CDC B4n051: Airforce Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz

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| By Catherine Halcomb
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1. Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

Explanation

Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound is often associated with joint conditions such as arthritis or fractures. Vibration refers to a rapid back-and-forth movement, resonance is the reinforcement of sound waves, and intonation is the rise and fall of pitch in speech. However, none of these terms specifically describe the sound of bones rubbing together.

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About This Quiz
CDC B4n051: Airforce Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

This is a CDC B4n051: Air Force Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz. It is designed to help you see just how much you have understood about maintaining the health issues of all the members of the air force. The scores you get will help you see just how much revision work... see moreyou need to input before you sit for your final exams. see less

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2. How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

Explanation

Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite as it allows them to have familiar and preferred foods. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences or restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By accommodating their customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and enjoy their meals, which can increase their appetite. This approach also shows respect for their individuality and promotes a positive dining experience, which can further enhance their overall nutrition and well-being.

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3. What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

Explanation

The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used to ensure accurate identification of patients and to prevent errors in healthcare settings. Using the patient's full name and date of birth helps to minimize the risk of confusion or mistaken identity, which is crucial for patient safety and the delivery of appropriate care.

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4. Name the parts of a needle.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hub, shaft, and bevel." The hub refers to the part of the needle that attaches to the syringe or other device. The shaft is the long, slender portion of the needle that is inserted into the body. The bevel is the slanted tip of the needle that facilitates smooth insertion into the skin or tissue.

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5. What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen?

Explanation

Antihistamines would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen. Antihistamines work by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released by the body during an allergic reaction. Grass and tree pollen are common allergens that can trigger symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes. By taking antihistamines, the patient can alleviate these symptoms and reduce the allergic response to the allergens. Antineoplastics, antifungals, and antivirals are not appropriate medications for treating allergies to grass and tree pollen.

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6. While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin

Explanation

During heparin treatment, it is important to monitor Mr. Johnson's diet for foods rich in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, and heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clot formation. Consuming foods high in vitamin K can counteract the effects of heparin and reduce its effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor and control Mr. Johnson's intake of vitamin K-rich foods to ensure the effectiveness of his heparin treatment.

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7. When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to

Explanation

Administering eye medications requires positioning the patient's treated eye lower than the other to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This position helps ensure that the medication stays in the intended eye and does not cause discomfort or potential side effects in the unaffected eye. By keeping the treated eye lower, gravity helps to prevent the medication from flowing into the unaffected eye and allows it to stay in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac where it can be absorbed effectively.

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8. Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

Explanation

The stage of infection that refers to the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease is called incubation. During this stage, the infectious agent multiplies and spreads within the body, but the person does not yet show any signs or symptoms of the disease. This is an important stage because the infected individual can unknowingly transmit the infection to others, even though they appear healthy.

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9. Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeast and  molds?

Explanation

Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only option that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Fungi are a group of organisms that can exist as single-celled yeasts or multicellular molds. They are distinct from viruses, bacteria, and Chlamydiae, which do not have the same structural categories.

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10. When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is

Explanation

When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is behavior. This is because behavior provides valuable insights into the patient's mental state, mood, and overall functioning. It includes actions, reactions, and patterns of behavior that can help in understanding the patient's symptoms, progress, and response to treatment. By closely observing behavior, healthcare professionals can make informed assessments, identify any changes or abnormalities, and develop appropriate intervention plans to support the patient's mental health and well-being.

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11. A good source of protein is

Explanation

Poultry is a good source of protein because it contains all nine essential amino acids that the body needs to function properly. It is also low in fat and high in vitamins and minerals, making it a healthy choice for protein intake. Fruits and rice are not typically high in protein, and while vitamins are important for overall health, they are not a direct source of protein. Therefore, poultry is the best option for obtaining protein in this list.

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12. If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

Explanation

If a patient receiving a blood transfusion exhibits distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called fluid overload or transfusion reaction. These symptoms suggest that the patient is experiencing an adverse reaction to the transfusion, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, the first and most crucial step is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.

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13. In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

Explanation

The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only allowed when the local protocol, which could be specific rules or regulations set by the local authorities or organization, gives permission for it. This ensures that the use of lights and sirens is controlled and used appropriately in accordance with the local guidelines.

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14. The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called

Explanation

Scene sizeup refers to the action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT). This involves gathering information about the environment, potential hazards, and the number of patients involved. It helps the EMT determine the appropriate resources and equipment needed for the situation and ensures the safety of both the patients and the medical personnel. The scene sizeup is an essential step in the overall assessment and management of an accident scene.

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15. What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

Explanation

The Joint Commission is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria. They are an independent, non-profit organization that sets the standards for healthcare organizations in the United States. They evaluate and accredit healthcare organizations based on their performance and adherence to these standards, ensuring that patients receive safe and high-quality care. The Joint Commission collaborates with healthcare professionals, experts, and stakeholders to develop the evaluation criteria and continuously improve healthcare quality and patient safety.

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16. What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?

Explanation

If a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. As a responsible adult, it is our duty to ensure the safety and well-being of children. Reporting the suspected abuse can help protect the child from further harm and allow appropriate authorities to investigate the situation and provide necessary support and intervention.

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17. What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

Explanation

If a small object is identified while straining urine, the appropriate step would be to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This ensures that the object is properly preserved and can be sent to the lab for further examination if necessary. Calling the nurse or doctor to come see the patient may not be necessary at this stage, as the object can be handled by the nurse later on.

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18. Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Explanation

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture in the field. A fracture often causes pain, swelling, and deformity in the affected area, which is why the term "painful, swollen deformity" (PSD) is used by EMTs to indicate a potential fracture. This acronym helps EMTs quickly communicate and identify a possible fracture, allowing them to provide appropriate care and treatment to the patient.

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19. Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a

Explanation

When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's response is called a primary immune response. This is because the primary immune response is the initial reaction of the immune system when encountering a new pathogen or antigen. It involves the activation of immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, to produce specific antibodies and memory cells that can recognize and respond to the pathogen in the future. This response is typically slower and less efficient compared to the secondary immune response, which occurs upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen.

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20. Before administering any medication, you sre responsible for all of the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day. This is because as a medication administrator, your responsibility is to ensure the safe and effective administration of medication. Ensuring an individual's availability for work is not within the scope of your responsibilities. However, you are responsible for performing all steps in the six medication rights, being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication, and verifying any possible interactions against current medications to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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21. If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

Explanation

If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the healthcare staff being busy or forgetting to take the vital signs. It does not necessarily indicate that the patient is off the unit having tests completed or that the patient is doing well with no problems. Additionally, if the doctor had changed the orders verbally, it would be expected to see updated documentation in the chart. Therefore, the most likely explanation is that the vital signs were not completed.

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22. What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

Explanation

The correct answer is "When package integrity is compromised." This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method depends on the condition of the packaging. If the package is damaged or compromised in any way, the sterilized equipment should not be used, regardless of the time that has passed since sterilization. This is because a compromised package can allow contaminants to enter and compromise the sterility of the equipment. Therefore, it is important to regularly check the package integrity before using sterilized equipment.

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23. Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

Explanation

Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process because spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and limitations. The goal of rehabilitation is to help the patient regain as much independence and function as possible, adapt to their new circumstances, and prevent secondary complications. This requires ongoing therapy, support, and adjustments to accommodate any changes in the patient's condition over time.

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24. One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

Explanation

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can occur in females as a result of gonorrhea infection. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the bacteria can travel from the cervix into the uterus and fallopian tubes, leading to inflammation and infection in the pelvic organs. PID can cause symptoms such as pelvic pain, fever, and abnormal vaginal discharge. It can also lead to long-term complications such as chronic pelvic pain, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea.

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25. What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?

Explanation

An individual's feeling about themselves is primarily influenced by their self-perception. This refers to how they see themselves, their beliefs, and their evaluation of their own abilities, worth, and appearance. Self-perception plays a crucial role in shaping one's self-esteem and self-confidence. While socio-economic status, opinions of others, and job title can also have an impact on an individual's self-perception, they are secondary factors that may influence but not determine how one feels about themselves.

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26. The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is

Explanation

The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is intramuscular (IM). This method is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, where it is absorbed into the blood vessels and distributed throughout the body. This route of administration allows for a faster onset of action compared to oral medications and is often used for vaccines, antibiotics, and certain pain medications.

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27. The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is

Explanation

When children lose their sense of control, they often revert back to behaviors and emotions that are typical of an earlier stage of development. This is known as regression. It is a normal adaptive mechanism used by children to cope with feelings of helplessness or anxiety. Regression allows them to seek comfort and support from caregivers and regain a sense of security. Fantasy, projection, and displacement are other defense mechanisms that children may use, but they are not specifically related to losing a sense of control.

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28. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called

Explanation

Artifacts are any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include any interference or disturbances that are not a result of the electrical activity of the heart. These artifacts can be caused by various factors such as patient movement, improper electrode placement, electrical interference, or equipment malfunction. They can often mimic or mask the true electrical signals of the heart, making it important to identify and eliminate them to ensure accurate interpretation of the ECG.

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29. What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Explanation

As an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident, your responsibilities include caring for the injured individuals and monitoring and rehabilitating the hazmat team members. This means providing medical assistance and treatment to those who are injured and ensuring the safety and well-being of the hazmat team members who may have been exposed to hazardous materials. This includes assessing their condition, providing necessary medical interventions, and facilitating their recovery and rehabilitation process.

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30. Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

Explanation

The device commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations is the Army field litter. This is a portable stretcher specifically designed for military use, allowing for the safe and efficient transportation of injured soldiers or civilians in challenging environments. It is lightweight, durable, and can be easily carried by a team of medical personnel. The Army field litter is an essential tool in emergency medical response during times of conflict or natural disasters.

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31. Drug administration is controlled primarily by

Explanation

Drug administration is primarily controlled by federal law. Federal laws, such as the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Controlled Substances Act, and the Drug Enforcement Administration regulations, provide the framework for regulating the manufacturing, distribution, and dispensing of drugs in the United States. These laws ensure the safety, efficacy, and proper use of drugs, and they apply to all states and healthcare facilities across the country. State laws may also play a role in drug administration, but federal law takes precedence in regulating drug-related activities.

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32. Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

Explanation

Pass is the correct answer because it refers to a temporary departure from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours. It implies that the patient is allowed to leave but will return to the facility within a specific timeframe.

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33. If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask

Explanation

The correct answer is "what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device." This is because understanding the patient's condition is crucial in determining the most suitable transfer device that can safely assist them. Different medical conditions may require specific equipment or techniques for transferring patients, so knowing the patient's condition will help ensure their safety and proper care during the transfer process.

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34. Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

Explanation

Compulsion is the correct answer because it refers to an irresistible urge to perform seemingly purposeless actions. It is a common symptom of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), where individuals feel compelled to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental rituals to alleviate anxiety or prevent perceived harm. Delusion refers to a fixed false belief, anxiety is a state of excessive worry or fear, and conflict refers to a struggle between opposing forces or emotions.

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35. A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of

Explanation

The patient's feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt indicate a sense of isolation and emotional disconnection. This can lead to a behavior of withdrawal, where the individual retreats from social interactions and avoids engaging with others. They may prefer to be alone and avoid situations that could potentially exacerbate their feelings of being unloved or inferior. This behavior is a coping mechanism to protect themselves from further emotional pain and rejection.

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36. When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

Explanation

The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention and treatment are crucial for the recovery of mentally ill patients. Starting the rehabilitation process immediately allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's condition, develop a personalized treatment plan, and provide necessary support and interventions to promote their mental health and well-being. Delaying the rehabilitation process can hinder the patient's progress and may lead to further deterioration of their mental health. Therefore, initiating rehabilitation as soon as the patient is admitted is essential for their overall recovery.

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37. Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?

Explanation

In an intoxicated patient, impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes are signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment. Impaired vision can result from the effects of alcohol on the central nervous system. Uncoordinated movement is a common symptom of alcohol intoxication, as it affects the cerebellum, which is responsible for motor coordination. Behavioral changes can also occur due to alcohol's impact on the brain, leading to altered mood, aggression, or impaired judgment. Muscle tremors, loud voice, sweet smelling breath, difficulty breathing, and rapid pulse rate are not specific signs of nervous system impairment in an intoxicated patient.

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38. What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?

Explanation

The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is 95 to 98 percent. This range indicates the percentage of hemoglobin in the blood that is saturated with oxygen. A saturation level below 95 percent may indicate hypoxemia, which is a low oxygen level in the blood. Saturation levels above 98 percent are generally considered to be within the normal range. It is important to maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels to ensure proper oxygen delivery to the body's tissues and organs.

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39. What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?

Explanation

If the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated, the best course of action is to change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes, and launder them in hot soapy water. This is the most effective way to remove any contaminants from the clothes and prevent further spread of the contamination. Simply wiping off the affected area may not be sufficient, and throwing the dirty clothes in the trash without properly cleaning them could potentially lead to further contamination.

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40. When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?

Explanation

If a patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, it indicates that the patient is alert. Being alert means that the patient is awake, aware of their surroundings, and able to respond appropriately to stimuli. This suggests that the patient's mental status is normal and they are fully conscious and oriented.

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41. The first stage of dying is

Explanation

In the stages of dying, the first stage is denial. This is when a person refuses to accept or acknowledge the reality of their impending death or loss. It is a defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with dying. Denial allows them to temporarily avoid facing the harsh truth and can provide a sense of hope or control in a situation that feels uncontrollable. It is a common reaction and can serve as a protective barrier before moving on to other stages such as anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

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42. During which child developmental stage is seperation anxiety the most stressful?

Explanation

During the preschool stage, children typically experience separation anxiety the most. This is because they are starting to develop a sense of independence but still rely heavily on their primary caregivers for security and comfort. Separation from their caregivers can cause distress and anxiety as they are not yet fully equipped to handle being away from their familiar and secure environment. This stage is characterized by clinginess, fear of being left alone, and difficulty adjusting to new situations or people.

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43. When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

Explanation

The correct answer is "before entering, and take it off before leaving." This is because when using a mask in an isolation unit, it is important to put the mask on before entering the unit to prevent any potential exposure to harmful particles or pathogens. Similarly, the mask should be taken off before leaving the unit to avoid carrying any contaminants outside. This ensures that the mask is used effectively to protect both the wearer and others in the unit.

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44. If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate?

Explanation

If a patient develops diarrhea after five days of penicillin treatment, adding yogurt or buttermilk to their diet and monitoring the number of episodes would be appropriate advice. This is because diarrhea can be a side effect of taking antibiotics, including penicillin, as they can disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the gut. Yogurt or buttermilk contain probiotics, which are beneficial bacteria that can help restore the balance and alleviate diarrhea symptoms. Monitoring the number of episodes is important to ensure that the diarrhea does not worsen or persist, in which case medical attention may be necessary.

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45. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

Explanation

If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen is the correct course of action. This method ensures that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen and helps to maintain their breathing. The BVM allows for manual control of the patient's breathing by squeezing the bag, while the high-flow oxygen ensures a sufficient oxygen concentration. This approach is necessary to support the patient's respiratory function and prevent further complications.

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46. What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

Explanation

Prior to operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This is crucial as it provides necessary information on how to properly use and handle the meter. By reading the instructions, one can understand the correct procedure for obtaining accurate blood glucose readings, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the device. It also helps in familiarizing oneself with any specific precautions or special features of the meter, allowing for proper utilization and minimizing the risk of errors or accidents.

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47. How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility?

Explanation

The correct answer is 66. This suggests that a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility is allowed to carry 66 pounds of baggage.

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48. What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

Explanation

Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, risks, and what to expect, patients can feel more prepared and informed, reducing anxiety and uncertainty. This can also help them make informed decisions and actively participate in their own care, leading to better outcomes and a more positive surgical experience. Sedation, back massage, and oxygen therapy may have their own benefits, but they do not directly address the patient's concerns or provide the same level of reassurance and understanding as preoperative teaching.

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49. What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

Explanation

The responsibility of a medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is important to assess the patient's current health status and to establish a baseline for future reference. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature provide crucial information about the patient's overall well-being. Height and weight measurements are necessary for determining appropriate medication dosages, monitoring changes in body composition, and assessing nutritional status.

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50. What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Explanation

The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When the staff members demonstrate professionalism, it instills confidence in the patient and reassures them that they are receiving competent and reliable care. Additionally, a caring attitude helps create a positive and supportive environment, which can contribute to the patient's overall satisfaction and well-being. Therefore, the professionalism and caring attitude of the staff play a crucial role in shaping the patient's perception of the quality of care and treatment they receive.

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51. What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?

Explanation

Prepping the skin prior to surgery reduces the chance of infection because it involves the use of antiseptic solutions that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the skin's surface. By removing bacteria from the skin, the risk of introducing harmful pathogens into the surgical site is minimized, thus lowering the likelihood of infection. Proper skin preparation is an essential step in maintaining a sterile environment during surgery and promoting successful healing post-operation.

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52. Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Explanation

A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts normal physiological functions. Pathogens can enter the body through various routes, such as inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with the skin. Once inside, they can multiply and spread, leading to the development of symptoms and illness. Understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases, as it helps in identifying the source of infection and developing effective strategies for control and prevention.

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53. When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Explanation

The next step would be to flush the wound. This is necessary to remove any foreign material or debris that may be present in the wound. Flushing the wound with a sterile saline solution or clean water helps to clean the wound and reduce the risk of infection. It is an important step in the wound cleaning process before suturing or applying any other treatment.

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54. What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

Explanation

The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids in the body. It produces bile, which helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also regulates the levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood by synthesizing and breaking down lipoproteins. Additionally, it is involved in the conversion of excess carbohydrates into fatty acids and the breakdown of fatty acids for energy production. Overall, the liver plays a central role in maintaining lipid homeostasis in the body.

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55. Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with

Explanation

Grapefruit juice should not be taken with calcium channel blockers because it can interfere with the way the medication is metabolized in the body. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that inhibit an enzyme responsible for breaking down the medication, leading to higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream. This can increase the risk of side effects and potentially cause toxicity. Therefore, it is important to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking calcium channel blockers to ensure the medication works effectively and safely.

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56. A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with

Explanation

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury because this indicates that there is a high likelihood of severe injuries that could be life-threatening. By focusing on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are, healthcare providers can quickly identify and address any critical injuries or conditions that require immediate attention. This approach ensures that potentially life-saving interventions are prioritized and performed promptly.

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57. Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be

Explanation

When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to exhibit consistent behavior and actions. Consistency helps to create a sense of stability and predictability, which can help to alleviate the patient's anxiety. By being consistent in their approach, healthcare professionals can provide reassurance and establish trust with the patient, making them feel more comfortable and secure. This can contribute to a positive patient experience and improve their overall well-being.

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58. Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

Explanation

Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood. As individuals age, they tend to experience a decrease in muscle mass and strength. This can lead to a loss of mobility, increased risk of falls, and reduced overall physical function. Factors such as hormonal changes, decreased physical activity, and changes in metabolism contribute to muscle atrophy in late adulthood. Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy lifestyle can help slow down the process of muscle loss in older adults.

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59. When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?

Explanation

After ensuring that the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operates, the next step in a crash cart check is to annotate the date and time on a rhythm strip. This is important for accurate documentation and tracking of the patient's cardiac rhythm during resuscitation efforts.

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60. What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?

Explanation

Patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract often require a liquid diet. This type of diet consists of foods that are in liquid or pureed form, making it easier for patients to consume and digest. Liquid diets are typically prescribed for individuals with conditions such as dysphagia, oral surgery, or gastrointestinal disorders. This diet helps ensure that patients receive adequate nutrition while minimizing the risk of choking or discomfort during swallowing.

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61. The life span of lymphocytes is

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for identifying and destroying pathogens and infected cells. The lifespan of lymphocytes can vary depending on the specific type. While some lymphocytes have a short lifespan of only a few hours or days, others can live for years. This allows them to provide long-term immunity and memory against previously encountered pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is "years."

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62. A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by

Explanation

The correct answer is using the telephone or locally derived form. This is because notifying Public Health of a suspected communicable disease can be done quickly and efficiently through a phone call or by filling out a form that is specific to the local health care provider. This allows for immediate communication and response to the potential outbreak, ensuring that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent the spread of the disease.

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63. Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in early 2000's the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel?

Explanation

Smallpox was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 through a global vaccination campaign led by the World Health Organization. The disease, caused by the variola virus, was responsible for millions of deaths throughout history. The vaccine was so successful that in 1980, the World Health Assembly declared smallpox eradicated, making it the first disease to be eradicated by human effort. However, due to concerns about bioterrorism, the vaccine was reintroduced in the early 2000s as a mobility vaccine for military personnel.

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64. What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?

Explanation

The administration method that delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system is oral. This involves swallowing the medication, which then passes through the esophagus and into the stomach, where it is absorbed into the bloodstream. This route is commonly used for medications that are in tablet, capsule, or liquid form and is convenient and easy for patients to self-administer.

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65. What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse?

Explanation

In the third and final phase of spousal abuse, the abuser typically makes promises or declarations that the abusive behavior will never happen again. This is often a manipulation tactic used to maintain control over the victim and keep them from leaving the abusive relationship. The abuser may apologize, show remorse, and make empty promises in an attempt to keep the victim trapped in the cycle of abuse. This phase is known as the "honeymoon phase" and is characterized by a temporary calm before the tension and abuse build up again.

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66. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcasted?

Explanation

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcasted. This is because sharing a patient's name over the radio can violate their privacy and confidentiality. It is important to protect the patient's identity and ensure their personal information is kept confidential.

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67. What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?

Explanation

The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products is 30.

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68. How do you apply moist heat?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Moisten a towel and place between heat application and patient." This method of applying moist heat ensures that the heat is transferred to the affected area effectively while also protecting the patient's skin from direct contact with the heat source. The moist towel helps to retain the heat and provides a more comfortable and soothing experience for the patient.

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69. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

Explanation

Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help assess the overall health of employees. By regularly monitoring blood pressure, employers can identify individuals at risk for hypertension and provide necessary interventions. This screening activity promotes early detection and management of high blood pressure, which is essential for maintaining a healthy workforce. Additionally, it aligns with the goal of a work site wellness program to improve employee health and prevent chronic diseases.

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70. While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chamical in her or her eye, what should you determine first?

Explanation

In this scenario, determining if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type is the most crucial first step. This is because if the patient is wearing contact lenses, they need to be removed immediately to prevent further damage to the eye. Different types of contact lenses may require different methods for removal. Once the contact lenses are removed, the healthcare provider can then proceed to assess the patient's visual acuity, check for any pain or discomfort, and determine if they are authorized for care in the facility.

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71. Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except

Explanation

Psychotherapy is a form of treatment that focuses on improving mental health and well-being. It typically includes various therapeutic approaches such as hypnosis, psychoanalysis, and occupational therapy. However, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not considered a part of psychotherapy. ECT is a medical procedure used to treat severe mental illnesses, particularly depression, by inducing seizures through electrical currents. While it may be used in conjunction with psychotherapy, it is not a standard component of psychotherapeutic treatment approaches.

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72. A patient's weight is a factor in a drug action due to

Explanation

A patient's weight is a factor in a drug action due to body fat absorption. This means that drugs may be absorbed differently in individuals with different body weights, specifically due to the amount of body fat present. Body fat can affect the distribution and metabolism of drugs in the body, leading to variations in drug effectiveness and potential side effects. Therefore, understanding a patient's weight and body fat composition is important in determining the appropriate dosage and treatment plan for a particular drug.

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73. Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

Explanation

The correct answer is through an excessive amount of fluid loss. Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive loss of fluids, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, sodium chloride levels can become depleted. This can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, dizziness, low blood pressure, and even seizures. Therefore, signs of sodium chloride deficiency are typically seen in individuals who experience significant fluid loss.

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74. What patient-eduction would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing?

Explanation

The appropriate patient education for a patient prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing is to not chew the capsule. This is because Tessalon perles are meant to be swallowed whole and not chewed. Chewing the capsule may alter its effectiveness and may also cause unwanted side effects.

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75. When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

Explanation

In the case of an apparent vehicle fire, the ambulance should be parked 100 feet away from the affected vehicle. This distance ensures the safety of the ambulance crew and patients from the potential hazards associated with a burning vehicle, such as explosions, intense heat, and toxic fumes. Being at a safe distance allows the emergency responders to effectively assess the situation, provide medical assistance if needed, and prevent any further damage or injuries.

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76. A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a

Explanation

A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally is known as a powder. Powders are versatile medication preparations that can be administered in various ways, such as being mixed with liquid for oral consumption or applied directly to the skin. They are finely ground substances that can be easily absorbed by the body, making them effective for both internal and external use. Pills, pastes, and tinctures are different types of medication preparations that do not specifically describe a finely ground drug.

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77. Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible?

Explanation

Open fractures are considered more serious because they involve a break in the skin, which increases the risk of infection and can lead to greater blood loss. In open fractures, the bone is exposed to the external environment, making it more susceptible to contamination and requiring immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Closed fractures, on the other hand, do not break the skin, reducing the risk of infection and blood loss. Internal and external fixation are treatment methods for fractures and do not directly relate to the seriousness of the fracture.

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78. The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to

Explanation

Infusion therapy refers to the process of delivering fluids, such as medications, electrolytes, or nutrients, directly into the circulatory system. This method is commonly used to maintain hydration, replace lost fluids, administer medications, or provide necessary nutrients to patients who are unable to take them orally. It helps to ensure that the fluids and medications are quickly and effectively distributed throughout the body, enabling the circulatory system to deliver them to the organs and tissues that need them. Therefore, the basic purpose of infusion therapy is to administer fluids into the circulatory system.

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79. Nonopioid analgesics are available

Explanation

Nonopioid analgesics are available over the counter, meaning they can be purchased without a prescription. This suggests that these medications are widely accessible to the general public and do not require the supervision or authorization of a healthcare professional. This convenience allows individuals to obtain nonopioid analgesics easily for the relief of pain or discomfort without the need for a prescription or involvement in clinical trials.

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80. Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?

Explanation

Caffeine is a commonly used over the counter central nervous system stimulant that is often consumed in high doses. Prolonged use of caffeine can lead to habituation, where the body becomes tolerant to its effects, requiring higher doses to achieve the same level of stimulation. Additionally, caffeine can also cause psychological dependence, where individuals may feel a need to consume caffeine in order to function or feel alert. Therefore, caffeine is the correct answer to the question.

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81. Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except

Explanation

Cheese does not naturally contain Vitamin C. While citrus fruits, broccoli, and tomatoes are all good sources of Vitamin C, cheese is not. Vitamin C is commonly found in fruits and vegetables, but not in dairy products like cheese.

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82. How are corneal abrasions detected?

Explanation

Corneal abrasions, which are small scratches on the surface of the eye, can be detected using a fluorescein stain. This diagnostic test involves placing a special dye called fluorescein onto the surface of the eye. The dye will highlight any areas of damage or abrasions on the cornea, making them easily visible under a blue light. This allows healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and treat corneal abrasions. X-ray, venogram, and angiogram are not suitable methods for detecting corneal abrasions as they are imaging techniques used for examining other parts of the body.

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83. Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

Explanation

Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are an important component of the immune system and are responsible for protecting the body against diseases at the cellular level. They work by identifying and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, and also play a role in the inflammatory response. Leukocytes are not the body's only defense against infection, as other components of the immune system, such as antibodies and complement proteins, also contribute to fighting off infections. The other options listed, proliferating hemoglobin and carrying amino acids to the kidneys, are not accurate definitions of leukocytes.

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84. Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

Explanation

The reason "You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it prioritizes the caregiver's convenience over the child's safety and well-being. Restraining a child should only be done when necessary for their safety or the safety of others, such as when a physician needs to suture the child's face, when the child continues to climb out of bed in the night, or to prevent the child from falling out of a highchair.

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85. Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights?

Explanation

The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights because the method of administration is typically determined by medical professionals based on the patient's condition and the most effective and safe way to administer the medication. The patient's role is to provide informed consent for the treatment, but the specific method of administration is usually not within their purview.

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86. How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?

Explanation

There are two ways a provider can initiate a drug order. The first way is by directly entering the order into the computer system. The second way is by verbally communicating the order to a pharmacist or another healthcare professional who then enters it into the system on behalf of the provider. Therefore, there are two methods available for initiating a drug order.

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87. Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?

Explanation

Mosquitoes are known to transmit various viral diseases, including yellow fever. Yellow fever is caused by the yellow fever virus, which is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. This viral disease can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, muscle and joint aches, nausea, vomiting, and jaundice. Mosquitoes become infected with the virus when they feed on infected humans or animals, and then they can transmit the virus to other individuals through their bites. Therefore, yellow fever is the correct answer as it is a viral disease that is transmitted by mosquitoes.

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88. What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

Explanation

The Controlled Substances Act is a law that requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. This act was enacted to regulate and control the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse and dependence. It aims to prevent the diversion of controlled substances for illicit purposes and ensures their proper handling and accountability. This periodic inventory helps to monitor and track the quantities of controlled substances in various settings, such as pharmacies, hospitals, and research facilities, to prevent unauthorized access and misuse.

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89. What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?

Explanation

The solution temperature during gastric gavage should be at room temperature. This is because extreme temperatures, such as hot or chilled solutions, can cause discomfort or harm to the patient. Lukewarm solutions may also not be ideal as they can still cause discomfort. Therefore, room temperature is the most suitable option as it ensures the solution is comfortable and safe for administration.

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90. Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?

Explanation

Registered nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. They have the necessary qualifications and training to provide care and treatment to patients. Therefore, they are authorized healthcare professionals who can see and treat patients.

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91. What cells do lymph nodes contain in large numbers to fight invading microorganisms?

Explanation

Lymph nodes contain large numbers of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulf and digest pathogens and debris. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and eliminate microorganisms, helping to protect the body from infection.

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92. Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?

Explanation

Specific gravity is a urine test that is done to determine the hydration level of the patient. It measures the concentration of particles in the urine, which can indicate the amount of water in the body. A higher specific gravity indicates that the urine is more concentrated and the patient may be dehydrated, while a lower specific gravity suggests that the urine is more diluted and the patient may be overhydrated. Therefore, specific gravity is an important indicator of the hydration status of the patient.

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93. Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

Explanation

Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because sudden movements or changes in position can put stress on the cardiovascular system, leading to a disruption in the heart's normal rhythm and function. The spinal cord injury may already compromise the patient's ability to regulate blood pressure and heart rate, making them more susceptible to cardiac arrest when subjected to rapid movements. Therefore, it is crucial to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully and avoid abrupt changes in position to prevent such life-threatening complications.

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94. Opiod antagonists are used in the treatment of

Explanation

Opioid antagonists are medications that are used to counteract the effects of opioid overdose. When someone overdoses on opioids, such as heroin or prescription painkillers, their breathing can become dangerously slow or even stop. Opioid antagonists work by binding to the same receptors in the brain that opioids bind to, but instead of activating those receptors, they block them. This helps to reverse the effects of the opioid overdose and restore normal breathing. Therefore, opioid antagonists are specifically used in the treatment of opioid overdose.

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95. As a general rule, apply a cervicle collar if ther is any blow above the

Explanation

The correct answer is clavicles because a cervical collar should be applied if there is any blow above the clavicles. The clavicles are the collarbones, and any injury or trauma above this area can potentially affect the neck and cervical spine. Therefore, it is important to immobilize the neck with a cervical collar to prevent further damage or injury.

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96. Complex carbohydrates are called

Explanation

Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple monosaccharide units bonded together. They are large molecules and can serve as energy storage or structural components in living organisms. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. Bisaccharides, disaccharides, and monosaccharides are all types of carbohydrates, but they are simpler in structure compared to polysaccharides.

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97. What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance?

Explanation

When providing care to a patient who has abused a substance, the priority should be to monitor their vital signs and sustain their life. This is because substance abuse can lead to various health complications and emergencies, such as overdose or withdrawal symptoms. By monitoring vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, healthcare providers can assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate interventions to stabilize them. Sustaining life may involve administering life-saving interventions, such as CPR or administering medications to counteract the effects of the substance.

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98. When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

Explanation

The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because obtaining the patient's informed consent is a crucial step before any medical procedure. The consent form ensures that the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure, and gives their permission for it to be performed. Once the consent form is signed, the healthcare provider has legal and ethical permission to proceed with the surgery.

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99. In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?

Explanation

A back-check valve is a device that allows fluid to flow in only one direction. In a piggyback setup, where a secondary infusion is administered alongside a primary infusion, a back-check valve prevents the mixing of the two infusions by ensuring that the fluids flow independently and do not backflow into each other. This helps maintain the integrity and purity of each infusion, preventing any contamination or dilution of the medications being administered.

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100. What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?

Explanation

Allowing patients to channel their hostility through verbal expression is a helpful approach when they become angry and hostile. This allows them to express their emotions in a controlled manner, reducing the risk of physical harm to themselves or others. It also provides an opportunity for them to communicate their concerns or frustrations, which can contribute to a better understanding of their needs and help in finding appropriate solutions. Referring the patient to the nurse or physician for counseling can also be beneficial, as it provides professional support and guidance in managing their emotions.

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101. What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistimines and sedative-hypnotic drugs?

Explanation

Grapefruit juice is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines, and sedative-hypnotic drugs. This is due to the presence of compounds in grapefruit juice that inhibit the enzymes responsible for metabolizing these medications. As a result, the drugs may not be broken down properly in the body, leading to increased levels of the drug and potential side effects or reduced effectiveness. It is important to be cautious when consuming grapefruit juice while taking these medications.

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102. What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?

Explanation

Many medical treatment facilities use computer-generated products to avoid errors when copying a drug order. Computer-generated products provide a more efficient and accurate method of documenting and transmitting drug orders compared to traditional methods like Kardex, medication cards, and telephone consults. With computer-generated products, healthcare professionals can easily input and access patient information, dosage instructions, and any potential drug interactions, reducing the risk of errors and ensuring patient safety.

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103. Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion?

Explanation

Standard Form 518 is used to document a patient's blood transfusion. This form is commonly used in medical settings to record important information such as the patient's name, date and time of the transfusion, blood type, and any adverse reactions or complications that may occur during the procedure. It serves as a legal document and helps to ensure accurate and thorough documentation of the transfusion process for future reference and patient safety.

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104. When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?

Explanation

When turning a patient, the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient is to raise the far siderail. This is important for the safety and stability of the patient during the turning process. By raising the far siderail, it helps to prevent the patient from rolling off the bed and ensures that they are secure and supported. This precaution is necessary to prevent any potential injuries or accidents while repositioning the patient.

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105. When administering potassium intravenously, you should

Explanation

When administering potassium intravenously, it is important to mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. This is because potassium can settle at the bottom of the container, and if not mixed properly, the patient may receive an inconsistent dose. By thoroughly mixing the potassium, it ensures that the concentration of potassium is uniform throughout the solution, and the patient receives the intended dose.

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106. What is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid is not a commonly used disinfecting agent because it is a corrosive and highly reactive substance. It is primarily used for industrial purposes such as cleaning and etching metals, rather than for disinfection. Commonly used disinfecting agents include formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol, which have proven effectiveness in killing or inactivating microorganisms.

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107. If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the

Explanation

When treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the detailed physical exam. This is because in such cases, time is of the essence and immediate intervention is necessary to stabilize the patient. Conducting a detailed physical exam may be time-consuming and could delay the administration of life-saving measures. Instead, the focus should be on quickly assessing vital signs and addressing the immediate life-threatening issue.

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108. Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?

Explanation

Vitamin K is used to treat bleeding disorders and promote blood clotting. Heparin overdose, on the other hand, is a condition where there is an excessive amount of the anticoagulant medication heparin in the body, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Since vitamin K promotes blood clotting, it would not be effective in treating a heparin overdose. Therefore, heparin overdose is the ailment that is not treated by vitamin K.

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109. To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe

Explanation

To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier insertion of the ear drops and ensures that the medication reaches the desired area effectively. Pulling the earlobe outward, inward, or up would not have the same effect and may hinder the administration of the ear drops.

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110. In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?

Explanation

The pacemaker lead is inserted in the right atrium when using a temporary external pulse generator system. This is because the right atrium is the chamber of the heart that receives deoxygenated blood from the body and sends it to the right ventricle for pumping to the lungs. By placing the pacemaker lead in the right atrium, it can stimulate the heart to maintain a regular heartbeat and ensure proper blood flow.

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111. The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as

Explanation

The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as absorption. This involves the drug being taken up by the body's tissues and entering the bloodstream, allowing it to be distributed throughout the body. Osmosis refers to the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane, solubility refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve in a liquid, and stimulation refers to the activation or increase in activity of a physiological process.

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112. Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 because antiembolism stockings are used to prevent blood clots in patients who are immobile or have limited mobility. They are typically worn continuously to maintain their effectiveness. However, in some cases, the stockings may need to be removed temporarily for hygiene or other reasons. Without provider approval, the maximum recommended time for removing the stockings is 30 minutes to minimize the risk of blood clot formation.

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113. After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for

Explanation

After obtaining a blood sample, it is important to instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for 2 to 3 minutes. This is necessary to ensure that bleeding stops and to prevent hematoma formation. Applying pressure for this duration allows the blood vessel to seal properly, reducing the risk of complications such as excessive bleeding or bruising.

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114. Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?

Explanation

Administration of narcotics must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system. Narcotics are potent pain medications that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. This means that they can slow down or even stop a person's breathing. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor patients who are receiving narcotics for pain management to ensure their respiratory system is functioning properly and to prevent any potential complications.

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115. What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

Explanation

For a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant, isolation is necessary. This is because radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to others. By isolating the patient, the risk of exposing others to radiation is minimized. This precaution ensures the safety of both the patient and those around them.

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116. What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that his or her short leg cast feels tight?

Explanation

If a patient complains that their short leg cast feels tight, the appropriate action to take is to bivalve the cast. Bivalving involves cutting the cast along its length to create two halves, allowing for expansion and relieving the tightness. This procedure helps to alleviate discomfort and prevent complications such as restricted blood flow or nerve damage. Removing the cast completely may not be necessary, as the tightness could be resolved by bivalving. Petaling the cast involves trimming the edges of the cast to reduce pressure points, but this may not be sufficient if the cast feels excessively tight.

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117. A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered

Explanation

When a patient is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment, it means they are allowed to continue their treatment while residing outside the hospital. The term "subsisting out" implies that the patient is able to sustain or maintain themselves outside the hospital environment while receiving treatment. This term accurately describes the situation of a patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still undergoing treatment.

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118. A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is

Explanation

Sedatives and hypnotic medications can cause a depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep. This means that these medications can suppress or inhibit the normal REM sleep cycle, leading to a decrease in the amount of time spent in REM sleep. REM sleep is important for various physiological and cognitive functions, including memory consolidation and emotional regulation. Therefore, the use of sedatives and hypnotic medications can disrupt the normal sleep architecture and potentially impact sleep quality and overall sleep health.

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119. When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism?

Explanation

The Valsalva maneuver is taught to patients to decrease the chance of an air embolism during the insertion of a central venous pressure line. The Valsalva maneuver involves the patient holding their breath and bearing down, which increases intra-abdominal pressure and helps prevent air from entering the bloodstream. This maneuver is effective in reducing the risk of air embolism during the procedure.

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120. What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

Explanation

A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb because it is used to control bleeding by applying pressure to the blood vessels. This helps to prevent excessive blood loss and allows for the proper healing of the surgical site. The other options mentioned, such as a nasogastric tube, oxygen, and suction, may be necessary in certain postoperative situations, but they are not specifically essential after a surgical amputation of a limb.

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121. When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using

Explanation

Alcohol should be avoided when providing skin care for the elderly because it can be drying and irritating to the skin. As people age, their skin becomes thinner and more fragile, making it prone to dryness and damage. Alcohol-based products can strip the skin of its natural oils, leading to further dryness and discomfort. Therefore, it is crucial to choose gentle and moisturizing products, such as lotions, that can help hydrate and protect the skin. Lanolin, a common ingredient in many skincare products, can also cause allergic reactions in some individuals, so it is important to use alternatives. Antiseptic soap may be too harsh for the delicate skin of the elderly, making alcohol the best answer.

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122. The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the 

Explanation

When a stroke occurs, it is caused by a disruption of blood flow to a specific area of the brain. The side of the body that is affected by the stroke is determined by the side of the brain that was traumatized. This is because the brain is divided into two hemispheres, with each hemisphere controlling the opposite side of the body. Therefore, if the stroke affects the right side of the brain, it will result in weakness or paralysis on the left side of the body, and vice versa.

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123. A sign of vitamin A deficiency include

Explanation

Night blindness is a sign of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that helps with vision in low light conditions. When there is a deficiency of vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, leading to difficulty seeing in dim light or at night. Therefore, night blindness is a common symptom of vitamin A deficiency. Myopia refers to nearsightedness, presbyopia is age-related farsightedness, and macular degeneration is a condition that affects the central part of the retina, none of which are directly related to vitamin A deficiency.

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124. How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?

Explanation

Wet to dry dressing is a technique used to debride a wound. This involves applying a moist dressing to the wound and allowing it to dry before removing it. As the dressing dries, it adheres to the wound, effectively removing any dead tissue or debris. When the dressing is removed, it takes away the debris along with it, promoting wound healing. This method is commonly used for wounds with excessive exudate or necrotic tissue.

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125. The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the

Explanation

A clear liquid diet is a restricted diet that includes only clear liquids such as water, broth, and plain gelatin. It lacks essential nutrients and is not meant to be followed for more than three days. This diet is typically prescribed before certain medical procedures or surgeries to clear the digestive tract and provide hydration, but it does not provide enough nutrients for long-term sustenance. Therefore, it should not be given for more than three days.

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126. For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is

Explanation

When patients experience severe injuries or medical conditions, their initial psychological reaction is often shock and disorientation. This is because they are suddenly confronted with a traumatic event or a life-threatening situation, which can be overwhelming and disorienting. The shock response is a natural defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the initial impact of the situation. It can manifest as a state of disbelief, confusion, and feeling emotionally numb. Disorientation may result from the sudden disruption of one's physical and mental equilibrium, causing a temporary loss of orientation and coherence. Guilt, acceptance, and fear and anxiety may come later in the process of adjusting to the condition or injury.

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127. What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?

Explanation

Individuals deploying to Africa are at risk of contracting certain diseases that are prevalent in the region. Yellow fever and typhoid are two common diseases in Africa, and vaccines for these diseases are recommended for individuals traveling to the continent. Yellow fever is a viral disease transmitted by mosquitoes, and typhoid is a bacterial infection caused by contaminated food and water. Vaccination against these diseases helps to prevent infection and reduce the risk of illness while traveling in Africa.

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128. What is the primary rehabilitation need of a metally ill patient?

Explanation

The primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient is to strengthen their defenses. This refers to helping the patient build resilience and coping mechanisms to better manage their mental health condition. By strengthening their defenses, the patient can develop skills to handle stress, regulate emotions, and maintain stability. This is crucial in preventing relapse and promoting long-term recovery. Group therapy, prevention of regression, and social actions follow-up are also important aspects of rehabilitation but may not be the primary need in this context.

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129. What cardiac relates condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia?

Explanation

Syncope is a sudden loss of consciousness caused by a temporary reduction in blood flow to the brain. A fall in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood supply to the brain, resulting in cerebral ischemia and potentially causing syncope. Palpitations are abnormal heartbeats, dyspnea is difficulty in breathing, and fatigue is a feeling of tiredness or exhaustion. While these symptoms may be associated with cardiac issues, they are not directly caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia.

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130. To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every

Explanation

To prevent decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores, it is recommended to change the patient's position every two hours. This is important because prolonged pressure on certain areas of the body can lead to tissue damage and the development of ulcers. By changing the patient's position regularly, pressure is relieved and blood flow is improved, reducing the risk of ulcers. Changing positions every two hours helps to distribute pressure evenly and maintain skin integrity.

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131. Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?

Explanation

The disadvantage of inhalation medication is that monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult. This means that it can be challenging to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage of medication through inhalation. This can lead to under or over-dosing, potentially compromising the effectiveness of the treatment.

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132. Penicillin administration to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?

Explanation

Penicillin administration to treat an infection is an example of a curative drug because it directly targets and eliminates the cause of the infection, thereby curing the individual of the illness. Curative drugs are designed to provide a remedy or solution to a specific health condition or disease. In this case, penicillin acts by inhibiting the growth of bacteria and ultimately eradicating the infection, leading to a complete recovery.

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133. For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned

Explanation

The patient is preferably positioned on his or her left side for the administration of an enema. This position allows for easier access to the rectum and facilitates the flow of the enema solution into the colon. The left side position also helps to prevent the solution from flowing back out.

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134. Which method is injectable iron administered?

Explanation

Z-track is a method of administering injectable iron. It involves pulling the skin and underlying tissue to the side before injecting the medication into the muscle. This technique helps to prevent leakage of the medication back into the subcutaneous tissue, ensuring proper absorption and minimizing discomfort for the patient. Intra muscular, intra venous, and transdermal are other methods of administering medications, but they are not specifically used for injectable iron.

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135. Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?

Explanation

Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the lower digestive system content allows for quicker absorption and distribution of the medication into the bloodstream. When the stomach is empty, there is less food and other substances present that could potentially interfere with the absorption process. This allows the medication to be rapidly absorbed and reach its target site more quickly, resulting in a faster onset of action.

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136. Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

Explanation

Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action because heat causes blood vessels to dilate, allowing for increased blood flow. This increased circulation helps drugs to be absorbed more quickly into the bloodstream, leading to faster drug action.

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137. Which of these is a common refrence source for drugs?

Explanation

The Physician Desk Reference (PDR) is a commonly used reference source for drugs. It provides comprehensive information on prescription drugs, including their uses, dosages, side effects, and interactions. It is widely used by healthcare professionals, including physicians, to ensure safe and accurate prescribing. The other options, such as internet search, nurse's pharmacy handbook, and technician's pharmacy handbook, may provide some information on drugs but are not as widely recognized or trusted as the PDR.

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138. Opiods are contraindicated with

Explanation

Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can mask the symptoms of a head injury, making it difficult to assess the patient's condition accurately. Opioids can also potentially worsen the effects of a head injury by causing respiratory depression and increased intracranial pressure. Therefore, it is important to avoid using opioids in patients with head injuries to ensure proper evaluation and management of the injury.

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139. During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is te catheter inserted?

Explanation

During catheterization of a male patient, the penis is held at a 90-degree angle, and the catheter is inserted 6 to 10 inches. This is the correct answer because when catheterizing a male patient, the penis needs to be held at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper insertion of the catheter. The length of insertion can vary depending on the patient's anatomy, but it is typically between 6 to 10 inches to reach the bladder and allow for proper drainage.

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140. Which element is not required on a medication order?

Explanation

The patient's age is not required on a medication order because the dosage and type of medication prescribed are typically determined based on the patient's weight, medical condition, and other factors, rather than their age. The patient's name is necessary to ensure the medication is given to the correct individual. The specified time is important to indicate when the medication should be administered. The provider's signature is required to authenticate the medication order.

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141. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?

Explanation

Arrhythmia is the correct answer because it refers to any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings. It is a condition where the heart beats too fast, too slow, or irregularly. This can lead to symptoms such as palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Arrhythmias can be harmless or life-threatening, depending on the severity and underlying cause. Treatment options may include medication, lifestyle changes, or medical procedures such as cardioversion or ablation.

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142. Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

Explanation

Count sheets may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer because they are typically made of paper or fabric materials, which can be damaged or destroyed by the high temperatures and chemical reactions that occur during the sterilization process. Plastic trays, metal instruments, and nonmetal instruments can withstand the sterilization process and are commonly used in hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers.

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143. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

Explanation

After applying a topical anesthetic to a wound, it is important to assess sensory awareness next. This involves checking if the patient can still feel pain or sensation in the affected area. This step is crucial to ensure that the anesthetic has effectively numbed the wound and that the patient will not experience any discomfort during further treatment. Assessing sensory awareness helps in determining if additional anesthesia is needed or if the wound can be treated without causing pain to the patient.

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144. What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?

Explanation

The best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution is to remove protective devices themselves. This means that the technician should personally remove any protective covers or caps from the IV solution, ensuring that they are not contaminated during the process. By doing so, the technician can minimize the risk of introducing any external contaminants into the IV solution, thus maintaining its sterility.

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145. Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of

Explanation

Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of proteins. They are essential for the synthesis of proteins, which play a crucial role in various biological processes. Proteins are involved in structural support, enzymatic reactions, transport, and signaling within cells. Amino acids are linked together through peptide bonds to form polypeptide chains, which then fold into specific three-dimensional structures to create functional proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is proteins.

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146. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below

Explanation

If the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below 97 percent, it is important to notify the nurse or physician immediately. Oxygen saturation levels below 97 percent indicate a potential decrease in the amount of oxygen being carried by the blood, which can be a sign of respiratory distress or other underlying health issues. Prompt notification allows for timely intervention and appropriate management of the patient's condition.

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147. A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at

Explanation

A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months because by this age, they have typically gone through significant growth and development. By 24 months, most toddlers have transitioned from a primarily milk-based diet to eating a variety of solid foods, which contributes to their weight gain. Additionally, they have become more active and mobile, which also contributes to their growth and weight gain. Therefore, it is expected that by 24 months, a toddler's weight would have quadrupled from their birth weight.

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148. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the

Explanation

A proctoscopy is a medical procedure that involves the inspection of the rectum. It is used to diagnose and evaluate conditions such as hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding, and inflammation. During a proctoscopy, a flexible tube with a light and camera is inserted into the rectum to provide a visual examination of the rectal area. The procedure allows healthcare professionals to assess the health of the rectum, including any abnormalities or signs of disease. By inspecting the rectum, doctors can gather important information about a patient's gastrointestinal health and make appropriate treatment recommendations.

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149. When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is 

Explanation

When caring for a patient with electrical burns, the first priority is to manage the patient's airway. Electrical burns can cause damage to the airway due to inhalation of smoke or direct injury to the respiratory tract. Therefore, ensuring a patent airway is crucial to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Applying sterile dressings to the burn sites, evaluating the extent of the burn, and infection control are important aspects of care but may be addressed after ensuring the patient's airway is managed.

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150. How much vacuum must suctions provide when the tube is clamped?

Explanation

The question is asking about the amount of vacuum that must be provided by the suctions when the tube is clamped. The correct answer is 300 mm Hg. This means that the suctions need to create a vacuum pressure of 300 mm Hg in order to effectively clamp the tube.

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151. What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

Explanation

The foundations of safe and effective healthcare involve proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. This means that healthcare professionals should actively identify potential risks, assess their impact on patient safety, and implement measures to control and mitigate these risks. By taking a proactive approach to risk management, healthcare providers can prevent adverse events and ensure the safety of patients. This includes measures such as implementing safety protocols, conducting regular risk assessments, and continuously monitoring and improving patient care processes.

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152. Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as

Explanation

Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have a high potential for abuse but also have acceptable medical uses. Schedule II drugs are classified as substances with a high potential for abuse, but with currently accepted medical uses. This category includes drugs that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, but can still be prescribed by a healthcare professional in certain circumstances.

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153. Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?

Explanation

Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal. This is the passage that leads from the outer ear to the middle ear. By placing the medication directly into this cavity, it allows for targeted treatment of conditions affecting the ear, such as infections or inflammation. The external auditory canal is easily accessible and provides a direct route for the medication to reach the affected area.

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154. When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be

Explanation

When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous and can lead to further complications if not addressed promptly. Therefore, it is essential to monitor the child's fluid intake and ensure they are adequately hydrated to prevent any further health issues.

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155. Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except

Explanation

Calcium can be found in kale, salmon, and turnip greens, but not in pork. Pork is not a good source of calcium.

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156. Colostomy irrigations are performed to

Explanation

Colostomy irrigations are performed to establish fecal control. This procedure helps regulate bowel movements by flushing out the colon, allowing the individual to have more control over when and where they have bowel movements. It can help prevent accidents and provide a sense of independence for the patient.

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157. All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed

Explanation

Personality refers to the unique set of qualities, traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses how a person perceives and interacts with the world, as well as their emotional and behavioral responses. It is shaped by a combination of genetic factors, environmental influences, and personal experiences. Personality is a broader concept compared to character, which refers to the moral and ethical qualities of an individual. Heredity plays a role in shaping personality, but it is not the sole determinant. Therefore, personality is the most appropriate term to describe all that a person is, feels, and does.

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158. What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

Explanation

The temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer is between 122 and 131 degrees F.

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159. Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

Explanation

The trade name is the name given to a medication by the manufacturer. It is the brand name under which the medication is marketed and sold. The trade name is used to distinguish the medication from other similar products in the market. The official name refers to the name approved by regulatory authorities, while the generic name is the name of the active ingredient in the medication. The chemical name refers to the specific chemical composition of the medication.

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160. How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?

Explanation

To convert kilograms to pounds, you need to multiply the weight in kilograms by 2.2046. In this case, 65 kg multiplied by 2.2046 equals approximately 143 pounds. Therefore, the correct answer is 143 pounds.

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161. To use the internal girdle of support, you must

Explanation

To use the internal girdle of support, it is necessary to simultaneously contract the abdominal and buttocks muscles. This contraction helps to stabilize the core and provide support to the spine. By engaging both muscle groups at the same time, the body is able to maintain proper alignment and prevent excessive strain on the lower back. This technique is often used in exercises such as planks or squats, where a strong core is essential for maintaining proper form and preventing injury.

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162. Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?

Explanation

Bacteria are primitive one-celled organisms that can reproduce rapidly. They are considered infectious agents because they can cause diseases in humans, animals, and plants. Unlike viruses, which are not considered living organisms, bacteria have their own cellular structure and can carry out various metabolic processes. Bacteria can be found in various environments, including soil, water, and the human body. They can cause a wide range of infections, from mild to severe, and can be treated with antibiotics.

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163. Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?

Explanation

Medical service technicians are allowed to administer medications, but they must do so under the supervision of a nurse or physician. This means that technicians cannot administer medications on their own without direct oversight. The role of the nurse or physician is to ensure that the medications are being administered correctly and safely.

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164. The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned

Explanation

The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned at the head of the bed on the stretcher side. This position allows the person to have a clear view of the patient's movements and provides better control during the transfer process. Being at the head of the bed also allows for better communication with the patient and ensures their safety and comfort throughout the transfer.

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165. What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?

Explanation

The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output values should be calculated and recorded on the form. To indicate that these totals are the final ones for that shift, the last accumulated total should be circled. This helps to ensure accuracy and clarity when transferring information between shifts.

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166. Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

Explanation

Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an inadequate removal of carbon dioxide from the body, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. This can happen due to slow or irregular shallow respirations, which result in an excessive amount of carbon dioxide remaining in the body. As a result, the pH of the blood decreases, causing an acidic environment. Metabolic acidosis, on the other hand, is caused by an excess production of acid or a loss of bicarbonate in the body, and is not directly related to respiratory deficiencies. Metabolic alkalosis and respiratory alkalosis are characterized by an increase in blood pH, which is opposite to the condition described in the question.

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167. Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

Explanation

Acids are electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water. When acids dissolve in water, they dissociate into hydrogen ions (H+) and anions. These hydrogen ions make the solution acidic, as they can donate protons to other substances. Therefore, acids are the correct answer to the question.

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168. The eye can generally see wavelengths between

Explanation

The eye can generally see wavelengths between 400 and 750 nm. This range is known as the visible light spectrum, and it includes colors ranging from violet to red. Wavelengths below 400 nm are ultraviolet and are not visible to the human eye, while wavelengths above 750 nm are infrared and also cannot be seen. Therefore, the correct answer is 400 and 750 nm.

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169. At what ages is visual acuity at its best?

Explanation

During the ages of 15 to 20, visual acuity is at its best. This is because the eyes are fully developed during this time, allowing for optimal focusing and clarity of vision. As individuals reach their late teens and early adulthood, their visual acuity tends to stabilize and remain relatively constant.

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170. Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

Explanation

The purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC is to reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. This means that these precautions are put in place to prevent the spread of infectious agents and protect both healthcare workers and patients from getting infected. These precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of contaminated materials.

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171. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are

Explanation

During pulmonary function testing, it is important for the examinee to perform a minimum of 2 practice attempts and produce at least 3 acceptable tracings. This ensures that the examinee has adequately familiarized themselves with the procedure and can consistently produce accurate and reliable results. The practice attempts help the examinee understand the correct technique and ensure that they are able to perform the test correctly. The requirement for acceptable tracings ensures that the examinee is able to consistently produce reliable data that can be used for accurate interpretation and diagnosis.

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172. When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control?

Explanation

When a patient is taking penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat while also using oral contraceptives for birth control, it is important to educate the patient about the potential interaction between the two medications. Penicillin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy. Therefore, it is necessary for the patient to use a backup method of birth control, such as condoms, while taking penicillin to ensure contraception is maintained.

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173. What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

Explanation

For a virus to multiply, it requires a condition where there is susceptible tissue. Susceptible tissue refers to cells or organisms that are vulnerable to being infected by the virus. This condition is crucial because viruses need a host to replicate and spread. Without susceptible tissue, the virus cannot enter and infect cells, hindering its ability to multiply and propagate. Water and soil, cool and dry, and warm and moist are not directly related to the multiplication of viruses.

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174. If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the

Explanation

When performing an electrocardiogram on a rated individual, a copy of the electrocardiogram must be sent to the US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic library. This suggests that the library holds important records related to electrocardiograms for rated individuals in the US Air Force. The library may serve as a centralized repository for storing and analyzing electrocardiogram data, allowing for better monitoring and analysis of cardiac health in the rated population.

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175. When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?

Explanation

Dramamine is a medication commonly used to prevent and treat motion sickness. It works by blocking certain signals to the brain that cause nausea and dizziness. Therefore, it should be taken 30 minutes before expected motion to allow enough time for the medication to be absorbed and start working effectively. Taking it 2 hours before expected sleep, when in a large crowd for longer than 30 minutes, or when activity will raise heart rate over 80 beats per minute are not relevant to the purpose of the medication and would not provide the desired effects.

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176. Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?

Explanation

Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they require the patient to stand and stretch the hamstring muscles, which may put strain on the surgical site and increase the risk of injury. Postoperative patients are generally advised to avoid activities that involve excessive strain or stretching of the muscles in the immediate postoperative period to allow for proper healing and minimize the risk of complications. Therefore, standing hamstring stretches would not be commonly recommended for this population.

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177. What controllable factor fif Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

Explanation

Florence Nightingale linked pure water with health and the environment. This is because she recognized the importance of clean and safe drinking water in preventing the spread of diseases and maintaining good health. She advocated for proper sanitation and hygiene practices, including access to pure water, as essential factors in promoting public health and preventing the spread of infections. By emphasizing the significance of pure water, Nightingale contributed to the improvement of health conditions and the overall well-being of individuals and communities.

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178. When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a

Explanation

Mayo scissors are commonly used in surgical procedures to cut through thick tissue, including muscular skin. They have a strong, curved blade that allows for precise cutting and are designed to handle tough tissues. Retractors are used to hold back tissue and provide better visibility during surgery, while allis clamps are used to grasp and hold tissue. Iris scissors, on the other hand, are fine scissors used for delicate dissection. Therefore, mayo scissors are the most appropriate choice for cutting through thick muscular skin in this scenario.

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179. Antianxiety medications are prescribed for

Explanation

Antianxiety medications are commonly prescribed for the treatment of insomnia. These medications help to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, which can aid in falling asleep and staying asleep. Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in initiating or maintaining sleep, and antianxiety medications can be effective in managing the symptoms associated with this condition. They are not typically prescribed for suicidal tendencies treatment, the treatment of withdrawals, or prolonged treatment.

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180. In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?

Explanation

The slowest possible flow rate per hour for an IV solution can be set between 10 to 50 cc. This range allows for a slow and controlled administration of the solution, ensuring that it is delivered at a safe and appropriate rate for the patient. Flow rates below 10 cc may be too slow and may not provide the necessary amount of fluid, while flow rates above 50 cc may be too fast and can lead to complications. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 to 50 cc.

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181. Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

Explanation

Before performing oropharyngeal suctioning, ideally, a patient is placed in a semisitting position. This position helps to prevent aspiration and allows for better visualization and access to the oropharynx. The semisitting position involves elevating the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle, supporting the patient's back with pillows or a wedge, and flexing the knees slightly. This position promotes optimal airway clearance and reduces the risk of complications during the suctioning procedure.

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182. Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Do not aspirate." When administering heparin injections, it is important not to aspirate, as this can cause bruising or bleeding at the injection site. Aspiration involves pulling back on the syringe plunger to check for blood return, but this is not necessary for heparin injections. Aspiration can increase the risk of complications and is not recommended for subcutaneous injections like heparin. Therefore, Mr. Johnson's daughter would be instructed not to aspirate when giving her father the heparin injection.

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183. Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

Explanation

Drawsheets and roller boards are devices commonly used in healthcare settings to transfer patients from a bed to a stretcher. A drawsheet is a flat sheet that is placed under the patient, and it can be used to help slide the patient across the bed. A roller board is a specialized board with wheels that can be placed next to the bed, and it allows for easy transfer of the patient from the bed to the stretcher. Together, these devices provide a safe and efficient way to move a patient without causing discomfort or injury.

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184. When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

Explanation

When helping a patient to ambulate, it is important to stand beside and a little behind the patient. This positioning allows the caregiver to provide support and stability while also maintaining a clear view of the patient's movements. Placing one hand on the patient's waist helps to guide and stabilize their body, while the other hand under the patient's near arm provides additional support. This positioning and hand placement ensure the safety and comfort of the patient during ambulation.

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185. Vaginal suppositories are

Explanation

Vaginal suppositories are administered to combat infection. This is because suppositories are a form of medication that is inserted into the vagina to treat various infections, such as yeast infections or bacterial vaginosis. The medication in the suppository helps to eliminate the infection and alleviate symptoms. Cooling the suppositories before administration may provide additional comfort, but it is not the primary purpose of their use. Cleansing purposes and administration along the anterior wall of the vagina are not accurate explanations for the use of vaginal suppositories.

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186. What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for?

Explanation

Minerals are responsible for approximately 4% of the body's weight. These essential nutrients play a vital role in various bodily functions, such as maintaining healthy bones, regulating fluid balance, and supporting nerve and muscle function. While 4% may seem relatively small, minerals are crucial for overall health and well-being.

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187. Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

Explanation

Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization are most pertinent during the rehabilitation aspect of nursing care. This is because rehabilitation focuses on helping individuals regain their independence and improve their overall well-being after an illness or injury. During this phase, nurses play a crucial role in supporting patients in their physical, emotional, and psychological recovery, empowering them to reach their full potential and achieve self-actualization. By providing the necessary care, guidance, and resources, nurses can assist patients in regaining their confidence, abilities, and autonomy, ultimately facilitating their self-actualization.

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188. What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein?

Explanation

The Trendelenburg position is used for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein. This position involves tilting the patient's body so that the head is lower than the feet. This helps to increase venous return and fill the neck veins, making it easier to insert the line. The other positions listed, such as left lateral recumbent, right lateral recumbent, and supine, do not provide the same benefit for this procedure.

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189. As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye wit chemical burns?

Explanation

The minimum amount of time you should irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns is 20 minutes. This is because chemical burns can cause severe damage to the eye, and irrigating the eye for at least 20 minutes helps to flush out the chemical and minimize further damage. Irrigation helps to dilute and remove the chemical from the eye, reducing the risk of long-term complications.

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190. Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as

Explanation

Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital because they are present at birth. These deformities are not caused by infection or disease, but rather by abnormalities in the development of the bones, joints, muscles, or connective tissues in the fetus. Pathologic deformities, on the other hand, are acquired after birth due to injury, disease, or other external factors. Temporary deformities are also not applicable in this context as orthopaedic deformities are typically permanent unless treated with medical interventions.

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191. A fracture that results from disease, such as a metastatic cancer of the bone, is called

Explanation

A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by an underlying condition, making it more susceptible to breaking. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells spread to the bone and weaken it, leading to a pathologic fracture.

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192. There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30. This suggests that if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within 30 minutes of the accident, there is a high rate of success. This is because the sooner the procedure is performed, the better the chances of saving the tooth and minimizing any further damage or complications. Acting promptly allows for proper alignment and stabilization of the tooth, increasing the likelihood of a successful outcome. Waiting longer than 30 minutes may decrease the chances of a successful tooth replacement procedure.

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193. With type I diabetes, the pancreas

Explanation

In type I diabetes, the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate the amount of glucose in the blood. Without enough insulin, glucose levels in the blood can become too high, leading to various health complications. This is why individuals with type I diabetes often need to take insulin injections or use an insulin pump to manage their blood sugar levels.

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194. What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound?

Explanation

The proper sequence for cleaning a wound is to first remove the old dressing to expose the wound. Then, don sterile gloves to maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Finally, wipe from the wound outwards to remove any debris or bacteria and promote healing.

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195. How is whole blood normally supplied?

Explanation

Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that a standard unit of whole blood contains 450 cubic centimeters. This is the typical volume of blood that is collected from a donor during a blood donation. It is important to have a standardized volume for whole blood units to ensure consistency and accuracy in medical procedures and transfusions.

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196. As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored?

Explanation

Controlled temperature drug storage areas should be monitored at least once per day to ensure that the temperature remains within the acceptable range. Monitoring the temperature daily allows for early detection of any fluctuations or deviations that could potentially compromise the integrity and effectiveness of the stored drugs. Regular monitoring helps to maintain the quality and safety of the drugs, ensuring that they are stored under optimal conditions.

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197. Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to

Explanation

Closed-chest drainage is a procedure used to reexpand a collapsed lung. When a lung collapses, air or fluid fills the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse. Closed-chest drainage involves inserting a tube into the chest cavity to remove the air or fluid, allowing the lung to reexpand and function properly. Therefore, the correct answer is reexpand a collapsed lung.

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198. Which medication's primary action is pain relief?

Explanation

Analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics are medications that are primarily used for pain relief. Analgesics specifically target pain receptors in the body to reduce or eliminate pain. Sedatives and hypnotics help to relax and calm the body, which can also alleviate pain. Therefore, these medications are commonly prescribed to provide relief from various types of pain.

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199. What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?

Explanation

Blood pH alkalosis refers to an increase in the pH level of the blood, making it more alkaline. This condition can lead to various symptoms. Feeling dizzy and agitated are common symptoms of alkalosis. Dizziness occurs due to the changes in the acid-base balance, which affects the functioning of the nervous system. Agitation can result from the disruption in the normal physiological processes caused by alkalosis. Other symptoms that may occur with blood pH alkalosis include muscle twitching, tingling in the extremities, nausea, and confusion.

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200. A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a 

Explanation

A clinical pharmacist is a specialist who can guide a healthcare provider in prescribing drugs. They have specialized knowledge and training in pharmacology and can provide expertise in medication therapy management, drug interactions, dosage adjustments, and patient counseling. They work closely with healthcare teams to ensure safe and effective medication use for patients.

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What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?
What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become...
When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient...
The first stage of dying is
During which child developmental stage is seperation anxiety the most...
When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on
If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops...
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than...
What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?
How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being...
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior...
What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a...
What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality...
What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?
Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that...
When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty...
What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?
Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious...
Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?
When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring...
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing...
The life span of lymphocytes is
A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected...
Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in...
What administration method delivers medication directly into a...
What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse?
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what...
What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to...
How do you apply moist heat?
Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site...
While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states...
Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except
A patient's weight is a factor in a drug action due to
Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
What patient-eduction would be appropriate for a patient who has been...
When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the...
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally...
Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because...
The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to
Nonopioid analgesics are available
Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently...
Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except
How are corneal abrasions detected?
Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal and...
How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?
Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?
Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?
What cells do lymph nodes contain in large numbers to fight invading...
Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the...
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord...
Opiod antagonists are used in the treatment of
As a general rule, apply a cervicle collar if ther is any blow above...
Complex carbohydrates are called
What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused...
When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and...
What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?
What food or drink is known for its high potential to change...
What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when...
Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion?
When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take...
When administering potassium intravenously, you should
What is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening...
Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?
To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you...
In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using...
The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to...
Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes...
After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain...
Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can...
What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a...
What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that...
A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still...
A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is
When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure...
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after...
When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid...
The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by...
A sign of vitamin A deficiency include
How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a...
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given...
For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical...
What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?
What is the primary rehabilitation need of a metally ill patient?
What cardiac relates condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac...
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be...
Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?
Penicillin administration to treat an infection is an example of what...
For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned
Which method is injectable iron administered?
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster...
Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect...
Which of these is a common refrence source for drugs?
Opiods are contraindicated with
During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis...
Which element is not required on a medication order?
What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical...
Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?
After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires...
What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility...
Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of
Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen...
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your...
How much vacuum must suctions provide when the tube is clamped?
What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a...
Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern...
Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except
Colostomy irrigations are performed to
All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed
What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a...
Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug...
How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?
To use the internal girdle of support, you must
Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms...
Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service...
The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be...
What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD...
Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow...
Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
The eye can generally see wavelengths between
At what ages is visual acuity at its best?
Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard...
During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice...
When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe...
What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?
If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a...
When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?
Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?
What controllable factor fif Florence Nightingale link with health and...
When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would...
Antianxiety medications are prescribed for
In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per...
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing...
Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin...
Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a...
When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where...
Vaginal suppositories are
What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for?
Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during...
What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central...
As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye...
Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are...
A fracture that results from disease, such as a metastatic cancer of...
There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth...
With type I diabetes, the pancreas
What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound?
How is whole blood normally supplied?
As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage...
Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to
Which medication's primary action is pain relief?
What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best...
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