Mpharm-cet Test No.1

50 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

MPHARM-CET TEST NO. 1Designed by Dr. Anwar R. ShaikhCourtesy:1) Dr. Aman B. Upaganlawar (M. Pharm,PhD,MAMS)Associate Professor, Department of Pharmacology. SNJBs SSDJ College of Pharmacy,Neminagar,Chandwad. Dist:Nashik:423 1012) Mr. C V PanchalAsst. ProfessorDept. Of Pharmacognosy,Maharashtra College of Pharmacy,Nilanga, Dist. Latur, PIN-413521


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except
    • A. 

      Adrenaline

    • B. 

      Growth Hormone

    • C. 

      Insulin

    • D. 

      Thyroxin

  • 2. 
    A highly ionized drug
    • A. 

      Is excreted mainly by the kidney

    • B. 

      Can cross the placental barrier easily

    • C. 

      Is well absorbed from the intestine

    • D. 

      Accumulates in the cellular lipids

  • 3. 
    Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?
    • A. 

      It is not associated with atrophy of adrenal glands

    • B. 

      It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids

    • C. 

      It should be expected in anyone receiving greater than 5mg of prednisolone daily

    • D. 

      Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks

  • 4. 
    With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?
    • A. 

      Histamine receptors

    • B. 

      Bradykinin receptors

    • C. 

      Adenosine receptors

    • D. 

      Imidazoline receptors

  • 5. 
    Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility?
    • A. 

      Glycopyrrolate

    • B. 

      Atropine

    • C. 

      Neostigmine

    • D. 

      Fentanyl

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of flux?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron

    • B. 

      Metaclopramide

    • C. 

      Sodium citrate

    • D. 

      Atropine

  • 7. 
    Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of flux?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron

    • B. 

      Metaclopramide

    • C. 

      Sodium citrate

    • D. 

      Atropine

  • 8. 
    Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is
    • A. 

      Phenobarbitone

    • B. 

      Flumazenil

    • C. 

      Beta-carboline

    • D. 

      Gabapentin

  • 9. 
    1. At the end of phase III clinical trial the drug will be submitted to the relevant regulatory authority for:
    • A. 

      Licensing

    • B. 

      Evaluation

    • C. 

      Post Marketing studies

    • D. 

      All of above

  • 10. 
    Rectal administration of drugs:
    • A. 

      Gives predictable blood levels

    • B. 

      From lower 1/3rd avoids first pass & upper 2/3rds doesn’t

    • C. 

      None undergoes first pass metabolism

    • D. 

      All of it undergoes first pass metabolism

  • 11. 
    Different species of Ephedra can be identified by observing the nature of 
    • A. 

      Inner surface

    • B. 

      Outer surface

    • C. 

      Trichomes

    • D. 

      Scaly Leaves

  • 12. 
    Indian Rhubarb can be  distinguished from Rhapontic Rhubarb by the flurorescence it emits under UV light, Indian Rhubarb gives:
    • A. 

      Deep yellow

    • B. 

      Deep Violate

    • C. 

      Orange

    • D. 

      Pale Green

  • 13. 
    Genetically modified species of papaver namely papaver bracetum and papver oriental contain the predominant alkaloid:
    • A. 

      Morphine

    • B. 

      Codeine

    • C. 

      Thebaine

    • D. 

      Narcotine

  • 14. 
    A substance used  for the modification of silica gel for reversed phase TLC is:
    • A. 

      Benzene

    • B. 

      Glycerine

    • C. 

      Silicone Oil

    • D. 

      Ether

  • 15. 
    Klunge's Test is for the identification of:
    • A. 

      Barbaloin

    • B. 

      Isobarbaloin

    • C. 

      Alionosides

    • D. 

      Aleosin

  • 16. 
    Microscopic character of Ginger Rhizome are:
    • A. 

      Spindle shaped lignified fibers and sclerides

    • B. 

      Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate and sclerides

    • C. 

      Non lignified vessels and sac shaped starch grains

    • D. 

      Non lignified vessels and sclerides

  • 17. 
    A transeverse section of the root of Glycerrhiza glabra when treated with 80% Sulphuric acid gives:
    • A. 

      Deep yellow colour

    • B. 

      No reaction but only charring

    • C. 

      Deep blue colour

    • D. 

      Deep red colour

  • 18. 
    A naturally occuring amino acid which does not have a chiral centre is :
    • A. 

      Glycine

    • B. 

      Alanine

    • C. 

      Tryptophane

    • D. 

      Tyrosine

  • 19. 
    Match Group I with II:Group I                       Group II1. Gentisin               a. Flavonol2. Genistein             b. Flavone3. Apigenin              c. Xanthone4. Quercetin            d. Isoflavone
    • A. 

      1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

    • B. 

      1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

    • C. 

      1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

    • D. 

      1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

  • 20. 
    Microscopy of the bulbs of Urgenia indica family Liliaceae shows:
    • A. 

      Prism of calcium oxalate

    • B. 

      Calcium carbonate and silica

    • C. 

      Rosetters of calcium oxalate

    • D. 

      Rhaphides of calcium oxalate

  • 21. 
    What term is used to indicate the ability of a cancer to invade other parts of the body and to produce secondary tumours?
    • A. 

      Carcinogenesis

    • B. 

      Apoptosis

    • C. 

      Metastasis

    • D. 

      Mutagenesis

  • 22. 
    Which molecules are involved in the anchoring of cells to an extracellular matrix?
    • A. 

      Integrins

    • B. 

      Interleukins

    • C. 

      Angiostatin

    • D. 

      Cyclins

  • 23. 
    Which of the following statements is false with respect to an enzyme's ability to catalyse a reaction?
    • A. 

      An enzyme provides a reaction surface and a suitable environment for the reaction to take place

    • B. 

      An enzyme binds reactants such that they are positioned correctly and can attain their transition-state configurations

    • C. 

      An enzyme allows the reaction to go through a less stable transition state than would normally be the case

    • D. 

      An enzyme can weaken bonds in reactants through the binding process

  • 24. 
    Which of the following statements is not true regarding the active site of an enzyme?
    • A. 

      An active site is normally a hollow or cleft on the surface of an enzyme.

    • B. 

      An active site is normally hydrophilic in nature.

    • C. 

      Substrates fit into active sites and bind to functional groups within the active site.

    • D. 

      An active site contains amino acids which are important to the binding process and the catalytic mechanism.

  • 25. 
    Which of the following statements best describes an allosteric binding site?
    • A. 

      It is a binding site containing amino acids with aliphatic side chains.

    • B. 

      It is a binding site that can accept a wide variety of differently shaped molecules.

    • C. 

      It is a binding site, which is separate from the active site, and affects the activity of an enzyme when it is occupied by a ligand.

    • D. 

      It is a description of an active site which has undergone an induced fit.

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Treatment of myasthenia gravis

    • B. 

      'Switching off' the gastrointestinal tract prior to surgery

    • C. 

      'Switching on' the urinary tract after surgery

    • D. 

      Increasing heart muscle activity in certain heart defects

  • 27. 
    Atropine has been used to decrease gastrointestinal motility and to counteract anticholinesterase poisoning.What function does this molecule have?
    • A. 

      Muscarinic agonist

    • B. 

      Muscarinic antagonist

    • C. 

      Nicotinic agonist

    • D. 

      Nicotinic antagonist

  • 28. 
    Which feature of acetylcholine interacts with the binding site of cholinergic receptors by hydrogen bonding?What function does this molecule have?
    • A. 

      The acyl methyl group

    • B. 

      The ester

    • C. 

      The quaternary nitrogen

    • D. 

      All three N-methyl groups

  • 29. 
    One of the following belongs to imidazolidine-2,4-dione class:
    • A. 

      Phenytoin

    • B. 

      Trimethadione

    • C. 

      Phensuximide

    • D. 

      Paramethadione

  • 30. 
    Indication of clonazepam is: 
    • A. 

      Myoclonic epilepsy

    • B. 

      Partial motor seizers

    • C. 

      Status epilepticus

    • D. 

      Partial complex seizures

  • 31. 
    Of the following oral liquid formulations which would be considered as an oropharyngeal formulation? 
    • A. 

      Syrup

    • B. 

      Elixir

    • C. 

      Mouthwash

    • D. 

      Linctus

  • 32. 
    Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration? 
    • A. 

      Solution

    • B. 

      Liniment

    • C. 

      Suspension

    • D. 

      Ointment

  • 33. 
    A tablet to treat a headache must first be dissolved in water before swallowing. Which one of the following best describes this type of tablet?
    • A. 

      Modified release

    • B. 

      Oral disintegrating

    • C. 

      Effervescent

    • D. 

      Buccal

  • 34. 
    Name two different types of inhaler?
    • A. 

      MDI & API

    • B. 

      IV & SC

    • C. 

      DPI & MDI

    • D. 

      GIT & ATP

  • 35. 
    If 25 g of a liquid occupies 20 cm3 in a measuring cylinder, what is the density of the liquid?
    • A. 

      0.25 g cm-3

    • B. 

      0.8 g cm-3

    • C. 

      1.25 g cm-3

    • D. 

      5 g cm-3

  • 36. 
    Which property measures the resistance of a liquid to flow?
    • A. 

      Density

    • B. 

      Viscosity

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Solubility

  • 37. 
    What is the correct definition of a pseudoplastic liquid?
    • A. 

      A liquid which becomes less viscous as the rate of shear increases

    • B. 

      A liquid which becomes more viscous as the rate of shear increases

    • C. 

      A liquid which becomes less viscous over time when a constant shear stress is applied

    • D. 

      A liquid which becomes more viscous over time when a constant shear stress is applied

  • 38. 
    What is the kinematic viscosity of a liquid that has a density of 1.2 g cm-3 and a dynamic viscosity of 2 cP?
    • A. 

      0.6 m2 s-1

    • B. 

      1.67 m2 s-1

    • C. 

      0.6 x10-6 m2 s-1

    • D. 

      1.67 x10-6 m2 s-1

  • 39. 
    What is the concentration of a 0.5 % (w/v) solution when expressed as mg mL-1?
    • A. 

      0.005 mg mL-1

    • B. 

      0.05 mg mL-1

    • C. 

      0.5 mg mL-1

    • D. 

      5 mg mL-1

  • 40. 
    In a solution the substance that is being dissolved is called the___
    • A. 

      Solvent

    • B. 

      Emulsifier

    • C. 

      Solute

    • D. 

      Filtrate

  • 41. 
    Which of the following wavelength ranges is associated with UV spectroscopy?
    • A. 

      0.8 - 500µm

    • B. 

      400 - 100nm

    • C. 

      380 - 750nm

    • D. 

      0.01 - 10nm

  • 42. 
    Which of the following compounds does not absorb light in the UV/visible spectrum?
    • A. 

      Aspirin

    • B. 

      Paracetamol

    • C. 

      Chloral hydrate

    • D. 

      Phenobarbitone

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      50mg

    • B. 

      60mg

    • C. 

      100mg

    • D. 

      120mg

  • 44. 
    A series of 3 coloured glass plates of equal thickness are placed in a light beam. Each sheet absorbs one quarter of the light incident upon it. What is the intensity of the light transmitted by the third glass plate?
    • A. 

      1.56%

    • B. 

      42.19%

    • C. 

      56.25%

    • D. 

      75.00%

  • 45. 
    In infrared spectroscopy which frequency range is known as the fingerprint region?
    • A. 

      400 - 1400cm-1

    • B. 

      1400 - 900cm-1

    • C. 

      900 - 600cm-1

    • D. 

      600 - 250cm-1

  • 46. 
    In which region of the infrared spectrum would you expect to find a peak characteristic of a triple bond stretch?
    • A. 

      4000 - 3000cm-1

    • B. 

      2500 - 2000cm-1

    • C. 

      2000 - 1500cm-1

    • D. 

      1500 - 750cm-1

  • 47. 
    In a chromatographic separation, which of the following indices is most appropriate for the qualitative identification of a substance?
    • A. 

      Relative retention factor Rrel

    • B. 

      Retention factor Rf

    • C. 

      Retention time

    • D. 

      Resolution

  • 48. 
    Which of the following techniques would be most useful to identify and quantify the presence of a known impurity in a drug substance?
    • A. 

      NMR

    • B. 

      MS

    • C. 

      IR

    • D. 

      HPLC

  • 49. 
    Which of the following assays could not be performed by gas chromatography?
    • A. 

      Characterisation of volatile oils

    • B. 

      Measurement of drugs and metabolites in biological fluids

    • C. 

      Characterisation of raw materials for drug synthesis

    • D. 

      Analysis of intravenous sodium chloride infusion

  • 50. 
    Following are tablet coating defects except:
    • A. 

      Friability

    • B. 

      Orange Peel Effect

    • C. 

      Blistering

    • D. 

      Picking and sticking