Basics Of Mechanical Engineering

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Basics Of Mechanical Engineering - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The drag force exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in the fluid is due to

    • A.

      Pressure and viscous forces

    • B.

      Pressure and gravity forces

    • C.

      Pressure and surface tension forces

    • D.

      Viscous and gravity forces

    Correct Answer
    D. Viscous and gravity forces
    Explanation
    The drag force exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in the fluid is due to viscous and gravity forces. Viscous forces arise because of the fluid's resistance to flow and the friction between the fluid and the body. Gravity forces come into play as the weight of the body causes it to move through the fluid, creating a drag force.

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  • 2. 

    Newton law of viscosity depends upon the

    • A.

      Stress and strain of the fluid

    • B.

      Shear stress, pressure and velocity

    • C.

      Shear stress and rate of strain

    • D.

      Viscosity and shear stress

    Correct Answer
    D. Viscosity and shear stress
    Explanation
    Newton's law of viscosity states that the rate of shear strain in a fluid is directly proportional to the shear stress applied to it. In other words, the viscosity of a fluid determines how it responds to an applied shear stress. Therefore, the correct answer is "viscosity and shear stress" because these two factors are the key components in Newton's law of viscosity.

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  • 3. 

    For a Newtonian fluid 

    • A.

      Shear stress  is proportional to shear strain

    • B.

      Rate of shear stress  is proportional to shear strain

    • C.

      Shear stress  is proportional to rate of shear strain

    • D.

      Rate of shear stress  is proportional to rate of shear strain

    Correct Answer
    C. Shear stress  is proportional to rate of shear strain
    Explanation
    In a Newtonian fluid, shear stress is proportional to the rate of shear strain. This means that as the rate of shear strain increases (i.e., the fluid is being deformed more rapidly), the shear stress also increases proportionally. This relationship is a characteristic of Newtonian fluids, which have a constant viscosity and exhibit linear behavior under shear. The proportionality between shear stress and the rate of shear strain is described by the fluid's viscosity, which determines how easily the fluid flows and deforms under applied forces.

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  • 4. 

    Surface tension is due to

    • A.

      Viscous forces

    • B.

      Cohesion

    • C.

      Adhesion

    • D.

      The difference between adhesive and cohesive forces

    Correct Answer
    B. Cohesion
    Explanation
    Cohesion refers to the attraction between molecules of the same substance. In the case of surface tension, cohesion is responsible for the molecules at the surface of a liquid to be more strongly attracted to each other compared to the molecules within the liquid. This creates a "skin" or "film" on the surface, causing the liquid to behave as if it has a stretched surface. Therefore, cohesion is the main factor contributing to surface tension.

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  • 5. 

    The relative density of mercury is

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      9.8

    • C.

      13.6

    • D.

      13600

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The relative density of a substance is defined as the ratio of its density to the density of a reference substance. In this case, the reference substance is usually water. Since the relative density of mercury is given as 1, it means that the density of mercury is equal to the density of water. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

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  • 6. 

    If the Reynolds number is less than 2000, the flow in a pipe is

    • A.

      Turbulent

    • B.

      Laminar

    • C.

      Transition

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbulent
    Explanation
    If the Reynolds number is less than 2000, the flow in a pipe is laminar. The Reynolds number is a dimensionless quantity that represents the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces in a fluid flow. It is used to determine the type of flow, with values below 2000 indicating laminar flow and values above 4000 indicating turbulent flow. In this case, since the Reynolds number is less than 2000, the flow in the pipe is laminar.

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  • 7. 

    Anemometer is used to measure

    • A.

      Velocity

    • B.

      Pressure

    • C.

      Viscosity

    • D.

      Density

    Correct Answer
    A. Velocity
    Explanation
    Anemometer is a device used to measure the velocity of wind or air. It works by capturing the force of the wind and converting it into a measurement of speed. By measuring the velocity, anemometers help in determining the speed and direction of the wind, which is crucial in various fields such as meteorology, aviation, and environmental monitoring. Therefore, anemometer is specifically used to measure velocity rather than pressure, viscosity, or density.

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  • 8. 

    Property of fluid that describes its internal resistance is known as:

    • A.

      Viscosity

    • B.

      Friction

    • C.

      Resistance

    • D.

      Internal energy

    Correct Answer
    A. Viscosity
    Explanation
    Viscosity is the property of a fluid that describes its internal resistance. It refers to the measure of a fluid's resistance to flow or its thickness. A fluid with high viscosity flows slowly, while a fluid with low viscosity flows quickly. This property is important in various applications, such as in the design of lubricants, paints, and in understanding the behavior of fluids in pipes and channels. Therefore, viscosity is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 9. 

    The heat is absorbed by

    • A.

      Condenser

    • B.

      Evaporator

    • C.

      Compressor

    • D.

      Thermostat

    Correct Answer
    B. Evaporator
    Explanation
    The evaporator is the correct answer because it is the component in a refrigeration or air conditioning system that absorbs heat from the surrounding environment. It is responsible for evaporating the refrigerant, which in turn absorbs heat and cools the air or substance being refrigerated. The evaporator is typically located on the inside of the system and is where the cooling process begins.

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  • 10. 

    The body which absorbs all radiations incident upon it, is called as

    • A.

      Black body

    • B.

      White body

    • C.

      Opaque body

    • D.

      Transparent body

    Correct Answer
    A. Black body
    Explanation
    A black body is a theoretical object that absorbs all radiation incident upon it, regardless of wavelength or angle of incidence. It does not reflect or transmit any radiation. This property allows it to be used as a standard for comparison in various fields, such as thermodynamics and spectroscopy. The term "black" refers to the fact that the object appears black when it is at thermal equilibrium with its surroundings, as it emits radiation at all wavelengths.

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  • 11. 

    Heat transfer takes place according to

    • A.

      First Law of Thermodynamics

    • B.

      Second Law of Thermodynamics

    • C.

      Third Law of Thermodynamics

    • D.

       Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

    Correct Answer
    B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
    Explanation
    The second law of thermodynamics states that heat transfer occurs from an object at a higher temperature to an object at a lower temperature. This law explains the direction of heat flow and the concept of entropy, which is the measure of the disorder or randomness in a system. It also states that it is impossible to convert all heat into work without any loss. Therefore, the second law of thermodynamics is the correct answer as it specifically deals with heat transfer.

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  • 12. 

    Heat is mainly transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in

    • A.

      Insulated pipes carrying hot water

    • B.

      Refrigerator freezer coil

    • C.

      Boiler furnaces

    • D.

      Condensation of steam in a condenser

    Correct Answer
    C. Boiler furnaces
    Explanation
    Heat is mainly transferred by conduction, convection, and radiation in boiler furnaces. In a boiler furnace, conduction occurs when heat is transferred through direct contact between the hot surfaces of the furnace and the surrounding materials. Convection takes place as the hot air or gases rise and circulate within the furnace, transferring heat to the surrounding areas. Radiation occurs as heat is emitted in the form of electromagnetic waves from the hot surfaces of the furnace, which can then be absorbed by nearby objects and surfaces.

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  • 13. 

    Units for thermal conductivity

    • A.

       J/kg.K

    • B.

      J/mol.K

    • C.

       J.ohm/sec.K2

    • D.

      W/m.K

    Correct Answer
    D. W/m.K
    Explanation
    The correct answer is W/m.K. Thermal conductivity is a measure of a material's ability to conduct heat. It is defined as the amount of heat that can be conducted through a unit area of a material of unit thickness in a unit time when there is a unit temperature difference between the two sides. The unit W/m.K represents the amount of heat energy (in watts) that can be conducted through a meter of the material with a temperature difference of 1 Kelvin.

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  • 14. 

    The heat generated in resistance welding is given by:

    • A.

      H = I2RT

    • B.

      H = I2R / T

    • C.

      H = I2R / T

    • D.

      H = I2R / T

    Correct Answer
    A. H = I2RT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is H = I2RT. This equation represents the heat generated in resistance welding. The variables in the equation are as follows: H represents the heat generated, I represents the current flowing through the circuit, R represents the resistance of the material being welded, and T represents the time duration of the welding process. The equation shows that the heat generated is directly proportional to the square of the current, the resistance, and the time duration.

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  • 15. 

    The process of joining two pieces in which a non-ferrous alloy is introduced in a liquid state between the piece of metals and allowed to solidify is known as

    • A.

      Welding

    • B.

      Brazing

    • C.

      Lancing

    • D.

      Riveting

    Correct Answer
    B. Brazing
    Explanation
    Brazing is the process of joining two pieces of metal by introducing a non-ferrous alloy in a liquid state between them, which then solidifies. Unlike welding, which involves melting the base metals, brazing uses a lower temperature to melt the filler metal. This allows for the joining of dissimilar metals or metals with different melting points. The solidified filler metal forms a strong bond between the two pieces, creating a durable and reliable joint.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following operation is required for making a chamfer on the edge of a hole?

    • A.

      Spot facing

    • B.

      Facing

    • C.

      Facing

    • D.

      Counter sinking

    Correct Answer
    D. Counter sinking
    Explanation
    Counter sinking is the correct answer for making a chamfer on the edge of a hole. Counter sinking involves enlarging the top portion of the hole to create a flat or angled surface, which helps in reducing sharp edges and providing a chamfered effect. This operation is commonly used in metalworking and woodworking to improve the appearance and functionality of holes, especially when fasteners need to be flush-mounted or when the edges of the hole need to be chamfered for safety reasons.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following operation(s) can be performed by a drilling machine?

    • A.

      Drilling

    • B.

      Reaming

    • C.

      Boring

    • D.

       all of the above

    Correct Answer
    D.  all of the above
    Explanation
    A drilling machine is a versatile tool that is capable of performing various operations such as drilling, reaming, and boring. Drilling involves creating holes in a material, reaming is the process of enlarging or finishing a hole, and boring is used to enlarge an existing hole or create a larger hole. Therefore, all of the mentioned operations can be performed by a drilling machine.

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  • 18. 

    Size of the lathe is specified by:

    • A.

      Maximum job length in mm that may be held between centers

    • B.

      The height of centers measured over the lathe bed

    • C.

      Maximum job length in mm that may be held between centers

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The size of the lathe is determined by multiple factors, including the maximum job length that can be held between centers in millimeters and the height of centers measured over the lathe bed. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all of these specifications contribute to specifying the size of the lathe.

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  • 19. 

    The process of making cup-shaped parts from sheet metal blank pulling into dies with the help of punch is called:

    • A.

      Drawing

    • B.

      Spinning

    • C.

      Extrusion

    • D.

      Forming

    Correct Answer
    A. Drawing
    Explanation
    Drawing is the correct answer because it refers to the process of making cup-shaped parts from sheet metal by pulling the blank into dies with the help of a punch. This process involves stretching the metal to conform to the shape of the die, resulting in a cup-like form. Spinning involves rotating a flat sheet of metal while pressing it against a form to create a cylindrical shape. Extrusion involves forcing the metal through a die to create a continuous profile. Forming is a general term that encompasses various metal shaping processes.

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  • 20. 

    Stainless steel is very difficult to grind due to its

    • A.

      Toughness

    • B.

      Ability to work harden

    • C.

      Both (A) and (B)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both (A) and (B)
    Explanation
    Stainless steel is very difficult to grind due to its toughness and ability to work harden. The toughness of stainless steel makes it resistant to deformation and breakage, making it challenging to grind. Additionally, stainless steel has the ability to work harden, meaning that it becomes harder and more resistant to grinding as it is subjected to mechanical stress. Therefore, both the toughness and work hardening properties of stainless steel contribute to its difficulty in grinding.

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  • 21. 

    Grinding is commonly used on

    • A.

      Aluminium

    • B.

      Brass

    • C.

      Plastic

    • D.

      Cast Iron

    Correct Answer
    D. Cast Iron
    Explanation
    Grinding is commonly used on cast iron because it is a hard and brittle material that can be difficult to shape or cut using other methods. Grinding involves using an abrasive wheel to remove material from the surface of the cast iron, allowing for precise shaping and smoothing. The hardness of cast iron makes it suitable for grinding, as it can withstand the pressure and friction generated during the process without deforming or wearing down excessively. Additionally, grinding helps to achieve a smooth and polished finish on cast iron surfaces.

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  • 22. 

    For a turning operation, the ‘l’ is the length of the job, ‘f’ is the feed rate and ‘n’ is the rpm of work. The cutting time for turning is calculated by:

    • A.

      F / (l x n) minutes

    • B.

      N / (f x l) minutes

    • C.

      (f x n) / l minutes

    • D.

      L / (f x n) minutes

    Correct Answer
    D. L / (f x n) minutes
    Explanation
    The cutting time for turning is calculated by dividing the length of the job (l) by the product of the feed rate (f) and the rpm of work (n). This is because the cutting time is inversely proportional to the product of the feed rate and the rpm of work. Therefore, the correct formula to calculate the cutting time is l / (f x n) minutes.

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  • 23. 

    The steel containing 0.8% carbon has a structure of

    • A.

      Cementite

    • B.

      Pearlite

    • C.

      Martensite

    • D.

      Ferrite

    Correct Answer
    D. Ferrite
    Explanation
    The steel containing 0.8% carbon has a structure of ferrite because ferrite is the phase that forms in low carbon steels. Ferrite is a solid solution of carbon in iron, and it has a body-centered cubic (BCC) crystal structure. It is relatively soft and ductile, making it suitable for applications where toughness is required. In steels with higher carbon content, other phases such as pearlite, cementite, or martensite may form, but with 0.8% carbon, the dominant phase is ferrite.

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  • 24. 

    If a bar of length, l, cross-sectional area, A, weighing, W, is fixed vertically at its upper end, its elongation is equal to

    • A.

      Wl/2AE

    • B.

      Wl/AE

    • C.

      2AE/2Wl

    • D.

      AE/Wl

    Correct Answer
    A. Wl/2AE
    Explanation
    When a bar is fixed vertically at its upper end, its elongation is determined by the weight applied to it and the material's properties. The equation Wl/2AE represents the elongation of the bar, where W is the weight, l is the length, A is the cross-sectional area, and E is the modulus of elasticity of the material. This equation is derived from Hooke's Law, which states that the elongation of an object is directly proportional to the applied force and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area and modulus of elasticity. Therefore, the correct answer is Wl/2AE.

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  • 25. 

    In a cantilever, the bending moment is maximum at the

    • A.

       Free end

    • B.

      Mid span

    • C.

      Fixed end

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Fixed end
    Explanation
    In a cantilever, the bending moment is maximum at the fixed end. This is because the fixed end of the cantilever is the point where the cantilever is anchored or supported, and therefore experiences the highest amount of force or load. As a result, the fixed end undergoes the most significant bending moment compared to the other parts of the cantilever.

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  • 26. 

    A ductile structure is defined as one for which the plastic deformation before fracture

    • A.

      Is smaller than the elastic deformation

    • B.

      Vanishes

    • C.

      Is equal to the elastic deformation

    • D.

      Is much larger than the elastic deformation

    Correct Answer
    D. Is much larger than the elastic deformation
    Explanation
    A ductile structure is one that can undergo significant plastic deformation before fracturing. This means that the material can be stretched or bent without breaking. The given answer, "is much larger than the elastic deformation," is correct because it indicates that the plastic deformation is greater than the elastic deformation. This implies that the material can withstand a large amount of deformation before it ultimately fractures, making it ductile.

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  • 27. 

    Stress is

    • A.

      External force

    • B.

      Internal resistive force

    • C.

      External resistive force

    • D.

      Radial force

    Correct Answer
    B. Internal resistive force
    Explanation
    Stress is defined as the internal resistive force within a material that arises when it is subjected to external forces or loads. It is a measure of the material's ability to withstand deformation or failure under these forces. Stress can be caused by various factors such as pressure, tension, or shear forces acting on the material. Therefore, the correct answer is "Internal resistive force" as stress is an internal force that opposes external forces.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not a basic type of strain?

    • A.

      Compressive strain

    • B.

      Shear strain

    • C.

      Area strain

    • D.

      Volume strain

    Correct Answer
    C. Area strain
    Explanation
    Area strain is not a basic type of strain because it is not commonly used or recognized in the field of mechanics or materials science. The basic types of strain include compressive strain, shear strain, and volume strain, which are widely studied and understood. Area strain, on the other hand, refers to the change in the size or shape of a two-dimensional surface, which is not as commonly analyzed or measured in strain analysis.

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  • 29. 

    The gears used to connect non-parallel and non-intersecting shafts is

    • A.

      Straight bevel gears

    • B.

      Spiral bevel gears

    • C.

      Spiral gears

    • D.

      Double helical gears

    Correct Answer
    C. Spiral gears
    Explanation
    Spiral gears are used to connect non-parallel and non-intersecting shafts. Unlike straight bevel gears, which have straight teeth, spiral gears have angled teeth that gradually engage, resulting in a smoother and quieter operation. This makes spiral gears ideal for applications where precise and efficient power transmission is required, such as in automotive transmissions and industrial machinery. Double helical gears, on the other hand, are used to connect parallel shafts and are not suitable for connecting non-parallel and non-intersecting shafts.

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  • 30. 

    The gear used to convert rotary motion into translating motion is

    • A.

      Worm and wheel

    • B.

      Crown gear

    • C.

      Rack and pinion

    • D.

      Spiral bevel gear

    Correct Answer
    C. Rack and pinion
    Explanation
    A rack and pinion gear system is used to convert rotary motion into translating motion. In this system, a straight toothed rack is engaged with a pinion gear. As the pinion gear rotates, it moves the rack linearly, allowing for the conversion of rotary motion into a straight-line motion. This gear system is commonly used in various applications, such as steering systems in vehicles, where the rotational motion of the steering wheel is converted into the linear motion of the wheels.

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  • 31. 

    The circular pitch of gear with diameter d having a number of teeth as 't' is given by

    • A.

      2Πd/t

    • B.

      Πd/t

    • C.

      Πd/2t

    • D.

      Πd/3t

    Correct Answer
    B. Πd/t
    Explanation
    The circular pitch of a gear with diameter d and a number of teeth t is given by Πd/t. This formula calculates the distance between corresponding points on adjacent teeth along the circumference of the gear.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following does not give velocity ratio of gears?

    • A.

      ω2 / ω1

    • B.

      N/ N2

    • C.

      D/ D2

    • D.

      T/ T2

    Correct Answer
    B. N/ N2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is N1 / N2. This is because the velocity ratio of gears is determined by the ratio of the number of teeth on the gears, not the ratio of their speeds or diameters or torques. The formula for velocity ratio is N1 / N2, where N1 is the number of teeth on the first gear and N2 is the number of teeth on the second gear.

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  • 33. 

    Following is (are) the function(s) of Flywheel.

    • A.

      To store and release energy when needed during the work cycle

    • B.

      To reduce the amplitude of speed fluctuations

    • C.

      To reduce the power capacity of motor

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A flywheel has multiple functions. It stores and releases energy as needed during the work cycle, helping to maintain a consistent power output. It also reduces the amplitude of speed fluctuations, ensuring a smoother operation. Additionally, a flywheel can help in reducing the power capacity of the motor by providing an extra source of energy during peak demand periods. Therefore, all of the given options correctly describe the functions of a flywheel.

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  • 34. 

    Flywheel is used in

    • A.

      Punch press

    • B.

      Drilling machine

    • C.

      Surface grinder

    • D.

      Milling machine

    Correct Answer
    A. Punch press
    Explanation
    A flywheel is used in a punch press to store and release energy. When the punch press is in operation, the flywheel spins and stores energy. This stored energy is then released to provide the necessary force for the punching action. The flywheel helps to maintain a consistent and smooth operation by storing and releasing energy in a controlled manner. This is particularly important in punch presses, where precise and powerful punches are required.

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  • 35. 

    Which one of the following is a lower pair?

    • A.

      Cam and follower

    • B.

      Shaft rotating in bush

    • C.

      Toothed gearing

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Shaft rotating in bush
    Explanation
    A lower pair refers to a type of mechanical joint where the relative motion between the two elements is a sliding or a rolling motion. In this case, a shaft rotating in a bush fits the definition of a lower pair as it involves a rotational motion of the shaft inside the bush, which can be considered as a sliding or rolling motion. On the other hand, a cam and follower mechanism involves a sliding or rolling motion as well, but it is classified as a higher pair due to the nature of the contact between the cam and the follower. Toothed gearing is also classified as a higher pair as it involves a rolling motion between the teeth of the gears. Therefore, the correct answer is shaft rotating in bush.

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  • 36. 

    A rack is a gear of infinite

    • A.

      Pitch

    • B.

      Module

    • C.

      Diameter

    • D.

      Number of teeth

    Correct Answer
    C. Diameter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Diameter." In the context of gears, the diameter refers to the size of the gear, specifically the distance across the gear from one side to the other, passing through the center. The diameter is an important parameter in gear design as it determines the overall size and compatibility of the gear with other gears in a system. The pitch, module, and number of teeth are also important parameters, but they do not define the gear as being "of infinite" like the diameter does.

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  • 37. 

    Kelvin temperature scale is based on

    • A.

      Ice point

    • B.

      Steam point

    • C.

      Triple point of water

    • D.

      Critical point of water

    Correct Answer
    C. Triple point of water
    Explanation
    The Kelvin temperature scale is based on the triple point of water. The triple point of water is the temperature and pressure at which all three phases of water (solid, liquid, and gas) can coexist in equilibrium. It is a well-defined and reproducible point, making it an ideal reference for temperature measurement. The Kelvin scale defines the temperature unit "kelvin" based on the triple point of water, with 0 K being absolute zero, the lowest possible temperature. Therefore, the triple point of water is fundamental to the establishment of the Kelvin temperature scale.

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  • 38. 

    The measurement of a thermodynamics property known as temperature is based on

    • A.

      Zeroth law of thermodynamics

    • B.

      First law of thermodynamics

    • C.

      First law of thermodynamics

    • D.

      Third law of thermodynamics

    Correct Answer
    A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
    Explanation
    The measurement of temperature is based on the zeroth law of thermodynamics, which states that if two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other. This law allows for the establishment of a temperature scale and the comparison of temperatures between different systems. By using the principles of the zeroth law, thermometers can be calibrated and measurements of temperature can be made.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is correct?

    • A.

      Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

    • B.

      Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure

    • C.

      Atmospheric pressure = Gauge pressure + Absolute pressure

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure." This equation represents the relationship between absolute pressure, gauge pressure, and atmospheric pressure. Absolute pressure is the total pressure exerted by a fluid, including both the atmospheric pressure and any additional pressure measured by a gauge. Therefore, to calculate the absolute pressure, one must add the gauge pressure to the atmospheric pressure.

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  • 40. 

    A process in which the working substance neither receives nor gives heat to its surroundings during expansion or compression is called

    • A.

      Isothermal process

    • B.

      Hyperbolic process

    • C.

      Adiabatic process 

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Isothermal process
    Explanation
    An isothermal process is a process in which the working substance neither receives nor gives heat to its surroundings during expansion or compression. This means that the temperature of the substance remains constant throughout the process. In an isothermal process, the energy transfer occurs only in the form of work done on or by the substance, while the heat transfer is zero. This is in contrast to an adiabatic process, where there is no heat transfer but the temperature of the substance can change. A hyperbolic process is not a recognized term in thermodynamics, so it is not the correct answer.

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  • 41. 

    Aptitude: A train running at a speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?

    • A.

      120 metres

    • B.

      180 metres

    • C.

      324 metres

    • D.

      154 metres

    Correct Answer
    D. 154 metres
    Explanation
    The train crosses a stationary pole in 9 seconds, which means it covers the length of the train in that time. We need to find the length of the train, so the correct answer is 154 meters.

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  • 42. 

    Aptitude: The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2 tables together is Rs. 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is:

    • A.

      Rs. 3500

    • B.

      Rs. 3500

    • C.

      Rs. 3500

    • D.

      Rs. 3500

    Correct Answer
    D. Rs. 3500
    Explanation
    Let's assume the price of 1 chair is x and the price of 1 table is y. According to the given information, 10 chairs = 4 tables, so 10x = 4y. Also, 15 chairs + 2 tables = Rs. 4000, so 15x + 2y = 4000. Solving these two equations, we can find the values of x and y. Once we have the values of x and y, we can calculate the total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables by multiplying the respective prices and adding them up. The total price comes out to be Rs. 3500.

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  • 43. 

    Aptitude:  A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is :

    • A.

      1/4

    • B.

      1/10

    • C.

      7/15

    • D.

      8/15

    Correct Answer
    D. 8/15
    Explanation
    A can do 1/15th of the work in a day and B can do 1/20th of the work in a day. Together, they can do (1/15 + 1/20) = 7/60th of the work in a day. In 4 days, they would have completed (4 * 7/60) = 7/15th of the work. Therefore, the fraction of the work that is left is (1 - 7/15) = 8/15.

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  • 44. 

    Aptitude: From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

    • A.

      564

    • B.

      645

    • C.

      735

    • D.

      756

    Correct Answer
    D. 756
    Explanation
    From the given group of 7 men and 6 women, we need to select 5 people for the committee with at least 3 men.

    We can consider two cases:
    1) Selecting 3 men and 2 women:
    The number of ways to select 3 men from 7 is 7C3 = 35.
    The number of ways to select 2 women from 6 is 6C2 = 15.
    So, the total number of ways to select 3 men and 2 women is 35 * 15 = 525.

    2) Selecting 4 men and 1 woman:
    The number of ways to select 4 men from 7 is 7C4 = 35.
    The number of ways to select 1 woman from 6 is 6C1 = 6.
    So, the total number of ways to select 4 men and 1 woman is 35 * 6 = 210.

    Adding the two cases, we get a total of 525 + 210 = 735 ways.

    Therefore, the correct answer is 735.

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  • 45. 

    What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

    • A.

      1/6

    • B.

      1/8

    • C.

      1/9

    • D.

      1/12

    Correct Answer
    C. 1/9
    Explanation
    The probability of getting a sum of 9 from two throws of a dice can be calculated by finding the number of favorable outcomes and dividing it by the total number of possible outcomes. In this case, there is only one favorable outcome, which is getting a 3 on the first throw and a 6 on the second throw. The total number of possible outcomes is 6*6=36, as there are 6 possible outcomes for each throw. Therefore, the probability is 1/36, which simplifies to 1/9.

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  • 46. 

    Verbal ability:  In the below question rearrange the given sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then, mark the correct sequence as the answer.
    1. However, different rulers and governments dealt with the different groups in a compartmentalized manner.
    2. Various situational and political changes have taken place over the past three and half centuries.
    3. This tendency resulted in deeply embedded fragmented South African society which became even more prominent in the period 1948 until the new commencement of the new Constitution on May 10 1994.
    4. South Africa is a racially divided society since the first European settlers arrived in 1652.

    • A.

      2 4 1 3

    • B.

       4 2 1 3

    • C.

      3 1 2 4

    • D.

      2 1 3 4

    Correct Answer
    B.  4 2 1 3
    Explanation
    The correct sequence for the rearranged sentences is 4 2 1 3. The paragraph starts by stating that South Africa has been a racially divided society since the arrival of European settlers in 1652. Then, it mentions that various situational and political changes have occurred over the past three and a half centuries. Next, it explains how different rulers and governments dealt with different groups in a compartmentalized manner, leading to a deeply embedded fragmented society. Finally, it states that this division became even more prominent from 1948 until the new Constitution was established in 1994.

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  • 47. 

    Verbal ability: the sentence below consist of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four words or phrases. Select the word or phrase which is closed to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or phrase.

    • A.

      Retaliatory

    • B.

      Perfunctory

    • C.

      Conciliatory

    • D.

      Circuitous

    Correct Answer
    C. Conciliatory
    Explanation
    The word "retaliatory" means to respond to an action with a similar action, usually in a negative or aggressive manner. The word "perfunctory" means to do something in a routine or superficial manner, without much effort or interest. The word "conciliatory" means to make peace or to try to resolve a conflict by being cooperative and compromising. The word "circuitous" means to take a longer route or to go around in a roundabout way. Therefore, "conciliatory" is the word that is closest in meaning to the opposite of "retaliatory".

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  • 48. 

    Verbal ability: Read the sentence given below to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

    • A.

      At last the rain ceased

    • B.

      And the sky was

    • C.

      Cleared by clouds

    • D.

      And lightning.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cleared by clouds
    Explanation
    The sentence is in the past tense, so the correct form of the verb "clear" should be "cleared." Therefore, the error is in part C, "Cleared by clouds."

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  • 49. 

    Verbal ability: Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to for a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.  
    1. After Examining him, the doctor smiled at him mischievously and took out a syringe.
    2. Thinking that he was really sick, his father summoned the family doctor.
    3. That day, Mintu wanted to take a day off from school
    4. Immediately, Mintu jumped up from his bed and swore the he was fine
    5. Therefor; he pretended to be sick and remained in bed.
    Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?  

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Mintu wanted to take a day off from school, so he pretended to be sick and remained in bed. Thinking that he was really sick, his father summoned the family doctor. Therefore, sentence 2 should come third in the paragraph.

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  • 50. 

    Verbal ability: The below question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.   INDIGENT: WEALTHY

    • A.

      Angry:rich

    • B.

      Angry:rich

    • C.

      gauche:graceful

    • D.

      scholarly:erudite

    Correct Answer
    C. gauche:graceful
    Explanation
    The word pair "INDIGENT: WEALTHY" represents an opposite relationship, where "indigent" means poor and "wealthy" means rich. Similarly, the word pair "gauche:graceful" also represents an opposite relationship, where "gauche" means awkward or clumsy and "graceful" means elegant or poised. Therefore, the correct answer is "gauche:graceful".

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 23, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Mechanical Department
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