3DX7X Vol 2 UREs 2019

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1. (210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

Explanation

The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary details and components of a project. It includes various plans, such as the Cost Management Plan, which outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. This plan helps in ensuring that the project stays within budget and that cost-related risks are effectively managed. Therefore, the Cost Management Plan is a key item that is contained within the Project Plan.

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3DX7X Vol 2 UREs 2019 - Quiz

This quiz covers deployment planning, mobilization planning, and readiness reporting in the Air Force as per the 2019 guidelines.

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2. (226) Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. This department is typically in charge of the construction, maintenance, and repair of buildings and infrastructure on a military base. They are responsible for ensuring that all facilities are in compliance with safety, health, and environmental regulations.

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3. (213) What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. Follow-up involves regularly monitoring the project's progress, addressing any issues or obstacles that arise, and ensuring that all tasks and activities are being completed according to the project plan. By conducting follow-up, project managers can identify and resolve any deviations or delays, keep stakeholders informed, and make necessary adjustments to keep the project on track. Without proper follow-up, it would be difficult to maintain control over the project and ensure its successful completion.

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4. (216) Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because in the given statement it is mentioned that engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier. This indicates that the engineering support is provided by Tier 2 of the Cyberspace Systems Integrator.

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5. (217) Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

Explanation

The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. This means that they rely on their own resources and capabilities to fund their operations and projects, rather than seeking external funding or relying on contracts with outside entities. Self-Help allows the squadron to be self-sufficient and take ownership of their funding needs within the base.

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6. (219) If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the

Explanation

If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.

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7. (219) What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?

Explanation

The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This area would outline the specific procedures and protocols that need to be followed in order to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of the communications systems during wartime.

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8. (206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6.

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9. (206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

Explanation

In the operate the air base module, the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km. This means that any extended site within a 16 km radius from the NCC-D can still be effectively managed and controlled. Beyond this distance, the NCC-D may face limitations in communication and coordination with the extended site, potentially impacting its operational effectiveness.

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10. (207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

Explanation

The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS). The other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems. The Raven is a lightweight, hand-launched UAS that is used for low-altitude surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team of soldiers, making it suitable for small-scale operations.

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11. (209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

Explanation

In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education to the team. This is important as it helps to clarify any queries or concerns the team may have, provides direction and support, and ensures that everyone is on the same page. The project manager plays a crucial role in providing the necessary information and knowledge to the team members, helping them understand the project objectives, requirements, and expectations. This helps in setting a strong foundation for the project and ensures that the team is well-equipped to start the project successfully.

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12. (223) Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

Explanation

When there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services, a sole source contract is permissible. This means that there is only one potential supplier or contractor who can meet the specific needs of the contract. In this situation, it would not be feasible or necessary to go through a competitive bidding process, as there is no other option available. A sole source contract allows for a direct agreement between the buyer and the supplier or contractor, without the need for competition.

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13. (209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

Explanation

The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the necessary specifications and functionalities that the cyberspace infrastructure must possess in order to meet the desired objectives and goals. These documents serve as the foundation for designing and developing the infrastructure, ensuring that it aligns with the specific needs and expectations of the organization or project.

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14. (226) Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

Explanation

All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction project related to the military, regardless of its scale or significance, must go through the necessary approval and funding processes.

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15. (218) Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

Explanation

The requirement for additional funding is not considered a special cause because it is a common need in many projects. While the other options may require special attention or resources, the need for additional funding is a normal part of project planning and can be addressed through budgeting and financial management.

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16. (205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

Explanation

The open the airbase force module is designed to provide initial capabilities for various tasks related to airbase operations. Force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability are all initial capabilities of the module, meaning they are included as part of its primary functions. However, explosive ordnance disposal (EOD) is not listed as an initial capability, indicating that it is not a primary function of the module.

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17. (205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

Explanation

The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This implies that the process of strengthening and fortifying the airbase is necessary to ensure its long-term sustainability and ability to withstand potential threats or challenges. These support forces may include additional personnel, equipment, supplies, or infrastructure that are brought in after the initial establishment of the airbase to enhance its capabilities and resilience.

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18. (208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

Explanation

In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a more streamlined and efficient broadcasting system for the armed forces, ensuring that troops stationed around the world had access to news, entertainment, and other programming. Prior to this merger, the armed forces broadcasting affiliates operated independently, which could lead to inconsistencies and inefficiencies. By merging under AFN, the armed forces were able to centralize their broadcasting efforts and provide a more cohesive and effective service for military personnel.

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19. (205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

Explanation

In order to establish control in the Command and Control module, two key capabilities are required: secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications ensure that information is transmitted securely between different units and levels of command, enabling effective coordination and decision-making. Intelligence provides commanders with the necessary information about the operational environment, including the enemy's capabilities and intentions, allowing them to make informed decisions and effectively control their forces.

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20. (217) Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

Explanation

The correct answer is work orders. In the context of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS), work orders refer to the functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level. These enhancements are typically completed within a short timeframe of less than 30 days and are in the form of a maintenance task order. Work orders are a common method used to organize and track maintenance tasks and ensure that they are completed efficiently and effectively.

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21. (204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

Explanation

Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC).

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22. (212) What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document that is used to validate the successful installation of a communications system and marks the end of a project. This form is commonly used in the Air Force to document and track the completion of maintenance and installation tasks. It serves as a record of the work performed and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken to ensure the proper functioning of the communications system.

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23. (215) The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,

Explanation

The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement". This is because these stages represent the key phases in the ITIL service life cycle. Service design involves designing new or modified services to meet the business requirements. Service transition involves transitioning the new or modified services into operation. Service operation involves the day-to-day management and delivery of the services. Continual service improvement focuses on ongoing improvements to the services to ensure they meet the changing needs of the business.

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24. (219) In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

Explanation

A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific details of how it will be executed logistically.

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25. (219) Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is the type of planning meeting that identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations. This board is responsible for assessing the utilization of facilities and making decisions regarding their use and management.

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26. (221) As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

Explanation

A support agreement must be reviewed at least 3 years after its effective date. This ensures that the terms and conditions of the agreement are still relevant and up-to-date. Regular reviews help identify any necessary changes or updates that may be required to ensure the agreement continues to meet the needs and expectations of both parties involved. By reviewing the agreement every 3 years, any potential issues or discrepancies can be addressed in a timely manner, promoting a smooth and effective support process.

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27. (206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing headquarters is situated.

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28. (202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

Explanation

The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process.

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29. (205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

Explanation

Within 2 days after opening the airbase, the airbase force module arrives. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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30. (214) What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

Explanation

A Program Action Officer is a title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This role involves supporting the program manager in various tasks related to program management, such as coordinating and monitoring program activities, ensuring compliance with program goals and objectives, and facilitating communication between different stakeholders involved in the program. The Program Action Officer plays a crucial role in ensuring the successful implementation and execution of the program.

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31. (208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

Explanation

The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72 hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.

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32. (211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

Explanation

A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is the tangible or intangible result that is expected to be produced at the end of the project. This could be a document, a software application, a report, a physical product, or any other measurable outcome. The deliverable represents the final result that the project team is working towards and is usually defined and agreed upon with the project stakeholders.

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33. (211) Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?

Explanation

Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet requirement specifications. When a defect is identified in the project, a change request is submitted to address and fix the issue. Defect repairs focus on rectifying specific problems or errors in the project deliverables, ensuring that they meet the required specifications. This type of change request is essential for maintaining the quality and integrity of the project.

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34. (202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This could occur when one service is unable to fulfill its mission and another service steps in to provide the necessary support. It allows for flexibility and cooperation between different branches of the military to ensure that missions are still carried out effectively.

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35. (221) Support agreements are documented on

Explanation

Support agreements are documented on DD Form 1144. This form is used to record agreements made between the Department of Defense (DoD) and other government agencies or organizations for the provision of support services. It includes details such as the type of support being provided, the duration of the agreement, and any financial or logistical considerations. The use of DD Form 1144 ensures that support agreements are properly documented and can be easily referenced and tracked.

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36. (207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

Explanation

Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are part of the center's functions. Combat support refers to the assistance and services provided to combat forces, such as logistics, intelligence, and communications. While combat support is an essential aspect of military operations, it is not specifically categorized as a division within the Air and Space Operations Center.

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37. (208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. This is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units. The other options, 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems, and 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems, are all career fields that are assigned to engineering installation units.

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38. (203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories to assess the preparedness of the force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the home station mission is not a readiness category measured by ART. This means that ART does not specifically evaluate the readiness of the force in terms of their ability to carry out their home station mission.

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39. (225) Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?

Explanation

The unit plans, planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support. This section is responsible for coordinating and managing the design process within the unit, as well as obtaining any necessary support from the base Civil Engineering department. They ensure that the unit's plans and agreements align with the overall goals and objectives of the organization. The Facility Manager, Quality Assurance Evaluator, and Functional Director/Commander may have their own roles and responsibilities within the unit, but they do not specifically act as the focal point for design support or base CE support.

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40. (214) Who implements a technical solution for a base?

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. They are the ones who take charge of executing the necessary actions and tasks to bring the solution into effect. This can involve coordinating with various stakeholders, managing resources, and overseeing the implementation process to ensure that the technical solution is successfully deployed and operational within the base.

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41. (206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Command and control." In a theater deployable communications (TDC) scenario, the force module that is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment is the command and control force module. This module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making in the field.

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42. (212) Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

Explanation

Major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's ability to meet specified operational requirements. These exceptions are serious and can cause significant disruptions or failures in the system's functioning. In contrast, minor exceptions refer to less severe issues that may have a limited impact on the system's performance but can still affect its overall effectiveness. Therefore, the correct answer is "Major" as it accurately describes exceptions that can prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements.

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43. (209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

Explanation

MPTO 00-33A-1001 is the correct answer because it specifically defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives. The other options, MPTO 00-33A-1002, MPTO 00-33A-2001, and MPTO 00-33A-2002, do not provide this specific definition of project management.

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44. (213) Changes are requested during a project using an

Explanation

AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. It is the correct form to use for this purpose. The other forms listed (AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47) are not specifically designed for requesting changes during a project, so they would not be the correct choice in this situation.

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45. (220) Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

Explanation

The work center manager certification and approval is not a step required in the modification proposal process. The other options mentioned, such as request for action and organization validation, using command and lead command validation, and program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution, are all necessary steps in the process. However, the work center manager's certification and approval is not mentioned as a requirement.

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46. (222) Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?

Explanation

The unit commander's interest is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act. This means that even if the unit commander has a specific interest or preference for a particular contractor or supplier, the competition for the contract must still be open and fair to all potential bidders. The Act aims to promote fair competition and prevent favoritism or bias in the contracting process.

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47. (226) The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is

Explanation

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is $1.5 million (M). This means that any construction project with a cost below $1.5 million can be considered a minor project and does not require the use of O&M funds.

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48. (201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

Explanation

Volume 1 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. This volume is likely to contain comprehensive information and instructions on various aspects of mobilization planning, including the overall strategy, policies, and guidelines to be followed during wartime. It serves as a valuable resource for military planners and decision-makers involved in mobilization efforts.

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49. (215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?

Explanation

In the Service Transition stage of the ITIL framework, the focus is on implementing the designed service effectively and efficiently in the live environment. This stage involves activities such as building, testing, and deploying the service, as well as managing the changes and ensuring a smooth transition from the development stage to the operational stage. Therefore, Service Transition is the stage where the framework is created to ensure the successful implementation of the designed service in the live environment.

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50. (203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports on various areas related to resources and training. These areas include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.

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51. (220) The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for

Explanation

The AF Form 1067 is a document that is used to define, validate, and approve requirements for modifications. This includes both temporary and permanent modifications. Therefore, the correct answer is "all temporary and permanent modifications."

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52. (209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,

Explanation

The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This answer accurately describes the five phases of project management. The first phase is planning, where the project objectives, scope, and resources are defined. The second phase is execution, where the project plan is put into action. The third phase is closure, where the project is completed, and any remaining tasks or documentation are finalized. The final phase is control, where the project progress and performance are monitored to ensure that it stays on track and meets its objectives.

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53. (201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

Explanation

Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is typically done in advance and allows for thorough analysis and consideration of various factors before making decisions and taking action. Crisis action planning, on the other hand, is a more immediate and reactive process that focuses on responding to an ongoing crisis. Mobilization planning involves the preparation and organization of resources for deployment, while force rotational planning deals with the rotation of forces to maintain readiness and effectiveness.

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54. (219) When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

Explanation

When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is a type of plan that provides detailed guidance and instructions on how to execute specific tasks or operations in support of the larger contingency plan. It outlines the resources, personnel, and actions required to achieve specific objectives and support the overall mission. The supporting plan is designed to coordinate and synchronize efforts with other supporting plans and the overarching operational plan, ensuring that all elements work together effectively to achieve the desired outcome.

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55. (222) Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date.

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56. (203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-244. This is because AFI 10-244 provides the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting.

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57. (223) Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates?

Explanation

A Time and Material contract is a type of contract that acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates. This means that the contractor will be paid for the actual hours worked, as well as the cost of materials used, at a predetermined rate. This type of contract is often used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is difficult to determine the exact quantity of supplies or services needed. It provides flexibility to both the buyer and the seller, but also carries the risk of cost overruns.

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58. (224) Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders. This role ensures that all individuals involved in QA are properly trained and equipped to carry out their responsibilities effectively. The coordinator ensures that training programs are developed and implemented, and that all personnel receive the necessary training to meet the requirements of their roles. This ensures that QA processes and procedures are followed consistently and that quality standards are upheld throughout the organization.

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59. (204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

Explanation

AFI 10-201 is the correct answer because it provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.

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60. (223) Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

Explanation

Performance Based is the correct answer because it involves establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply to simplify the process of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services. This method focuses on setting specific performance objectives and outcomes, allowing flexibility in how the supplier achieves them. It encourages innovation and efficiency, as suppliers are incentivized to meet or exceed the performance standards. This approach helps streamline procurement processes and ensures that the needs for supplies or services are met effectively and efficiently.

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61. (217) Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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62. (217) Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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63. (220) Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

Explanation

T-2 temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities. This type of modification is specifically designed for testing purposes and is not intended to be a permanent change to the materiel. It allows for the evaluation and demonstration of the capabilities of the developmental and/or test materiel in order to assess its performance and effectiveness.

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64. (223) Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

Explanation

The correct answer is Time and Material. This type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy. In a Time and Material contract, the buyer pays the seller for the time spent on the project and the materials used, plus an additional fee or profit. This type of contract is commonly used in situations where the scope of work is uncertain or likely to change, making it difficult to determine a fixed price.

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65. (224) Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?

Explanation

The Functional Director/Commander is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR). The COR plays a crucial role in monitoring and overseeing contractor performance, ensuring that all contractual requirements are met. By assigning qualified individuals to these positions, the Functional Director/Commander ensures that the CORs have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively carry out their responsibilities.

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66. (205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

Explanation

The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the airbase, ensuring that all necessary infrastructure and resources are in place for the airfield to effectively generate air support.

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67. (224) Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program?

Explanation

The contracting office is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program. This office is responsible for managing all aspects of the contract, including quality assurance. They ensure that the contractor meets all the requirements and standards set forth in the contract. They also monitor the contractor's performance and address any issues or concerns that may arise during the contract period.

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68. (215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

Explanation

In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's objectives and customer needs, and then developing a strategy to meet those needs. It involves making decisions on which services to offer, how to differentiate from competitors, and how to allocate resources effectively. Therefore, Service Strategy is the correct answer as it aligns with the purpose of determining the underlying principles for developing the necessary components throughout the Service Life Cycle.

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69. (218) As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

Explanation

The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions as a minimum. This role typically focuses on the design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure and facilities on a military base, rather than reviewing and validating technical solutions for other areas. Therefore, their involvement in reviewing and validating technical solutions may not be necessary.

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70. (225) What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering (CE) must prepare and forward DD Form 1391 to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required.

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  • Answered
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(210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
(226) Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an...
(213) What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project...
(216) Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace...
(217) Which of the following funding options does the local...
(219) If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate...
(219) What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures...
(206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency...
(206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance...
(207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial...
(209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
(223) Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one...
(209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace...
(226) Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services...
(218) Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be...
(205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force...
(205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally...
(208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the...
(205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and...
(217) Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)...
(204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of...
(212) What document marks the end of a project and validates the...
(215) The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
(219) In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission,...
(219) Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering...
(221) As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon...
(206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
(202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
(205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the...
(214) What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program...
(208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight...
(211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is...
(211) Which of the following is a type of change request used to...
(202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a...
(221) Support agreements are documented on
(207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
(208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to...
(203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by...
(225) Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to...
(214) Who implements a technical solution for a base?
(206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable...
(212) Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified...
(209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines...
(213) Changes are requested during a project using an
(220) Which of the following is not a step required in the...
(222) Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open...
(226) The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using...
(201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a...
(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)...
(203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of...
(220) The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving...
(209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
(201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined...
(219) When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of...
(222) Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully...
(203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force...
(223) Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on...
(224) Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance...
(204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on...
(223) Which of the following is a simplified method of filling...
(217) Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure...
(217) Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program...
(220) Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises...
(223) Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible...
(224) Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable...
(205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase...
(224) Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the...
(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)...
(218) As a minimum which of the following is not required to review...
(225) What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to...
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