Mpharm-cet Test No.1

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Mpharm-cet Test No.1 - Quiz

MPHARM-CET TEST NO. 1
Designed by Dr. Anwar R. Shaikh
Courtesy:
1) Dr. Aman B. Upaganlawar
(M. Pharm,PhD,MAMS)
Associate Professor, Department of Pharmacology.
SNJBs SSDJ College of Pharmacy,Neminagar,
Chandwad. Dist:Nashik:423 101
2) Mr. C V Panchal
Asst. Professor
Dept. Of Pharmacognosy,
Maharashtra College of Pharmacy,
Nilanga, Dist. Latur, PIN-413521


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of flux?

    • A.

      Ondansetron

    • B.

      Metaclopramide

    • C.

      Sodium citrate

    • D.

      Atropine

    Correct Answer
    B. Metaclopramide
    Explanation
    Metaclopramide is the correct answer because it is a prokinetic agent that helps to increase gastrointestinal motility and prevent gastric stasis. This can be beneficial in patients with symptoms of reflux, as it helps to reduce the risk of gastric aspiration syndrome, which occurs when stomach contents reflux into the lungs. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to treat nausea and vomiting, but it does not specifically address the issue of gastric aspiration. Sodium citrate is used to treat acid reflux, but it does not offer protection from gastric aspiration. Atropine is not indicated for the treatment of reflux or gastric aspiration.

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  • 2. 

    All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except

    • A.

      Adrenaline

    • B.

      Growth Hormone

    • C.

      Insulin

    • D.

      Thyroxin

    Correct Answer
    D. Thyroxin
    Explanation
    Thyroxin is the correct answer because it is a lipid-soluble hormone that can easily cross the cell membrane and bind to intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus. Unlike adrenaline, growth hormone, and insulin, which are water-soluble hormones, thyroxin does not require cell surface receptors to initiate its cellular effects. Instead, it directly interacts with its intracellular receptors to regulate gene expression and metabolic processes within the target cells.

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  • 3. 

    A highly ionized drug

    • A.

      Is excreted mainly by the kidney

    • B.

      Can cross the placental barrier easily

    • C.

      Is well absorbed from the intestine

    • D.

      Accumulates in the cellular lipids

    Correct Answer
    A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
    Explanation
    A highly ionized drug is excreted mainly by the kidney because the kidney plays a crucial role in the elimination of ionized substances from the body. Ionized drugs are more water-soluble and less likely to be reabsorbed by the renal tubules, making them easier to filter and excrete through urine. Additionally, the kidney has specific transporters that actively secrete ionized drugs into the urine, further facilitating their elimination. Therefore, a highly ionized drug is more likely to be eliminated through renal excretion rather than being absorbed or accumulated in other tissues.

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  • 4. 

    Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?

    • A.

      It is not associated with atrophy of adrenal glands

    • B.

      It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids

    • C.

      It should be expected in anyone receiving greater than 5mg of prednisolone daily

    • D.

      Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks

    Correct Answer
    C. It should be expected in anyone receiving greater than 5mg of prednisolone daily
    Explanation
    Adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy is expected in anyone receiving greater than 5mg of prednisolone daily. This is because long-term use of high-dose steroids can suppress the normal functioning of the adrenal glands, leading to decreased production of cortisol. Atrophy of the adrenal glands may occur as a result of chronic suppression. Inhaled steroids, on the other hand, have a much lower systemic absorption and are less likely to cause adrenal suppression. After cessation of steroid therapy, it may take several weeks for the adrenal glands to recover and for the stress response to normalize.

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  • 5. 

    With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?

    • A.

      Histamine receptors

    • B.

      Bradykinin receptors

    • C.

      Adenosine receptors

    • D.

      Imidazoline receptors

    Correct Answer
    C. Adenosine receptors
    Explanation
    Theophylline has an antagonistic interaction with adenosine receptors. Adenosine is a naturally occurring substance in the body that helps to regulate various physiological processes, including inflammation and bronchial constriction. Theophylline, on the other hand, is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By blocking adenosine receptors, theophylline prevents adenosine from exerting its bronchoconstrictive effects, thereby promoting bronchodilation and improving airflow in the lungs. This antagonistic interaction between theophylline and adenosine receptors is the basis for the therapeutic effect of theophylline in respiratory conditions.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?

    • A.

      Glycopyrrolate

    • B.

      Atropine

    • C.

      Neostigmine

    • D.

      Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    C. Neostigmine
    Explanation
    Neostigmine is the correct answer because it is a cholinesterase inhibitor that increases the concentration of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in the contraction of smooth muscles, including those in the gastrointestinal tract. By inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, neostigmine enhances its effects, leading to increased gastrointestinal motility. Glycopyrrolate and atropine, on the other hand, are anticholinergic drugs that decrease gastrointestinal motility. Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic that does not directly affect gastrointestinal motility.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of flux?

    • A.

      Ondansetron

    • B.

      Metaclopramide

    • C.

      Sodium citrate

    • D.

      Atropine

    Correct Answer
    B. Metaclopramide
    Explanation
    Metaclopramide is the correct answer because it is a drug that has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of flux. Gastric aspiration syndrome occurs when stomach contents are inhaled into the lungs, leading to respiratory distress. Metaclopramide works by increasing the rate at which the stomach empties, reducing the likelihood of reflux and aspiration. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to treat nausea and vomiting, but it does not specifically protect against gastric aspiration. Sodium citrate is an antacid and atropine is a medication used to treat certain types of heart rhythm problems and to decrease saliva production, neither of which are directly related to protecting against gastric aspiration syndrome.

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  • 8. 

    Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is

    • A.

      Phenobarbitone

    • B.

      Flumazenil

    • C.

      Beta-carboline

    • D.

      Gabapentin

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta-carboline
    Explanation
    Beta-carboline is the correct answer because it acts as an inverse agonist of the benzodiazepine receptor. Inverse agonists bind to the same receptor as the agonist, but instead of activating it, they produce the opposite effect by reducing the receptor's constitutive activity. In the case of the benzodiazepine receptor, beta-carbolines inhibit the receptor's activity, leading to a decrease in the overall inhibitory effect of GABA neurotransmission. This can result in excitatory effects and may contribute to anxiety and other behavioral changes. Phenobarbitone, flumazenil, and gabapentin do not act as inverse agonists of the benzodiazepine receptor.

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  • 9. 

    1. At the end of phase III clinical trial the drug will be submitted to the relevant regulatory authority for:

    • A.

      Licensing

    • B.

      Evaluation

    • C.

      Post Marketing studies

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of above
    Explanation
    At the end of phase III clinical trial, the drug will be submitted to the relevant regulatory authority for licensing, evaluation, and post-marketing studies. This means that the drug will go through a process of obtaining official approval for its use, undergo evaluation to assess its safety and efficacy, and continue to be monitored after it is marketed to ensure its ongoing safety and effectiveness. Therefore, all of the options mentioned (licensing, evaluation, and post-marketing studies) are correct.

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  • 10. 

    Rectal administration of drugs:

    • A.

      Gives predictable blood levels

    • B.

      From lower 1/3rd avoids first pass & upper 2/3rds doesn’t

    • C.

      None undergoes first pass metabolism

    • D.

      All of it undergoes first pass metabolism

    Correct Answer
    B. From lower 1/3rd avoids first pass & upper 2/3rds doesn’t
    Explanation
    Rectal administration of drugs allows for predictable blood levels because the drug is absorbed directly into the lower 1/3rd of the rectum, bypassing the first pass metabolism that occurs in the upper 2/3rds of the rectum. This means that the drug is not extensively metabolized by the liver before entering the bloodstream, resulting in higher bioavailability and more consistent blood levels.

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  • 11. 

    Different species of Ephedra can be identified by observing the nature of 

    • A.

      Inner surface

    • B.

      Outer surface

    • C.

      Trichomes

    • D.

      Scaly Leaves

    Correct Answer
    B. Outer surface
    Explanation
    Different species of Ephedra can be identified by observing the nature of their outer surface. The outer surface of Ephedra plants can vary in texture, color, and pattern, which can help in distinguishing between different species. This characteristic is often used by botanists and researchers to classify and identify Ephedra plants accurately. By carefully examining the outer surface, one can gather valuable information about the specific species of Ephedra under observation.

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  • 12. 

    Indian Rhubarb can be  distinguished from Rhapontic Rhubarb by the flurorescence it emits under UV light, Indian Rhubarb gives:

    • A.

      Deep yellow

    • B.

      Deep Violate

    • C.

      Orange

    • D.

      Pale Green

    Correct Answer
    B. Deep Violate
    Explanation
    Indian Rhubarb can be distinguished from Rhapontic Rhubarb by the fluorescence it emits under UV light. The correct answer, "Deep Violet," indicates that Indian Rhubarb emits a deep violet fluorescence under UV light. This characteristic allows for easy differentiation between the two types of rhubarb.

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  • 13. 

    Genetically modified species of papaver namely papaver bracetum and papver oriental contain the predominant alkaloid:

    • A.

      Morphine

    • B.

      Codeine

    • C.

      Thebaine

    • D.

      Narcotine

    Correct Answer
    C. Thebaine
    Explanation
    The genetically modified species of papaver, specifically papaver bracetum and papver oriental, contain the predominant alkaloid called Thebaine.

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  • 14. 

    A substance used  for the modification of silica gel for reversed phase TLC is:

    • A.

      Benzene

    • B.

      Glycerine

    • C.

      Silicone Oil

    • D.

      Ether

    Correct Answer
    A. Benzene
    Explanation
    Benzene is the correct answer because it is commonly used as a modifier for silica gel in reversed phase thin-layer chromatography (TLC). Silica gel is a polar stationary phase, but by adding benzene as a modifier, the polarity of the stationary phase can be reduced, allowing for the separation of non-polar compounds. This modification helps to improve the separation and resolution of compounds in reversed phase TLC. Glycerine, silicone oil, and ether are not commonly used as modifiers for silica gel in reversed phase TLC.

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  • 15. 

    Klunge's Test is for the identification of:

    • A.

      Barbaloin

    • B.

      Isobarbaloin

    • C.

      Alionosides

    • D.

      Aleosin

    Correct Answer
    B. Isobarbaloin
    Explanation
    Klunge's Test is a method used to identify Isobarbaloin. It is not used to identify Barbaloin, Alionosides, or Aleosin.

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  • 16. 

    Microscopic character of Ginger Rhizome are:

    • A.

      Spindle shaped lignified fibers and sclerides

    • B.

      Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate and sclerides

    • C.

      Non lignified vessels and sac shaped starch grains

    • D.

      Non lignified vessels and sclerides

    Correct Answer
    C. Non lignified vessels and sac shaped starch grains
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Non lignified vessels and sac shaped starch grains." This means that the microscopic character of Ginger Rhizome includes vessels that are not lignified (not composed of lignin) and starch grains that are shaped like sacs.

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  • 17. 

    A transeverse section of the root of Glycerrhiza glabra when treated with 80% Sulphuric acid gives:

    • A.

      Deep yellow colour

    • B.

      No reaction but only charring

    • C.

      Deep blue colour

    • D.

      Deep red colour

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep yellow colour
    Explanation
    When the transverse section of the root of Glycerrhiza glabra is treated with 80% Sulphuric acid, it results in a deep yellow color. This suggests that there are certain compounds present in the root that react with the acid to produce this specific color. The deep yellow color is likely due to the presence of certain pigments or chemical compounds that are sensitive to the acid treatment.

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  • 18. 

    A naturally occuring amino acid which does not have a chiral centre is :

    • A.

      Glycine

    • B.

      Alanine

    • C.

      Tryptophane

    • D.

      Tyrosine

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycine
    Explanation
    Glycine is the correct answer because it is the only amino acid among the options that does not have a chiral center. A chiral center is a carbon atom bonded to four different groups, which results in two non-superimposable mirror image structures. Glycine does not have this feature as its R-group is a hydrogen atom, making it achiral.

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  • 19. 

    Match Group I with II:Group I                       Group II1. Gentisin               a. Flavonol2. Genistein             b. Flavone3. Apigenin              c. Xanthone4. Quercetin            d. Isoflavone

    • A.

      1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

    • B.

      1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

    • C.

      1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

    • D.

      1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

    Correct Answer
    C. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
  • 20. 

    Microscopy of the bulbs of Urgenia indica family Liliaceae shows:

    • A.

      Prism of calcium oxalate

    • B.

      Calcium carbonate and silica

    • C.

      Rosetters of calcium oxalate

    • D.

      Rhaphides of calcium oxalate

    Correct Answer
    D. Rhaphides of calcium oxalate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Rhaphides of calcium oxalate". Rhaphides are needle-shaped crystals of calcium oxalate that are commonly found in the bulbs of plants. Calcium oxalate crystals serve as a defense mechanism against herbivores, as they can cause irritation or injury to the mouth and digestive system of animals that consume the plant. Therefore, the presence of rhaphides in the microscopy of the bulbs of Urgenia indica suggests that this plant has evolved this defense mechanism to protect itself from herbivores.

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  • 21. 

    What term is used to indicate the ability of a cancer to invade other parts of the body and to produce secondary tumours?

    • A.

      Carcinogenesis

    • B.

      Apoptosis

    • C.

      Metastasis

    • D.

      Mutagenesis

    Correct Answer
    C. Metastasis
    Explanation
    Metastasis is the correct answer because it refers to the ability of cancer cells to spread from the primary tumor to other parts of the body and form secondary tumors. This process involves cancer cells breaking away from the original tumor, traveling through the bloodstream or lymphatic system, and establishing new tumors in different organs or tissues. Metastasis is a critical stage in cancer progression and is responsible for the majority of cancer-related deaths. Carcinogenesis refers to the development of cancer, apoptosis is programmed cell death, and mutagenesis is the process of genetic mutation.

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  • 22. 

    Which molecules are involved in the anchoring of cells to an extracellular matrix?

    • A.

      Integrins

    • B.

      Interleukins

    • C.

      Angiostatin

    • D.

      Cyclins

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrins
    Explanation
    Integrins are a class of cell surface receptors that play a crucial role in cell adhesion and anchoring cells to the extracellular matrix. They bind to specific proteins in the extracellular matrix, such as fibronectin and collagen, and connect the cytoskeleton of the cell to the surrounding matrix. This anchoring is essential for maintaining the structural integrity of tissues and allows cells to sense and respond to their environment. Interleukins, angiostatin, and cyclins are not directly involved in cell anchoring to the extracellular matrix.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following statements is false with respect to an enzyme's ability to catalyse a reaction?

    • A.

      An enzyme provides a reaction surface and a suitable environment for the reaction to take place

    • B.

      An enzyme binds reactants such that they are positioned correctly and can attain their transition-state configurations

    • C.

      An enzyme allows the reaction to go through a less stable transition state than would normally be the case

    • D.

      An enzyme can weaken bonds in reactants through the binding process

    Correct Answer
    B. An enzyme binds reactants such that they are positioned correctly and can attain their transition-state configurations
    Explanation
    An enzyme binds reactants such that they are positioned correctly and can attain their transition-state configurations. This statement is false because an enzyme does not bind reactants in a way that positions them correctly for the reaction. Instead, an enzyme provides a reaction surface and a suitable environment for the reaction to take place. It also weakens bonds in reactants through the binding process and allows the reaction to go through a less stable transition state than would normally be the case.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements is not true regarding the active site of an enzyme?

    • A.

      An active site is normally a hollow or cleft on the surface of an enzyme.

    • B.

      An active site is normally hydrophilic in nature.

    • C.

      Substrates fit into active sites and bind to functional groups within the active site.

    • D.

      An active site contains amino acids which are important to the binding process and the catalytic mechanism.

    Correct Answer
    B. An active site is normally hydrophilic in nature.
    Explanation
    The active site of an enzyme is typically not hydrophilic in nature. It is usually hydrophobic or contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. This is because the active site needs to provide a specific environment for the substrate to bind and undergo the catalytic reaction. Hydrophobic interactions play a crucial role in stabilizing the substrate within the active site. Additionally, the active site contains specific amino acids that are essential for substrate binding and catalysis.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements best describes an allosteric binding site?

    • A.

      It is a binding site containing amino acids with aliphatic side chains.

    • B.

      It is a binding site that can accept a wide variety of differently shaped molecules.

    • C.

      It is a binding site, which is separate from the active site, and affects the activity of an enzyme when it is occupied by a ligand.

    • D.

      It is a description of an active site which has undergone an induced fit.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is a binding site, which is separate from the active site, and affects the activity of an enzyme when it is occupied by a ligand.
    Explanation
    This answer describes an allosteric binding site as a separate site from the active site of an enzyme. It states that when this site is occupied by a ligand, it affects the activity of the enzyme. This suggests that the binding of a molecule to the allosteric site can either enhance or inhibit the enzyme's activity, providing a mechanism for regulation and control of enzyme function.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is a clinical use for a muscarinic agonist?

    • A.

      Treatment of myasthenia gravis

    • B.

      'Switching off' the gastrointestinal tract prior to surgery

    • C.

      'Switching on' the urinary tract after surgery

    • D.

      Increasing heart muscle activity in certain heart defects

    Correct Answer
    C. 'Switching on' the urinary tract after surgery
    Explanation
    A muscarinic agonist can be used to 'switch on' the urinary tract after surgery. Muscarinic agonists stimulate the muscarinic receptors in the bladder, causing the bladder muscles to contract and promoting urination. This can be beneficial after surgery, as it helps to prevent urinary retention and allows the patient to regain normal urinary function.

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  • 27. 

    Atropine has been used to decrease gastrointestinal motility and to counteract anticholinesterase poisoning.What function does this molecule have?

    • A.

      Muscarinic agonist

    • B.

      Muscarinic antagonist

    • C.

      Nicotinic agonist

    • D.

      Nicotinic antagonist

    Correct Answer
    B. Muscarinic antagonist
    Explanation
    Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist, meaning it blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. By inhibiting the effects of acetylcholine, atropine can decrease gastrointestinal motility and also counteract the effects of anticholinesterase poisoning. This is because anticholinesterase drugs increase the levels of acetylcholine in the body, leading to excessive stimulation of muscarinic receptors. Atropine can effectively block these receptors and reverse the toxic effects of anticholinesterase poisoning.

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  • 28. 

    Which feature of acetylcholine interacts with the binding site of cholinergic receptors by hydrogen bonding?What function does this molecule have?

    • A.

      The acyl methyl group

    • B.

      The ester

    • C.

      The quaternary nitrogen

    • D.

      All three N-methyl groups

    Correct Answer
    B. The ester
    Explanation
    The ester group of acetylcholine interacts with the binding site of cholinergic receptors by hydrogen bonding. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays a vital role in the transmission of nerve impulses in the nervous system. It is involved in various functions such as muscle contraction, regulation of heart rate, and cognitive processes.

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  • 29. 

    One of the following belongs to imidazolidine-2,4-dione class:

    • A.

      Phenytoin

    • B.

      Trimethadione

    • C.

      Phensuximide

    • D.

      Paramethadione

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenytoin
    Explanation
    Phenytoin belongs to the imidazolidine-2,4-dione class because it contains the imidazolidine-2,4-dione ring structure in its chemical composition. This class of compounds is characterized by the presence of this specific ring structure, which is responsible for their pharmacological activity. Therefore, Phenytoin is the correct answer as it meets this criterion.

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  • 30. 

    Indication of clonazepam is: 

    • A.

      Myoclonic epilepsy

    • B.

      Partial motor seizers

    • C.

      Status epilepticus

    • D.

      Partial complex seizures

    Correct Answer
    A. Myoclonic epilepsy
    Explanation
    Clonazepam is indicated for the treatment of myoclonic epilepsy. Myoclonic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy characterized by sudden, brief, and involuntary muscle jerks or twitches. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine medication that works by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a neurotransmitter that inhibits the activity of the brain, thus reducing the occurrence of myoclonic seizures. It is not indicated for partial motor seizures, status epilepticus, or partial complex seizures.

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  • 31. 

    Of the following oral liquid formulations which would be considered as an oropharyngeal formulation? 

    • A.

      Syrup

    • B.

      Elixir

    • C.

      Mouthwash

    • D.

      Linctus

    Correct Answer
    C. Mouthwash
    Explanation
    A mouthwash is considered an oropharyngeal formulation because it is specifically designed to be used in the mouth and throat. It is typically used for oral hygiene purposes, such as freshening breath, reducing bacteria, and soothing the throat. Unlike syrups, elixirs, and linctus, which are primarily intended for ingestion or treatment of other conditions, mouthwash is specifically formulated for topical use in the oral cavity. Therefore, it is the most appropriate choice for an oropharyngeal formulation.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration? 

    • A.

      Solution

    • B.

      Liniment

    • C.

      Suspension

    • D.

      Ointment

    Correct Answer
    B. Liniment
    Explanation
    Liniments are topical formulations that are applied by rubbing onto the skin for relief of pain or inflammation. They are not suitable for ocular administration because they are typically oil-based and may cause irritation or damage to the delicate tissues of the eye. Ocular administration requires specific formulations that are designed to be gentle and non-irritating to the eyes, such as eye drops or ointments specifically formulated for ocular use.

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  • 33. 

    A tablet to treat a headache must first be dissolved in water before swallowing. Which one of the following best describes this type of tablet?

    • A.

      Modified release

    • B.

      Oral disintegrating

    • C.

      Effervescent

    • D.

      Buccal

    Correct Answer
    C. Effervescent
    Explanation
    Effervescent tablets are designed to dissolve in water before swallowing. When the tablet is dropped into water, it releases carbon dioxide gas, causing it to fizz and dissolve. This type of tablet is commonly used for medications that need to be rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream, such as headache relievers. The effervescence helps to break down the tablet and increase its surface area, allowing for quicker dissolution and absorption of the medication.

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  • 34. 

    Name two different types of inhaler?

    • A.

      MDI & API

    • B.

      IV & SC

    • C.

      DPI & MDI

    • D.

      GIT & ATP

    Correct Answer
    C. DPI & MDI
    Explanation
    DPI stands for dry powder inhaler, which is a type of inhaler that delivers medication in the form of a dry powder. MDI stands for metered-dose inhaler, which is a type of inhaler that delivers medication in the form of a measured spray. Both DPI and MDI are different types of inhalers used for delivering medication to the lungs, but they differ in the form in which the medication is delivered.

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  • 35. 

    If 25 g of a liquid occupies 20 cm3 in a measuring cylinder, what is the density of the liquid?

    • A.

      0.25 g cm-3

    • B.

      0.8 g cm-3

    • C.

      1.25 g cm-3

    • D.

      5 g cm-3

    Correct Answer
    C. 1.25 g cm-3
    Explanation
    The density of a substance is calculated by dividing its mass by its volume. In this case, the mass of the liquid is given as 25 g and the volume is given as 20 cm3. So, the density can be calculated as 25 g / 20 cm3 = 1.25 g cm-3.

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  • 36. 

    Which property measures the resistance of a liquid to flow?

    • A.

      Density

    • B.

      Viscosity

    • C.

      Volume

    • D.

      Solubility

    Correct Answer
    B. Viscosity
    Explanation
    Viscosity is the property that measures the resistance of a liquid to flow. It refers to the thickness or stickiness of a fluid, and determines how easily it flows. Liquids with high viscosity, such as honey or syrup, flow slowly and have a higher resistance to flow, while liquids with low viscosity, such as water, flow more easily. Density, volume, and solubility are not directly related to the resistance of a liquid to flow.

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  • 37. 

    What is the correct definition of a pseudoplastic liquid?

    • A.

      A liquid which becomes less viscous as the rate of shear increases

    • B.

      A liquid which becomes more viscous as the rate of shear increases

    • C.

      A liquid which becomes less viscous over time when a constant shear stress is applied

    • D.

      A liquid which becomes more viscous over time when a constant shear stress is applied

    Correct Answer
    A. A liquid which becomes less viscous as the rate of shear increases
    Explanation
    A pseudoplastic liquid is a type of fluid that exhibits a decrease in viscosity as the rate of shear increases. This means that as the liquid is subjected to higher levels of deformation or shear stress, it flows more easily and becomes less resistant to flow. This behavior is often observed in materials such as certain types of polymers or suspensions, where the viscosity decreases with increasing shear rate.

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  • 38. 

    What is the kinematic viscosity of a liquid that has a density of 1.2 g cm-3 and a dynamic viscosity of 2 cP?

    • A.

      0.6 m2 s-1

    • B.

      1.67 m2 s-1

    • C.

      0.6 x10-6 m2 s-1

    • D.

      1.67 x10-6 m2 s-1

    Correct Answer
    D. 1.67 x10-6 m2 s-1
    Explanation
    The kinematic viscosity of a liquid is the ratio of its dynamic viscosity to its density. In this case, the liquid has a density of 1.2 g cm-3 and a dynamic viscosity of 2 cP. To find the kinematic viscosity, we divide the dynamic viscosity (2 cP) by the density (1.2 g cm-3). Since the units need to be converted to m2 s-1, we multiply the result by 10-6. Therefore, the kinematic viscosity is 1.67 x10-6 m2 s-1.

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  • 39. 

    What is the concentration of a 0.5 % (w/v) solution when expressed as mg mL-1?

    • A.

      0.005 mg mL-1

    • B.

      0.05 mg mL-1

    • C.

      0.5 mg mL-1

    • D.

      5 mg mL-1

    Correct Answer
    D. 5 mg mL-1
    Explanation
    The concentration of a 0.5% (w/v) solution when expressed as mg mL-1 is 5 mg mL-1. This is because a 0.5% (w/v) solution means that there is 0.5 g of solute (in this case, the substance being dissolved) in 100 mL of solution. To convert this to mg mL-1, we multiply the percentage by 10 to get the concentration in mg per 100 mL. Therefore, 0.5% (w/v) is equal to 5 mg mL-1.

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  • 40. 

    In a solution the substance that is being dissolved is called the___

    • A.

      Solvent

    • B.

      Emulsifier

    • C.

      Solute

    • D.

      Filtrate

    Correct Answer
    D. Filtrate
  • 41. 

    Which of the following wavelength ranges is associated with UV spectroscopy?

    • A.

      0.8 - 500µm

    • B.

      400 - 100nm

    • C.

      380 - 750nm

    • D.

      0.01 - 10nm

    Correct Answer
    B. 400 - 100nm
    Explanation
    The wavelength range of 400 - 100nm is associated with UV spectroscopy. UV spectroscopy involves the study of ultraviolet light, which has wavelengths shorter than visible light. This range is specifically chosen because it corresponds to the wavelengths at which molecules and atoms absorb or emit UV radiation. By measuring the absorption or emission of UV light, scientists can gain insights into the electronic structure and properties of these substances.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following compounds does not absorb light in the UV/visible spectrum?

    • A.

      Aspirin

    • B.

      Paracetamol

    • C.

      Chloral hydrate

    • D.

      Phenobarbitone

    Correct Answer
    C. Chloral hydrate
    Explanation
    Chloral hydrate does not absorb light in the UV/visible spectrum. This is because it does not contain any chromophores, which are groups of atoms responsible for absorbing light. Chromophores typically contain conjugated double bonds or aromatic rings, which allow them to absorb light in the UV/visible range. Aspirin, paracetamol, and phenobarbitone all contain chromophores and can absorb light in the UV/visible spectrum.

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  • 43. 

    20 Carbamazepine tablets were found to weigh 10.000g in total. The tablets were ground to a fine powder using a pestle and mortar. A 0.3000g sample of the powder was boiled with 25ml ethanol for a few minutes. The hot mixture was stirred in a closed flask for 10 minutes and filtered through sintered glass. The flask and filter were washed with ethanol and the washings combined with the filtrate. The cooled mixture was made up to 100ml with ethanol. 5ml of the ethanol extract was diluted to 250ml with ethanol and the absorbance of the resulting solution was found to be 0.588 absorbance units at a wavelength of 285nm. What was the content of a single tablet if the A1%,1cm was 490?

    • A.

      50mg

    • B.

      60mg

    • C.

      100mg

    • D.

      120mg

    Correct Answer
    C. 100mg
    Explanation
    The question describes a process for determining the content of a single tablet of Carbamazepine. The tablets are ground into a powder, and a sample of the powder is boiled with ethanol. The resulting mixture is filtered and combined with washings, then diluted and the absorbance of the solution is measured. The absorbance value is compared to a known value (A1%,1cm) to determine the content of a single tablet. In this case, the absorbance value is 0.588, and the known value is 490. By using the formula A/A1 = c/c1, where A is the measured absorbance, A1 is the known absorbance, c is the concentration of the sample, and c1 is the concentration of the tablet, we can solve for c1 and find that the content of a single tablet is 100mg.

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  • 44. 

    A series of 3 coloured glass plates of equal thickness are placed in a light beam. Each sheet absorbs one quarter of the light incident upon it. What is the intensity of the light transmitted by the third glass plate?

    • A.

      1.56%

    • B.

      42.19%

    • C.

      56.25%

    • D.

      75.00%

    Correct Answer
    B. 42.19%
    Explanation
    Each glass plate absorbs one quarter of the light incident upon it, which means that three plates in total absorb 3/4 (or 75%) of the light. Therefore, the intensity of the light transmitted by the third glass plate is the remaining 25% (100% - 75%), which is equal to 42.19%.

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  • 45. 

    In infrared spectroscopy which frequency range is known as the fingerprint region?

    • A.

      400 - 1400cm-1

    • B.

      1400 - 900cm-1

    • C.

      900 - 600cm-1

    • D.

      600 - 250cm-1

    Correct Answer
    B. 1400 - 900cm-1
    Explanation
    The frequency range of 1400 - 900 cm-1 is known as the fingerprint region in infrared spectroscopy. This range is called the fingerprint region because it contains unique and characteristic absorption bands that can be used to identify specific functional groups in a molecule. These absorption bands arise from the vibrations of the atoms within the molecule, and the specific frequencies in this range provide valuable information about the molecular structure. Therefore, this frequency range is crucial for identifying and analyzing unknown compounds using infrared spectroscopy.

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  • 46. 

    In which region of the infrared spectrum would you expect to find a peak characteristic of a triple bond stretch?

    • A.

      4000 - 3000cm-1

    • B.

      2500 - 2000cm-1

    • C.

      2000 - 1500cm-1

    • D.

      1500 - 750cm-1

    Correct Answer
    B. 2500 - 2000cm-1
    Explanation
    The region of the infrared spectrum between 2500 and 2000 cm-1 is known as the "triple bond region." This is where the stretching vibrations of molecules containing triple bonds, such as alkynes, typically occur. Therefore, it is expected to find a peak characteristic of a triple bond stretch in this region.

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  • 47. 

    In a chromatographic separation, which of the following indices is most appropriate for the qualitative identification of a substance?

    • A.

      Relative retention factor Rrel

    • B.

      Retention factor Rf

    • C.

      Retention time

    • D.

      Resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Relative retention factor Rrel
    Explanation
    The relative retention factor (Rrel) is the most appropriate index for the qualitative identification of a substance in chromatographic separation. Rrel compares the retention time of the substance of interest to the retention time of a reference compound in the same chromatographic system. By comparing the relative retention factors of different substances, it is possible to identify and differentiate them based on their relative affinities for the stationary phase. This allows for the qualitative identification of substances in a chromatographic separation.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify and quantify the presence of a known impurity in a drug substance?

    • A.

      NMR

    • B.

      MS

    • C.

      IR

    • D.

      HPLC

    Correct Answer
    D. HPLC
    Explanation
    HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) would be the most useful technique to identify and quantify the presence of a known impurity in a drug substance. HPLC is a powerful analytical method that separates, detects, and quantifies different components in a mixture. It can provide high sensitivity and selectivity, making it ideal for impurity analysis. NMR (Nuclear Magnetic Resonance), MS (Mass Spectrometry), and IR (Infrared Spectroscopy) are also analytical techniques commonly used in pharmaceutical analysis, but they may not be as effective as HPLC in identifying and quantifying impurities in a drug substance.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following assays could not be performed by gas chromatography?

    • A.

      Characterisation of volatile oils

    • B.

      Measurement of drugs and metabolites in biological fluids

    • C.

      Characterisation of raw materials for drug synthesis

    • D.

      Analysis of intravenous sodium chloride infusion

    Correct Answer
    D. Analysis of intravenous sodium chloride infusion
    Explanation
    Gas chromatography is a technique used to separate and analyze volatile compounds. It is not suitable for analyzing non-volatile substances like intravenous sodium chloride infusion, which is a solution of sodium chloride in water. Gas chromatography requires the sample to be in the gas phase, and since sodium chloride infusion is a liquid, it cannot be directly analyzed using this method.

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  • 50. 

    Following are tablet coating defects except:

    • A.

      Friability

    • B.

      Orange Peel Effect

    • C.

      Blistering

    • D.

      Picking and sticking

    Correct Answer
    A. Friability
    Explanation
    Friability is not a tablet coating defect. Friability refers to the tendency of a tablet to crumble or break when subjected to mechanical stress, such as during handling or packaging. It is not related to the quality of the tablet coating. The other options listed (Orange Peel Effect, Blistering, Picking and sticking) are all common tablet coating defects that can affect the appearance and functionality of the tablets.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 06, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Pharmacareer2015
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