3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection –internal Control

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1. (020) By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform their jobs, you are

Explanation

The correct answer is "using the least privilege principle." This means that by providing users with only the necessary level of access to perform their jobs, you are following the principle of granting the minimum necessary permissions. This helps to reduce the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of resources, as users are only given the specific privileges they need to carry out their tasks. It is a security best practice to limit access rights to only what is required for a user to perform their job effectively.

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3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection internal Control - Quiz

3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection – Internal Control URE's

2.  (015) With what agency must the contract manager validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government PKI certificate?

Explanation

The contract manager must validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government PKI certificate with the Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).

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3. (018) What type of access is given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews?

Explanation

Administrative access is given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews. This type of access allows users to have full control and authority over the system, including the ability to make changes, modify settings, and perform administrative tasks. It is necessary for these users to have administrative access in order to effectively carry out their responsibilities and ensure the smooth functioning of the system. Limited (general) access, remote user access, and end-user access do not provide the same level of privileges and permissions as administrative access.

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4. (014) Who is responsible for verifying proper security clearances and background investigation checks prior to granting a network user access to the Air Force Provisioned Portion of the Global Information Grid (AF GIG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is IAO and security manager. The responsibility for verifying proper security clearances and background investigation checks prior to granting network user access to the AF GIG lies with both the Information Assurance Officer (IAO) and the security manager. These individuals play a crucial role in ensuring that only authorized personnel are granted access to the network, thereby maintaining the security and integrity of the AF GIG. The IAO is responsible for overseeing the overall information assurance program, while the security manager is responsible for implementing and enforcing security policies and procedures. Together, they collaborate to ensure proper security measures are in place.

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5. (007) Which protocol has the job of verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server?

Explanation

TCP is responsible for verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server. It ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and without errors. DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. HTTP is a protocol for transferring hypertext documents, and IP is responsible for routing packets across the internet.

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6. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-based network?

Explanation

The correct answer is Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). DHCP is an IETF standard protocol that simplifies the process of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-based network. It allows hosts to automatically obtain IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server. This eliminates the need for manual configuration, reducing the administration burden and complexity of managing network configurations.

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7. (009) Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called

Explanation

Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called tunneling. Tunneling is a technique that allows data to be encapsulated within a separate network protocol, creating a "tunnel" through which the data can be securely transmitted. This ensures that the communication between two points is protected from potential threats and unauthorized access. Dual stack refers to the implementation of both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols, dual layer is not a term related to secure communication, and peer-to-peer refers to a decentralized network architecture.

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8. (039) What is the risk outcome that results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system (IS) for a period of time?

Explanation

The risk outcome that results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system (IS) for a period of time is denial of service. This means that the system is intentionally or unintentionally made unavailable or inaccessible to its intended users, rendering it unable to perform its functions and provide services. This can occur due to various reasons such as network congestion, hardware or software failure, or malicious attacks.

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9.   (020) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a

Explanation

A Trojan horse is a type of program that appears harmless or useful but actually contains or installs a malicious program. Unlike a boot sector virus, which infects the boot sector of a computer's hard drive, a worm program, which replicates itself and spreads across networks, or a macro virus, which infects documents and spreads through macros, a Trojan horse disguises itself as something legitimate to deceive users into executing it. Therefore, the correct answer is Trojan horse.

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10. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

Explanation

Fiber optic is the correct answer because it is the only option that describes a bound media with a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic. Twisted pair, coaxial, and WiFi do not have this specific structure.

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11. (005) In which network does every device have exactly two neighbors?

Explanation

In a ring network, every device is connected to exactly two neighbors, one on each side. This creates a circular loop where data can be transmitted in both directions. This type of network is commonly used in token ring networks, where a token is passed around the network to control access to the shared communication medium.

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12. (037) A protective distribution system (PDS) is usually installed between two

Explanation

A protective distribution system (PDS) is typically installed between two controlled access areas (CAA) because it is designed to provide secure communication and data transmission between sensitive areas. Controlled access areas have strict access controls and security measures in place to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering. By installing a PDS between two CAA, the communication and data transmission within these areas can be protected from potential threats and unauthorized access.

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13. (039) What is the risk outcome that results in the physical loss of assets rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement?

Explanation

Destruction is the correct answer because it refers to the risk outcome that leads to the physical loss of assets, rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement. This means that the assets are completely ruined or damaged beyond repair, making them unusable and necessitating their replacement.

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14. (033) What is the term for any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?

Explanation

The term "RED" refers to any equipment or area in which classified information is processed. This term is commonly used in the context of information security and is associated with the highest level of classification.

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15. (008) As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many organizations rely upon what to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses?

Explanation

As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many organizations rely upon subnetting to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses. Subnetting allows organizations to divide a single IP network into smaller subnetworks, which helps in efficiently utilizing the available IP addresses. By dividing the network into smaller subnets, organizations can allocate IP addresses only to the devices that require them, reducing wastage and conserving IP addresses. This allows organizations to accommodate more devices within the limited pool of IP addresses provided by IP V6.

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16. (016) When network password composition rules are not automatically enforced, what process should network administrators use to enforce good password stringency?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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17. (020) To virus-protect your system, make sure you perform all the following steps except

Explanation

The correct answer is "Log off your computer daily." This step is not directly related to virus protection. Logging off your computer daily helps to protect your privacy and prevent unauthorized access, but it does not specifically protect against viruses. The other three steps mentioned - installing the latest service packs, updating anti-virus software, and watching for files with certain attachments - are all important for virus protection.

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18. (038) Within how many minutes should an individual respond if a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated?

Explanation

When a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated, an individual should respond within 15 minutes. This quick response time is necessary to address any potential issues or threats that the alarm is indicating. By responding promptly, the individual can assess the situation, take appropriate action, and ensure the safety and functionality of the protective distribution system.

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19.     Air Force information systems must complete the information technology (IT) Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless these systems have been designated as a

Explanation

Air Force information systems must complete the information technology (IT) Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless these systems have been designated as a SPACE or SAP/SAR. This means that if an information system has been designated as a SPACE or SAP/SAR, it does not need to go through the IT Lean process to obtain approval to operate.

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20. (005) Which network integrates multiple topologies?

Explanation

A tree network integrates multiple topologies because it is a combination of multiple star topologies connected to a central bus. Each star topology represents a branch of the tree, with devices connected to a central hub or switch, and all the branches are connected to the central bus. This allows for a hierarchical structure and efficient communication between devices in different branches of the tree network.

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21. (031) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit the use of, government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?

Explanation

The designated approving authority has the authority to impose restrictions upon and prohibit the use of government-owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks. This individual is responsible for approving the use of these storage media and ensuring that proper security measures are in place to protect classified information.

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22. (032) For in-transit storage, an installation commander can authorize what classifications to be kept on the flightline?

Explanation

For in-transit storage on the flightline, an installation commander can authorize the classifications of Confidential and Secret. This means that only items with these classifications can be stored in this area. Other classifications such as Top Secret or Unclassified may not be authorized for storage on the flightline.

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23. (019) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and its other products, Microsoft releases

Explanation

When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and its other products, Microsoft releases bulletins. Bulletins are official documents or announcements that provide information about the vulnerabilities and offer guidance on how to mitigate them. These bulletins typically include details about the vulnerability, its potential impact, and the steps that users can take to protect their systems. By releasing bulletins, Microsoft aims to inform its users about the vulnerabilities and help them keep their systems secure.

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24. (020) A companion file virus is one that

Explanation

A companion file virus is a type of virus that renames the original file and writes itself with the original file's name. This means that the virus disguises itself as the original file, making it difficult to detect. By renaming the file and replacing it with the virus, the user may unknowingly execute the virus instead of the intended file, allowing the virus to spread and potentially cause harm to the system.

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25. (022) What is the lowest level information condition (INFOCON)?

Explanation

The lowest level information condition (INFOCON) is 5. This level indicates that there is no current threat to the information systems and no specific actions need to be taken to protect them. This means that the systems are operating normally and there is no immediate risk or danger to the information.

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26. (023) What should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when the system is powered up?

Explanation

A BIOS password should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when it is powered up. This password is set in the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) of the computer and acts as an additional layer of security. It prevents unauthorized access to the system by requiring a password to be entered before the operating system can be loaded. This helps ensure that only authorized individuals can gain control of the system and protect sensitive information and resources.

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27. (028) How often must a degausser be recertified for the first two years of operation?

Explanation

A degausser is a device used to erase magnetic data from storage media. It is important to recertify a degausser regularly to ensure its effectiveness and accuracy. The correct answer states that a degausser must be recertified every 6 months for the first two years of operation. This means that the device should undergo a certification process every half year to ensure that it is working properly and meeting the required standards.

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28. (008) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called?

Explanation

The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called the routing prefix. This prefix helps in determining the network address and allows routers to efficiently route packets to their destination. It is an essential component of IP addressing and plays a crucial role in network communication.

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29. (010) To make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, administrators must be in the habit of

Explanation

To ensure that replacement administrators can perform the same tasks as their predecessors, it is essential for administrators to maintain comprehensive and precise documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference and guide for new administrators, enabling them to understand the network setup, make necessary changes, and troubleshoot any issues effectively. By documenting configuration changes, administrators can ensure continuity and prevent any disruptions or errors that may arise from miscommunication or lack of information. This practice also promotes accountability and transparency within the network administration team.

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30. (041) Cyber Surety specialists do not review information system audit logs to

Explanation

Cyber Surety specialists are responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of information systems. They review information system audit logs to identify any instances of fraud, waste, and abuse. This involves analyzing the logs to detect any suspicious activities or unauthorized access attempts. By reporting such incidents, the specialists help in preventing any potential harm or misuse of the system. Therefore, the correct answer is to report fraud, waste, and abuse.

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31. (025) Threats that include flaws in building construction, improper implementation of utilities, inadequate wiring, and poor housekeeping practices can be best classified as what type of threat?

Explanation

Threats that include flaws in building construction, improper implementation of utilities, inadequate wiring, and poor housekeeping practices are best classified as environmental threats. These threats arise from the physical environment and can cause damage or harm to individuals or property. They are not caused by human actions, technology, or unintentional mistakes, but rather by the conditions and elements present in the surrounding environment.

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32. (001) The Cyber Surety journeyman monitors all of the following programs except

Explanation

The Cyber Surety journeyman is responsible for monitoring and ensuring the security of various programs. This includes communications security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and emissions security (EMSEC). However, the journeyman does not monitor information security (INFOSEC) as it is not listed as one of their responsibilities.

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33. (012) Which wireless standard originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?

Explanation

Wired equivalency privacy (WEP) is the correct answer because it was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption. WEP was the first security protocol used in Wi-Fi networks, but it is now considered to be weak and easily compromised.

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34. (002) What minimum milli-ampere current can be lethal?

Explanation

A minimum milli-ampere current of 50 can be lethal. This suggests that any current below 50 milli-amperes is not enough to cause harm or be lethal.

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35. (024) Who reviews information assurance assistance program (IAAP) reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when it is clear that incidents or deviations are involved?

Explanation

HQ AFNIC reviews IAAP reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when incidents or deviations are involved.

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36. (012) Which WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive?

Explanation

802.11b is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard. Although it operates at a lower frequency than other standards, it still provides a decent speed for basic internet browsing and email. It is the most affordable option for those on a budget or with older devices that do not support newer WiFi standards.

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37. (006) Which class of internet protocol addresses is used for very large networks?

Explanation

Class A internet protocol addresses are used for very large networks. Class A addresses have a first octet range of 1-126, which allows for a large number of hosts in the network. These addresses are typically assigned to organizations or institutions that require a large number of IP addresses for their network infrastructure.

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38. (019) Whenever possible, in which environment would you run the UNIX Apache server?

Explanation

The correct answer is chroot. Running the UNIX Apache server in a chroot environment provides an added layer of security. Chroot allows the server process to be confined to a specific directory, preventing it from accessing the rest of the system. This helps to limit the potential damage that can be caused by a compromised server.

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39. (035) In basic circuit theory, if the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, then there is a loss of

Explanation

If the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, there will be a loss of signal. This is because the power source provides the necessary energy for the signal to be transmitted through the circuit. Without power, the signal cannot be sustained and will be lost.

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40. (023) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

Explanation

A digital certificate is a type of certificate that is used to authenticate the identity of the user. It is a digital document that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted authority. The certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in various online transactions and communications.

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41. (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while

Explanation

Consistently monitoring and controlling networked resources is important to ensure access to the network while minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats. By regularly monitoring the network, potential vulnerabilities or suspicious activities can be identified and addressed promptly. Additionally, by implementing controls and security measures, the network can be protected from unauthorized access or malicious attacks. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes is also crucial as it helps in tracking and auditing any changes made to the network, ensuring accountability and facilitating troubleshooting if any issues arise. Installing all applicable security patches is important but it alone does not address the broader goal of minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

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42. (041) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with approval from

Explanation

ASIM transcripts are controlled and released only with approval from the Air Force network operations center (AFNOC). This suggests that AFNOC has the authority and responsibility to manage and oversee the release of ASIM transcripts. The wing commander, major command commander, and Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) may have their own roles and responsibilities in security incidents, but in this case, it is specifically stated that AFNOC is the entity that controls the release of ASIM transcripts.

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43. (013) Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with

Explanation

Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with mission assurance. Mission assurance refers to the measures taken to ensure the successful accomplishment of a mission or objective. In the context of information, availability refers to the accessibility and usability of information, while integrity refers to the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of information. Therefore, mission assurance encompasses the requirements for both availability and integrity of information to ensure the successful completion of a mission.

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44. (014) Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users ensures all of the following except that users

Explanation

Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users ensures that users are aware of their role in IA, are trained on network security, and have satisfied network access requirements. However, it does not ensure that users have met investigative requirements. This means that the training does not guarantee that users have completed any necessary investigations or background checks that may be required for certain roles or access levels within the network.

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45. (026) Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to clear which media type?

Explanation

Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to clear magnetic tapes. Degaussing is the process of erasing or demagnetizing the data stored on magnetic media. Magnetic tapes use magnetic particles to store data, and degaussing is necessary to completely remove all traces of data from the tapes. NSA-approved degaussers ensure that the degaussing process meets specific security standards set by the National Security Agency. Therefore, magnetic tapes can only be effectively cleared using an NSA-approved degausser.

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46. (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?

Explanation

A wireless wide area network (WWAN) is a type of network that typically provides wireless broadband data services. WWANs cover large areas, such as cities or even entire countries, and are used to connect devices to the internet or other networks without the need for physical cables. This type of network is commonly used by mobile network operators to provide internet access to mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, and is often associated with technologies like 3G, 4G, or 5G.

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47. (019) To improve system security, several services that are preloaded on many UNIX systems can be disabled except

Explanation

To improve system security, it is recommended to disable unnecessary services that come preloaded on UNIX systems. This helps to reduce the attack surface and potential vulnerabilities. Out of the given options, rfinger is the service that can be disabled. Rfinger is used to retrieve information about users on a remote system, but it is considered a security risk as it can provide valuable information to attackers. Disabling rfinger helps to protect the system from potential unauthorized access and information leakage.

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48. (030) When overwriting hard drives, examine what minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process?

Explanation

When overwriting hard drives, it is important to verify the overwriting process to ensure that the data has been successfully overwritten and cannot be recovered. The minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process indicates the minimum amount of data that should be checked after the overwrite. In this case, the correct answer of 20 suggests that at least 20% of the data should be verified to ensure the effectiveness of the overwrite process.

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49. (017) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) guides security policy and guidance for government contractors?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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50. (027) Sanitizing sealed disks, removable disk packs, magnetic bubble memory, core memory, and flash memory is not complete until how many passes with a degausser?

Explanation

To completely sanitize sealed disks, removable disk packs, magnetic bubble memory, core memory, and flash memory, it requires six passes with a degausser. A degausser is a device that uses a strong magnetic field to erase or neutralize the magnetic data stored on these types of memory devices. By passing the devices through the degausser six times, it ensures that all residual magnetic traces are eliminated, making the data unrecoverable.

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51.   (027) Examples of where sanitization and declassification are appropriate include all the following except?

Explanation

Sanitization and declassification are appropriate in situations where there is a need to remove classified information from media or documents in order to prevent unauthorized access. Examples of such situations include when the media is contaminated with data of a higher classification level, when releasing media to a non-cleared maintenance facility, and when the secured physical environment is no longer maintained. However, changing modes of operation or prior to reuse does not require sanitization or declassification as there is no need to remove classified information in these situations.

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52. (034) Emissions security (EMSEC) reassessments are made when any of the following take place except when?

Explanation

EMSEC reassessments are made when any of the following take place: the threat changes, three years have passed, or the classified level changes. However, beginning to process classified information does not trigger an EMSEC reassessment.

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53. (036) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

Explanation

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone B.

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54.   (018) What type of access is given to remote users who access, download, or upload data?

Explanation

End-user access is the type of access given to remote users who access, download, or upload data. This means that these users have limited permissions and are only able to perform basic tasks related to accessing and using the data. They do not have administrative privileges or full control over the system.

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55. (021) What category is an incident in which an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer/information system/network device?

Explanation

Category II refers to an incident where an unauthorized person gains user-level privileges on an Air Force computer/information system/network device. This means that the unauthorized individual has managed to access and manipulate the system or device at a level that is typically reserved for authorized users. This type of incident is considered significant as it can lead to potential security breaches and compromise sensitive information.

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56. (013) What shall be assigned to all Department of Defense information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives?

Explanation

All Department of Defense information systems that are directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives shall be assigned a mission assurance category.

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57. (029) Which media destruction option method involves the application of concentrated hydriodic acid (55 percent to 58 percent solution) to a gamma ferric oxide disk surface?

Explanation

Option C is the correct answer because it states that the method involves the application of concentrated hydriodic acid to a gamma ferric oxide disk surface. This method is used for media destruction, specifically for destroying the surface of a gamma ferric oxide disk.

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58. (035) The main source of compromising emanations is the result of

Explanation

The correct answer is "nature." Compromising emanations refer to unintentional signals or information that can be intercepted and exploited by unauthorized individuals. These emanations can come from various sources, including electronic devices, cables, and even human activities. In this context, "nature" refers to the natural environment and phenomena that can generate compromising emanations, such as electromagnetic radiation or acoustic vibrations.

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59. (021) What category is an incident in which an Air Force computer/information system/network was denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic?

Explanation

Category IV refers to an incident where an Air Force computer/information system/network is denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic. This means that the system is being flooded with unauthorized network traffic, making it impossible for legitimate users to access or use the system. This can be a result of a denial of service attack or a similar type of cyber attack.

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60. (011) With the consolidation of the several Network Operations and Security Centers (NOSC), the Air Force

Explanation

The consolidation of the several Network Operations and Security Centers (NOSC) allows the Air Force to achieve near end-to-end command and control capability. This means that the Air Force will have better control and oversight over its network operations, enabling them to effectively manage and coordinate activities across the entire network. This consolidation improves the Air Force's ability to monitor and control their network, enhancing their overall command and control capabilities.

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61. (029) From which media type must you remove the outer chassis and electronic circuit boards when practical prior to destroying?

Explanation

Core memory is a type of memory that uses tiny magnetic cores to store data. It is different from other types of memory such as disk drives, magnetic bubble memory, and solid-state storage devices, which do not require the removal of outer chassis and electronic circuit boards before destroying them. Therefore, core memory is the media type from which the outer chassis and electronic circuit boards must be removed before destroying.

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62. (022) All agencies/organizations implement information condition (INFOCON) measures except

Explanation

The correct answer is the Air Force network operating center network control division. This division is responsible for managing and controlling the Air Force network, so it would not implement information condition measures like INFOCON. On the other hand, major commands, direct reporting units, and field operating agencies are all agencies/organizations that would implement INFOCON measures as part of their responsibilities.

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63. (023) Information security-related access controls that include segregation of duties and security screening of users can be classified as which category of access preservation?

Explanation

The correct answer is Administrative. Information security-related access controls such as segregation of duties and security screening of users fall under the category of administrative access preservation. These controls are put in place to ensure that individuals have appropriate levels of access and responsibilities within an organization, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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64. (030) To ensure the integrity of the overwriting process, overwriting software must have the following functions and capabilities except?

Explanation

The overwriting software must have the following functions and capabilities: overwriting the entire hard drive independent of any input/output system/firmware capacity, compatibility with or capability to run independent of the type of hard drive being sanitized, and compatibility with or capability to run independent of the operating system loaded on the hard drive. However, it does not need to provide a validation certificate indicating that the procedure was completed properly.

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65. (031) What Standard Form label is used as a data descriptor label?

Explanation

Standard Form label 711 is used as a data descriptor label.

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66. (011) When coupled with standardized network policy, the standard desktop configuration (SDC) substantially

Explanation

The standard desktop configuration (SDC) improves network security by reducing the number of network users with administrative privileges. This means that only authorized individuals have the ability to make changes or access sensitive information, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or malicious activity. By implementing standardized network policies alongside the SDC, organizations can enhance their overall network security posture.

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67. (026) No procedures exist for cleaning which media type?

Explanation

The question asks which media type does not have procedures for cleaning. The options given are Dynamic random access memory (DRAM), Random-access memory (RAM), Programmable read-only memory (PROM), Optical Media, Static random access memory (SRAM), and Magnetic tapes. The correct answer is Programmable read-only memory and Optical Media. This means that there are procedures for cleaning DRAM, RAM, SRAM, and Magnetic tapes, but not for cleaning PROM and Optical Media.

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68. (003) To use VPN products, obtain interim approval from?

Explanation

To use VPN products, individuals are required to obtain interim approval from the Services and Integration Division (SAF/XC). This division is responsible for overseeing the implementation and integration of various services within the Air Force, including VPN products. By obtaining interim approval from SAF/XC, individuals ensure that they are following the proper protocols and guidelines for using VPN products within the Air Force network.

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69. (028) The coercivity of a Type II extended range degausser is

Explanation

A Type II extended range degausser has a coercivity range of 751 - 1000 Oe. Coercivity refers to the magnetic field strength required to remove or neutralize the residual magnetism in a material. In this case, the degausser is capable of demagnetizing materials with a coercivity within the specified range of 751 - 1000 Oe.

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70. (037) Before selecting a protective distribution system (PDS), with what two entities must the requesting agency consider other communication security (COMSEC) solutions first?

Explanation

The requesting agency must consider other communication security (COMSEC) solutions first with the Communications and Information Systems Officer (CSO) and the System Telecommunications Engineering Manager (STEM). These two entities are responsible for overseeing and managing the communication and information systems within the agency. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the agency's needs and determine if there are any existing COMSEC solutions that can be utilized before resorting to a protective distribution system (PDS). By involving the CSO and STEM, the agency can ensure that all possible options are explored before making a decision.

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71. (015) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Identification." In the context of a common access card (CAC), the identification certificate is used for verifying the identity of the individual. It is commonly used for signing and authenticating documents such as enlisted performance reports (EPRs). The identification certificate ensures that the person signing the document is the authorized individual and helps maintain the integrity and security of the information being transmitted.

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72. (009) Breaking down the packets' addresses to act as a gateway to allow traffic to pass between networks involves which transition technology?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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73.   (024) Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using AF Form 4160 every 2 years or sooner?

Explanation

Major commands conduct assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using AF Form 4160 every 2 years or sooner.

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74. (002) What is the fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM) process?

Explanation

The fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM) process is to make decisions based on overall cost versus benefit. This step involves evaluating the potential costs and benefits of different strategies to manage and mitigate risks. By considering the overall cost and benefit, organizations can make informed decisions on which strategies to implement. This step helps ensure that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently to address operational risks.

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75. (036) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

Explanation

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in the equipment zone.

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76. (040) In which phase of the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP) does the AF-DAA review the recommendations and issue an approving/authorization to operate (ATO)?

Explanation

In phase III of the DIACAP process, the AF-DAA (Air Force Designated Accrediting Authority) reviews the recommendations and issues an approving/authorization to operate (ATO). This means that in this phase, the AF-DAA evaluates the security controls and measures put in place and determines whether they are sufficient to grant authorization for the system to operate.

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77. (033) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of Department of Defense's (DOD) TEMPEST program for the Air Force?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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78. (017) Report loss or suspected loss of removable media containing controlled unclassified information (CUI) or personally identifiable information (PII) according to reporting procedures in which Air Force Instruction (AFI)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33–138, Enterprise Network Operations Notification and Tracking. This AFI provides guidance on reporting procedures for the loss or suspected loss of removable media containing controlled unclassified information (CUI) or personally identifiable information (PII). It outlines the steps that need to be taken to report such incidents, ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to mitigate the potential risks associated with the loss of sensitive information.

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79. (034) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the wing information assurance office (WIAO) use to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures?

Explanation

The wing information assurance office (WIAO) will use AFSSI 7701 to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures.

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80. (038) Who is the final authority granting approval to operate a protective distribution system (PDS)?

Explanation

The final authority granting approval to operate a protective distribution system (PDS) is the Information systems officer (ISO). This individual is responsible for overseeing the operation and security of information systems within an organization. They have the knowledge and authority to evaluate and approve the operation of a PDS, ensuring that it meets all necessary security requirements. The Air Force, Wing information assurance offices (WIAO), and Communications and information systems officer (CSO) may also play a role in the approval process, but the ISO is the final authority.

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(020) By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform...
 (015) With what agency must the contract manager validate a...
(018) What type of access is given to users who perform...
(014) Who is responsible for verifying proper security clearances and...
(007) Which protocol has the job of verifying the correct delivery of...
(007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)...
(009) Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called
(039) What is the risk outcome that results in the loss of services...
  ...
(004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second...
(005) In which network does every device have exactly two neighbors?
(037) A protective distribution system (PDS) is usually installed...
(039) What is the risk outcome that results in the physical loss of...
(033) What is the term for any equipment or area in which classified...
(008) As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many...
(016) When network password composition rules are not automatically...
(020) To virus-protect your system, make sure you perform all the...
(038) Within how many minutes should an individual respond if a...
  ...
(005) Which network integrates multiple topologies?
(031) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit...
(032) For in-transit storage, an installation commander can authorize...
(019) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating...
(020) A companion file virus is one that
(022) What is the lowest level information condition (INFOCON)?
(023) What should be implemented on desktop systems connected to...
(028) How often must a degausser be recertified for the first two...
(008) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol used to...
(010) To make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish...
(041) Cyber Surety specialists do not review information system audit...
(025) Threats that include flaws in building construction, improper...
(001) The Cyber Surety journeyman monitors all of the following...
(012) Which wireless standard originally intended to create a wireless...
(002) What minimum milli-ampere current can be lethal?
(024) Who reviews information assurance assistance program (IAAP)...
(012) Which WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive?
(006) Which class of internet protocol addresses is used for very...
(019) Whenever possible, in which environment would you run the UNIX...
(035) In basic circuit theory, if the power source is disconnected or...
(023) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
(010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and...
(041) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are...
(013) Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with
(014) Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all...
(026) Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to...
(003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data...
(019) To improve system security, several services that are preloaded...
(030) When overwriting hard drives, examine what minimum percentage to...
(017) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) guides security policy and...
(027) Sanitizing sealed disks, removable disk packs, magnetic bubble...
  ...
(034) Emissions security (EMSEC) reassessments are made when any of...
(036) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but...
  ...
(021) What category is an incident in which an unauthorized person...
(013) What shall be assigned to all Department of Defense information...
(029) Which media destruction option method involves the application...
(035) The main source of compromising emanations is the result of
(021) What category is an incident in which an Air Force...
(011) With the consolidation of the several Network Operations and...
(029) From which media type must you remove the outer chassis and...
(022) All agencies/organizations implement information condition...
(023) Information security-related access controls that include...
(030) To ensure the integrity of the overwriting process, overwriting...
(031) What Standard Form label is used as a data descriptor label?
(011) When coupled with standardized network policy, the standard...
(026) No procedures exist for cleaning which media type?
(003) To use VPN products, obtain interim approval from?
(028) The coercivity of a Type II extended range degausser is
(037) Before selecting a protective distribution system (PDS), with...
(015) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign...
(009) Breaking down the packets' addresses to act as a gateway to...
  ...
(002) What is the fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM)...
(036) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20...
(040) In which phase of the Department of Defense information...
(033) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides...
(017) Report loss or suspected loss of removable media containing...
(034) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the...
(038) Who is the final authority granting approval to operate a...
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