CDC B4n051: Airforce Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz

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  • 1/286 Questions

    What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

    • The Joint Commission
    • Infection Control Committee
    • American College of Surgeons
    • Center for Disease control and Prevention
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About This Quiz

This is a CDC B4n051: Air Force Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz. It is designed to help you see just how much you have understood about maintaining the health issues of all the members of the air force. The scores you get will help you see just how much revision work you need to input before you sit for your final exams.

CDC B4n051: Airforce Healthcare Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeast and  molds?

    • Fungi

    • Virus

    • Bacteria

    • Chlamydiae

    Correct Answer
    A. Fungi
    Explanation
    Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only option that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Fungi are a group of organisms that can exist as single-celled yeasts or multicellular molds. They are distinct from viruses, bacteria, and Chlamydiae, which do not have the same structural categories.

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  • 3. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • Illness

    • Virculence

    • Incubation

    • Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation
    Explanation
    The stage of infection that refers to the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease is called incubation. During this stage, the infectious agent multiplies and spreads within the body, but the person does not yet show any signs or symptoms of the disease. This is an important stage because the infected individual can unknowingly transmit the infection to others, even though they appear healthy.

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  • 4. 

    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • Irregular menstral cycles

    • Vaginal discharge

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common and serious complication that can occur in females as a result of gonorrhea infection. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If left untreated, the bacteria can travel from the cervix into the uterus and fallopian tubes, leading to inflammation and infection in the pelvic organs. PID can cause symptoms such as pelvic pain, fever, and abnormal vaginal discharge. It can also lead to long-term complications such as chronic pelvic pain, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea.

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  • 5. 

    What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 6 months

    • When package integrity is compromised

    Correct Answer
    A. When package integrity is compromised
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "When package integrity is compromised." This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method depends on the condition of the packaging. If the package is damaged or compromised in any way, the sterilized equipment should not be used, regardless of the time that has passed since sterilization. This is because a compromised package can allow contaminants to enter and compromise the sterility of the equipment. Therefore, it is important to regularly check the package integrity before using sterilized equipment.

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  • 6. 

    What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

    • Patient's full name and date of birth.

    • Patient's full name and social security number.

    • Patient's social security number and date of birth.

    • Patient's last name, age, and social security number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient's full name and date of birth.
    Explanation
    The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used to ensure accurate identification of patients and to prevent errors in healthcare settings. Using the patient's full name and date of birth helps to minimize the risk of confusion or mistaken identity, which is crucial for patient safety and the delivery of appropriate care.

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  • 7. 

    A good source of protein is

    • Fruits

    • Rice

    • Poultry

    • Vitamins

    Correct Answer
    A. Poultry
    Explanation
    Poultry is a good source of protein because it contains all nine essential amino acids that the body needs to function properly. It is also low in fat and high in vitamins and minerals, making it a healthy choice for protein intake. Fruits and rice are not typically high in protein, and while vitamins are important for overall health, they are not a direct source of protein. Therefore, poultry is the best option for obtaining protein in this list.

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  • 8. 

    Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a

    • Secondary immune response

    • Primary immune response

    • Partial immune response

    • Single immune response

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary immune response
    Explanation
    When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's response is called a primary immune response. This is because the primary immune response is the initial reaction of the immune system when encountering a new pathogen or antigen. It involves the activation of immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, to produce specific antibodies and memory cells that can recognize and respond to the pathogen in the future. This response is typically slower and less efficient compared to the secondary immune response, which occurs upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen.

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  • 9. 

    What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

    • Call the nurse to come see the patient

    • Call the doctor to come see the patient

    • Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab

    • Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse
    Explanation
    If a small object is identified while straining urine, the appropriate step would be to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This ensures that the object is properly preserved and can be sent to the lab for further examination if necessary. Calling the nurse or doctor to come see the patient may not be necessary at this stage, as the object can be handled by the nurse later on.

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  • 10. 

    In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

    • When the senior medical technician on board approves it

    • When local protocol authorizes it

    • During the response phase

    • During the transport phase

    Correct Answer
    A. When local protocol authorizes it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only allowed when the local protocol, which could be specific rules or regulations set by the local authorities or organization, gives permission for it. This ensures that the use of lights and sirens is controlled and used appropriately in accordance with the local guidelines.

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  • 11. 

    The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called

    • Expanded primary survey

    • Secondary survey

    • Trauma history

    • Scene sizeup

    Correct Answer
    A. Scene sizeup
    Explanation
    Scene sizeup refers to the action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT). This involves gathering information about the environment, potential hazards, and the number of patients involved. It helps the EMT determine the appropriate resources and equipment needed for the situation and ensures the safety of both the patients and the medical personnel. The scene sizeup is an essential step in the overall assessment and management of an accident scene.

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  • 12. 

    Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

    • Range of motion (ROM)

    • Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

    • Purified protein derivative (PPD)

    • Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (A VPU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
    Explanation
    Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture in the field. A fracture often causes pain, swelling, and deformity in the affected area, which is why the term "painful, swollen deformity" (PSD) is used by EMTs to indicate a potential fracture. This acronym helps EMTs quickly communicate and identify a possible fracture, allowing them to provide appropriate care and treatment to the patient.

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  • 13. 

    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

    • Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed.

    • Patient is doing well and no problems were noted.

    • Doctor probably changed the orders verbally.

    • Vital signs were not completed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vital signs were not completed.
    Explanation
    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the healthcare staff being busy or forgetting to take the vital signs. It does not necessarily indicate that the patient is off the unit having tests completed or that the patient is doing well with no problems. Additionally, if the doctor had changed the orders verbally, it would be expected to see updated documentation in the chart. Therefore, the most likely explanation is that the vital signs were not completed.

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  • 14. 

    If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

    • Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect.

    • Place the patient on his or her left side.

    • Administer 100 percent oxygen.

    • Stop the transfusion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the transfusion.
    Explanation
    If a patient receiving a blood transfusion exhibits distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called fluid overload or transfusion reaction. These symptoms suggest that the patient is experiencing an adverse reaction to the transfusion, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, the first and most crucial step is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.

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  • 15. 

    Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

    • Crepitus.

    • Vibration.

    • Resonance.

    • Intonation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crepitus.
    Explanation
    Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound is often associated with joint conditions such as arthritis or fractures. Vibration refers to a rapid back-and-forth movement, resonance is the reinforcement of sound waves, and intonation is the rise and fall of pitch in speech. However, none of these terms specifically describe the sound of bones rubbing together.

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  • 16. 

    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

    • A lifelong process.

    • Of no use because they do not fully recover.

    • Continued for six months after the injury occured.

    • Continued for up to two years after the final surgery.

    Correct Answer
    A. A lifelong process.
    Explanation
    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process because spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and limitations. The goal of rehabilitation is to help the patient regain as much independence and function as possible, adapt to their new circumstances, and prevent secondary complications. This requires ongoing therapy, support, and adjustments to accommodate any changes in the patient's condition over time.

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  • 17. 

    How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

    • Explain the importance of nutrition.

    • Ask the patient to try new foods.

    • Cater to the patient's customs.

    • Bring a tray full of choices.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cater to the patient's customs.
    Explanation
    Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite as it allows them to have familiar and preferred foods. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences or restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By accommodating their customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and enjoy their meals, which can increase their appetite. This approach also shows respect for their individuality and promotes a positive dining experience, which can further enhance their overall nutrition and well-being.

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  • 18. 

    When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is

    • Behavior.

    • Appearance.

    • Conversation.

    • Sleeping habits.

    Correct Answer
    A. Behavior.
    Explanation
    When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is behavior. This is because behavior provides valuable insights into the patient's mental state, mood, and overall functioning. It includes actions, reactions, and patterns of behavior that can help in understanding the patient's symptoms, progress, and response to treatment. By closely observing behavior, healthcare professionals can make informed assessments, identify any changes or abnormalities, and develop appropriate intervention plans to support the patient's mental health and well-being.

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  • 19. 

    What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?

    • Report the suspected abuse.

    • Only report if the parents admit abuse.

    • Counsel the parent on his or her actions.

    • Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Report the suspected abuse.
    Explanation
    If a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. As a responsible adult, it is our duty to ensure the safety and well-being of children. Reporting the suspected abuse can help protect the child from further harm and allow appropriate authorities to investigate the situation and provide necessary support and intervention.

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  • 20. 

    Before administering any medication, you sre responsible for all of the following except

    • For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day.

    • Performing all steps in the six medication rights.

    • Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication.

    • Verifying any possible interactions against current medications.

    Correct Answer
    A. For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day. This is because as a medication administrator, your responsibility is to ensure the safe and effective administration of medication. Ensuring an individual's availability for work is not within the scope of your responsibilities. However, you are responsible for performing all steps in the six medication rights, being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication, and verifying any possible interactions against current medications to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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  • 21. 

    Name the parts of a needle.

    • Hub, shaft, and bevel.

    • Cylinder, shank, and tip.

    • Barrel, bevel, and guages.

    • Hub, tip, and calibrations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hub, shaft, and bevel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hub, shaft, and bevel." The hub refers to the part of the needle that attaches to the syringe or other device. The shaft is the long, slender portion of the needle that is inserted into the body. The bevel is the slanted tip of the needle that facilitates smooth insertion into the skin or tissue.

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  • 22. 

    When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to

    • Maintain patient comfort.

    • Keep the medication off the patient's face.

    • Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye.

    • Allow the solution to pool in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye.
    Explanation
    Administering eye medications requires positioning the patient's treated eye lower than the other to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This position helps ensure that the medication stays in the intended eye and does not cause discomfort or potential side effects in the unaffected eye. By keeping the treated eye lower, gravity helps to prevent the medication from flowing into the unaffected eye and allows it to stay in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac where it can be absorbed effectively.

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  • 23. 

    While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin

    • A.

    • D.

    • E.

    • K.

    Correct Answer
    A. K.
    Explanation
    During heparin treatment, it is important to monitor Mr. Johnson's diet for foods rich in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, and heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clot formation. Consuming foods high in vitamin K can counteract the effects of heparin and reduce its effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor and control Mr. Johnson's intake of vitamin K-rich foods to ensure the effectiveness of his heparin treatment.

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  • 24. 

    What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen?

    • Antineoplastics.

    • Antihistimines.

    • Antifungals.

    • Antivirals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Antihistimines.
    Explanation
    Antihistamines would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen. Antihistamines work by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released by the body during an allergic reaction. Grass and tree pollen are common allergens that can trigger symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes. By taking antihistamines, the patient can alleviate these symptoms and reduce the allergic response to the allergens. Antineoplastics, antifungals, and antivirals are not appropriate medications for treating allergies to grass and tree pollen.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • Antigen

    • Antibody

    • Pathogen

    • Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts normal physiological functions. Pathogens can enter the body through various routes, such as inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with the skin. Once inside, they can multiply and spread, leading to the development of symptoms and illness. Understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases, as it helps in identifying the source of infection and developing effective strategies for control and prevention.

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  • 26. 

    What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?

    • Change into clean clothes before leaving work and throw the clothes in the trash

    • Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water

    • Wipe off the affected area before leaving work and launder clothes in hot soapy water

    • Wipe off the affected area, change into clean clothes and throw dirty clothes in the trash

    Correct Answer
    A. Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water
    Explanation
    If the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated, the best course of action is to change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes, and launder them in hot soapy water. This is the most effective way to remove any contaminants from the clothes and prevent further spread of the contamination. Simply wiping off the affected area may not be sufficient, and throwing the dirty clothes in the trash without properly cleaning them could potentially lead to further contamination.

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  • 27. 

    When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

    • After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving

    • After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    A. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "before entering, and take it off before leaving." This is because when using a mask in an isolation unit, it is important to put the mask on before entering the unit to prevent any potential exposure to harmful particles or pathogens. Similarly, the mask should be taken off before leaving the unit to avoid carrying any contaminants outside. This ensures that the mask is used effectively to protect both the wearer and others in the unit.

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  • 28. 

    What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

    • Stomach

    • Heart

    • Brain

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids in the body. It produces bile, which helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also regulates the levels of cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood by synthesizing and breaking down lipoproteins. Additionally, it is involved in the conversion of excess carbohydrates into fatty acids and the breakdown of fatty acids for energy production. Overall, the liver plays a central role in maintaining lipid homeostasis in the body.

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  • 29. 

    Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?

    • Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.

    • Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath.

    • Muscle tremors, behavior changes, rapid pulse rate.

    • Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.
    Explanation
    In an intoxicated patient, impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes are signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment. Impaired vision can result from the effects of alcohol on the central nervous system. Uncoordinated movement is a common symptom of alcohol intoxication, as it affects the cerebellum, which is responsible for motor coordination. Behavioral changes can also occur due to alcohol's impact on the brain, leading to altered mood, aggression, or impaired judgment. Muscle tremors, loud voice, sweet smelling breath, difficulty breathing, and rapid pulse rate are not specific signs of nervous system impairment in an intoxicated patient.

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  • 30. 

    What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

    • Read the operating instructions

    • Confirm the order with a co-worker

    • Choose a site to obtain a blood sample

    • Ask all family members to leave the room

    Correct Answer
    A. Read the operating instructions
    Explanation
    Prior to operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This is crucial as it provides necessary information on how to properly use and handle the meter. By reading the instructions, one can understand the correct procedure for obtaining accurate blood glucose readings, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the device. It also helps in familiarizing oneself with any specific precautions or special features of the meter, allowing for proper utilization and minimizing the risk of errors or accidents.

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  • 31. 

    Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called

    • Artifacts

    • Disturbances

    • Random waves

    • Deflection waves

    Correct Answer
    A. Artifacts
    Explanation
    Artifacts are any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include any interference or disturbances that are not a result of the electrical activity of the heart. These artifacts can be caused by various factors such as patient movement, improper electrode placement, electrical interference, or equipment malfunction. They can often mimic or mask the true electrical signals of the heart, making it important to identify and eliminate them to ensure accurate interpretation of the ECG.

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  • 32. 

    When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

    • Begin suturing

    • Flush the wound

    • Clean out the debris with an allis clamp

    • Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Flush the wound
    Explanation
    The next step would be to flush the wound. This is necessary to remove any foreign material or debris that may be present in the wound. Flushing the wound with a sterile saline solution or clean water helps to clean the wound and reduce the risk of infection. It is an important step in the wound cleaning process before suturing or applying any other treatment.

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  • 33. 

    When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?

    • Able

    • Alert

    • Ambulatory

    • Asymptomatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Alert
    Explanation
    If a patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, it indicates that the patient is alert. Being alert means that the patient is awake, aware of their surroundings, and able to respond appropriately to stimuli. This suggests that the patient's mental status is normal and they are fully conscious and oriented.

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  • 34. 

    If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

    • High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask

    • Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen

    • High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask

    • Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
    Explanation
    If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen is the correct course of action. This method ensures that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen and helps to maintain their breathing. The BVM allows for manual control of the patient's breathing by squeezing the bag, while the high-flow oxygen ensures a sufficient oxygen concentration. This approach is necessary to support the patient's respiratory function and prevent further complications.

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  • 35. 

    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the bosy not already attended to.

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to.

    Correct Answer
    A. A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.
    Explanation
    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury because this indicates that there is a high likelihood of severe injuries that could be life-threatening. By focusing on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are, healthcare providers can quickly identify and address any critical injuries or conditions that require immediate attention. This approach ensures that potentially life-saving interventions are prioritized and performed promptly.

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  • 36. 

    What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

    • Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members.

    • Determining wind flow and type of chemical involved.

    • Putting out the fire and gaining access tot he patient.

    • Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members.
    Explanation
    As an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident, your responsibilities include caring for the injured individuals and monitoring and rehabilitating the hazmat team members. This means providing medical assistance and treatment to those who are injured and ensuring the safety and well-being of the hazmat team members who may have been exposed to hazardous materials. This includes assessing their condition, providing necessary medical interventions, and facilitating their recovery and rehabilitation process.

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  • 37. 

    Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

    • Army field litter

    • Long backboard

    • Scoop stretcher

    • Stoke's basket

    Correct Answer
    A. Army field litter
    Explanation
    The device commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations is the Army field litter. This is a portable stretcher specifically designed for military use, allowing for the safe and efficient transportation of injured soldiers or civilians in challenging environments. It is lightweight, durable, and can be easily carried by a team of medical personnel. The Army field litter is an essential tool in emergency medical response during times of conflict or natural disasters.

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  • 38. 

    If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask

    • If the patient can walk to determine if you need to call for help.

    • How old the patient is to determine if you should call another clinic.

    • What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device.

    • If the patient is authorized care at your facility.

    Correct Answer
    A. What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device." This is because understanding the patient's condition is crucial in determining the most suitable transfer device that can safely assist them. Different medical conditions may require specific equipment or techniques for transferring patients, so knowing the patient's condition will help ensure their safety and proper care during the transfer process.

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  • 39. 

    What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

    • Evaluate patient

    • Obtain patient's history

    • Transcribe doctors orders.

    • Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of a medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is important to assess the patient's current health status and to establish a baseline for future reference. Vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature provide crucial information about the patient's overall well-being. Height and weight measurements are necessary for determining appropriate medication dosages, monitoring changes in body composition, and assessing nutritional status.

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  • 40. 

    Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

    • Pass

    • Discharge

    • Subsisting elsewhere

    • Absent without leave (AWOL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Pass
    Explanation
    Pass is the correct answer because it refers to a temporary departure from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours. It implies that the patient is allowed to leave but will return to the facility within a specific timeframe.

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  • 41. 

    How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility?

    • 56

    • 66

    • 76

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 66
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 66. This suggests that a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility is allowed to carry 66 pounds of baggage.

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  • 42. 

    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

    • Sedation

    • Back massage

    • Oxygen therapy

    • Preoperative teaching

    Correct Answer
    A. Preoperative teaching
    Explanation
    Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, risks, and what to expect, patients can feel more prepared and informed, reducing anxiety and uncertainty. This can also help them make informed decisions and actively participate in their own care, leading to better outcomes and a more positive surgical experience. Sedation, back massage, and oxygen therapy may have their own benefits, but they do not directly address the patient's concerns or provide the same level of reassurance and understanding as preoperative teaching.

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  • 43. 

    What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

    • Credentials of the surgeon.

    • Availibility of a base chaplain.

    • Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff.

    • Number of nurses and technicians on staff.

    Correct Answer
    A. Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff.
    Explanation
    The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When the staff members demonstrate professionalism, it instills confidence in the patient and reassures them that they are receiving competent and reliable care. Additionally, a caring attitude helps create a positive and supportive environment, which can contribute to the patient's overall satisfaction and well-being. Therefore, the professionalism and caring attitude of the staff play a crucial role in shaping the patient's perception of the quality of care and treatment they receive.

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  • 44. 

    What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?

    • Reduces the chance of infection.

    • Prevents contamination of the operating room (OR).

    • Allows for proper suturing of the incision.

    • Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduces the chance of infection.
    Explanation
    Prepping the skin prior to surgery reduces the chance of infection because it involves the use of antiseptic solutions that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the skin's surface. By removing bacteria from the skin, the risk of introducing harmful pathogens into the surgical site is minimized, thus lowering the likelihood of infection. Proper skin preparation is an essential step in maintaining a sterile environment during surgery and promoting successful healing post-operation.

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  • 45. 

    During which child developmental stage is seperation anxiety the most stressful?

    • Early infancy.

    • Preschool.

    • School age.

    • Adolescence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preschool.
    Explanation
    During the preschool stage, children typically experience separation anxiety the most. This is because they are starting to develop a sense of independence but still rely heavily on their primary caregivers for security and comfort. Separation from their caregivers can cause distress and anxiety as they are not yet fully equipped to handle being away from their familiar and secure environment. This stage is characterized by clinginess, fear of being left alone, and difficulty adjusting to new situations or people.

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  • 46. 

    The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is

    • Fantasy.

    • Projection.

    • Regression.

    • Displacement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Regression.
    Explanation
    When children lose their sense of control, they often revert back to behaviors and emotions that are typical of an earlier stage of development. This is known as regression. It is a normal adaptive mechanism used by children to cope with feelings of helplessness or anxiety. Regression allows them to seek comfort and support from caregivers and regain a sense of security. Fantasy, projection, and displacement are other defense mechanisms that children may use, but they are not specifically related to losing a sense of control.

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  • 47. 

    The first stage of dying is

    • Bargaining.

    • Depression.

    • Anger.

    • Denial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial.
    Explanation
    In the stages of dying, the first stage is denial. This is when a person refuses to accept or acknowledge the reality of their impending death or loss. It is a defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with dying. Denial allows them to temporarily avoid facing the harsh truth and can provide a sense of hope or control in a situation that feels uncontrollable. It is a common reaction and can serve as a protective barrier before moving on to other stages such as anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

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  • 48. 

    What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?

    • Socioeconomis status.

    • Opinions of others.

    • Self-perception.

    • Job title.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-perception.
    Explanation
    An individual's feeling about themselves is primarily influenced by their self-perception. This refers to how they see themselves, their beliefs, and their evaluation of their own abilities, worth, and appearance. Self-perception plays a crucial role in shaping one's self-esteem and self-confidence. While socio-economic status, opinions of others, and job title can also have an impact on an individual's self-perception, they are secondary factors that may influence but not determine how one feels about themselves.

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  • 49. 

    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

    • Compulsion.

    • Delusion.

    • Anxiety.

    • Conflict.

    Correct Answer
    A. Compulsion.
    Explanation
    Compulsion is the correct answer because it refers to an irresistible urge to perform seemingly purposeless actions. It is a common symptom of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), where individuals feel compelled to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental rituals to alleviate anxiety or prevent perceived harm. Delusion refers to a fixed false belief, anxiety is a state of excessive worry or fear, and conflict refers to a struggle between opposing forces or emotions.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 14, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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