CDC B4n051: Airforce Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz

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CDC B4n051: Airforce Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

This is a CDC B4n051: Air Force Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz. It is designed to help you see just how much you have understood about maintaining the health issues of all the members of the air force. The scores you get will help you see just how much revision work you need to input before you sit for your final exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

    • A.

      The Joint Commission

    • B.

      Infection Control Committee

    • C.

      American College of Surgeons

    • D.

      Center for Disease control and Prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. The Joint Commission
    Explanation
    The Joint Commission is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria. They are an independent, non-profit organization that sets the standards for healthcare organizations in the United States. They evaluate and accredit healthcare organizations based on their performance and adherence to these standards, ensuring that patients receive safe and high-quality care. The Joint Commission collaborates with healthcare professionals, experts, and stakeholders to develop the evaluation criteria and continuously improve healthcare quality and patient safety.

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  • 2. 

    At a minimum, how frequently should the ICC review area-specific general operating instructions (OI)?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Annually

    • C.

      Every two years

    • D.

      As needed

    Correct Answer
    C. Every two years
    Explanation
    The ICC should review area-specific general operating instructions (OI) every two years. This ensures that the instructions are regularly updated and aligned with any changes in the operating environment. Reviewing the OIs every two years strikes a balance between keeping the instructions current and avoiding unnecessary administrative burden. Quarterly or annual reviews may be too frequent, while reviewing as needed may lead to outdated instructions and potential operational inefficiencies.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • A.

      Antigen

    • B.

      Antibody

    • C.

      Pathogen

    • D.

      Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    C. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts normal physiological functions. Pathogens can enter the body through various routes, such as inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with the skin. Once inside, they can multiply and spread, leading to the development of symptoms and illness. Understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases, as it helps in identifying the source of infection and developing effective strategies for control and prevention.

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  • 4. 

    Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?

    • A.

      Helminths

    • B.

      Viruses

    • C.

      Bacteria

    • D.

      Chlamydiae

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacteria
    Explanation
    Bacteria are primitive one-celled organisms that can reproduce rapidly. They are considered infectious agents because they can cause diseases in humans, animals, and plants. Unlike viruses, which are not considered living organisms, bacteria have their own cellular structure and can carry out various metabolic processes. Bacteria can be found in various environments, including soil, water, and the human body. They can cause a wide range of infections, from mild to severe, and can be treated with antibiotics.

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  • 5. 

    Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeast and  molds?

    • A.

      Fungi

    • B.

      Virus

    • C.

      Bacteria

    • D.

      Chlamydiae

    Correct Answer
    A. Fungi
    Explanation
    Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only option that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Fungi are a group of organisms that can exist as single-celled yeasts or multicellular molds. They are distinct from viruses, bacteria, and Chlamydiae, which do not have the same structural categories.

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  • 6. 

    What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

    • A.

      Water and soil

    • B.

      Cool and dry

    • C.

      Warm and moist

    • D.

      Susceptible tissue

    Correct Answer
    D. Susceptible tissue
    Explanation
    For a virus to multiply, it requires a condition where there is susceptible tissue. Susceptible tissue refers to cells or organisms that are vulnerable to being infected by the virus. This condition is crucial because viruses need a host to replicate and spread. Without susceptible tissue, the virus cannot enter and infect cells, hindering its ability to multiply and propagate. Water and soil, cool and dry, and warm and moist are not directly related to the multiplication of viruses.

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  • 7. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • A.

      Illness

    • B.

      Virculence

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    C. Incubation
    Explanation
    The stage of infection that refers to the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease is called incubation. During this stage, the infectious agent multiplies and spreads within the body, but the person does not yet show any signs or symptoms of the disease. This is an important stage because the infected individual can unknowingly transmit the infection to others, even though they appear healthy.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

    • A.

      Prevent the risk of transmission of blood borne pathogens

    • B.

      Reduce the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of transmission

    • C.

      Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of reproduction

    • D.

      Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals
    Explanation
    The purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC is to reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. This means that these precautions are put in place to prevent the spread of infectious agents and protect both healthcare workers and patients from getting infected. These precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials.

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  • 9. 

    What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?

    • A.

      Change into clean clothes before leaving work and throw the clothes in the trash

    • B.

      Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water

    • C.

      Wipe off the affected area before leaving work and launder clothes in hot soapy water

    • D.

      Wipe off the affected area, change into clean clothes and throw dirty clothes in the trash

    Correct Answer
    B. Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water
    Explanation
    If the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated, the best course of action is to change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes, and launder them in hot soapy water. This is the most effective way to remove any contaminants from the clothes and prevent further spread of the contamination. Simply wiping off the affected area may not be sufficient, and throwing the dirty clothes in the trash without properly cleaning them could potentially lead to further contamination.

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  • 10. 

    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

    • A.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • B.

      Irregular menstral cycles

    • C.

      Vaginal discharge

    • D.

      Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can occur in females as a result of gonorrhea infection. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the bacteria can travel from the cervix into the uterus and fallopian tubes, leading to inflammation and infection in the pelvic organs. PID can cause symptoms such as pelvic pain, fever, and abnormal vaginal discharge. It can also lead to long-term complications such as chronic pelvic pain, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea.

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  • 11. 

    A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by

    • A.

      Using the telephone or locally derived form

    • B.

      Completing an Air Force (AF) Form 422, Physical Profile

    • C.

      Paging a Public Health representative to report to the clinic

    • D.

      Faxing a Standard Form (SF) 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care

    Correct Answer
    A. Using the telephone or locally derived form
    Explanation
    The correct answer is using the telephone or locally derived form. This is because notifying Public Health of a suspected communicable disease can be done quickly and efficiently through a phone call or by filling out a form that is specific to the local health care provider. This allows for immediate communication and response to the potential outbreak, ensuring that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent the spread of the disease.

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  • 12. 

    Which medical term means the absence of infection?

    • A.

      Antimicrobial

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Asepsis

    • D.

      Sepsis

    Correct Answer
    C. Asepsis
    Explanation
    Asepsis is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of infection. It is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms. Asepsis is important in medical settings to prevent the spread of infections and maintain a sterile environment. Antimicrobial refers to substances that can kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms, while antiseptic refers to substances that can prevent the growth of microorganisms on living tissue. Sepsis, on the other hand, is a severe infection that can lead to organ failure and is not the absence of infection.

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  • 13. 

    Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

    • A.

      Disinfectant

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Detergent

    • D.

      Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    B. Antiseptic
    Explanation
    Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. They are specifically designed to be used on the skin or mucous membranes to prevent infection. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are safe to use on living tissue without causing harm or irritation. They work by either killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, thus preventing the spread of infection. Antiseptics are commonly used in medical settings, as well as for personal hygiene purposes.

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  • 14. 

    When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

    • A.

      After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving

    • B.

      After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • C.

      Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • D.

      Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    C. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "before entering, and take it off before leaving." This is because when using a mask in an isolation unit, it is important to put the mask on before entering the unit to prevent any potential exposure to harmful particles or pathogens. Similarly, the mask should be taken off before leaving the unit to avoid carrying any contaminants outside. This ensures that the mask is used effectively to protect both the wearer and others in the unit.

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  • 15. 

    What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      45 days

    • C.

      6 months

    • D.

      When package integrity is compromised

    Correct Answer
    D. When package integrity is compromised
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "When package integrity is compromised." This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method depends on the condition of the packaging. If the package is damaged or compromised in any way, the sterilized equipment should not be used, regardless of the time that has passed since sterilization. This is because a compromised package can allow contaminants to enter and compromise the sterility of the equipment. Therefore, it is important to regularly check the package integrity before using sterilized equipment.

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  • 16. 

    What is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

    • A.

      Formaldehydes

    • B.

      Hydrochloric acid

    • C.

      Phenolics

    • D.

      Alcohol

    Correct Answer
    B. Hydrochloric acid
    Explanation
    Hydrochloric acid is not a commonly used disinfecting agent because it is a corrosive and highly reactive substance. It is primarily used for industrial purposes such as cleaning and etching metals, rather than for disinfection. Commonly used disinfecting agents include formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol, which have proven effectiveness in killing or inactivating microorganisms.

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  • 17. 

    What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

    • A.

      Between 112 and 121 degrees F.

    • B.

      Between 122 and 131 degrees F.

    • C.

      Between 215 and 230 degrees F.

    • D.

      Between 270 and 285 degrees F.

    Correct Answer
    B. Between 122 and 131 degrees F.
    Explanation
    The temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer is between 122 and 131 degrees F.

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  • 18. 

    Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

    • A.

      Plastic trays

    • B.

      Count sheets

    • C.

      Metal instruments

    • D.

      Nonmetal instruments

    Correct Answer
    B. Count sheets
    Explanation
    Count sheets may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer because they are typically made of paper or fabric materials, which can be damaged or destroyed by the high temperatures and chemical reactions that occur during the sterilization process. Plastic trays, metal instruments, and nonmetal instruments can withstand the sterilization process and are commonly used in hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers.

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  • 19. 

    What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

    • A.

      Patient's full name and date of birth.

    • B.

      Patient's full name and social security number.

    • C.

      Patient's social security number and date of birth.

    • D.

      Patient's last name, age, and social security number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient's full name and date of birth.
    Explanation
    The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used to ensure accurate identification of patients and to prevent errors in healthcare settings. Using the patient's full name and date of birth helps to minimize the risk of confusion or mistaken identity, which is crucial for patient safety and the delivery of appropriate care.

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  • 20. 

    What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

    • A.

      Risk assessment and control.

    • B.

      Risk management and patient safety.

    • C.

      Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control.

    • D.

      Competent patient-centered care and a culture of safety.

    Correct Answer
    C. Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control.
    Explanation
    The foundations of safe and effective healthcare involve proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. This means that healthcare professionals should actively identify potential risks, assess their impact on patient safety, and implement measures to control and mitigate these risks. By taking a proactive approach to risk management, healthcare providers can prevent adverse events and ensure the safety of patients. This includes measures such as implementing safety protocols, conducting regular risk assessments, and continuously monitoring and improving patient care processes.

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  • 21. 

    The very low-density lipoproteins transport

    • A.

      Glucose from the small intestine to the liver to be stored as glycogen.

    • B.

      Amino acids to the liver to dispose of most of the cholesterol through bile.

    • C.

      Lipids from the liver to the stomach where they are joined with amino acids.

    • D.

      Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells.

    Correct Answer
    D. Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells. This is because very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) are responsible for transporting triglycerides from the liver to adipose cells, where they are stored as fat. VLDLs are produced in the liver and contain triglycerides that are synthesized from carbohydrates. Therefore, this answer option accurately describes the role of VLDLs in transporting triglycerides from the liver to adipose cells.

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  • 22. 

    Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

    • A.

      Illness

    • B.

      Wellness

    • C.

      Diagnosis

    • D.

      Rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    D. Rehabilitation
    Explanation
    Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization are most pertinent during the rehabilitation aspect of nursing care. This is because rehabilitation focuses on helping individuals regain their independence and improve their overall well-being after an illness or injury. During this phase, nurses play a crucial role in supporting patients in their physical, emotional, and psychological recovery, empowering them to reach their full potential and achieve self-actualization. By providing the necessary care, guidance, and resources, nurses can assist patients in regaining their confidence, abilities, and autonomy, ultimately facilitating their self-actualization.

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  • 23. 

    A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at

    • A.

      12 months

    • B.

      18 months

    • C.

      24 months

    • D.

      30 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 months
    Explanation
    A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months because by this age, they have typically gone through significant growth and development. By 24 months, most toddlers have transitioned from a primarily milk-based diet to eating a variety of solid foods, which contributes to their weight gain. Additionally, they have become more active and mobile, which also contributes to their growth and weight gain. Therefore, it is expected that by 24 months, a toddler's weight would have quadrupled from their birth weight.

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  • 24. 

    Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

    • A.

      Muscle atrophy

    • B.

      Caring for elderly parents

    • C.

      Increased cellular oxygen content

    • D.

      Calcium loss in females is first noticed

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle atrophy
    Explanation
    Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood. As individuals age, they tend to experience a decrease in muscle mass and strength. This can lead to a loss of mobility, increased risk of falls, and reduced overall physical function. Factors such as hormonal changes, decreased physical activity, and changes in metabolism contribute to muscle atrophy in late adulthood. Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy lifestyle can help slow down the process of muscle loss in older adults.

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  • 25. 

    What controllable factor fif Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

    • A.

      Fitness

    • B.

      Pure water

    • C.

      Work site safety

    • D.

      Psychological wellness

    Correct Answer
    B. Pure water
    Explanation
    Florence Nightingale linked pure water with health and the environment. This is because she recognized the importance of clean and safe drinking water in preventing the spread of diseases and maintaining good health. She advocated for proper sanitation and hygiene practices, including access to pure water, as essential factors in promoting public health and preventing the spread of infections. By emphasizing the significance of pure water, Nightingale contributed to the improvement of health conditions and the overall well-being of individuals and communities.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

    • A.

      Blood pressure screenings

    • B.

      Assessing current fitness status

    • C.

      Establishing quidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • D.

      Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure screenings
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help assess the overall health of employees. By regularly monitoring blood pressure, employers can identify individuals at risk for hypertension and provide necessary interventions. This screening activity promotes early detection and management of high blood pressure, which is essential for maintaining a healthy workforce. Additionally, it aligns with the goal of a work site wellness program to improve employee health and prevent chronic diseases.

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  • 27. 

    A good source of protein is

    • A.

      Fruits

    • B.

      Rice

    • C.

      Poultry

    • D.

      Vitamins

    Correct Answer
    C. Poultry
    Explanation
    Poultry is a good source of protein because it contains all nine essential amino acids that the body needs to function properly. It is also low in fat and high in vitamins and minerals, making it a healthy choice for protein intake. Fruits and rice are not typically high in protein, and while vitamins are important for overall health, they are not a direct source of protein. Therefore, poultry is the best option for obtaining protein in this list.

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  • 28. 

    Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by

    • A.

      Aplastic anemia

    • B.

      Hemolytic anemia

    • C.

      Pernicious anemia

    • D.

      Sickle cell anemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency, such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath, are first noted in individuals with pernicious anemia. This condition occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough B12 from the diet, leading to a decrease in red blood cell production and anemia. Other types of anemia listed in the options (aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, sickle cell anemia) are not directly associated with B12 deficiency.

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  • 29. 

    Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with 

    • A.

      Anemia

    • B.

      Seizures

    • C.

      Strabismus

    • D.

      Disfigurement

    Correct Answer
    B. Seizures
    Explanation
    Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may cause newborns to be born with seizures. This is because an excessive intake of vitamin B6 during pregnancy can lead to high levels of pyridoxine in the baby's bloodstream. Pyridoxine toxicity can cause neurological problems, including seizures, in newborns. It is important for pregnant women to maintain a balanced and appropriate intake of vitamins and consult with healthcare professionals to avoid any potential harm to the baby.

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  • 30. 

    A sign of vitamin A deficiency include

    • A.

      Myopia

    • B.

      Presbyopia

    • C.

      Night blindness

    • D.

      Macular degeneration

    Correct Answer
    C. Night blindness
    Explanation
    Night blindness is a sign of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that helps with vision in low light conditions. When there is a deficiency of vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, leading to difficulty seeing in dim light or at night. Therefore, night blindness is a common symptom of vitamin A deficiency. Myopia refers to nearsightedness, presbyopia is age-related farsightedness, and macular degeneration is a condition that affects the central part of the retina, none of which are directly related to vitamin A deficiency.

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  • 31. 

    Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?

    • A.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B.

      Heparin overdose

    • C.

      Malabsorption syndromes

    • D.

      Prolonged use of salicylates

    Correct Answer
    B. Heparin overdose
    Explanation
    Vitamin K is used to treat bleeding disorders and promote blood clotting. Heparin overdose, on the other hand, is a condition where there is an excessive amount of the anticoagulant medication heparin in the body, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Since vitamin K promotes blood clotting, it would not be effective in treating a heparin overdose. Therefore, heparin overdose is the ailment that is not treated by vitamin K.

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  • 32. 

    What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for?

    • A.

      16

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    Minerals are responsible for approximately 4% of the body's weight. These essential nutrients play a vital role in various bodily functions, such as maintaining healthy bones, regulating fluid balance, and supporting nerve and muscle function. While 4% may seem relatively small, minerals are crucial for overall health and well-being.

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  • 33. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

    • A.

      During a blood transfusion

    • B.

      As a result of not using table salt

    • C.

      When a individual is unable to sink in water

    • D.

      Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    D. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is through an excessive amount of fluid loss. Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive loss of fluids, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, sodium chloride levels can become depleted. This can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, dizziness, low blood pressure, and even seizures. Therefore, signs of sodium chloride deficiency are typically seen in individuals who experience significant fluid loss.

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  • 34. 

    When administering potassium intravenously, you should

    • A.

      Give in a bolus

    • B.

      Administer directly through a saline lock

    • C.

      Mix the potassium thoroughly before administration

    • D.

      Add the potassium to an IV solution bag that is already infusing

    Correct Answer
    C. Mix the potassium thoroughly before administration
    Explanation
    When administering potassium intravenously, it is important to mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. This is because potassium can settle at the bottom of the container, and if not mixed properly, the patient may receive an inconsistent dose. By thoroughly mixing the potassium, it ensures that the concentration of potassium is uniform throughout the solution, and the patient receives the intended dose.

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  • 35. 

    Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except

    • A.

      Kale

    • B.

      Pork

    • C.

      Salmon

    • D.

      Turnip greens

    Correct Answer
    B. Pork
    Explanation
    Calcium can be found in kale, salmon, and turnip greens, but not in pork. Pork is not a good source of calcium.

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  • 36. 

    Which method is injectable iron administered?

    • A.

      Intra muscular

    • B.

      Intra venous

    • C.

      Transdermal

    • D.

      Z-track

    Correct Answer
    D. Z-track
    Explanation
    Z-track is a method of administering injectable iron. It involves pulling the skin and underlying tissue to the side before injecting the medication into the muscle. This technique helps to prevent leakage of the medication back into the subcutaneous tissue, ensuring proper absorption and minimizing discomfort for the patient. Intra muscular, intra venous, and transdermal are other methods of administering medications, but they are not specifically used for injectable iron.

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  • 37. 

    Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

    • A.

      Salts

    • B.

      Acids

    • C.

      Catalyzed

    • D.

      Synthesized

    Correct Answer
    B. Acids
    Explanation
    Acids are electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water. When acids dissolve in water, they dissociate into hydrogen ions (H+) and anions. These hydrogen ions make the solution acidic, as they can donate protons to other substances. Therefore, acids are the correct answer to the question.

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  • 38. 

    What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?

    • A.

      Weak and malaise

    • B.

      Dizzy and agitated

    • C.

      Emotional and tired

    • D.

      Short of breath and confused

    Correct Answer
    B. Dizzy and agitated
    Explanation
    Blood pH alkalosis refers to an increase in the pH level of the blood, making it more alkaline. This condition can lead to various symptoms. Feeling dizzy and agitated are common symptoms of alkalosis. Dizziness occurs due to the changes in the acid-base balance, which affects the functioning of the nervous system. Agitation can result from the disruption in the normal physiological processes caused by alkalosis. Other symptoms that may occur with blood pH alkalosis include muscle twitching, tingling in the extremities, nausea, and confusion.

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  • 39. 

    Complex carbohydrates are called

    • A.

      Bisaccharides

    • B.

      Disaccharides

    • C.

      Polysaccharides

    • D.

      Monosaccharides

    Correct Answer
    C. Polysaccharides
    Explanation
    Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple monosaccharide units bonded together. They are large molecules and can serve as energy storage or structural components in living organisms. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. Bisaccharides, disaccharides, and monosaccharides are all types of carbohydrates, but they are simpler in structure compared to polysaccharides.

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  • 40. 

    What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

    • A.

      Stomach

    • B.

      Heart

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    D. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids in the body. It produces bile, which helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also regulates the levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood by synthesizing and breaking down lipoproteins. Additionally, it is involved in the conversion of excess carbohydrates into fatty acids and the breakdown of fatty acids for energy production. Overall, the liver plays a central role in maintaining lipid homeostasis in the body.

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  • 41. 

    Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of

    • A.

      Lipids

    • B.

      Proteins

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      Carbohydrates

    Correct Answer
    B. Proteins
    Explanation
    Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of proteins. They are essential for the synthesis of proteins, which play a crucial role in various biological processes. Proteins are involved in structural support, enzymatic reactions, transport, and signaling within cells. Amino acids are linked together through peptide bonds to form polypeptide chains, which then fold into specific three-dimensional structures to create functional proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is proteins.

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  • 42. 

    Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

    • A.

      Protect against disease at the cellular level.

    • B.

      The body's only defense against infection.

    • C.

      Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body.

    • D.

      Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level.
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are an important component of the immune system and are responsible for protecting the body against diseases at the cellular level. They work by identifying and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, and also play a role in the inflammatory response. Leukocytes are not the body's only defense against infection, as other components of the immune system, such as antibodies and complement proteins, also contribute to fighting off infections. The other options listed, proliferating hemoglobin and carrying amino acids to the kidneys, are not accurate definitions of leukocytes.

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  • 43. 

    The life span of lymphocytes is

    • A.

      12 hours

    • B.

      2 weeks

    • C.

      Years

    • D.

      Days

    Correct Answer
    C. Years
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for identifying and destroying pathogens and infected cells. The lifespan of lymphocytes can vary depending on the specific type. While some lymphocytes have a short lifespan of only a few hours or days, others can live for years. This allows them to provide long-term immunity and memory against previously encountered pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is "years."

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  • 44. 

    What cells do lymph nodes contain in large numbers to fight invading microorganisms?

    • A.

      Lymphocytes and macrophages

    • B.

      Polyleukocytes and monocytes

    • C.

      Monocytes and phagocytes

    • D.

      Neutrophils and leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes and macrophages
    Explanation
    Lymph nodes contain large numbers of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulf and digest pathogens and debris. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and eliminate microorganisms, helping to protect the body from infection.

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  • 45. 

    The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the

    • A.

      Parathyroid glands

    • B.

      Pituitary gland

    • C.

      Thymus gland

    • D.

      Thyroid gland

    Correct Answer
    C. Thymus gland
    Explanation
    The thymus gland is the primary central gland of the lymphatic system. It plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes, which are important for the immune response. The thymus gland is located in the upper chest region and is responsible for producing and releasing hormones that regulate the immune system. It starts to shrink after puberty but continues to function throughout adulthood. The parathyroid glands, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland are all part of the endocrine system but are not directly involved in the lymphatic system.

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  • 46. 

    Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a

    • A.

      Secondary immune response

    • B.

      Primary immune response

    • C.

      Partial immune response

    • D.

      Single immune response

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary immune response
    Explanation
    When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's response is called a primary immune response. This is because the primary immune response is the initial reaction of the immune system when encountering a new pathogen or antigen. It involves the activation of immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, to produce specific antibodies and memory cells that can recognize and respond to the pathogen in the future. This response is typically slower and less efficient compared to the secondary immune response, which occurs upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen.

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  • 47. 

    During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?

    • A.

      Bruising

    • B.

      Maturation

    • C.

      Inflammation

    • D.

      Reconstruction

    Correct Answer
    C. Inflammation
    Explanation
    During the inflammation stage of healing, immature fiber cells and capillaries are formed. This stage occurs immediately after an injury and is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. Inflammation helps to remove damaged tissue and initiate the healing process. Immature fiber cells are produced to replace the damaged tissue, while capillaries are formed to provide oxygen and nutrients to the area. This stage is crucial for the subsequent stages of healing, such as maturation and reconstruction.

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  • 48. 

    For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is

    • A.

      Guilt

    • B.

      Acceptance

    • C.

      Fear and anxiety

    • D.

      Shock and disorientation

    Correct Answer
    D. Shock and disorientation
    Explanation
    When patients experience severe injuries or medical conditions, their initial psychological reaction is often shock and disorientation. This is because they are suddenly confronted with a traumatic event or a life-threatening situation, which can be overwhelming and disorienting. The shock response is a natural defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the initial impact of the situation. It can manifest as a state of disbelief, confusion, and feeling emotionally numb. Disorientation may result from the sudden disruption of one's physical and mental equilibrium, causing a temporary loss of orientation and coherence. Guilt, acceptance, and fear and anxiety may come later in the process of adjusting to the condition or injury.

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  • 49. 

    Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?

    • A.

      Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.

    • B.

      Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath.

    • C.

      Muscle tremors, behavior changes, rapid pulse rate.

    • D.

      Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.
    Explanation
    In an intoxicated patient, impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes are signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment. Impaired vision can result from the effects of alcohol on the central nervous system. Uncoordinated movement is a common symptom of alcohol intoxication, as it affects the cerebellum, which is responsible for motor coordination. Behavioral changes can also occur due to alcohol's impact on the brain, leading to altered mood, aggression, or impaired judgment. Muscle tremors, loud voice, sweet smelling breath, difficulty breathing, and rapid pulse rate are not specific signs of nervous system impairment in an intoxicated patient.

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  • 50. 

    Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except

    • A.

      Citrus

    • B.

      Cheese

    • C.

      Broccoli

    • D.

      Tomatoes

    Correct Answer
    B. Cheese
    Explanation
    Cheese does not naturally contain Vitamin C. While citrus fruits, broccoli, and tomatoes are all good sources of Vitamin C, cheese is not. Vitamin C is commonly found in fruits and vegetables, but not in dairy products like cheese.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 14, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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