A Test On General Pathology! Trivia Quiz

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A Test On General Pathology! Trivia Quiz - Quiz


This is a general pathology trivia quiz! Pathology is the study of what causes a disease and its nature. Some of the pathologist samples include and are not limited to blood, bodily fluids, and tissue samples. Below are some multiple question quizzes that help assess your understanding of the study and what specific notes from a patient`s samples might indicate. Be sure to give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    True about apoptosis except?

    • A.

      Surface death receptors are present in extrinsic pathway

    • B.

      Intrinsic pathway takes place in mitochondria

    • C.

      Both pathways are mediated by initiator caspases

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. None
    Explanation
    All the statements provided in the question are true about apoptosis. Surface death receptors are indeed present in the extrinsic pathway, while the intrinsic pathway does take place in the mitochondria. Both pathways are mediated by initiator caspases. Therefore, the correct answer is "None" because there is no statement that is false or incorrect.

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  • 2. 

    All are true except?

    • A.

      Fentons reaction produces free radicals

    • B.

      Gluthathione proxidase eliminate free radicals

    • C.

      NADPH oxidase produces free radicals

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. NADPH oxidase produces free radicals
    Explanation
    NADPH oxidase produces free radicals. Fenton's reaction is a chemical reaction that generates free radicals, while glutathione peroxidase is an enzyme that eliminates free radicals. Therefore, the statement "NADPH oxidase produces free radicals" is the only one that is not true.

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  • 3. 

    Touton type giant cells are seen in?

    • A.

      Sarcoidosis

    • B.

      Leprosy

    • C.

      Xanthoma

    • D.

      Acanthoma

    Correct Answer
    C. Xanthoma
    Explanation
    Touton type giant cells are seen in xanthoma. Xanthomas are localized deposits of fat in the skin, tendons, or organs. Touton type giant cells are a specific type of giant cell that are characteristic of xanthomas. These giant cells have a ring of nuclei surrounding a central area of foamy cytoplasm. Therefore, xanthoma is the correct answer as it is the condition in which Touton type giant cells are observed.

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  • 4. 

    Carcinoma due to chronic pernicious anemia develops in?

    • A.

      Pylorus

    • B.

      Body

    • C.

      Fundus

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    C. Fundus
    Explanation
    Carcinoma due to chronic pernicious anemia develops in the fundus. Chronic pernicious anemia is a condition characterized by the inability to absorb vitamin B12, leading to a deficiency. This deficiency can cause changes in the gastric mucosa, including atrophy and metaplasia. The fundus of the stomach is particularly affected by these changes, making it more susceptible to the development of carcinoma. Therefore, the fundus is the most likely site for the development of carcinoma in individuals with chronic pernicious anemia.

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  • 5. 

    MHC 2 related to?

    • A.

      Antigen presenting cells

    • B.

      Humoral immunity

    • C.

      Dendritic cells

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    D. All
    Explanation
    MHC 2 molecules are found on the surface of antigen presenting cells, such as dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. These molecules play a crucial role in presenting antigens to helper T cells, which are important for activating the immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is "All" because MHC 2 is related to antigen presenting cells, humoral immunity, and dendritic cells.

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  • 6. 

    Popcorn cells are seen in?

    • A.

      Non hodgkins lymphoma

    • B.

      Rhabdomyosarcoma

    • C.

      Hodgkins lymphoma

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    C. Hodgkins lymphoma
    Explanation
    Popcorn cells are a characteristic feature of Hodgkin's lymphoma. These cells are named so because they have a characteristic appearance under the microscope, resembling popped corn kernels. They are large, binucleated or multinucleated cells with prominent nucleoli. Other types of lymphomas, such as non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and rhabdomyosarcoma, do not typically exhibit popcorn cells. Therefore, the correct answer is Hodgkin's lymphoma.

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  • 7. 

    Mast cells are numerous in?

    • A.

      Neurilemmoma

    • B.

      Neurofibroma

    • C.

      Neuroma

    • D.

      MNET

    Correct Answer
    B. Neurofibroma
    Explanation
    Neurofibromas are tumors that arise from the cells that support the nerves in the body. These tumors are composed of various cell types, including mast cells. Mast cells are immune cells that play a role in allergic reactions and inflammation. Therefore, neurofibromas, being tumors that originate from nerve support cells, are likely to have a high number of mast cells.

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  • 8. 

    Asteroid bodies are seen in?

    • A.

      Tuberculosis

    • B.

      Sarcoidois

    • C.

      Wegners granulomatis

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    B. Sarcoidois
    Explanation
    Asteroid bodies are a characteristic finding in sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis is a multisystem inflammatory disease that can affect various organs, including the lungs, lymph nodes, skin, and eyes. Asteroid bodies are small, star-shaped inclusions that are found within giant cells called Langhans giant cells. These structures are thought to represent calcified proteinaceous material. Therefore, the correct answer is sarcoidosis.

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  • 9. 

    The best method for confirming amyloidosis?

    • A.

      Tongue biopsy

    • B.

      Rectal biopsy

    • C.

      Colonoscopy

    • D.

      Sigmoidoscopy

    Correct Answer
    B. Rectal biopsy
    Explanation
    A rectal biopsy is the best method for confirming amyloidosis because it allows for the direct examination of the rectal tissue, which is commonly affected by amyloid deposits. During a rectal biopsy, a small sample of tissue is taken from the rectum and examined under a microscope for the presence of amyloid deposits. This method provides a more accurate diagnosis compared to other options such as tongue biopsy, colonoscopy, or sigmoidoscopy, which may not specifically target the affected area or provide sufficient tissue samples for analysis.

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  • 10. 

    Ca 125 is a  diagnostic marker for?

    • A.

      Tongue cancer

    • B.

      Ovarian cancer

    • C.

      Rhabdomyosarcoma

    • D.

      Stromal tumour

    Correct Answer
    B. Ovarian cancer
    Explanation
    CA 125 is a diagnostic marker commonly used in the detection and monitoring of ovarian cancer. It is a protein that is elevated in the blood of many women with ovarian cancer. Measuring CA 125 levels can help in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer, as well as in monitoring the effectiveness of treatment and detecting any recurrence of the disease. Therefore, the correct answer is ovarian cancer.

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  • 11. 

    Marker for hodgkins lymphoma?

    • A.

      CD 15 and 45

    • B.

      CD 15 and 30

    • C.

      CD 5 and 10

    • D.

      HMB 45

    Correct Answer
    B. CD 15 and 30
    Explanation
    CD 15 and 30 are markers for Hodgkin's lymphoma. CD 15 is a marker for Reed-Sternberg cells, which are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. CD 30 is also expressed on Reed-Sternberg cells and is commonly used as a diagnostic marker for Hodgkin's lymphoma. These markers help in identifying the presence of Hodgkin's lymphoma cells and differentiate it from other types of lymphomas. CD 5 and 10 are not specific markers for Hodgkin's lymphoma, and HMB 45 is a marker for melanoma, not lymphoma.

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  • 12. 

    Cell cycle regulating oncogene?

    • A.

      CDK4

    • B.

      Myc

    • C.

      Erb

    • D.

      Sis

    Correct Answer
    A. CDK4
    Explanation
    CDK4 is a cell cycle regulating oncogene. It plays a crucial role in controlling the progression of the cell cycle by forming a complex with cyclin D and phosphorylating the retinoblastoma protein (Rb). This phosphorylation releases Rb's inhibitory effect on the cell cycle, allowing the cell to proceed from the G1 to the S phase. Dysregulation of CDK4 can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and division, contributing to the development of cancer. Therefore, CDK4 is a key player in cell cycle regulation and a potential target for cancer therapies.

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  • 13. 

    Hemodialysis associated amyloid?

    • A.

      Isolated amyloid

    • B.

      Beta 2 microglobulin

    • C.

      Gamma albumin

    • D.

      Delta fibrin

    Correct Answer
    B. Beta 2 microglobulin
    Explanation
    Hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis is a condition that occurs in patients undergoing long-term hemodialysis. It is characterized by the deposition of amyloid fibrils in various tissues, particularly in joints and bones. The main component of these amyloid fibrils is Beta 2 microglobulin, which is a protein that is normally present on the surface of cells and is involved in immune response. However, in patients with end-stage renal disease undergoing hemodialysis, Beta 2 microglobulin accumulates in the blood due to impaired clearance by the kidneys, leading to its deposition as amyloid fibrils. Therefore, Beta 2 microglobulin is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 14. 

    Not a feature of apoptosis?

    • A.

      Cellular swelling

    • B.

      Nuclear compaction

    • C.

      Intact cell membrane

    • D.

      All

    Correct Answer
    A. Cellular swelling
    Explanation
    Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process that occurs in multicellular organisms. During apoptosis, cells undergo a series of controlled events that ultimately lead to their death. One of the characteristic features of apoptosis is the shrinkage of the cell, not cellular swelling. Therefore, cellular swelling is not a feature of apoptosis. Instead, apoptosis involves nuclear compaction, which refers to the condensation and fragmentation of the cell's nucleus. Additionally, apoptosis also involves the maintenance of an intact cell membrane until the final stages of the process.

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  • 15. 

    Infraclavicular lesion of tuberculosis known as?

    • A.

      Ghons focus

    • B.

      Gorlin focus

    • C.

      Assmans focus

    • D.

      Schneider focus

    Correct Answer
    C. Assmans focus
    Explanation
    Assman's focus refers to an infraclavicular lesion of tuberculosis. This term is named after the German pathologist, Friedrich Assmann. It is a localized area of infection in the lungs that occurs as a result of primary tuberculosis. The lesion typically consists of a small calcified nodule surrounded by fibrous tissue. This focus is an important diagnostic feature of tuberculosis and can be seen on chest X-rays.

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  • 16. 

    Onion thickening of arteriolar walls seen in?

    • A.

      Garres osteomyelitis

    • B.

      Hyaline arteriosclerosis

    • C.

      Raynauds disease

    • D.

      Beurgers disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
    Explanation
    Hyaline arteriosclerosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and hardening of the arteriolar walls. This occurs due to the deposition of a protein called hyaline in the walls of small arteries and arterioles. This condition is commonly associated with chronic hypertension and diabetes. It can lead to a decrease in blood flow and oxygen supply to various organs, potentially causing organ damage. Garres osteomyelitis is a bone infection, Raynaud's disease is a condition characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in response to cold or stress, and Beurgers disease is a condition that involves inflammation and clotting of the small and medium-sized arteries in the extremities.

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  • 17. 

    Edema in nephrotic syndrome caused by?

    • A.

      Na and water restriction

    • B.

      Hypoalbuminemia

    • C.

      Hyperlipidemia

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypoalbuminemia
    Explanation
    In nephrotic syndrome, there is a significant loss of protein, particularly albumin, through the urine. This leads to a decrease in the levels of albumin in the blood, known as hypoalbuminemia. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of fluids in the body by exerting an osmotic pressure that keeps fluid within the blood vessels. When albumin levels are low, the osmotic pressure decreases, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate in the tissues, resulting in edema. Therefore, hypoalbuminemia is the main cause of edema in nephrotic syndrome.

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  • 18. 

    Does Berry aneurysm defect lie in______________

    • A.

      Degeneration of media layer

    • B.

      Inflammation in vessel wall

    • C.

      Degeneration of internal elastic lamina

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Degeneration of media layer
    Explanation
    Berry aneurysm is a type of aneurysm that occurs in the brain's blood vessels. It is characterized by a bulging or ballooning of the blood vessel wall, usually at a weak point where the vessel branches. The correct answer, "Degeneration of media layer," refers to the degeneration of the middle layer of the blood vessel wall, known as the media. This degeneration weakens the vessel wall, making it more prone to bulging and forming an aneurysm. Inflammation in the vessel wall and degeneration of the internal elastic lamina can also contribute to the development of a berry aneurysm, but the degeneration of the media layer is the primary factor.

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  • 19. 

    Schilling test is used to find out ?

    • A.

      Gastric indigestion

    • B.

      Vit B9 malabsorption

    • C.

      Intestinal metaplasia

    • D.

      Vit.B12 malabsorption

    Correct Answer
    D. Vit.B12 malabsorption
    Explanation
    The Schilling test is a diagnostic test used to determine the cause of vitamin B12 malabsorption. This test involves the administration of radioactive vitamin B12 and measuring the amount of radioactivity excreted in the urine. If there is a deficiency in the absorption of vitamin B12, it can lead to various symptoms such as anemia, fatigue, and neurological problems. Therefore, the Schilling test is used to identify the underlying cause of vitamin B12 malabsorption, which can be due to factors such as pernicious anemia or gastrointestinal disorders.

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  • 20. 

    In tumour Telomerase get?

    • A.

      Reactivated

    • B.

      Inactivated

    • C.

      No change

    • D.

      Minimal change

    Correct Answer
    A. Reactivated
    Explanation
    Telomerase is an enzyme that helps maintain the length of telomeres, which are protective caps at the ends of chromosomes. In normal cells, telomerase is usually inactive, preventing unlimited cell division. However, in cancer cells, telomerase can be reactivated, allowing the cells to continuously divide and grow. Therefore, the correct answer is "Reactivated" as tumour cells often have increased telomerase activity compared to normal cells.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 04, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Ismayilpkn4
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