenever possible, in which environment would you run the UNIX Apache server?
- A.
Chmod.
- B.
Chown.
- C.
Chroot.
- D.
Chgrp.
- 34.(019) To improve system security, several services that are preloaded on many UNIX systems can be disabled except
- A.
Rsh.
- B.
Rlogin.
- C.
Telnet.
- D.
Rfinger.
- 35.(019) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and its other products, Microsoft releases
- A.
Notices.
- B.
Postings.
- C.
Bulletins.
- D.
Announcements.
- 36.(020) A companion file virus is one that
- A.
Writes itself before the original file.
- B.
Writes itself to the end of the original file.
- C.
Writes itself between file sections of 32-bit file.
- D.
Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.
- 37.(020) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a
- A.
Boot sector virus.
- B.
Worm program
- C.
Trojan horse
- D.
Macro virus
- 38.(020) To virus-protect your system, make sure you perform all the following steps except
- A.
Log off your computer daily.
- B.
Install the latest service packs.
- C.
Update your anti-virus software.
- D.
Watch for files with .exe, .com, .bat. and .scr attachments.
- 39.(020) By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform their jobs, you are
- A.
Monitoring network traffic.
- B.
Using the least privilege principle.
- C.
Using a bidirectional firewall.
- D.
Stopping peer-to-peer sharing.
- 40.(021) What category is an incident in which an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer/information system/network device?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
IV
- D.
VII
- 41.(021) What category is an incident in which an Air Force computer/information system/network was denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
IV
- D.
VII
- 42.(022) What is the lowest level information condition (INFOCON)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
A
- 43.(022) All agencies/organizations implement information condition (INFOCON) measures except
- A.
Major commands.
- B.
Direct reporting units.
- C.
Field operating agencies.
- D.
Air Force network operating center network control division.
- 44.(023) Information security-related access controls that include segregation of duties and security screening of users can be classified as which category of access preservation?
- A.
Technical.
- B.
Administrative.
- C.
Authentication.
- D.
Confidentiality.
- 45.(023) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
- A.
Digital.
- B.
Biometric.
- C.
Encryption.
- D.
E-mail signing.
- 46.(023) What should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when the system is powered up?
- A.
War-dialing.
- B.
BIOS password.
- C.
Time-out feature.
- D.
Secure network location.
- 47.(024) Who reviews information assurance assistance program (IAAP) reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when it is clear that incidents or deviations are involved?
- A.
Headquarters Air Force Network Integration Center (HQ AFNIC).
- B.
Major command commanders.
- C.
Squadron commanders.
- D.
Wing commanders.
- 48.(024) Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using AF Form 4160 every 2 years or sooner?
- A.
Wings.
- B.
Squadrons.
- C.
Major commands.
- D.
Headquarters Air Force Network Integration Center (HQ AFNIC).
- 49.(025) Threats that include flaws in building construction, improper implementation of utilities, inadequate wiring, and poor housekeeping practices can be best classified as what type of threat?
- A.
Human.
- B.
Technological.
- C.
Unintentional.
- D.
Environmental.
- 50.(026) Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to clear which media type?
- A.
Dynamic random access memory and Random-access memory.
- B.
Programmable read-only memory and Optical Media.
- C.
Static random access memory.
- D.
Magnetic tapes.
- 51.(026) No procedures exist for cleaning which media type?
- A.
Dynamic random access memory and Random-access memory.
- B.
Programmable read-only memory and Optical Media.
- C.
Static random access memory.
- D.
Magnetic tapes.
- 52.(027) Examples of where sanitization and declassification are appropriate include all the following except?
- A.
When the media is inadvertently contaminated with data of a higher classification level than authorized.
- B.
When you are releasing the media from a secure facility to a non-cleared maintenance facility.
- C.
When you will no longer maintain the secured physical environment.
- D.
When changing modes of operation or prior to reuse.
- 53.(027) Sanitizing sealed disks, removable disk packs, magnetic bubble memory, core memory, and flash memory is not complete until how many passes with a degausser?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 54.(028) The coercivity of a Type II extended range degausser is
- A.
0 - 350 Oe.
- B.
351 - 750 Oe.
- C.
751 - 1000 Oe.
- D.
1001 - 1700 Oe and above.
- 55.(028) How often must a degausser be recertified for the first two years of operation?
- A.
Every 3 months.
- B.
Every 6 months.
- C.
Every 12 months.
- D.
Only once during the first two years.
- 56.(029) Which media destruction option method involves the application of concentrated hydriodic acid (55 percent to 58 percent solution) to a gamma ferric oxide disk surface?
- A.
Option A
- B.
Option B
- C.
Option C
- D.
Option D
- 57.(029) From which media type must you remove the outer chassis and electronic circuit boards when practical prior to destroying?
- A.
Sealed disk drives and magnetic bubble memory.
- B.
Solid state storage devices.
- C.
Removable disk packs.
- D.
Core memory.
- 58.(030) To ensure the integrity of the overwriting process, overwriting software must have the following functions and capabilities except?
- A.
Providing a validation certificate indicating that the procedure was completed properly.
- B.
Overwriting the entire hard drive independent of any input/output system/firmware capacity.
- C.
A compatibility with, or capability to run independent of, the type of hard drive being sanitized.
- D.
A compatibility with, or capability to run independent of, the operating system loaded on the hard drive.
- 59.(030) When overwriting hard drives, examine what minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
50
- D.
70
- 60.(031) What Standard Form label is used as a data descriptor label?
- A.
701
- B.
706
- C.
710
- D.
711
- 61.(031) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit the use of, government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?
- A.
Major command.
- B.
Wing commander.
- C.
Designated approving authority.
- D.
Officer in charge.
- 62.(032) For in-transit storage, an installation commander can authorize what classifications to be kept on the flightline?
- A.
Secret and Top Secret.
- B.
Confidential and Secret.
- C.
Unclassified and Confidential.
- D.
All classifications may be kept on the flightline.
- 63.(033) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of Department of Defense’s (DOD) TEMPEST program for the Air Force?
- A.
7700
- B.
7701.
- C.
7702.
- D.
7703.
- 64.(033) What is the term for any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?
- A.
TEMPEST.
- B.
BLACK.
- C.
EMSEC.
- D.
RED.
- 65.(034) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the wing information assurance office (WIAO) use to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures?
- A.
7700.
- B.
7701.
- C.
7702.
- D.
7703.
- 66.(034) Emissions security (EMSEC) reassessments are made when any of the following take place except when?
- A.
The threat changes.
- B.
Three years have passed.
- C.
The classified level changes.
- D.
Beginning to process classified information.
- 67.(035) In basic circuit theory, if the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, then there is a loss of
- A.
Battery.
- B.
Signal.
- C.
Circuit.
- D.
Path.
- 68.(035) The main source of compromising emanations is the result of
- A.
Nature.
- B.
Resistance.
- C.
Digital signals.
- D.
Integrated circuits
- 69.(036) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- 70.(036) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- 71.(037) A protective distribution system (PDS) is usually installed between two
- A.
Controlled access areas (CAA).
- B.
Limited-control area (LCA).
- C.
Uncontrolled access areas (UAA).
- D.
Wing information assurance offices (WIAO).
- 72.(037) Before selecting a protective distribution system (PDS), with what two entities must the requesting agency consider other communication security (COMSEC) solutions first?
- A.
Communications and information systems officer (CSO) and system telecommunications engineering manager (STEM).
- B.
Wing information assurance offices (WIAO). and information systems owner (ISO).
- C.
AFCA/EVPI and wing information assurance offices (WIAO).
- D.
Air Force and major command.
- 73.(038) Who is the final authority granting approval to operate a protective distribution system (PDS)?
- A.
Air Force.
- B.
Information systems officer (ISO).
- C.
Wing information assurance offices (WIAO).
- D.
Communications and information systems officer (CSO).
- 74.(038) Within how many minutes should an individual respond if a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
- 75.(039) What is the risk outcome that results in the physical loss of assets rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement?
- A.
Denial of service.
- B.
Modification.
- C.
Destruction.
- D.
Disclosure.
- 76.(039) What is the risk outcome that results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system (IS) for a period of time?
- A.
Denial of service.
- B.
Modification.
- C.
Destruction.
- D.
Disclosure.
- 77.(040) In which phase of the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP) does the AF-DAA review the recommendations and issue an approving/authorization to operate (ATO)?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
- 78.(041) Cyber Surety specialists do not review information system audit logs to
- A.
Ensure system vulnerabilities are identified.
- B.
Ensure system penetrations are identified.
- C.
Report fraud, waste and abuse.
- D.
Report a rudimentary inquiry.
- 79.(041) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with approval from
- A.
The wing commander.
- B.
The major command commander.
- C.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOC).
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI).
- 80.Air Force information systems must complete the information technology (IT) Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless these systems have been designated as a
- A.
SPACE or SAP/SAR.
- B.
Major command.
- C.
Department of the Air Force.
- D.
Department of Defense.
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