3D053 Cyber Surety Volume 2 Information Protection - Boundary Control Journeyman

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Bmx41992
B
Bmx41992
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 1,426
| Attempts: 263 | Questions: 70
Please wait...
Question 1 / 70
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. (203) The disadvantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. However, one disadvantage of a NIDS is that it cannot analyze encrypted packets because it lacks the capability to decrypt the data. Encryption is a security measure that protects data by converting it into a format that is unreadable without the appropriate decryption key. Therefore, when packets are encrypted, the NIDS is unable to examine the contents of the data, making it ineffective in detecting any potential threats or attacks within those packets.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 3D053 Cyber Surety Volume 2. Information Protection - Boundary Control Journeyman URE's

2. (204) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

Explanation

Well-known ports are the port numbers that are commonly used by protocols and services. These ports range from 0 to 1023. These ports are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) and are reserved for specific purposes. They include ports for commonly used protocols such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). The other port ranges mentioned in the options are not considered well-known ports.

Submit
3. (207) Integration of the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and the evolution to network centric warfare best describes what concept?

Explanation

The concept described in the question is the integration of personnel, operations, and technology, and the evolution to network centric warfare. This concept is best known as defense in depth. Defense in depth refers to the strategy of implementing multiple layers of security measures to protect a system or network. It involves a combination of physical, technical, and administrative controls to ensure the overall security and resilience of the system.

Submit
4. (209) Which firewall management interface menu option views the association between MAC addresses on the firewall and its corresponding internet protocol (IP) address?

Explanation

The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a protocol used to map an IP address to a physical (MAC) address on a local network. In the context of a firewall, the management interface menu option that views the association between MAC addresses and IP addresses would likely be related to ARP. This option would allow administrators to see the mapping between the two addresses, which is important for network troubleshooting and security management.

Submit
5. (203) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down. This means that the HIDS uses processing power, memory, and other system resources, which can impact the overall performance of the host. As a result, the host may experience slower response times and decreased efficiency.

Submit
6. (205) To limit the risks associated with using simple network management protocol (SNMP),

Explanation

The correct answer is to disable all SNMP devices/services if not required. This is because by disabling SNMP devices/services that are not needed, the risks associated with using SNMP can be minimized. This reduces the potential attack surface and limits the potential for unauthorized access or exploitation of SNMP vulnerabilities.

Submit
7. (205) What is the default read community string of a simple network management protocol (SNMP) agent?

Explanation

The default read community string of a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent is "Public." This community string is used to authenticate and control access to the SNMP agent for read-only operations. It allows users to retrieve information from the agent, such as network statistics and device configurations. However, it is recommended to change the default community string to a more secure and unique one to prevent unauthorized access to the SNMP agent.

Submit
8. (213) While monitoring your network, a guideline you should remember is to

Explanation

The correct answer is to observe regular network traffic and look for anomalies. This guideline is important because it allows you to identify any unusual or suspicious activity on your network. By regularly monitoring network traffic, you can detect potential security breaches or unauthorized access attempts. Anomalies in network traffic can indicate the presence of malware, intrusions, or other security threats. Therefore, it is crucial to continuously observe network traffic and investigate any anomalies to ensure the security and integrity of your network.

Submit
9. (208) What was the previous name for what is now called the McAfee Firewall Enterprise?

Explanation

The previous name for what is now called the McAfee Firewall Enterprise was Sidewinder.

Submit
10. (216) When using secure split mail services, all external simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) hosts will connect to the firewall's

Explanation

When using secure split mail services, all external simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) hosts will connect to the external sendmail server. This means that any external SMTP hosts, which are responsible for sending and receiving emails, will establish a connection with the external sendmail server. This server acts as a bridge between the external hosts and the internal network, ensuring the secure transfer of emails.

Submit
11. (207) Restricting what traffic travels in and out of the network best describes what concept?

Explanation

The concept being described in the question is the restriction of traffic in and out of the network, which is best achieved through the use of firewalls. Firewalls act as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, controlling the flow of traffic based on predetermined security rules. By filtering and monitoring network traffic, firewalls help to prevent unauthorized access and protect against potential threats and attacks.

Submit
12. (209) A firewall burb can best be defined as

Explanation

A firewall burb can best be defined as a set of one or more interfaces. This means that a firewall burb represents the network interfaces that are connected to the firewall. These interfaces can be physical or virtual and are used to control the flow of network traffic, allowing or blocking certain connections based on predefined security policies. The term "burb" is derived from the word "suburb" and is used metaphorically to describe the different areas or zones within a network that the firewall interfaces are connected to.

Submit
13. (217) Messages that are sent to the person administering a mail system are generally addressed to

Explanation

When messages are sent to the person administering a mail system, they are generally addressed to the postmaster. The postmaster is responsible for managing and overseeing the mail system, including handling any issues or inquiries related to the system. This address is commonly used for administrative purposes and to report any problems or concerns with the mail system.

Submit
14. (218) When the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, the proxy has ensured information?

Explanation

Freshness refers to the state of being up-to-date or recently updated. In this context, when the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, it means that the proxy has ensured that the information is fresh or recently updated. This suggests that the proxy has taken measures to ensure that the cached information is current and reflects the most recent data available.

Submit
15. (224) Voice Protection System (VPS) reports provides a full-service reporting package that enables you to do all the following except

Explanation

The Voice Protection System (VPS) reports offer a comprehensive reporting package that allows users to view telecom resource use, track phone network usage, and report on service performance and call quality. However, it does not provide conversation transcripts.

Submit
16. (211) Which access control list (ACL) restricts packets into or out of a given layer 3 interface?

Explanation

A Router Access Control List (RACL) is used to restrict packets into or out of a given layer 3 interface. It allows the router to filter traffic based on various criteria such as source/destination IP address, protocol, port number, etc. This helps in controlling network traffic and securing the network by allowing or denying specific types of traffic.

Submit
17. (220) Who owns the Enterprise Telephony Management system?

Explanation

SecureLogix owns the Enterprise Telephony Management system.

Submit
18. (202) Active intrusion detection system (IDS) blocks network traffic when it detects an intrusion. Normally, active IDSs are incorporated into

Explanation

Active intrusion detection systems (IDS) are designed to actively block network traffic when they detect an intrusion. These systems are typically incorporated into firewalls, which act as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network. Firewalls are responsible for monitoring and controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. By incorporating active IDS into firewalls, organizations can enhance their network security by automatically blocking any suspicious or malicious traffic that may indicate an intrusion attempt. Therefore, firewalls are the most suitable option for housing active IDS.

Submit
19. (210) What term is used for a domain name server (DNS) architecture when one or more name servers reside behind a firewall, and contain an "inside" hostname and IP address?

Explanation

Split is the correct answer because in a split DNS architecture, there are two sets of DNS servers - one set is located inside the firewall and is used for internal network users, while the other set is located outside the firewall and is used for external network users. The inside DNS servers contain the "inside" hostname and IP address, while the outside DNS servers contain the public hostname and IP address. This allows for better security and control over DNS resolution for both internal and external users.

Submit
20. (204) Above which layer of the open systems integration (OSI) model are protocols designed to reside?

Explanation

Protocols designed to reside above the session layer of the OSI model are responsible for managing the communication sessions between applications. The session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications. It provides services such as session establishment, data synchronization, and session recovery. Therefore, protocols designed to reside above this layer would be responsible for managing these session-related tasks and ensuring efficient and reliable communication between applications.

Submit
21. (208) The use of two or more network interface cards (NIC) best describes which type of firewall?

Explanation

The use of two or more network interface cards (NIC) is commonly found in corporate/enterprise firewalls. This configuration allows for increased network throughput and redundancy. By having multiple NICs, the firewall can handle high volumes of network traffic and distribute the load across the interfaces. This is especially important in large organizations where there is a high demand for network services and the need for reliable and efficient network security measures.

Submit
22. (205) Which tool is not used to test your simple network management protocol (SNMP) security?

Explanation

Security mapper (SMAP) is not used to test SNMP security. SMAP is a tool used for network mapping and vulnerability scanning, but it does not specifically focus on testing SNMP security. WU_PingProPack, SolarWinds, and SNMPutil are all tools commonly used for testing and monitoring SNMP security.

Submit
23. (210) Which server is the only one that should have changes to domain name server (DNS) data?

Explanation

The correct answer is Master/Primary. The Master/Primary server is the only server that should have changes to domain name server (DNS) data. This server is responsible for managing and making updates to the DNS records and distributing them to the Slave/Secondary servers. The Slave/Secondary servers, on the other hand, are designed to replicate the DNS data from the Master/Primary server and serve as backups in case the Master/Primary server becomes unavailable. The Cache-Only server is not involved in making changes to DNS data, it only caches and resolves DNS queries.

Submit
24. (201) The integrated network operations and security centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

Explanation

The integrated network operations and security centers (INOSC) have several responsibilities, including maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, the INOSC is not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by AF Enterprise Network.

Submit
25. (204) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one

Explanation

A sweep port scan is a type of port scan where the scanner connects to the same port on multiple IP addresses. This scan is used to gather information about a range of IP addresses and the services running on them. Unlike a strobe port scan, which scans a single IP address, a sweep port scan allows the scanner to quickly scan a large number of IP addresses for open ports. A stealth port scan is designed to be undetectable, while a vanilla port scan is a basic and straightforward scan without any advanced techniques.

Submit
26. (210) For which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server type can there be as many servers as needed in a domain?

Explanation

For the Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server type, there can be as many Slave/Secondary servers as needed in a domain. This server type is responsible for replicating and synchronizing data from the Master/Primary server, allowing for redundancy and load balancing in the domain.

Submit
27. (204) Port scanning

Explanation

Port scanning is the process of systematically scanning a computer's ports to determine which ones are open and responsive. It involves sending requests to connect to various ports and noting the ones that respond to the scan. This activity is not necessarily malicious in nature and can be conducted for legitimate purposes such as network security testing or troubleshooting.

Submit
28. You can implement all of the following security features to help define our internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

Explanation

The correct answer is consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN). This is because VLANs are used to separate and prioritize network traffic, but they do not provide any specific security features to protect against attackers. The other options, such as enabling access control lists (ACL), deploying protection from DHCP spoofing, and enabling port security access, are all security features that can help protect IP telephony systems from attackers.

Submit
29. (208) Which type of firewall is typically used when speed is essential?

Explanation

Network-level firewalls are typically used when speed is essential because they operate at the network layer of the OSI model, allowing them to quickly filter and process large amounts of network traffic. These firewalls are designed to examine the source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols of network packets, making decisions based on this information. This allows for efficient and fast filtering of network traffic, making network-level firewalls suitable for high-speed environments where speed is a priority.

Submit
30. (209) What does a firewall support that improves system performance by lessening the load placed on the system kernel?

Explanation

Fast Path sessions support improves system performance by lessening the load placed on the system kernel. Firewalls with Fast Path sessions are able to offload certain tasks from the system kernel, allowing it to focus on more critical functions. This can result in improved overall system performance and efficiency.

Submit
31. (210) Which flexible command line can be used to gather information from domain name servers (DNS)?

Explanation

Dig is a flexible command line tool that can be used to gather information from domain name servers (DNS). It is commonly used for querying DNS records, performing DNS lookups, and troubleshooting DNS issues. Dig provides detailed information about DNS responses, including the authoritative name servers, TTL values, and DNSSEC validation status. It allows users to specify the DNS server they want to query and supports various query types, such as A, MX, NS, and TXT records. Overall, Dig is a powerful tool for gathering DNS information and is widely used by network administrators and DNS operators.

Submit
32. (210) Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system file provide reverse mapping?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pointer (PTR) records." In the Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system, the PTR records are used for reverse mapping. These records map IP addresses to domain names, allowing reverse lookups to be performed. This is useful in situations where you have an IP address and need to determine the corresponding domain name.

Submit
33. (202) When using an intrusion detection system (IDS), remember to

Explanation

Using a centralized management console for system management is important when using an intrusion detection system (IDS) because it allows for easier and more efficient management of the IDS. With a centralized management console, administrators can monitor and configure the IDS from a single location, making it easier to track and respond to potential threats. Additionally, a centralized management console allows for better coordination and collaboration among security teams, ensuring that any detected intrusions are addressed promptly and effectively.

Submit
34. (206) Which network-based security tool is a hardware and software system that sits on AF networks "listening" for "suspicious activity" that is characteristic of intruder techniques?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
35. (209) Which McAfee Firewall Enterprise management interface is the graphical software that runs a Windows computer within your network?

Explanation

The McAfee Firewall Enterprise management interface that runs on a Windows computer within your network is called the Admin console. This graphical software allows you to manage and configure the firewall settings and policies. The Admin console provides a user-friendly interface for administrators to monitor and control the firewall's operations effectively.

Submit
36. (209) What is the default firewall shutdown option?

Explanation

The default firewall shutdown option is to reboot to the operational kernel. This means that when the firewall is shut down, it will automatically reboot and start up using the operational kernel. This option allows for a smooth transition and ensures that the firewall is ready to operate again after the shutdown.

Submit
37. (201) What severity code applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved, will prevent the possibility of degraded security?

Explanation

Severity code IV applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved, will prevent the possibility of degraded security. This means that resolving the vulnerability will completely eliminate the risk or threat to the security of the system or network. Severity code IV indicates the highest level of severity, as it represents vulnerabilities that have the potential to cause significant harm or compromise the security of the system if left unaddressed.

Submit
38. (220) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the

Explanation

The correct answer is the President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. The explanation is that the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by this committee.

Submit
39. (203) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors to monitor and analyze activities happening on a single host or computer system. It focuses on detecting suspicious behavior or unauthorized activities that may occur within the host's operating system, applications, or files. This type of IDS is installed directly on the host and can provide detailed information about the activities happening on that specific host, making it an effective tool for detecting and responding to intrusions at the host level.

Submit
40. (212) Who approves or disapproves IS (including software and services) connections to the Air Force Global Information Grid (AF-GIG) and accepts any risk created by the approved connections?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Operations commander (AFNetOps/CC) approves or disapproves IS connections to the Air Force Global Information Grid (AF-GIG) and accepts any risk created by the approved connections.

Submit
41. (221) All of the following are characteristics and capabilities of a Voice Protection System (VPS) except

Explanation

A Voice Protection System (VPS) has the characteristics and capabilities of securing communications, enabling real-time event notifications, and detecting and blocking all inbound and outbound modem connections. However, it does not have the capability of centralizing yet distributing management. This means that while it can secure communications and detect modem connections, it does not have the ability to centrally manage and distribute tasks or responsibilities.

Submit
42. (202) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines traffic for suspicious patterns?

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) examines traffic for suspicious patterns. It monitors network traffic and analyzes it to identify any signs of unauthorized access or malicious activity. Unlike host-based IDS, which focuses on individual hosts, a network-based IDS looks at the entire network and can detect attacks that may involve multiple hosts. Passive IDS, on the other hand, simply observes network traffic without actively taking action. Active IDS combines monitoring with active response mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer is network-based IDS.

Submit
43. (206) Which security tool is designed to manage sensitive data and enforce security policies across a full range of client/server platforms?

Explanation

Enterprise Security Manager (ESM) is the correct answer because it is a security tool specifically designed to manage sensitive data and enforce security policies across a full range of client/server platforms. Snort is an intrusion detection system, ASIM is a tool for measuring security incidents, and ISS is a vulnerability scanner, none of which are designed for managing sensitive data and enforcing security policies.

Submit
44. (208) Most firewall implementations that you will encounter will be found at the

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated network operation security centers (INOSC). This is because most firewall implementations are typically found at INOSCs, which are responsible for managing and securing the network operations of an organization. INOSCs are centralized locations where network security professionals monitor, analyze, and respond to network threats and incidents. They play a crucial role in protecting the organization's network infrastructure and ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its data and resources.

Submit
45. (214) Which mail system component sends or retrieves mail between the other agents using specific protocols?

Explanation

The delivery agent (DA) is responsible for sending or retrieving mail between the other agents using specific protocols. The DA is responsible for delivering the mail to the recipient's mailbox or retrieving it from the sender's mailbox. It interacts with the transport agent (TA) to transfer the mail over the network and with the user agent (UA) to deliver the mail to the recipient. The security agent (SA) is responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of the mail, but it does not directly send or retrieve the mail.

Submit
46. (209) Use the high availability shared cluster addresses dialog box to do all the following except

Explanation

The high availability shared cluster addresses dialog box allows you to configure the shared cluster addresses, specify or send and receive heartbeats, and handle the fastest network traffic on your appliance. However, it does not provide the option to isolate the cluster address from the domain name server (DNS) and default routes.

Submit
47. (212) Who reports all backdoors and unauthorized connections to Air Force networks discovered during the course of operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Information Warfare Center/Information Operations Directorate (AFIWC/IO) is responsible for reporting all backdoors and unauthorized connections to Air Force networks that are discovered during operations. They are specifically tasked with monitoring and protecting the Air Force's information systems and networks, and ensuring their security. This includes identifying any potential threats or vulnerabilities and reporting them to the appropriate authorities for further action.

Submit
48. (218) Proxies do not

Explanation

Proxies prevent organizations from obtaining visibility of users. Proxies act as intermediaries between a user's device and the internet, allowing users to browse the web anonymously. By routing internet traffic through a proxy server, organizations are unable to directly track or monitor users' online activities, providing a level of privacy and preventing organizations from obtaining visibility of users.

Submit
49. (222) Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application provides allows you to view real-time monitoring and policy processing, view system diagnostics, and use the VPS rules-based policy applications?

Explanation

Performance Manager is the correct answer because it is the Voice Protection System (VPS) application that allows users to view real-time monitoring and policy processing. It also provides the ability to view system diagnostics and use the VPS rules-based policy applications.

Submit
50. (224) Which Voice Protection System (VPS) tree pane contains predefined Report Templates, Elements, and Date Ranges provided with your system?

Explanation

The SecureLogix tree pane contains predefined Report Templates, Elements, and Date Ranges provided with your system.

Submit
51. (206) Which open source network-based intrusion detection system performs packet logging and real-time traffic analysis as well as protocol analysis, content searching/matching, and active blocking or passive detecting of a variety of attacks and probes?

Explanation

Snort is the correct answer because it is an open source network-based intrusion detection system that performs various functions such as packet logging, real-time traffic analysis, protocol analysis, content searching/matching, and active blocking or passive detecting of attacks and probes. Snort is widely used in the cybersecurity industry for its effectiveness in detecting and preventing network-based threats.

Submit
52. (216) When using transparent mail services, the following mail filtering features are available except

Explanation

When using transparent mail services, all of the listed mail filtering features are available except for message attachment filtering. This means that the transparent mail services do not have the capability to filter or scan the attachments of the emails. However, they can still filter based on the destination address, commands, and headers of the emails.

Submit
53. (222) Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application generates reports of VPS system activity, policy processing, telecom cost accounting, and resource utilization?

Explanation

Usage Manager is the correct answer because it is the Voice Protection System (VPS) application that generates reports of VPS system activity, policy processing, telecom cost accounting, and resource utilization.

Submit
54. (208) Which type of firewall views information as a data stream and not as a series of packets?

Explanation

An application-level firewall views information as a data stream rather than a series of packets. It operates at the application layer of the network protocol stack, allowing or blocking traffic based on the specific application or service being used. This type of firewall can inspect and filter traffic based on the content and context of the data stream, providing more granular control and better protection against application-layer attacks. Network-level firewalls, on the other hand, focus on the packet level and make decisions based on source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols.

Submit
55. (215) Which e-mail server delivers all outgoing e-mail to the mail relay server?

Explanation

The correct answer is Exchange server. Exchange server is an email server that delivers all outgoing emails to the mail relay server. It is a popular email server used by many organizations and provides features such as email management, calendaring, and collaboration. It acts as a bridge between the user's email client and the mail relay server, ensuring that all outgoing emails are properly delivered.

Submit
56. (202) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines servers or client computers for the patterns of an intrusion?

Explanation

A host-based IDS is an intrusion detection system that examines servers or client computers for patterns of an intrusion. It focuses on the individual host or endpoint and monitors the activities and behaviors occurring within that system. This type of IDS is installed directly on the host machine and can detect unauthorized access attempts, malware infections, unusual network traffic, and other signs of intrusion. It is effective in protecting individual hosts and providing detailed information about potential security breaches.

Submit
57. (210) Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server is responsible for zone transfers?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Named." Named is the Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server that is responsible for zone transfers. Zone transfers are the process of replicating DNS information from one server to another.

Submit
58. (209) Which firewall shutdown option is useful if you need to connect directly to the firewall to access the basic input/output system (BIOS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Halt system. This option is useful if you need to connect directly to the firewall to access the basic input/output system (BIOS). By halting the system, you can access the BIOS settings and make any necessary changes or configurations. This option effectively shuts down the firewall, allowing you to connect to it and access the BIOS.

Submit
59. (201) What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls?

Explanation

Severity code II applies to any vulnerability that provides information that gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls. This means that the vulnerability is considered to have a high impact and can potentially lead to unauthorized access or compromise of sensitive information.

Submit
60. (221) During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system (VPS)?

Explanation

The Air Force Information Warfare Battlelab recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system (VPS).

Submit
61. (213) Which is not a category of software package available today used that is used to detect and monitor network activity?

Explanation

Firewalls are not a category of software package used to detect and monitor network activity. Firewalls are designed to control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. They act as a barrier between internal and external networks to prevent unauthorized access and protect the network from potential threats. However, they do not specifically focus on detecting and monitoring network activity like intrusion detection, packet-capture, and filters/triggers do.

Submit
62. (219) Which proxy is located near the web server and acts as an intermediary between a web server and the Internet?

Explanation

A reverse proxy is located near the web server and acts as an intermediary between the web server and the Internet. It receives requests from the Internet and forwards them to the appropriate web server. It can also cache and load balance incoming requests, improving performance and security. Unlike a forward proxy, which is located near the client and forwards requests to the Internet, a reverse proxy is positioned near the server and handles incoming requests. An application proxy is a type of reverse proxy that specifically handles application-level protocols. A software-based proxy refers to any proxy that is implemented using software rather than hardware.

Submit
63. (201) What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that potentially could lead to a compromise?

Explanation

Severity code III applies to any vulnerability that provides information that potentially could lead to a compromise. This means that the vulnerability has the potential to expose sensitive information or provide attackers with the necessary information to exploit the system. It is considered a moderate level of severity, indicating that it should be addressed and mitigated to prevent any potential compromise.

Submit
64.   (203) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

Explanation

A network-based IDS is an intrusion detection system that monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. Unlike a host-based IDS, which monitors activities on a specific host, a network-based IDS analyzes network traffic to identify potential threats. It can detect abnormal behavior, such as unusual network traffic patterns or suspicious packets, and compare them against a database of known virus signatures to identify and alert on potential threats. Therefore, a network-based IDS is the correct answer for this question.

Submit
65. (210) In regards to Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system files, items stored in the domain name server (DNS) database best describes

Explanation

Resource records are items stored in the domain name server (DNS) database. They contain information about a specific domain name, such as its IP address, mail server, or other DNS-related data. Resource records are essential for the functioning of the DNS system as they allow the translation of domain names into IP addresses and vice versa, enabling the proper routing of internet traffic.

Submit
66. (223) All of the following are Voice Protection System (VPS) policy types except

Explanation

The given question asks for the type of policy that is not included in the Voice Protection System (VPS). The options provided are Intrusion Protection System (IPS), voice, firewall, and recording. Among these options, the correct answer is "voice" because it is already mentioned in the question that the system is a Voice Protection System (VPS), so it is not a policy type that is excluded from the system.

Submit
67. (204) Which organization has direct operational control of Air Force Ports, Protocols and Services (AF PPS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOSC). This organization has direct operational control of Air Force Ports, Protocols, and Services (AF PPS). AFNOSC is responsible for managing and maintaining the Air Force network infrastructure, including the ports, protocols, and services used by the Air Force. They ensure the network is secure, reliable, and accessible for Air Force operations.

Submit
68. (215) Which e-mail server relays all e-mail entering or exiting the local network?

Explanation

The Sendmail server is responsible for relaying all email entering or exiting the local network. It is a popular and widely used mail transfer agent (MTA) that is known for its flexibility and reliability. It is capable of handling large volumes of email and is often used in Unix-based systems. Exchange server, SMTP server, and proxy server are not specifically designed for relaying email in the same way that Sendmail server is.

Submit
69. (204) Which organization has the responsibility of developing Air Force Ports, Protocols and Services (AF PPS) policies and procedures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC). This organization is responsible for developing Air Force Ports, Protocols, and Services (AF PPS) policies and procedures. They are in charge of integrating and managing the Air Force network and ensuring its security and functionality.

Submit
70. (219) What type of proxy must be run because of an attacker's potential to exploit an operating system?

Explanation

A software-based proxy must be run because of an attacker's potential to exploit an operating system. This type of proxy acts as an intermediary between the user and the internet, filtering and monitoring all incoming and outgoing traffic. It can detect and block malicious activities, preventing attackers from exploiting vulnerabilities in the operating system. By using a software-based proxy, organizations can enhance their security measures and protect their systems from potential attacks.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Bmx41992
Cancel
  • All
    All (70)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
(203) The disadvantage of a network-based intrusion detection system...
(204) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
(207) Integration of the capabilities of personnel, operations, and...
(209) Which firewall management interface menu option views the...
(203) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system...
(205) To limit the risks associated with using simple network...
(205) What is the default read community string of a simple network...
(213) While monitoring your network, a guideline you should remember...
(208) What was the previous name for what is now called the McAfee...
(216) When using secure split mail services, all external simple...
(207) Restricting what traffic travels in and out of the network best...
(209) A firewall burb can best be defined as
(217) Messages that are sent to the person administering a mail system...
(218) When the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, the...
(224) Voice Protection System (VPS) reports provides a full-service...
(211) Which access control list (ACL) restricts packets into or out of...
(220) Who owns the Enterprise Telephony Management system?
(202) Active intrusion detection system (IDS) blocks network traffic...
(210) What term is used for a domain name server (DNS) architecture...
(204) Above which layer of the open systems integration (OSI) model...
(208) The use of two or more network interface cards (NIC) best...
(205) Which tool is not used to test your simple network management...
(210) Which server is the only one that should have changes to domain...
(201) The integrated network operations and security centers (INOSC)...
(204) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same...
(210) For which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server type can...
(204) Port scanning
You can implement all of the following security features to help...
(208) Which type of firewall is typically used when speed is...
(209) What does a firewall support that improves system performance by...
(210) Which flexible command line can be used to gather information...
(210) Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system file provide...
(202) When using an intrusion detection system (IDS), remember to
(206) Which network-based security tool is a hardware and software...
(209) Which McAfee Firewall Enterprise management interface is the...
(209) What is the default firewall shutdown option?
(201) What severity code applies to any vulnerability that, when...
(220) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were...
(203) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?
(212) Who approves or disapproves IS (including software and services)...
(221) All of the following are characteristics and capabilities of a...
(202) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines traffic for...
(206) Which security tool is designed to manage sensitive data and...
(208) Most firewall implementations that you will encounter will be...
(214) Which mail system component sends or retrieves mail between the...
(209) Use the high availability shared cluster addresses dialog box to...
(212) Who reports all backdoors and unauthorized connections to Air...
(218) Proxies do not
(222) Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application provides allows...
(224) Which Voice Protection System (VPS) tree pane contains...
(206) Which open source network-based intrusion detection system...
(216) When using transparent mail services, the following mail...
(222) Which Voice Protection System (VPS) application generates...
(208) Which type of firewall views information as a data stream and...
(215) Which e-mail server delivers all outgoing e-mail to the mail...
(202) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines servers or...
(210) Which Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) server is responsible...
(209) Which firewall shutdown option is useful if you need to connect...
(201) What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides...
(221) During the initial research for voice system security, who...
(213) Which is not a category of software package available today used...
(219) Which proxy is located near the web server and acts as an...
(201) What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides...
  ...
(210) In regards to Berkeley Internet Name Domain (BIND) system files,...
(223) All of the following are Voice Protection System (VPS) policy...
(204) Which organization has direct operational control of Air Force...
(215) Which e-mail server relays all e-mail entering or exiting the...
(204) Which organization has the responsibility of developing Air...
(219) What type of proxy must be run because of an attacker's...
Alert!

Advertisement