3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection –internal Control

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  • 1/80 Questions

    (020) By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform their jobs, you are

    • Monitoring network traffic.
    • Using the least privilege principle.
    • Using a bidirectional firewall.
    • Stopping peer-to-peer sharing.
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3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection – Internal Control URE's

3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection internal Control - Quiz

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  • 2. 

     (015) With what agency must the contract manager validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government PKI certificate?

    • Wing.

    • Air Force.

    • Department of Defense.

    • Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
    Explanation
    The contract manager must validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government PKI certificate with the Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).

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  • 3. 

    (018) What type of access is given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews?

    • Limited (general).

    • Administrative.

    • Remote user.

    • End-user.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative.
    Explanation
    Administrative access is given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews. This type of access allows users to have full control and authority over the system, including the ability to make changes, modify settings, and perform administrative tasks. It is necessary for these users to have administrative access in order to effectively carry out their responsibilities and ensure the smooth functioning of the system. Limited (general) access, remote user access, and end-user access do not provide the same level of privileges and permissions as administrative access.

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  • 4. 

    (007) Which protocol has the job of verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server?

    • Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    • Transmission control protocol (TCP).

    • Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • Internet protocol (IP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission control protocol (TCP).
    Explanation
    TCP is responsible for verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server. It ensures that all packets are received in the correct order and without errors. DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. HTTP is a protocol for transferring hypertext documents, and IP is responsible for routing packets across the internet.

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  • 5. 

    (014) Who is responsible for verifying proper security clearances and background investigation checks prior to granting a network user access to the Air Force Provisioned Portion of the Global Information Grid (AF GIG)?

    • Information assurance officer (IAO) only.

    • IAO and security manager.

    • Information assurance officer.

    • System administrator.

    Correct Answer
    A. IAO and security manager.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IAO and security manager. The responsibility for verifying proper security clearances and background investigation checks prior to granting network user access to the AF GIG lies with both the Information Assurance Officer (IAO) and the security manager. These individuals play a crucial role in ensuring that only authorized personnel are granted access to the network, thereby maintaining the security and integrity of the AF GIG. The IAO is responsible for overseeing the overall information assurance program, while the security manager is responsible for implementing and enforcing security policies and procedures. Together, they collaborate to ensure proper security measures are in place.

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  • 6. 

    (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

    • Twisted pair.

    • Fiber optic.

    • Coaxial.

    • WiFi.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber optic.
    Explanation
    Fiber optic is the correct answer because it is the only option that describes a bound media with a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic. Twisted pair, coaxial, and WiFi do not have this specific structure.

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  • 7. 

    (005) In which network does every device have exactly two neighbors?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Tree

    • Ring

    Correct Answer
    A. Ring
    Explanation
    In a ring network, every device is connected to exactly two neighbors, one on each side. This creates a circular loop where data can be transmitted in both directions. This type of network is commonly used in token ring networks, where a token is passed around the network to control access to the shared communication medium.

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  • 8. 

    (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-based network?

    • Internet protocol (IP).

    • Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • Transmission control protocol (TCP).

    • Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). DHCP is an IETF standard protocol that simplifies the process of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-based network. It allows hosts to automatically obtain IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters from a DHCP server. This eliminates the need for manual configuration, reducing the administration burden and complexity of managing network configurations.

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  • 9. 

    (009) Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called

    • Dual stack.

    • Dual layer.

    • Tunneling.

    • Peer-to-peer

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling.
    Explanation
    Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called tunneling. Tunneling is a technique that allows data to be encapsulated within a separate network protocol, creating a "tunnel" through which the data can be securely transmitted. This ensures that the communication between two points is protected from potential threats and unauthorized access. Dual stack refers to the implementation of both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols, dual layer is not a term related to secure communication, and peer-to-peer refers to a decentralized network architecture.

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  • 10. 

    (020) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a

    • Boot sector virus.

    • Worm program

    • Trojan horse

    • Macro virus

    Correct Answer
    A. Trojan horse
    Explanation
    A Trojan horse is a type of program that appears harmless or useful but actually contains or installs a malicious program. Unlike a boot sector virus, which infects the boot sector of a computer's hard drive, a worm program, which replicates itself and spreads across networks, or a macro virus, which infects documents and spreads through macros, a Trojan horse disguises itself as something legitimate to deceive users into executing it. Therefore, the correct answer is Trojan horse.

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  • 11. 

    (039) What is the risk outcome that results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system (IS) for a period of time?

    • Denial of service.

    • Modification.

    • Destruction.

    • Disclosure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial of service.
    Explanation
    The risk outcome that results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system (IS) for a period of time is denial of service. This means that the system is intentionally or unintentionally made unavailable or inaccessible to its intended users, rendering it unable to perform its functions and provide services. This can occur due to various reasons such as network congestion, hardware or software failure, or malicious attacks.

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  • 12. 

    (037) A protective distribution system (PDS) is usually installed between two

    • Controlled access areas (CAA).

    • Limited-control area (LCA).

    • Uncontrolled access areas (UAA).

    • Wing information assurance offices (WIAO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled access areas (CAA).
    Explanation
    A protective distribution system (PDS) is typically installed between two controlled access areas (CAA) because it is designed to provide secure communication and data transmission between sensitive areas. Controlled access areas have strict access controls and security measures in place to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering. By installing a PDS between two CAA, the communication and data transmission within these areas can be protected from potential threats and unauthorized access.

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  • 13. 

    (039) What is the risk outcome that results in the physical loss of assets rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement?

    • Denial of service.

    • Modification.

    • Destruction.

    • Disclosure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Destruction.
    Explanation
    Destruction is the correct answer because it refers to the risk outcome that leads to the physical loss of assets, rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement. This means that the assets are completely ruined or damaged beyond repair, making them unusable and necessitating their replacement.

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  • 14. 

    (008) As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many organizations rely upon what to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses?

    • Prefixing.

    • Subnetting.

    • Transition technology.

    • Classless Inter-Domain Routing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Subnetting.
    Explanation
    As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many organizations rely upon subnetting to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses. Subnetting allows organizations to divide a single IP network into smaller subnetworks, which helps in efficiently utilizing the available IP addresses. By dividing the network into smaller subnets, organizations can allocate IP addresses only to the devices that require them, reducing wastage and conserving IP addresses. This allows organizations to accommodate more devices within the limited pool of IP addresses provided by IP V6.

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  • 15. 

    (016) When network password composition rules are not automatically enforced, what process should network administrators use to enforce good password stringency?

    • Cracking.

    • Evaluation.

    • Identification.

    • Authentication.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cracking.
  • 16. 

    (020) To virus-protect your system, make sure you perform all the following steps except

    • Log off your computer daily.

    • Install the latest service packs.

    • Update your anti-virus software.

    • Watch for files with .exe, .com, .bat. and .scr attachments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Log off your computer daily.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Log off your computer daily." This step is not directly related to virus protection. Logging off your computer daily helps to protect your privacy and prevent unauthorized access, but it does not specifically protect against viruses. The other three steps mentioned - installing the latest service packs, updating anti-virus software, and watching for files with certain attachments - are all important for virus protection.

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  • 17. 

    (033) What is the term for any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?

    • TEMPEST.

    • BLACK.

    • EMSEC.

    • RED.

    Correct Answer
    A. RED.
    Explanation
    The term "RED" refers to any equipment or area in which classified information is processed. This term is commonly used in the context of information security and is associated with the highest level of classification.

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  • 18. 

    (005) Which network integrates multiple topologies?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Tree

    • Ring

    Correct Answer
    A. Tree
    Explanation
    A tree network integrates multiple topologies because it is a combination of multiple star topologies connected to a central bus. Each star topology represents a branch of the tree, with devices connected to a central hub or switch, and all the branches are connected to the central bus. This allows for a hierarchical structure and efficient communication between devices in different branches of the tree network.

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  • 19. 

    (038) Within how many minutes should an individual respond if a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    When a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated, an individual should respond within 15 minutes. This quick response time is necessary to address any potential issues or threats that the alarm is indicating. By responding promptly, the individual can assess the situation, take appropriate action, and ensure the safety and functionality of the protective distribution system.

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  • 20. 

    Air Force information systems must complete the information technology (IT) Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless these systems have been designated as a

    • SPACE or SAP/SAR.

    • Major command.

    • Department of the Air Force.

    • Department of Defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. SPACE or SAP/SAR.
    Explanation
    Air Force information systems must complete the information technology (IT) Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless these systems have been designated as a SPACE or SAP/SAR. This means that if an information system has been designated as a SPACE or SAP/SAR, it does not need to go through the IT Lean process to obtain approval to operate.

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  • 21. 

    (031) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit the use of, government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?

    • Major command.

    • Wing commander.

    • Designated approving authority.

    • Officer in charge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Designated approving authority.
    Explanation
    The designated approving authority has the authority to impose restrictions upon and prohibit the use of government-owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks. This individual is responsible for approving the use of these storage media and ensuring that proper security measures are in place to protect classified information.

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  • 22. 

    (032) For in-transit storage, an installation commander can authorize what classifications to be kept on the flightline?

    • Secret and Top Secret.

    • Confidential and Secret.

    • Unclassified and Confidential.

    • All classifications may be kept on the flightline.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidential and Secret.
    Explanation
    For in-transit storage on the flightline, an installation commander can authorize the classifications of Confidential and Secret. This means that only items with these classifications can be stored in this area. Other classifications such as Top Secret or Unclassified may not be authorized for storage on the flightline.

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  • 23. 

    (019) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and its other products, Microsoft releases

    • Notices.

    • Postings.

    • Bulletins.

    • Announcements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulletins.
    Explanation
    When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and its other products, Microsoft releases bulletins. Bulletins are official documents or announcements that provide information about the vulnerabilities and offer guidance on how to mitigate them. These bulletins typically include details about the vulnerability, its potential impact, and the steps that users can take to protect their systems. By releasing bulletins, Microsoft aims to inform its users about the vulnerabilities and help them keep their systems secure.

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  • 24. 

    (020) A companion file virus is one that

    • Writes itself before the original file.

    • Writes itself to the end of the original file.

    • Writes itself between file sections of 32-bit file.

    • Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.

    Correct Answer
    A. Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.
    Explanation
    A companion file virus is a type of virus that renames the original file and writes itself with the original file's name. This means that the virus disguises itself as the original file, making it difficult to detect. By renaming the file and replacing it with the virus, the user may unknowingly execute the virus instead of the intended file, allowing the virus to spread and potentially cause harm to the system.

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  • 25. 

    (022) What is the lowest level information condition (INFOCON)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 5

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The lowest level information condition (INFOCON) is 5. This level indicates that there is no current threat to the information systems and no specific actions need to be taken to protect them. This means that the systems are operating normally and there is no immediate risk or danger to the information.

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  • 26. 

    (023) What should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when the system is powered up?

    • War-dialing.

    • BIOS password.

    • Time-out feature.

    • Secure network location.

    Correct Answer
    A. BIOS password.
    Explanation
    A BIOS password should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when it is powered up. This password is set in the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) of the computer and acts as an additional layer of security. It prevents unauthorized access to the system by requiring a password to be entered before the operating system can be loaded. This helps ensure that only authorized individuals can gain control of the system and protect sensitive information and resources.

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  • 27. 

    (028) How often must a degausser be recertified for the first two years of operation?

    • Every 3 months.

    • Every 6 months.

    • Every 12 months.

    • Only once during the first two years.

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 6 months.
    Explanation
    A degausser is a device used to erase magnetic data from storage media. It is important to recertify a degausser regularly to ensure its effectiveness and accuracy. The correct answer states that a degausser must be recertified every 6 months for the first two years of operation. This means that the device should undergo a certification process every half year to ensure that it is working properly and meeting the required standards.

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  • 28. 

    (001) The Cyber Surety journeyman monitors all of the following programs except

    • Communications security (COMSEC).

    • Computer security (COMPUSEC).

    • Information security (INFOSEC).

    • Emissions security (EMSEC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Information security (INFOSEC).
    Explanation
    The Cyber Surety journeyman is responsible for monitoring and ensuring the security of various programs. This includes communications security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and emissions security (EMSEC). However, the journeyman does not monitor information security (INFOSEC) as it is not listed as one of their responsibilities.

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  • 29. 

    (008) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called?

    • Routing prefix.

    • Hierarchy.

    • Subnet.

    • Mask.

    Correct Answer
    A. Routing prefix.
    Explanation
    The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called the routing prefix. This prefix helps in determining the network address and allows routers to efficiently route packets to their destination. It is an essential component of IP addressing and plays a crucial role in network communication.

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  • 30. 

    (010) To make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, administrators must be in the habit of

    • Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    • Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

    • Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • Installing all applicable security patches.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
    Explanation
    To ensure that replacement administrators can perform the same tasks as their predecessors, it is essential for administrators to maintain comprehensive and precise documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference and guide for new administrators, enabling them to understand the network setup, make necessary changes, and troubleshoot any issues effectively. By documenting configuration changes, administrators can ensure continuity and prevent any disruptions or errors that may arise from miscommunication or lack of information. This practice also promotes accountability and transparency within the network administration team.

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  • 31. 

    (025) Threats that include flaws in building construction, improper implementation of utilities, inadequate wiring, and poor housekeeping practices can be best classified as what type of threat?

    • Human.

    • Technological.

    • Unintentional.

    • Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental.
    Explanation
    Threats that include flaws in building construction, improper implementation of utilities, inadequate wiring, and poor housekeeping practices are best classified as environmental threats. These threats arise from the physical environment and can cause damage or harm to individuals or property. They are not caused by human actions, technology, or unintentional mistakes, but rather by the conditions and elements present in the surrounding environment.

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  • 32. 

    (041) Cyber Surety specialists do not review information system audit logs to

    • Ensure system vulnerabilities are identified.

    • Ensure system penetrations are identified.

    • Report fraud, waste and abuse.

    • Report a rudimentary inquiry.

    Correct Answer
    A. Report fraud, waste and abuse.
    Explanation
    Cyber Surety specialists are responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of information systems. They review information system audit logs to identify any instances of fraud, waste, and abuse. This involves analyzing the logs to detect any suspicious activities or unauthorized access attempts. By reporting such incidents, the specialists help in preventing any potential harm or misuse of the system. Therefore, the correct answer is to report fraud, waste, and abuse.

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  • 33. 

    (002) What minimum milli-ampere current can be lethal?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    A minimum milli-ampere current of 50 can be lethal. This suggests that any current below 50 milli-amperes is not enough to cause harm or be lethal.

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  • 34. 

    (012) Which wireless standard originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?

    • WiFi protected access (WPA).

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    • Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).
    Explanation
    Wired equivalency privacy (WEP) is the correct answer because it was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption. WEP was the first security protocol used in Wi-Fi networks, but it is now considered to be weak and easily compromised.

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  • 35. 

    (006) Which class of internet protocol addresses is used for very large networks?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Class A internet protocol addresses are used for very large networks. Class A addresses have a first octet range of 1-126, which allows for a large number of hosts in the network. These addresses are typically assigned to organizations or institutions that require a large number of IP addresses for their network infrastructure.

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  • 36. 

    (012) Which WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive?

    • 802.11a

    • 802.11b

    • 802.11g

    • 802.11n

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11b
    Explanation
    802.11b is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard. Although it operates at a lower frequency than other standards, it still provides a decent speed for basic internet browsing and email. It is the most affordable option for those on a budget or with older devices that do not support newer WiFi standards.

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  • 37. 

    (024) Who reviews information assurance assistance program (IAAP) reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when it is clear that incidents or deviations are involved?

    • Headquarters Air Force Network Integration Center (HQ AFNIC).

    • Major command commanders.

    • Squadron commanders.

    • Wing commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Headquarters Air Force Network Integration Center (HQ AFNIC).
    Explanation
    HQ AFNIC reviews IAAP reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when incidents or deviations are involved.

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  • 38. 

    (019) Whenever possible, in which environment would you run the UNIX Apache server?

    • Chmod.

    • Chown.

    • Chroot.

    • Chgrp.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chroot.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is chroot. Running the UNIX Apache server in a chroot environment provides an added layer of security. Chroot allows the server process to be confined to a specific directory, preventing it from accessing the rest of the system. This helps to limit the potential damage that can be caused by a compromised server.

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  • 39. 

    (023) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

    • Digital.

    • Biometric.

    • Encryption.

    • E-mail signing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Digital.
    Explanation
    A digital certificate is a type of certificate that is used to authenticate the identity of the user. It is a digital document that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted authority. The certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in various online transactions and communications.

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  • 40. 

    (035) In basic circuit theory, if the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, then there is a loss of

    • Battery.

    • Signal.

    • Circuit.

    • Path.

    Correct Answer
    A. Signal.
    Explanation
    If the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, there will be a loss of signal. This is because the power source provides the necessary energy for the signal to be transmitted through the circuit. Without power, the signal cannot be sustained and will be lost.

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  • 41. 

    (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while

    • Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    • Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats

    • Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • Installing all applicable security patches.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats
    Explanation
    Consistently monitoring and controlling networked resources is important to ensure access to the network while minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats. By regularly monitoring the network, potential vulnerabilities or suspicious activities can be identified and addressed promptly. Additionally, by implementing controls and security measures, the network can be protected from unauthorized access or malicious attacks. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes is also crucial as it helps in tracking and auditing any changes made to the network, ensuring accountability and facilitating troubleshooting if any issues arise. Installing all applicable security patches is important but it alone does not address the broader goal of minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

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  • 42. 

    (013) Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with

    • Information classification.

    • Mission assurance.

    • Need-to-know.

    • Sensitivity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission assurance.
    Explanation
    Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with mission assurance. Mission assurance refers to the measures taken to ensure the successful accomplishment of a mission or objective. In the context of information, availability refers to the accessibility and usability of information, while integrity refers to the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of information. Therefore, mission assurance encompasses the requirements for both availability and integrity of information to ensure the successful completion of a mission.

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  • 43. 

    (014) Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users ensures all of the following except that users

    • Are aware of their role in IA.

    • Are trained on network security.

    • Have met investigative requirements.

    • Have satisfied network access requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have met investigative requirements.
    Explanation
    Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users ensures that users are aware of their role in IA, are trained on network security, and have satisfied network access requirements. However, it does not ensure that users have met investigative requirements. This means that the training does not guarantee that users have completed any necessary investigations or background checks that may be required for certain roles or access levels within the network.

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  • 44. 

    (041) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with approval from

    • The wing commander.

    • The major command commander.

    • Air Force network operations center (AFNOC).

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force network operations center (AFNOC).
    Explanation
    ASIM transcripts are controlled and released only with approval from the Air Force network operations center (AFNOC). This suggests that AFNOC has the authority and responsibility to manage and oversee the release of ASIM transcripts. The wing commander, major command commander, and Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) may have their own roles and responsibilities in security incidents, but in this case, it is specifically stated that AFNOC is the entity that controls the release of ASIM transcripts.

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  • 45. 

    (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?

    • Global Network

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    • Wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless wide area network (WWAN).
    Explanation
    A wireless wide area network (WWAN) is a type of network that typically provides wireless broadband data services. WWANs cover large areas, such as cities or even entire countries, and are used to connect devices to the internet or other networks without the need for physical cables. This type of network is commonly used by mobile network operators to provide internet access to mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, and is often associated with technologies like 3G, 4G, or 5G.

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  • 46. 

    (026) Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to clear which media type?

    • Dynamic random access memory and Random-access memory.

    • Programmable read-only memory and Optical Media.

    • Static random access memory.

    • Magnetic tapes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetic tapes.
    Explanation
    Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to clear magnetic tapes. Degaussing is the process of erasing or demagnetizing the data stored on magnetic media. Magnetic tapes use magnetic particles to store data, and degaussing is necessary to completely remove all traces of data from the tapes. NSA-approved degaussers ensure that the degaussing process meets specific security standards set by the National Security Agency. Therefore, magnetic tapes can only be effectively cleared using an NSA-approved degausser.

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  • 47. 

    (019) To improve system security, several services that are preloaded on many UNIX systems can be disabled except

    • Rsh.

    • Rlogin.

    • Telnet.

    • Rfinger.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rfinger.
    Explanation
    To improve system security, it is recommended to disable unnecessary services that come preloaded on UNIX systems. This helps to reduce the attack surface and potential vulnerabilities. Out of the given options, rfinger is the service that can be disabled. Rfinger is used to retrieve information about users on a remote system, but it is considered a security risk as it can provide valuable information to attackers. Disabling rfinger helps to protect the system from potential unauthorized access and information leakage.

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  • 48. 

    (030) When overwriting hard drives, examine what minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process?

    • 10

    • 20

    • 50

    • 70

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
    Explanation
    When overwriting hard drives, it is important to verify the overwriting process to ensure that the data has been successfully overwritten and cannot be recovered. The minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process indicates the minimum amount of data that should be checked after the overwrite. In this case, the correct answer of 20 suggests that at least 20% of the data should be verified to ensure the effectiveness of the overwrite process.

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  • 49. 

    (017) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) guides security policy and guidance for government contractors?

    • AFI 33–332, Privacy Act Program.

    • AFI 31–401, Information Security Program Management.

    • AFI 31–501, Personnel Security Program Management.

    • AFI 31–601, Industrial Security Program Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 31–601, Industrial Security Program Management.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Bmx41992

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