3DX7X Vol 2 UREs 2019

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  • 1/70 Questions

    (206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

    • O–4
    • O–5
    • O–6
    • O–7
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About This Quiz

This quiz covers deployment planning, mobilization planning, and readiness reporting in the Air Force as per the 2019 guidelines.

3DX7X Vol 2 UREs 2019 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

    • 2 kilometers (km)

    • 4 km

    • 8 km

    • 16 km

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 km
    Explanation
    In the operate the air base module, the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km. This means that any extended site within a 16 km radius from the NCC-D can still be effectively managed and controlled. Beyond this distance, the NCC-D may face limitations in communication and coordination with the extended site, potentially impacting its operational effectiveness.

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  • 3. 

    (207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

    • MQ–9 Reaper

    • RQ–11B Raven

    • MQ–1B Predator

    • RQ–4B Global Hawk

    Correct Answer
    A. RQ–11B Raven
    Explanation
    The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS). The other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems. The Raven is a lightweight, hand-launched UAS that is used for low-altitude surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team of soldiers, making it suitable for small-scale operations.

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  • 4. 

    (209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

    • Funding

    • Technical solution

    • Requirements management plan

    • Answers, guidance, and education

    Correct Answer
    A. Answers, guidance, and education
    Explanation
    In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education to the team. This is important as it helps to clarify any queries or concerns the team may have, provides direction and support, and ensures that everyone is on the same page. The project manager plays a crucial role in providing the necessary information and knowledge to the team members, helping them understand the project objectives, requirements, and expectations. This helps in setting a strong foundation for the project and ensures that the team is well-equipped to start the project successfully.

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  • 5. 

    (210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

    • Cost management plan

    • Allied support plan

    • Technical plan

    • Material plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost management plan
    Explanation
    The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary details and components of a project. It includes various plans, such as the Cost Management Plan, which outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. This plan helps in ensuring that the project stays within budget and that cost-related risks are effectively managed. Therefore, the Cost Management Plan is a key item that is contained within the Project Plan.

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  • 6. 

    (213) What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

    • Follow-up

    • Controlling

    • Organization

    • Documenting

    Correct Answer
    A. Follow-up
    Explanation
    Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. Follow-up involves regularly monitoring the project's progress, addressing any issues or obstacles that arise, and ensuring that all tasks and activities are being completed according to the project plan. By conducting follow-up, project managers can identify and resolve any deviations or delays, keep stakeholders informed, and make necessary adjustments to keep the project on track. Without proper follow-up, it would be difficult to maintain control over the project and ensure its successful completion.

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  • 7. 

    (216) Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 because in the given statement it is mentioned that engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier. This indicates that the engineering support is provided by Tier 2 of the Cyberspace Systems Integrator.

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  • 8. 

    (217) Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

    • Organic

    • Contract

    • Inorganic

    • Self-Help

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-Help
    Explanation
    The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. This means that they rely on their own resources and capabilities to fund their operations and projects, rather than seeking external funding or relying on contracts with outside entities. Self-Help allows the squadron to be self-sufficient and take ownership of their funding needs within the base.

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  • 9. 

    (219) If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the

    • Programming Plan (PPLAN)

    • Program Action Directive (PAD)

    • Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph

    • Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
    Explanation
    If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.

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  • 10. 

    (219) What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?

    • Special Measures

    • Administration

    • Assumptions

    • Logistics

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics
    Explanation
    The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This area would outline the specific procedures and protocols that need to be followed in order to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of the communications systems during wartime.

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  • 11. 

    (223) Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

    • Sole Source

    • Firm Fixed Price

    • Time and Material

    • Performance Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Sole Source
    Explanation
    When there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services, a sole source contract is permissible. This means that there is only one potential supplier or contractor who can meet the specific needs of the contract. In this situation, it would not be feasible or necessary to go through a competitive bidding process, as there is no other option available. A sole source contract allows for a direct agreement between the buyer and the supplier or contractor, without the need for competition.

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  • 12. 

    (226) Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

    • Base Civil Engineering

    • Gaining Work Center

    • Contracting Office

    • Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Civil Engineering
    Explanation
    Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. This department is typically in charge of the construction, maintenance, and repair of buildings and infrastructure on a military base. They are responsible for ensuring that all facilities are in compliance with safety, health, and environmental regulations.

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  • 13. 

    (205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

    • Force protection

    • Airfield operations

    • Force accountability

    • Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
    Explanation
    The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks related to airbase operations. Force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability are all initial capabilities of the module, meaning they are included as part of its primary functions. However, explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) is not listed as an initial capability, indicating that it is not a primary function of the module.

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  • 14. 

    (205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

    • Generate the mission

    • Establish the airbase

    • Operate the airbase

    • Robust the airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Robust the airbase
    Explanation
    The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This implies that the process of strengthening and fortifying the airbase is necessary to ensure its long-term sustainability and ability to withstand potential threats or challenges. These support forces may include additional personnel, equipment, supplies, or infrastructure that are brought in after the initial establishment of the airbase to enhance its capabilities and resilience.

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  • 15. 

    (208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

    • 1942

    • 1954

    • 1988

    • 1998

    Correct Answer
    A. 1998
    Explanation
    In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a more streamlined and efficient broadcasting system for the armed forces, ensuring that troops stationed around the world had access to news, entertainment, and other programming. Prior to this merger, the armed forces broadcasting affiliates operated independently, which could lead to inconsistencies and inefficiencies. By merging under AFN, the armed forces were able to centralize their broadcasting efforts and provide a more cohesive and effective service for military personnel.

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  • 16. 

    (209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

    • Processes

    • Priorities

    • Requirements

    • Technical solutions

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements
    Explanation
    The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the necessary specifications and functionalities that the cyberspace infrastructure must possess in order to meet the desired objectives and goals. These documents serve as the foundation for designing and developing the infrastructure, ensuring that it aligns with the specific needs and expectations of the organization or project.

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  • 17. 

    (218) Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

    • Requires services from outside agencies

    • Mobility (deployment) equipment

    • Requires additional manpower

    • Requires additional funding

    Correct Answer
    A. Requires additional funding
    Explanation
    The requirement for additional funding is not considered a special cause because it is a common need in many projects. While the other options may require special attention or resources, the need for additional funding is a normal part of project planning and can be addressed through budgeting and financial management.

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  • 18. 

    (226) Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

    • Major Construction

    • Minor Construction

    • All military construction

    • None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation

    Correct Answer
    A. All military construction
    Explanation
    All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction project related to the military, regardless of its scale or significance, must go through the necessary approval and funding processes.

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  • 19. 

    (205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

    • Force protection and logistics

    • Intelligence and force protection

    • Secure communications and intelligence

    • Secure communications and force accountability

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure communications and intelligence
    Explanation
    In order to establish control in the Command and Control module, two key capabilities are required: secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications ensure that information is transmitted securely between different units and levels of command, enabling effective coordination and decision-making. Intelligence provides commanders with the necessary information about the operational environment, including the enemy's capabilities and intentions, allowing them to make informed decisions and effectively control their forces.

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  • 20. 

    (204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

    • Pilot Units

    • Joint Planners

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron

    • Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot Units
    Explanation
    Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC).

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  • 21. 

    (217) Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

    • Work orders

    • Trouble tickets

    • Infrastructure requirements

    • Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Work orders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is work orders. In the context of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS), work orders refer to the functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level. These enhancements are typically completed within a short timeframe of less than 30 days and are in the form of a maintenance task order. Work orders are a common method used to organize and track maintenance tasks and ensure that they are completed efficiently and effectively.

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  • 22. 

    (212) What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

    • AFTO Form 745

    • AFTO Form 747

    • AFTO Form 749

    • AF Form 1747

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 747
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document that is used to validate the successful installation of a communications system and marks the end of a project. This form is commonly used in the Air Force to document and track the completion of maintenance and installation tasks. It serves as a record of the work performed and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken to ensure the proper functioning of the communications system.

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  • 23. 

    (215) The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,

    • Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement

    • Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    • Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    • Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    Correct Answer
    A. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement". This is because these stages represent the key phases in the ITIL service life cycle. Service design involves designing new or modified services to meet the business requirements. Service transition involves transitioning the new or modified services into operation. Service operation involves the day-to-day management and delivery of the services. Continual service improvement focuses on ongoing improvements to the services to ensure they meet the changing needs of the business.

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  • 24. 

    (219) In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

    • Concept Plan

    • Functional Plan

    • Supporting Plan

    • Operational Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept Plan
    Explanation
    A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific details of how it will be executed logistically.

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  • 25. 

    (219) Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?

    • Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum

    • Facilities Utilization Board

    • Mission Briefings

    • Informal Meeting

    Correct Answer
    A. Facilities Utilization Board
    Explanation
    The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is the type of planning meeting that identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations. This board is responsible for assessing the utilization of facilities and making decisions regarding their use and management.

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  • 26. 

    (221) As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

    • 6 months

    • 1 year

    • 2 years

    • 3 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years
    Explanation
    A support agreement must be reviewed at least 3 years after its effective date. This ensures that the terms and conditions of the agreement are still relevant and up-to-date. Regular reviews help identify any necessary changes or updates that may be required to ensure the agreement continues to meet the needs and expectations of both parties involved. By reviewing the agreement every 3 years, any potential issues or discrepancies can be addressed in a timely manner, promoting a smooth and effective support process.

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  • 27. 

    (206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

    • Scott AFB, IL

    • Travis AFB, CA

    • Peterson AFB, CO

    • Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing headquarters is situated.

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  • 28. 

    (202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

    • Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center

    • Installation Deployment Officer (IDO)

    • Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM)

    • Joint Staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
    Explanation
    The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process.

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  • 29. 

    (205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

    • 2 days, 7 days

    • 2 days, 14 days

    • 7 days, 14 days

    • 14 days, 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 days, 14 days
    Explanation
    Within 2 days after opening the airbase, the airbase force module arrives. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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  • 30. 

    (214) What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

    • Project monitor

    • Project manager

    • Program action officer

    • Program action monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Program action officer
    Explanation
    A Program Action Officer is a title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This role involves supporting the program manager in various tasks related to program management, such as coordinating and monitoring program activities, ensuring compliance with program goals and objectives, and facilitating communication between different stakeholders involved in the program. The Program Action Officer plays a crucial role in ensuring the successful implementation and execution of the program.

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  • 31. 

    (208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

    • 38 Engineering Squadron (ES)

    • 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS)

    • 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS)

    • 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)

    Correct Answer
    A. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72 hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.

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  • 32. 

    (211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

    • The status

    • A milestone

    • A deliverable

    • The final result

    Correct Answer
    A. A deliverable
    Explanation
    A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is the tangible or intangible result that is expected to be produced at the end of the project. This could be a document, a software application, a report, a physical product, or any other measurable outcome. The deliverable represents the final result that the project team is working towards and is usually defined and agreed upon with the project stakeholders.

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  • 33. 

    (202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?

    • Standard unit type code (UTC)

    • Joint force/capability

    • In-lieu-of (ILO)

    • Ad hoc

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint force/capability
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This could occur when one service is unable to fulfill its mission and another service steps in to provide the necessary support. It allows for flexibility and cooperation between different branches of the military to ensure that missions are still carried out effectively.

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  • 34. 

    (207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

    • Strategy

    • Combat plans

    • Combat support

    • Combat operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Combat support
    Explanation
    Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are part of the center's functions. Combat support refers to the assistance and services provided to combat forces, such as logistics, intelligence, and communications. While combat support is an essential aspect of military operations, it is not specifically categorized as a division within the Air and Space Operations Center.

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  • 35. 

    (211) Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?

    • Status request

    • Defect repairs

    • Preventive action

    • Corrective action

    Correct Answer
    A. Defect repairs
    Explanation
    Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet requirement specifications. When a defect is identified in the project, a change request is submitted to address and fix the issue. Defect repairs focus on rectifying specific problems or errors in the project deliverables, ensuring that they meet the required specifications. This type of change request is essential for maintaining the quality and integrity of the project.

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  • 36. 

    (221) Support agreements are documented on

    • AF Form 1067

    • DD Form 1067

    • AF Form 1144

    • DD Form 1144

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1144
    Explanation
    Support agreements are documented on DD Form 1144. This form is used to record agreements made between the Department of Defense (DoD) and other government agencies or organizations for the provision of support services. It includes details such as the type of support being provided, the duration of the agreement, and any financial or logistical considerations. The use of DD Form 1144 ensures that support agreements are properly documented and can be easily referenced and tracked.

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  • 37. 

    (208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

    • 3D0X3, Cyber Surety

    • 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems

    • 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems

    • 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units. The other options, 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems, and 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems, are all career fields that are assigned to engineering installation units.

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  • 38. 

    (203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

    • Training

    • Personnel

    • Home station mission

    • Equipment condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Home station mission
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories to assess the preparedness of the force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the home station mission is not a readiness category measured by ART. This means that ART does not specifically evaluate the readiness of the force in terms of their ability to carry out their home station mission.

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  • 39. 

    (206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?

    • Command and control

    • Operate the airbase

    • Robust the airbase

    • Open the airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Command and control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Command and control." In a theater deployable communications (TDC) scenario, the force module that is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is the command and control force module. This module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making in the field.

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  • 40. 

    (214) Who implements a technical solution for a base?

    • Project monitor

    • Project manager

    • Communication squadron

    • Implementing organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Implementing organization
    Explanation
    The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who take charge of executing the necessary actions and tasks to bring the solution into effect. This can involve coordinating with various stakeholders, managing resources, and overseeing the implementation process to ensure that the technical solution is successfully deployed and operational within the base.

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  • 41. 

    (225) Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?

    • Facility Manager

    • Quality Assurance Evaluator

    • Functional Director/Commander

    • Unit plans, planning, and agreements section

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section
    Explanation
    The unit plans, planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support. This section is responsible for coordinating and managing the design process within the unit, as well as obtaining any necessary support from the base Civil Engineering department. They ensure that the unit's plans and agreements align with the overall goals and objectives of the organization. The Facility Manager, Quality Assurance Evaluator, and Functional Director/Commander may have their own roles and responsibilities within the unit, but they do not specifically act as the focal point for design support or base CE support.

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  • 42. 

    (209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

    • MPTO 00–33A–1001

    • MPTO 00–33A–1002

    • MPTO 00–33A–2001

    • MPTO 00–33A–2002

    Correct Answer
    A. MPTO 00–33A–1001
    Explanation
    MPTO 00-33A-1001 is the correct answer because it specifically defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives. The other options, MPTO 00-33A-1002, MPTO 00-33A-2001, and MPTO 00-33A-2002, do not provide this specific definition of project management.

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  • 43. 

    (212) Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

    • Major

    • Minor

    • Major and minor

    • Major and critical

    Correct Answer
    A. Major
    Explanation
    Major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's ability to meet specified operational requirements. These exceptions are serious and can cause significant disruptions or failures in the system's functioning. In contrast, minor exceptions refer to less severe issues that may have a limited impact on the system's performance but can still affect its overall effectiveness. Therefore, the correct answer is "Major" as it accurately describes exceptions that can prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements.

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  • 44. 

    (213) Changes are requested during a project using an

    • AF Form 1146

    • AF Form 1747

    • AFTO Form 46

    • AFTO Form 47

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1146
    Explanation
    AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. It is the correct form to use for this purpose. The other forms listed (AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47) are not specifically designed for requesting changes during a project, so they would not be the correct choice in this situation.

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  • 45. 

    (220) Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

    • Request for action and organization validation

    • Using command and lead command validation

    • Work center manager certification and approval

    • Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Work center manager certification and approval
    Explanation
    The work center manager certification and approval is not a step required in the modification proposal process. The other options mentioned, such as request for action and organization validation, using command and lead command validation, and program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution, are all necessary steps in the process. However, the work center manager's certification and approval is not mentioned as a requirement.

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  • 46. 

    (222) Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?

    • Unusual or compelling urgency

    • Unit commander’s interest

    • National security interests

    • Sole Source

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit commander’s interest
    Explanation
    The unit commander's interest is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act. This means that even if the unit commander has a specific interest or preference for a particular contractor or supplier, the competition for the contract must still be open and fair to all potential bidders. The Act aims to promote fair competition and prevent favoritism or bias in the contracting process.

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  • 47. 

    (201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

    • Volume 1

    • Volume 2

    • Volume 3

    • Volume 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume 1
    Explanation
    Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. This volume is likely to contain comprehensive information and instructions on various aspects of mobilization planning, including the overall strategy, policies, and guidelines to be followed during wartime. It serves as a valuable resource for military planners and decision-makers involved in mobilization efforts.

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  • 48. 

    (226) The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is

    • $750 thousand (K)

    • $1 million (M)

    • $1.5 M

    • $5 M

    Correct Answer
    A. $1.5 M
    Explanation
    The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is $1.5 million (M). This means that any construction project with a cost below $1.5 million can be considered a minor project and does not require the use of O&M funds.

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  • 49. 

    (203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

    • Training

    • Personnel

    • Facility condition

    • Equipment condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility condition
    Explanation
    The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports on various areas related to resources and training. These areas include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.

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  • Jun 18, 2024
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  • Nov 02, 2019
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