3D053 V1 & 2 2018

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  • 1/175 Questions

    2. (001) Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments?

    • A. Client Systems (3D1X1).
    • B. Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
    • C. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
    • D. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
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About This Quiz

This 3D053 V1 & 2 2018 quiz assesses knowledge in cyber surety roles, focusing on duties such as intrusion detection and firewall protection, client systems management, and risk management processes. It is crucial for personnel in cyber operations and security.

3D053 V1 & 2 2018 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    5. (002) Human error causes approximately what percentage of all accidents?

    • A. 40.

    • B. 60.

    • C. 75.

    • D. 95.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 95.
    Explanation
    Human error is responsible for the majority of accidents, accounting for approximately 95% of all incidents. This means that the vast majority of accidents can be attributed to mistakes or failures on the part of individuals, rather than external factors or mechanical failures. This highlights the importance of human factors and the need for effective training, procedures, and systems to minimize the risk of errors and prevent accidents from occurring.

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  • 3. 

    7. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

    • A. CAT–6

    • B. Coaxial

    • C. Fiber optic.

    • D. Twisted pair

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Fiber optic.
    Explanation
    Fiber optic is the correct answer because it is the only option that describes a bound media with a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic. CAT-6, coaxial, and twisted pair do not have this specific structure.

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  • 4. 

    8. (004) Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?

    • A. Fiber optic.

    • B. Terrestrial.

    • C. Radio frequency.

    • D. Satellite microwave.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Fiber optic.
    Explanation
    Fiber optic is not an example of unbound media because it uses physical cables to transmit data signals. Unbound media refers to wireless communication methods that do not require physical cables, such as terrestrial, radio frequency, and satellite microwave.

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  • 5. 

    9. (005) In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?

    • A. Bus.

    • B. Star.

    • C. Ring.

    • D. Tree.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Bus.
    Explanation
    In a bus topology, a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network sends a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see. However, only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes the message. This is because in a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single communication line, and the message travels along the line for all devices to see. However, each device has its own unique address, and only the device with the matching address accepts and processes the message.

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  • 6. 

    10. (006) When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?

    • A. 4.

    • B. 6.

    • C. 8.

    • D. 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 8.
    Explanation
    Each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has 8 positions when viewed in binary form. In binary representation, each position can have a value of either 0 or 1, allowing for a total of 8 possible positions or bits in each octet.

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  • 7. 

    14. (006) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a

    • A. mask.

    • B. subnet.

    • C. hierarchy.

    • D. routing prefix.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. routing prefix.
    Explanation
    The sequence of leading bits in an IP address that identifies the network portion is called a routing prefix. This prefix is used in routing tables to determine the appropriate network for forwarding packets. It helps in efficiently routing traffic to the correct destination by identifying the network segment of the IP address. The routing prefix is an essential component in the IP addressing scheme and plays a crucial role in the functioning of IP networks.

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  • 8. 

    16. (007) Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) by default?

    • A. 50.

    • B. 80.

    • C. 5050.

    • D. 8080.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 80.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. 80. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) uses TCP port 80 by default. TCP port 80 is the standard port for serving HTTP traffic on the internet. When a client sends an HTTP request to a server, it will typically connect to port 80 on the server's IP address. This allows the server to receive and process the HTTP request and send back the corresponding HTTP response.

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  • 9. 

    17. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) based network?

    • A. Internet protocol (IP).

    • B. Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • C. Transmission control protocol (TCP).

    • D. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
    Explanation
    The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IETF standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP based network. DHCP allows network administrators to centrally manage and automate the process of assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters to hosts on a network. This eliminates the need for manual configuration of each individual host and simplifies the network administration process.

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  • 10. 

    19. (008) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

    • A. 0 to 1023.

    • B. 1024 to 23535.

    • C. 23536 to 49151.

    • D. 49152 to 65535.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 0 to 1023.
    Explanation
    The well-known ports are the port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023. These ports are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) and are commonly used for specific protocols and services such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These ports are considered "well-known" because they are widely recognized and used by many applications and operating systems.

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  • 11. 

    21. (008) Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?

    • A. 21.

    • B. 22.

    • C. 60.

    • D. 80.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 80.
    Explanation
    Port 80 is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP). HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting and receiving information on the World Wide Web. When a user enters a website address in their browser, the browser sends an HTTP request to the server hosting the website on port 80. The server then responds with the requested web page, which is displayed in the user's browser. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP, although it can be changed if necessary.

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  • 12. 

    23. (008) Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?

    • A. Fragment packets.

    • B. Synchronous (SYN) scan.

    • C. User datagram protocol (UDP) scan.

    • D. Transmission control protocol (TCP) scan.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Synchronous (SYN) scan.
    Explanation
    A half open scan, also known as a SYN scan, is a type of scan that sends a SYN packet to a target port. This scan is considered "half open" because it does not complete the full TCP handshake. Instead, it waits for a response from the target. If the target responds with a SYN-ACK packet, it means the port is open. If the target responds with a RST packet, it means the port is closed. This type of scan is commonly used for reconnaissance and vulnerability assessment purposes.

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  • 13. 

    30. (011) What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?

    • A. 802.11a.

    • B. 802.11b.

    • C. 802.11g.

    • D. 802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 802.11n.
    Explanation
    The newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available is 802.11n. This standard offers faster speeds and better range compared to previous standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. It also supports multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which allows for improved performance in crowded environments with multiple devices connected to the network. 802.11n is backward compatible with older WiFi standards, making it compatible with a wide range of devices.

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  • 14. 

    37. (014) The definition of integrity as it’s applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • A. having information ready when needed.

    • B. not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • C. the protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission. This answer accurately describes the concept of integrity in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption. Integrity ensures that information remains unchanged and unaltered, providing assurance that unauthorized modifications or destruction have not occurred.

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  • 15. 

    38. (014) Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least what type of secure socket layer?

    • A. 32-bit.

    • B. 64-bit.

    • C. 128-bit.

    • D. 256-bit.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 128-bit.
    Explanation
    Logon and password management screens must be encrypted to ensure the security of user credentials. Encryption with a 128-bit secure socket layer provides a strong level of security, making it difficult for unauthorized individuals to intercept and decipher the transmitted data. A higher bit encryption, such as 256-bit, would offer even stronger security, but 128-bit encryption is commonly used and considered sufficient for most applications. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 128-bit.

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  • 16. 

    39. (014) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?

    • A. Digital.

    • B. Biometric.

    • C. Encryption.

    • D. Identification.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Identification.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "d. Identification" because when signing an enlisted performance report (EPR) with a common access card (CAC) certificate, the identification certificate is used. This certificate is used to verify the identity of the individual signing the document. The other options, such as digital, biometric, and encryption certificates, do not specifically pertain to the purpose of signing an EPR.

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  • 17. 

    40. (014) What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provide?

    • A. Integrity.

    • B. Availability.

    • C. Confidentiality.

    • D. Non-repudiation.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Non-repudiation.
    Explanation
    The common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provides non-repudiation. Non-repudiation means that the sender of the e-mail cannot deny sending it, as the CAC certificate ensures that the message is digitally signed and authenticated. This provides evidence of the sender's identity and prevents them from later claiming that they did not send the email.

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  • 18. 

    41. (014) The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?

    • A. Wing (WG).

    • B. Air Force (AF).

    • C. Department of Defense (DOD).

    • D. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA). The contract manager must use the LRA/TA to validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate. The LRA/TA is responsible for verifying the identity and need of individuals requesting PKI certificates within a specific organization or agency. They ensure that only authorized individuals have access to PKI certificates, which are used for secure communication and authentication purposes.

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  • 19. 

    44. (017) Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?

    • A. End-user.

    • B. Remote user.

    • C. Administrative.

    • D. Limited (general).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Administrative.
    Explanation
    Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given administrative access. This type of access allows them to have full control and authority over the system, including the ability to make changes, modify settings, and troubleshoot issues. Administrative access is typically granted to individuals who have the knowledge and expertise to handle these tasks and ensure the proper functioning of the system.

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  • 20. 

    46. (018) Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered

    • A. threats.

    • B. exploits.

    • C. vulnerabilities.

    • D. breaches of security.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. vulnerabilities.
    Explanation
    Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered vulnerabilities because they expose the system to potential threats and can be exploited by attackers. Vulnerabilities can include software bugs, misconfigurations, or design flaws that can be leveraged to compromise the security of a system. By identifying and addressing vulnerabilities, organizations can strengthen their security posture and reduce the risk of breaches or exploits.

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  • 21. 

    47. (018) Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?

    • A. Shutting down ports.

    • B. Using strong passwords.

    • C. Ensuring remote access.

    • D. Disabling unused/unneeded services.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Ensuring remote access.
    Explanation
    The option "Ensuring remote access" is not involved when securing a UNIX system. Securing a UNIX system typically involves shutting down ports to prevent unauthorized access, using strong passwords to protect user accounts, and disabling unused/unneeded services to reduce potential vulnerabilities. However, ensuring remote access is not directly related to securing the system, as it focuses on enabling and managing remote connections rather than implementing security measures.

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  • 22. 

    55. (020) When classified information is inadvertently sent through unclassified e-mail it is considered

    • A. an e-mail incident.

    • B. a message incident.

    • C. a classified e-mail incident.

    • D. a classified message incident.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. a classified message incident.
    Explanation
    When classified information is accidentally sent through unclassified email, it is considered a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information has been transmitted through an unauthorized channel, potentially compromising its confidentiality and security. It is important to handle classified information with utmost care and follow proper protocols to avoid such incidents.

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  • 23. 

    58. (023) What determines the number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization?

    • A. Number of information systems.

    • B. Number of personnel assigned.

    • C. Type of organization.

    • D. Mission need.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Mission need.
    Explanation
    The number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization is determined by the mission need. This means that the organization will assess its specific requirements and determine how many alternate IAOs are needed to fulfill those needs. The number of information systems, personnel assigned, and the type of organization may be factors that influence the mission need, but they are not the direct determinants of the number of alternate IAOs.

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  • 24. 

    74. (028) Which term identifies any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?

    • A. TEMPEST.

    • B. BLACK.

    • C. EMSEC.

    • D. RED.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. RED.
    Explanation
    The term "RED" identifies any equipment or area in which classified information is processed. This term is commonly used in the context of security clearances and access levels. It is likely that "RED" refers to a high level of security clearance and strict protocols for handling classified information.

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  • 25. 

    83. (030) In which information assurance control must an organization ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user?

    • A. Risk Assessment (RA).

    • B. Personnel Security (PS).

    • C. Audit and Accountability (AU).

    • D. System and Information Integrity (SI).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Audit and Accountability (AU).
    Explanation
    In order to trace individual information system user actions back to the user, an organization must implement controls related to audit and accountability. This control ensures that all user activities are logged and monitored, allowing for the identification of specific users responsible for certain actions. By implementing effective audit and accountability measures, organizations can enhance their ability to detect and investigate security incidents, as well as hold individuals accountable for their actions within the information system.

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  • 26. 

    86. (031) What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to?

    • A. Major General (O–8).

    • B. Brigadier General (O–7).

    • C. Colonel (O–6).

    • D. Lieutenant Colonel (O–5).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Colonel (O–6).
    Explanation
    The minimum rank that the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to is a Colonel (O-6). This means that a Colonel has the authority to approve AFIN connections without needing higher-level authorization.

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  • 27. 

    90. (033) Which of the following is not a phase in the information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process?

    • A. Design.

    • B. Define need.

    • C. Build and test.

    • D. Define need review.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Define need review.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for a phase that is not part of the information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process. The correct answer is d. Define need review. This phase is not typically included in the IT Lean reengineering process, which typically includes phases such as design, define need, and build and test. The define need review phase may be a separate step in other processes, but it is not specifically mentioned as part of the IT Lean reengineering process.

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  • 28. 

    6. (202) Who requires that the communications security account manager (CAM) be formally trained to certify the training of local management device/key processor (LMD/KP) platform users?

    • A. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

    • B. Cryptologic Systems Division (CPSD).

    • C. National Security Agency (NSA).

    • D. Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. National Security Agency (NSA).
    Explanation
    The National Security Agency (NSA) requires that the communications security account manager (CAM) be formally trained to certify the training of local management device/key processor (LMD/KP) platform users. This indicates that the NSA has specific requirements and standards for the training and certification of individuals using the LMD/KP platform. The other options, such as the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Cryptologic Systems Division (CPSD), and Major command (MAJCOM), are not mentioned as having this requirement.

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  • 29. 

    8. (203) Who assists the communications security account manager (CAM) in his or her day-to-day duties?

    • A. Communications security responsible officer (CRO).

    • B. Communications access program (CAP) assistant.

    • C. Communications security accountant.

    • D. Security manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Communications security accountant.
    Explanation
    The communications security account manager (CAM) is responsible for managing the communications security program. The CAM ensures that all communications systems and equipment are properly secured and that all personnel are trained in communications security procedures. The CAM is assisted in their day-to-day duties by a communications security accountant, who helps with financial management and budgeting for the program. The communications security accountant helps the CAM track expenses and ensure that funds are allocated appropriately for the program's needs.

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  • 30. 

    11. (205) Who performs the semiannual inspections and audits on the base communications security (COMSEC) account?

    • A. Communications security responsible officer (CRO).

    • B. Communications security account manager (CAM).

    • C. COMSEC accountant.

    • D. Security manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Communications security account manager (CAM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Communications security account manager (CAM). The CAM is responsible for performing semiannual inspections and audits on the base communications security (COMSEC) account. They ensure that proper procedures are followed, equipment is properly maintained, and any discrepancies or vulnerabilities are addressed. The CAM plays a crucial role in maintaining the security of the COMSEC account and ensuring that it is in compliance with regulations and guidelines.

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  • 31. 

    19. (209) Which of the following requirements would make a person ineligible for the cryptographic access program (CAP)?

    • A. Hold an interim security clearance.

    • B. Have a final security clearance.

    • C. Be a DOD cleared contractor.

    • D. Be a US citizen.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Hold an interim security clearance.
    Explanation
    A person holding an interim security clearance would be ineligible for the cryptographic access program (CAP). This is because the CAP requires individuals to have a final security clearance, not just an interim clearance. Therefore, option a is the correct answer.

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  • 32. 

    23. (210) Which type of security clearance is not valid for personnel on a communications security (COMSEC) access list?

    • A. A final security clearance.

    • B. An interim security clearance.

    • C. A clearance equal to the COMSEC being accessed.

    • D. A clearance higher than the COMSEC being accessed.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. An interim security clearance.
    Explanation
    An interim security clearance is not valid for personnel on a communications security (COMSEC) access list because it is a temporary clearance that is granted on a provisional basis while a full investigation is being conducted. This type of clearance does not provide the same level of trust and confidence as a final security clearance, which is a more thorough and comprehensive investigation. Therefore, personnel on a COMSEC access list must have a final security clearance or a clearance equal to or higher than the level of COMSEC being accessed to ensure the protection of sensitive information.

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  • 33. 

    26. (211) At a minimum, how often must you review the communications security (COMSEC) access list?

    • A. Every week.

    • B. Every two weeks.

    • C. Once a month.

    • D. Every six months.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Once a month.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Once a month. The communications security (COMSEC) access list contains the names of individuals who are authorized to access and handle sensitive information. Reviewing the access list once a month ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the information, reducing the risk of unauthorized disclosure or compromise. Regular review is necessary to keep the access list up to date and to promptly remove any individuals who no longer require access.

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  • 34. 

    29. (213) When an error or anomaly is detected upon receipt/inspection of communications security (COMSEC) material, who sends a message to DIRNSA/I31132?

    • A. Unit commander.

    • B. Security manager.

    • C. Communications security account manager (CAM).

    • D. Communication security responsible officer (CRO).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Communications security account manager (CAM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Communications security account manager (CAM). The CAM is responsible for managing the COMSEC accounts and ensuring the proper handling and safeguarding of COMSEC materials. When an error or anomaly is detected upon receipt or inspection of COMSEC material, the CAM would send a message to DIRNSA/I31132 to report the issue and seek guidance on how to resolve it. The unit commander, security manager, and communication security responsible officer (CRO) may also be involved in the process, but the CAM is specifically responsible for communicating with DIRNSA/I31132 in this situation.

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  • 35. 

    43. (219) Who requests disposition instructions for communications security (COMSEC) material?

    • A. Unit commander.

    • B. COMSEC material user.

    • C. Communications security account manager (CAM).

    • D. Cryptographic access program (CAP) administrator.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Communications security account manager (CAM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Communications security account manager (CAM). The CAM is responsible for managing and overseeing the distribution and disposition of COMSEC material. They are the point of contact for requesting instructions on how to properly handle and dispose of COMSEC material. The unit commander may have some authority over the material, but the CAM is specifically designated to handle these responsibilities. The COMSEC material user and the CAP administrator may have some involvement in the process, but they are not the primary individuals responsible for requesting disposition instructions.

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  • 36. 

    44. (219) Who may destroy communications security (COMSEC) material?

    • A. Communications security account manager (CAM) or any responsible person on the COMSEC access list

    • B. Communications security responsible officer (CRO).

    • C. Alternate CAM only.

    • D. CAM only.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Communications security account manager (CAM) or any responsible person on the COMSEC access list
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Communications security account manager (CAM) or any responsible person on the COMSEC access list. This means that the CAM, who is responsible for managing the communications security, has the authority to destroy the COMSEC material. Additionally, any person who is listed on the COMSEC access list and is deemed responsible can also destroy the material. This ensures that only authorized individuals with the necessary knowledge and expertise can handle and dispose of the sensitive COMSEC material.

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  • 37. 

    51. (221) What provides the special protection of Top Secret (TS) communications security (COMSEC) material that is needed to help prevent otherwise avoidable problems from happening?

    • A. Two-person control (TPC).

    • B. Two-person integrity (TPI).

    • C. Cryptographic access program (CAP).

    • D. Communications security management system (CMS).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Two-person integrity (TPI).
    Explanation
    Two-person integrity (TPI) provides the special protection of Top Secret (TS) communications security (COMSEC) material that is needed to help prevent otherwise avoidable problems from happening. TPI ensures that two authorized individuals are required to be present at all times when handling or accessing TS COMSEC material. This measure reduces the risk of unauthorized access, theft, or tampering with the material, thus enhancing the security and integrity of the communications.

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  • 38. 

    54. (223) When you are performing courier duties and transporting bulky communication security (COMSEC) material through the airlines, when is it acceptable to leave the COMSEC material unattended?

    • A. Under no circumstances.

    • B. When it is in a baggage claim area.

    • C. When it is loaded on a cargo dock.

    • D. When it is passed on to authorized airport personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Under no circumstances.
    Explanation
    It is never acceptable to leave COMSEC material unattended when performing courier duties and transporting it through airlines. This is because COMSEC material is highly sensitive and classified, and leaving it unattended poses a significant security risk. It must be constantly monitored and protected to prevent unauthorized access or theft. Therefore, under no circumstances should COMSEC material be left unattended.

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  • 39. 

    71. (233) Who provides formal classroom training to instruct aircrews on how to establish and maintain communications?

    • A. Pilots.

    • B. Communications security manager (CAM).

    • C. Information system security officer (ISSO).

    • D. Combat Crew Communications (CCC) technician.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Combat Crew Communications (CCC) technician.
    Explanation
    Combat Crew Communications (CCC) technicians provide formal classroom training to instruct aircrews on how to establish and maintain communications. They are responsible for ensuring that aircrews are trained on the proper use of communication equipment and protocols to ensure effective communication during missions. This includes training on radio procedures, encryption devices, and other communication systems. The CCC technician plays a crucial role in ensuring that aircrews are prepared and knowledgeable in communication procedures to support mission success.

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  • 40. 

    76. (235) Who is responsible for building, issuing, and recovering comm kits?

    • A. Pilots.

    • B. Communications security manager (CAM).

    • C. Information system security officer (ISSO).

    • D. Combat Crew Communications (CCC) technician.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Combat Crew Communications (CCC) technician.
    Explanation
    The Combat Crew Communications (CCC) technician is responsible for building, issuing, and recovering communication kits. This role is specifically assigned to handle the communication equipment used by the combat crew during their operations. The CCC technician ensures that the kits are properly assembled, distributed to the crew members, and collected back after the mission. They play a crucial role in maintaining effective communication within the crew and ensuring the security and functionality of the communication equipment.

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  • 41. 

    1. (001) Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?

    • A. Sustain cryptographic equipment.

    • B. Install and maintain servers or other computer systems.

    • C. Manage data, information, and knowledge sharing services.

    • D. Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.
    Explanation
    A cyber surety journeyman is responsible for performing detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection. This means that they are tasked with monitoring computer systems and networks for any unauthorized access or malicious activities. They are also responsible for ensuring that firewall protection is in place to prevent unauthorized access and protect sensitive information. This duty is crucial in maintaining the security and integrity of computer systems and networks, and preventing cyber threats and attacks.

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  • 42. 

    12. (006) Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?

    • A. B.

    • B. C.

    • C. D.

    • D. E.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. E.
    Explanation
    Class E IP addresses are reserved for experimental purposes and are not used for normal network operations. These addresses range from 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 and are not assigned to any specific organization or location. They are meant for research, development, and testing purposes, and should not be used in production networks.

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  • 43. 

    15. (007) Which protocol does the Internet support as the “language” computers use to find and connect with each other?

    • A. User datagram protocol (UDP).

    • B. Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    • D. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
    Explanation
    The internet supports the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as the "language" computers use to find and connect with each other. TCP/IP is a set of protocols that allows for reliable and secure communication between devices on the internet. It provides a standardized method for breaking data into packets, routing them across networks, and reassembling them at the destination. TCP/IP is the foundation of the internet and is used for various applications such as web browsing, email, file transfer, and more.

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  • 44. 

    18. (008) A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as

    • A. a port.

    • B. a protocol.

    • C. a service point.

    • D. an entrance point.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. a port.
    Explanation
    A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as a port. A port is a specific endpoint of communication in an operating system or network. It allows different applications or devices to send and receive data. Ports are identified by numbers and are used to establish connections between devices or services.

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  • 45. 

    20. (008) Which port is used for telnet?

    • A. 7.

    • B. 20.

    • C. 23.

    • D. 53.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 23.
    Explanation
    Telnet is a protocol used for remote login and command execution on a remote computer. It operates on port 23 by default. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 23.

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  • 46. 

    22. (008) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?

    • A. Strobe scan.

    • B. Sweep scan.

    • C. Fragment packet scan.

    • D. File transfer protocol (FTP) bounce scan.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Sweep scan.
    Explanation
    A sweep scan is a type of port scan where the scanner connects to the same port on multiple machines. This allows the scanner to quickly scan a range of IP addresses and identify any open ports. This type of scan is commonly used by attackers to identify potential vulnerable systems for further exploitation.

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  • 47. 

    28. (010) Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?

    • A. Installing all applicable security patches.

    • B. Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • C. Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

    • D. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
    Explanation
    To ensure that replacement administrators can accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, it is important for administrators to keep complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference for the new administrators, providing them with the necessary information about the network's configurations and settings. By having access to this documentation, the replacement administrators can easily understand and replicate the previous configurations, minimizing disruptions and ensuring continuity throughout the network.

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  • 48. 

    29. (011) Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?

    • A. 802.11a.

    • B. 802.11b.

    • C. 802.11g.

    • D. 802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 802.11b.
    Explanation
    The slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard is 802.11b. This standard operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data transfer rate of 11 Mbps. While it is slower compared to other WiFi standards, it is still widely used in older devices due to its affordability.

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  • 49. 

    32. (012) Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach for establishing

    • A. an adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.

    • B. an adequate IA posture in the AF environment.

    • C. a federal desktop configuration.

    • D. a federal server configuration.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. an adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.
    Explanation
    Defense-in-depth is a strategy used by the Department of Defense (DOD) to establish an adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment. This approach involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect critical information and systems. By using a layered approach, the DOD can ensure that even if one layer of defense is breached, there are additional layers in place to prevent further unauthorized access or damage. This helps to mitigate the risks associated with a shared-risk environment, where multiple users or entities have access to the same resources.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 21, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Mcknightc3h6n6o6
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