3DX7X Vol 2 UREs 2019
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning
- B.
Crisis action planning
- C.
Mobilization planning
- D.
Force rotational planning
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate planningExplanation
Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is typically done in advance and allows for thorough analysis and consideration of various factors before making decisions and taking action. Crisis action planning, on the other hand, is a more immediate and reactive process that focuses on responding to an ongoing crisis. Mobilization planning involves the preparation and organization of resources for deployment, while force rotational planning deals with the rotation of forces to maintain readiness and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1
- B.
Volume 2
- C.
Volume 3
- D.
Volume 4
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1Explanation
Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. This volume is likely to contain comprehensive information and instructions on various aspects of mobilization planning, including the overall strategy, policies, and guidelines to be followed during wartime. It serves as a valuable resource for military planners and decision-makers involved in mobilization efforts.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO)
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM)
- D.
Joint Staff
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) CenterExplanation
The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
Standard unit type code (UTC)
- B.
Joint force/capability
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO)
- D.
Ad hoc
Correct Answer
B. Joint force/capabilityExplanation
The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This could occur when one service is unable to fulfill its mission and another service steps in to provide the necessary support. It allows for flexibility and cooperation between different branches of the military to ensure that missions are still carried out effectively.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Facility condition
- D.
Equipment condition
Correct Answer
C. Facility conditionExplanation
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports on various areas related to resources and training. These areas include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Home station mission
- D.
Equipment condition
Correct Answer
C. Home station missionExplanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories to assess the preparedness of the force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the home station mission is not a readiness category measured by ART. This means that ART does not specifically evaluate the readiness of the force in terms of their ability to carry out their home station mission.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
- A.
10–201
- B.
10–244
- C.
10–401
- D.
10–403
Correct Answer
B. 10–244Explanation
The correct answer is 10-244. This is because AFI 10-244 provides the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10–201
- B.
AFI 10–244
- C.
AFI 10–401
- D.
AFI 10–403
Correct Answer
A. AFI 10–201Explanation
AFI 10-201 is the correct answer because it provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units
- B.
Joint Planners
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET
Correct Answer
A. Pilot UnitsExplanation
Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC).Rate this question:
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- 10.
(205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection
- B.
Airfield operations
- C.
Force accountability
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
Correct Answer
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)Explanation
The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks related to airbase operations. Force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability are all initial capabilities of the module, meaning they are included as part of its primary functions. However, explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) is not listed as an initial capability, indicating that it is not a primary function of the module.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Force protection and logistics
- B.
Intelligence and force protection
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability
Correct Answer
C. Secure communications and intelligenceExplanation
In order to establish control in the Command and Control module, two key capabilities are required: secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications ensure that information is transmitted securely between different units and levels of command, enabling effective coordination and decision-making. Intelligence provides commanders with the necessary information about the operational environment, including the enemy's capabilities and intentions, allowing them to make informed decisions and effectively control their forces.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the airbase
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Establish the airbase
- D.
Generate the mission
Correct Answer
C. Establish the airbaseExplanation
The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the airbase, ensuring that all necessary infrastructure and resources are in place for the airfield to effectively generate air support.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days
- B.
2 days, 14 days
- C.
7 days, 14 days
- D.
14 days, 30 days
Correct Answer
B. 2 days, 14 daysExplanation
Within 2 days after opening the airbase, the airbase force module arrives. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission
- B.
Establish the airbase
- C.
Operate the airbase
- D.
Robust the airbase
Correct Answer
D. Robust the airbaseExplanation
The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This implies that the process of strengthening and fortifying the airbase is necessary to ensure its long-term sustainability and ability to withstand potential threats or challenges. These support forces may include additional personnel, equipment, supplies, or infrastructure that are brought in after the initial establishment of the airbase to enhance its capabilities and resilience.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL
- B.
Travis AFB, CA
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ
Correct Answer
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJExplanation
The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing headquarters is situated.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O–4
- B.
O–5
- C.
O–6
- D.
O–7
Correct Answer
C. O–6Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A.
Command and control
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Robust the airbase
- D.
Open the airbase
Correct Answer
A. Command and controlExplanation
The correct answer is "Command and control." In a theater deployable communications (TDC) scenario, the force module that is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is the command and control force module. This module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making in the field.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (km)
- B.
4 km
- C.
8 km
- D.
16 km
Correct Answer
D. 16 kmExplanation
In the operate the air base module, the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km. This means that any extended site within a 16 km radius from the NCC-D can still be effectively managed and controlled. Beyond this distance, the NCC-D may face limitations in communication and coordination with the extended site, potentially impacting its operational effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy
- B.
Combat plans
- C.
Combat support
- D.
Combat operations
Correct Answer
C. Combat supportExplanation
Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are part of the center's functions. Combat support refers to the assistance and services provided to combat forces, such as logistics, intelligence, and communications. While combat support is an essential aspect of military operations, it is not specifically categorized as a division within the Air and Space Operations Center.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ–9 Reaper
- B.
RQ–11B Raven
- C.
MQ–1B Predator
- D.
RQ–4B Global Hawk
Correct Answer
B. RQ–11B RavenExplanation
The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS). The other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems. The Raven is a lightweight, hand-launched UAS that is used for low-altitude surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team of soldiers, making it suitable for small-scale operations.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3, Cyber SuretyExplanation
The correct answer is 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units. The other options, 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems, and 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems, are all career fields that are assigned to engineering installation units.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES)
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS)
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS)
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
Correct Answer
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)Explanation
The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72 hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
- A.
1942
- B.
1954
- C.
1988
- D.
1998
Correct Answer
D. 1998Explanation
In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a more streamlined and efficient broadcasting system for the armed forces, ensuring that troops stationed around the world had access to news, entertainment, and other programming. Prior to this merger, the armed forces broadcasting affiliates operated independently, which could lead to inconsistencies and inefficiencies. By merging under AFN, the armed forces were able to centralize their broadcasting efforts and provide a more cohesive and effective service for military personnel.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00–33A–1001
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1002
- C.
MPTO 00–33A–2001
- D.
MPTO 00–33A–2002
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00–33A–1001Explanation
MPTO 00-33A-1001 is the correct answer because it specifically defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives. The other options, MPTO 00-33A-1002, MPTO 00-33A-2001, and MPTO 00-33A-2002, do not provide this specific definition of project management.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support
Correct Answer
C. Plan, execute, close, and controlExplanation
The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This answer accurately describes the five phases of project management. The first phase is planning, where the project objectives, scope, and resources are defined. The second phase is execution, where the project plan is put into action. The third phase is closure, where the project is completed, and any remaining tasks or documentation are finalized. The final phase is control, where the project progress and performance are monitored to ensure that it stays on track and meets its objectives.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Funding
- B.
Technical solution
- C.
Requirements management plan
- D.
Answers, guidance, and education
Correct Answer
D. Answers, guidance, and educationExplanation
In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education to the team. This is important as it helps to clarify any queries or concerns the team may have, provides direction and support, and ensures that everyone is on the same page. The project manager plays a crucial role in providing the necessary information and knowledge to the team members, helping them understand the project objectives, requirements, and expectations. This helps in setting a strong foundation for the project and ensures that the team is well-equipped to start the project successfully.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
- A.
Processes
- B.
Priorities
- C.
Requirements
- D.
Technical solutions
Correct Answer
C. RequirementsExplanation
The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the necessary specifications and functionalities that the cyberspace infrastructure must possess in order to meet the desired objectives and goals. These documents serve as the foundation for designing and developing the infrastructure, ensuring that it aligns with the specific needs and expectations of the organization or project.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost management plan
- B.
Allied support plan
- C.
Technical plan
- D.
Material plan
Correct Answer
A. Cost management planExplanation
The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary details and components of a project. It includes various plans, such as the Cost Management Plan, which outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. This plan helps in ensuring that the project stays within budget and that cost-related risks are effectively managed. Therefore, the Cost Management Plan is a key item that is contained within the Project Plan.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A.
The status
- B.
A milestone
- C.
A deliverable
- D.
The final result
Correct Answer
C. A deliverableExplanation
A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is the tangible or intangible result that is expected to be produced at the end of the project. This could be a document, a software application, a report, a physical product, or any other measurable outcome. The deliverable represents the final result that the project team is working towards and is usually defined and agreed upon with the project stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(211) Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
Status request
- B.
Defect repairs
- C.
Preventive action
- D.
Corrective action
Correct Answer
B. Defect repairsExplanation
Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet requirement specifications. When a defect is identified in the project, a change request is submitted to address and fix the issue. Defect repairs focus on rectifying specific problems or errors in the project deliverables, ensuring that they meet the required specifications. This type of change request is essential for maintaining the quality and integrity of the project.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(212) What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 745
- B.
AFTO Form 747
- C.
AFTO Form 749
- D.
AF Form 1747
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 747Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document that is used to validate the successful installation of a communications system and marks the end of a project. This form is commonly used in the Air Force to document and track the completion of maintenance and installation tasks. It serves as a record of the work performed and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken to ensure the proper functioning of the communications system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(212) Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
- A.
Major
- B.
Minor
- C.
Major and minor
- D.
Major and critical
Correct Answer
A. MajorExplanation
Major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's ability to meet specified operational requirements. These exceptions are serious and can cause significant disruptions or failures in the system's functioning. In contrast, minor exceptions refer to less severe issues that may have a limited impact on the system's performance but can still affect its overall effectiveness. Therefore, the correct answer is "Major" as it accurately describes exceptions that can prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(213) What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
- A.
Follow-up
- B.
Controlling
- C.
Organization
- D.
Documenting
Correct Answer
A. Follow-upExplanation
Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. Follow-up involves regularly monitoring the project's progress, addressing any issues or obstacles that arise, and ensuring that all tasks and activities are being completed according to the project plan. By conducting follow-up, project managers can identify and resolve any deviations or delays, keep stakeholders informed, and make necessary adjustments to keep the project on track. Without proper follow-up, it would be difficult to maintain control over the project and ensure its successful completion.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(213) Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
AF Form 1146
- B.
AF Form 1747
- C.
AFTO Form 46
- D.
AFTO Form 47
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1146Explanation
AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. It is the correct form to use for this purpose. The other forms listed (AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47) are not specifically designed for requesting changes during a project, so they would not be the correct choice in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(214) Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Project monitor
- B.
Project manager
- C.
Communication squadron
- D.
Implementing organization
Correct Answer
D. Implementing organizationExplanation
The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who take charge of executing the necessary actions and tasks to bring the solution into effect. This can involve coordinating with various stakeholders, managing resources, and overseeing the implementation process to ensure that the technical solution is successfully deployed and operational within the base.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(214) What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A.
Project monitor
- B.
Project manager
- C.
Program action officer
- D.
Program action monitor
Correct Answer
C. Program action officerExplanation
A Program Action Officer is a title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This role involves supporting the program manager in various tasks related to program management, such as coordinating and monitoring program activities, ensuring compliance with program goals and objectives, and facilitating communication between different stakeholders involved in the program. The Program Action Officer plays a crucial role in ensuring the successful implementation and execution of the program.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(215) The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
- A.
Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement
- B.
Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
- C.
Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
- D.
Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement
Correct Answer
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvementExplanation
The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement". This is because these stages represent the key phases in the ITIL service life cycle. Service design involves designing new or modified services to meet the business requirements. Service transition involves transitioning the new or modified services into operation. Service operation involves the day-to-day management and delivery of the services. Continual service improvement focuses on ongoing improvements to the services to ensure they meet the changing needs of the business.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service improvement
- B.
Service transition
- C.
Service strategy
- D.
Service design
Correct Answer
C. Service strategyExplanation
In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's objectives and customer needs, and then developing a strategy to meet those needs. It involves making decisions on which services to offer, how to differentiate from competitors, and how to allocate resources effectively. Therefore, Service Strategy is the correct answer as it aligns with the purpose of determining the underlying principles for developing the necessary components throughout the Service Life Cycle.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
- A.
Service design
- B.
Service strategy
- C.
Service transition
- D.
Service operation
Correct Answer
C. Service transitionExplanation
In the Service Transition stage of the ITIL framework, the focus is on implementing the designed service effectively and efficiently in the live environment. This stage involves activities such as building, testing, and deploying the service, as well as managing the changes and ensuring a smooth transition from the development stage to the operational stage. Therefore, Service Transition is the stage where the framework is created to ensure the successful implementation of the designed service in the live environment.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(216) Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because in the given statement it is mentioned that engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier. This indicates that the engineering support is provided by Tier 2 of the Cyberspace Systems Integrator.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(217) Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A.
AFI 33–115
- B.
AFI 33–150
- C.
TO 00–33D–3001
- D.
TO 00–33D–3004
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33–150 -
- 42.
(217) Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
Work orders
- B.
Trouble tickets
- C.
Infrastructure requirements
- D.
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR)
Correct Answer
A. Work ordersExplanation
The correct answer is work orders. In the context of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS), work orders refer to the functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level. These enhancements are typically completed within a short timeframe of less than 30 days and are in the form of a maintenance task order. Work orders are a common method used to organize and track maintenance tasks and ensure that they are completed efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(217) Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
- A.
Organic
- B.
Contract
- C.
Inorganic
- D.
Self-Help
Correct Answer
D. Self-HelpExplanation
The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. This means that they rely on their own resources and capabilities to fund their operations and projects, rather than seeking external funding or relying on contracts with outside entities. Self-Help allows the squadron to be self-sufficient and take ownership of their funding needs within the base.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(217) Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
- A.
TO 00–33A–1001
- B.
TO 00–33D–3003
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
- D.
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–33D–3003 -
- 45.
(218) As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A.
Base Communications Systems Officer
- B.
Affected Work Center
- C.
Base Civil Engineer
- D.
Project Managers
Correct Answer
C. Base Civil EngineerExplanation
The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions as a minimum. This role typically focuses on the design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure and facilities on a military base, rather than reviewing and validating technical solutions for other areas. Therefore, their involvement in reviewing and validating technical solutions may not be necessary.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(218) Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requires services from outside agencies
- B.
Mobility (deployment) equipment
- C.
Requires additional manpower
- D.
Requires additional funding
Correct Answer
D. Requires additional fundingExplanation
The requirement for additional funding is not considered a special cause because it is a common need in many projects. While the other options may require special attention or resources, the need for additional funding is a normal part of project planning and can be addressed through budgeting and financial management.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(219) In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan
- C.
Supporting Plan
- D.
Operational Plan
Correct Answer
A. Concept PlanExplanation
A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific details of how it will be executed logistically.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(219) When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan
- C.
Supporting Plan
- D.
Operational Plan
Correct Answer
C. Supporting PlanExplanation
When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is a type of plan that provides detailed guidance and instructions on how to execute specific tasks or operations in support of the larger contingency plan. It outlines the resources, personnel, and actions required to achieve specific objectives and support the overall mission. The supporting plan is designed to coordinate and synchronize efforts with other supporting plans and the overarching operational plan, ensuring that all elements work together effectively to achieve the desired outcome.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(219) If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
- A.
Programming Plan (PPLAN)
- B.
Program Action Directive (PAD)
- C.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
- D.
Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD)
Correct Answer
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraphExplanation
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(219) What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
Special Measures
- B.
Administration
- C.
Assumptions
- D.
Logistics
Correct Answer
D. LogisticsExplanation
The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This area would outline the specific procedures and protocols that need to be followed in order to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of the communications systems during wartime.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 02, 2019Quiz Created by
Wes
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