Oral Path Ch 1-5

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Oral Pathology Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Pathology is the study of

    • A.

      Disease processes

    • B.

      Infectious disease

    • C.

      Neoplasia

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Pathology is the study of disease processes, including infectious diseases and neoplasia (abnormal growth of cells). This field focuses on understanding the causes, mechanisms, and effects of diseases, as well as their diagnosis and treatment. By studying all of these aspects, pathologists can contribute to the prevention and management of various diseases, making "all of the above" the correct answer.

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  • 2. 

    A lesion is a 

    • A.

      Symptom of cancer within tissues

    • B.

      Defined area of pathogenic tissue alteration

    • C.

      Cytologic smear

    • D.

      Tissue biopsy

    Correct Answer
    B. Defined area of pathogenic tissue alteration
    Explanation
    A lesion refers to a defined area of pathogenic tissue alteration. This means that a lesion is a specific area in the body where there is an abnormal change or damage to the tissue, which can be caused by various factors such as infection, injury, or disease. Lesions can occur in different parts of the body and can be identified through various diagnostic methods like imaging or biopsy. Therefore, the correct answer is "defined area of pathogenic tissue alteration."

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  • 3. 

    Cytology

    • A.

      Involves removal of deep tissue cells

    • B.

      Studies individual cells that are within biopsied tissue

    • C.

      Involves removal of superficial tissue cells for microscopic examination

    • D.

      Is contraindicated in cases of candidiasis

    Correct Answer
    C. Involves removal of superficial tissue cells for microscopic examination
    Explanation
    Cytology involves the removal of superficial tissue cells for microscopic examination. This means that a sample of cells is taken from the surface of a tissue and examined under a microscope to study their structure and function. This technique is commonly used in the diagnosis of various diseases, such as cancer, by analyzing the characteristics of the individual cells. It is important to note that cytology is not suitable for cases of candidiasis, a fungal infection, as it requires the examination of cells rather than microorganisms.

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  • 4. 

    The first step in the assessment of oral pathology is

    • A.

      Recognition

    • B.

      Biopsy

    • C.

      Cytology

    • D.

      Labratory

    Correct Answer
    A. Recognition
    Explanation
    The first step in the assessment of oral pathology is recognition. This means being able to identify and acknowledge the presence of any abnormality or disease in the oral cavity. Recognition involves observing and noting any signs or symptoms that may indicate an oral pathology, such as changes in the color, texture, or appearance of the oral tissues. It is an essential step as it allows for further investigation and appropriate management of the condition.

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  • 5. 

    Patient assessment

    • A.

      Includes obtaining medical dental and social histories

    • B.

      Impacts proposed dental care

    • C.

      Includes physical evaluation of the patient

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because patient assessment involves obtaining medical, dental, and social histories, which are important in understanding the patient's overall health and any potential risks or complications. This information helps to determine the appropriate dental care and treatment plan. Additionally, patient assessment also includes a physical evaluation of the patient, which allows the dentist to assess the oral health and identify any specific issues or conditions that may need to be addressed. Therefore, all of these components play a crucial role in patient assessment and impact the proposed dental care.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following statements is true

    • A.

      Signs are subjective and precieved only by the patient

    • B.

      Signs are objective and observed by the clinician 

    • C.

      Examples of signs are fatigue anxiety and secretions

    • D.

      Symptoms are observed by both clinicians and patients

    Correct Answer
    B. Signs are objective and observed by the clinician 
    Explanation
    Signs are objective and observed by the clinician means that signs are physical or measurable indications of a medical condition that can be observed by a healthcare professional. This is different from symptoms, which are experienced and reported by the patient. Examples of signs may include abnormal heart rate, high blood pressure, or abnormal lung sounds.

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  • 7. 

    Inspection is the critical appraisal of a patient for pathology and includes

    • A.

      Examination

    • B.

      Measurment

    • C.

      Comparison with normal

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Inspection is the process of critically appraising a patient for any signs of pathology. This involves three main components: examination, measurement, and comparison with normal. Examination refers to thoroughly observing and assessing the patient's physical appearance, behavior, and any visible abnormalities. Measurement involves quantifying specific parameters such as vital signs, body temperature, or blood pressure. Lastly, comparison with normal involves evaluating the patient's findings against established norms or standards to identify any deviations or abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as inspection encompasses all these aspects.

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  • 8. 

    Auscultation is 

    • A.

      Tapping on a surface to evaluate the underlying tissue structure

    • B.

      The act of listening to body sounds

    • C.

      Used to determine hypersensitivity of teeth 

    • D.

      Performed using the fingures and or hands

    Correct Answer
    B. The act of listening to body sounds
    Explanation
    Auscultation is the act of listening to body sounds. It is a diagnostic technique used by healthcare professionals to assess the health of various organs and systems within the body. During auscultation, a healthcare provider uses a stethoscope to listen to sounds such as heartbeats, lung sounds, and bowel sounds. This helps in detecting any abnormal or unusual sounds that may indicate an underlying medical condition. Auscultation is an important tool in physical examinations and can provide valuable information about a patient's overall health.

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  • 9. 

    Labratory tests to help reach a definative diagnosis include all of the following except 

    • A.

      Urinalysis

    • B.

      Mircobiologic cultures

    • C.

      Radiographs

    • D.

      Complete blood count

    Correct Answer
    C. Radiographs
    Explanation
    Radiographs, or X-rays, are not typically used as a laboratory test to reach a definitive diagnosis. While they can provide valuable information about the structure and condition of bones and certain organs, they are not typically used to detect or diagnose diseases or infections. Urinalysis, microbiologic cultures, and complete blood count are commonly used laboratory tests to help reach a definitive diagnosis.

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  • 10. 

    An excisional biopsy of an oral lesion is performed 

    • A.

      When a lesion is large

    • B.

      To cure the patient

    • C.

      When a lesion is small and can be totally removed

    • D.

      When a lesion has gone unnoticed for a prolonged period of time

    Correct Answer
    C. When a lesion is small and can be totally removed
    Explanation
    An excisional biopsy of an oral lesion is performed when a lesion is small and can be totally removed. This type of biopsy involves removing the entire lesion, including a margin of healthy tissue around it. It is typically done when the lesion is small and localized, making complete removal feasible. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and may also serve as a definitive treatment if the lesion is benign. Performing an excisional biopsy in such cases helps to ensure that the entire lesion is removed and reduces the risk of recurrence.

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  • 11. 

    Oral cytologic smears are helpful in 

    • A.

      Diagnosing candidiasis

    • B.

      Evaluating allergic reactions

    • C.

      Identifying normal antibody titers

    • D.

      Identifying abnormal antibody titers

    Correct Answer
    A. Diagnosing candidiasis
    Explanation
    Oral cytologic smears are helpful in diagnosing candidiasis because they allow for the examination of cells from the oral cavity under a microscope. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by the overgrowth of Candida yeast, and it can manifest as white patches or plaques in the mouth. By analyzing the cytologic smears, the presence of Candida yeast cells can be identified, confirming the diagnosis of candidiasis.

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  • 12. 

    Pathognomonic features 

    • A.

      Do not include signs

    • B.

      Do not include symptoms

    • C.

      Are virtually characteristic of a particular disease

    • D.

      Are only suggestive of a particular disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Are virtually characteristic of a particular disease
    Explanation
    Pathognomonic features are virtually characteristic of a particular disease. This means that these features are highly specific and unique to a certain disease, making their presence a strong indication of that specific condition. Unlike signs and symptoms, which can be present in multiple diseases, pathognomonic features are highly specific and can help in making an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is that pathognomonic features are virtually characteristic of a particular disease.

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  • 13. 

    A list of diseases that share signs and symptoms is known as

    • A.

      A treatment plan

    • B.

      The differential diagnosis

    • C.

      The definitive diagnosis

    • D.

      Abnormal variation

    Correct Answer
    B. The differential diagnosis
    Explanation
    The term "differential diagnosis" refers to a list of diseases or conditions that have similar signs and symptoms. This list is created by a healthcare professional to narrow down the possible causes of a patient's symptoms and help determine the most likely diagnosis. It involves considering various factors such as medical history, physical examination, and medical tests to differentiate between different diseases and ultimately arrive at the correct diagnosis.

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  • 14. 

    A distinct white line is observed along the occlusal plane. it most likely represents

    • A.

      Linea alba

    • B.

      Leukoedema

    • C.

      Fordyce granules

    • D.

      Physiological pigmentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Linea alba
    Explanation
    The distinct white line observed along the occlusal plane most likely represents linea alba. Linea alba is a common finding in the oral cavity, especially in individuals who clench or grind their teeth. It appears as a white, raised line along the buccal or labial mucosa and is caused by hyperkeratosis or thickening of the epithelium. It is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment. Leukoedema refers to a generalized white, milky appearance of the oral mucosa, Fordyce granules are small, yellowish-white bumps on the oral mucosa, and physiological pigmentation refers to normal variations in the color of the oral mucosa.

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  • 15. 

    Fordyce granules

    • A.

      Appear translucent white or opalescent white

    • B.

      Occur as a consequence of the indentations from the opposing teeth 

    • C.

      Contain melanin pigmentation

    • D.

      Are ectopic sebaceous glands identical to those normally found in the skin

    Correct Answer
    D. Are ectopic sebaceous glands identical to those normally found in the skin
    Explanation
    Fordyce granules are small, harmless bumps that appear on the oral mucosa. They are ectopic sebaceous glands, meaning they are sebaceous glands that are found in a location where they are not normally present. These glands are identical to the sebaceous glands that are typically found in the skin. Fordyce granules are usually translucent white or opalescent white in color and may occur as a result of indentations from opposing teeth. They do not contain melanin pigmentation.

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  • 16. 

    A biopsy is 

    • A.

      A surgical procedure

    • B.

      Preformed when the condition cannot be diagnosed with clinical procedures alone

    • C.

      Obtained in order to determine the definitive diagnosis

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A biopsy is a surgical procedure performed when the condition cannot be diagnosed with clinical procedures alone. It is obtained in order to determine the definitive diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all the given statements are true about a biopsy.

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  • 17. 

    Elongated filiform papillae are more common in patients who

    • A.

      Smoke or ingest certain medications 

    • B.

      Eat hot or spicy food

    • C.

      Have leukoedema

    • D.

      Have linea alba

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoke or ingest certain medications 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "smoke or ingest certain medications." Elongated filiform papillae are more common in patients who smoke or take certain medications. Smoking can cause irritation and inflammation in the mouth, leading to the elongation of these papillae. Certain medications, such as antipsychotics or antihistamines, can also cause this condition as a side effect. Eating hot or spicy food, having leukoedema, or linea alba are not directly associated with the presence of elongated filiform papillae.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following statements is false about tori

    • A.

      They represent excessive growths of normal bone

    • B.

      They are exostoses

    • C.

      They may occur in the palate or bilaterally along the lingual aspect of the mandible

    • D.

      They most commonly occur in the presence other disease processes

    Correct Answer
    D. They most commonly occur in the presence other disease processes
    Explanation
    Tori are excessive growths of normal bone, also known as exostoses. They can occur in the palate or bilaterally along the lingual aspect of the mandible. However, the false statement is that they most commonly occur in the presence of other disease processes.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following statements is false

    • A.

      Lingual tonsils are found immediately beneath the foliate papillae

    • B.

      Hairy tongue indicates a serious disease process

    • C.

      In the skin fordyce granules are oil glands

    • D.

      Leukoedema is most common in dark skinned individuals

    Correct Answer
    B. Hairy tongue indicates a serious disease process
    Explanation
    Hairy tongue does not indicate a serious disease process. It is a harmless condition where the papillae on the tongue become elongated and trap bacteria, debris, and pigments, giving the tongue a "hairy" appearance. It is usually caused by poor oral hygiene, certain medications, tobacco use, or excessive consumption of coffee or tea. Treatment involves maintaining good oral hygiene and avoiding contributing factors.

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  • 20. 

    Bullae are

    • A.

      Small blisters or vesicles < 5mm

    • B.

      Blisters > 5mm

    • C.

      Solid elevations < 1mm 

    • D.

      Solid elevations > 1mm 

    Correct Answer
    B. Blisters > 5mm
    Explanation
    Bullae are defined as blisters that are larger than 5mm in size. Blisters are fluid-filled sacs that form on the skin, typically due to friction, burns, or certain medical conditions. Bullae are larger than the average blister and may be caused by more severe burns, certain autoimmune diseases, or infections. They can be painful and may take longer to heal compared to smaller blisters.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is not an indication of pagets disease

    • A.

      Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase

    • B.

      Hypercementosis

    • C.

      Onset of new spacing between teeth 

    • D.

      Are all indications of pagets disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Are all indications of pagets disease
    Explanation
    The given answer states that all of the mentioned indications are actually indications of Paget's disease. This means that elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, hypercementosis, and the onset of new spacing between teeth are all signs that can be observed in patients with Paget's disease.

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  • 22. 

    The most common location for siaololith is the

    • A.

      Submandibular glands

    • B.

      Parotid glands

    • C.

      Sunlingual glands

    • D.

      Minorglands of the lower lip

    Correct Answer
    A. Submandibular glands
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the submandibular glands. Sialoliths are calcified structures that form in the salivary glands. They are most commonly found in the submandibular glands, which are located beneath the lower jaw. Sialoliths can cause blockage of the salivary ducts, leading to symptoms such as swelling, pain, and difficulty in producing saliva. Treatment usually involves removal of the sialolith, which can be done through various techniques depending on the size and location of the stone.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not considered an etiologic factor in the development of necrotizing sialometaplasia

    • A.

      Allergy to dentrifrices

    • B.

      Recent dental work in the area which included local anesthesia 

    • C.

      Development of a tumor in the area

    • D.

      Trauma to the area

    Correct Answer
    A. Allergy to dentrifrices
    Explanation
    Allergy to dentrifrices is not considered an etiologic factor in the development of necrotizing sialometaplasia. Necrotizing sialometaplasia is a benign, self-limiting inflammatory condition that affects the salivary glands, typically the minor salivary glands in the palate. It is believed to be caused by local ischemia or trauma, such as pressure from dentures or recent dental work. The development of a tumor in the area and trauma to the area are known etiologic factors for necrotizing sialometaplasia. However, there is no evidence to suggest that allergy to dentrifrices plays a role in its development.

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  • 24. 

    An example of reversible cell injury is 

    • A.

      Necrosis

    • B.

      Ischemia

    • C.

      Hyperplasia

    • D.

      Calcification

    Correct Answer
    C. Hyperplasia
    Explanation
    Hyperplasia is the correct answer because it refers to an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, which is a reversible process. It occurs in response to certain stimuli or as a compensatory mechanism. On the other hand, necrosis, ischemia, and calcification are examples of irreversible cell injuries. Necrosis is the death of cells due to injury or disease, ischemia is the lack of blood supply to tissues, and calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues.

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  • 25. 

    Free radicals are removed from the body by

    • A.

      Macrophages

    • B.

      Apoptosis

    • C.

      Antioxidants

    • D.

      Vasoactive amines

    Correct Answer
    C. Antioxidants
    Explanation
    Antioxidants are substances that can prevent or slow damage to cells caused by free radicals, which are unstable molecules that can cause oxidative stress and damage to cells. Antioxidants work by neutralizing free radicals, thus preventing them from causing harm to the body. Therefore, antioxidants play a crucial role in removing free radicals from the body and maintaining overall health and well-being.

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  • 26. 

    Tissue damage as a result of ischemia is termed 

    • A.

      Hypertrophy

    • B.

      Atrophy

    • C.

      Infarction

    • D.

      Caseous necrosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Infarction
    Explanation
    Tissue damage as a result of ischemia is termed infarction. Ischemia refers to the inadequate blood supply to a particular tissue or organ, leading to oxygen and nutrient deprivation. This lack of blood flow can cause tissue damage and ultimately result in infarction, which is the death of tissue due to this ischemic injury. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, while atrophy refers to a decrease in cell size. Caseous necrosis is a form of tissue death characterized by a cheesy, granular appearance, typically seen in certain types of infections.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a basic type of inflammation

    • A.

      Acute 

    • B.

      Chronic

    • C.

      Granulomas

    • D.

      Pyogenic

    Correct Answer
    D. Pyogenic
    Explanation
    Pyogenic is not a basic type of inflammation. Acute, chronic, and granulomas are all well-known types of inflammation, characterized by different durations and patterns of immune response. Acute inflammation occurs rapidly and is typically short-lived, while chronic inflammation lasts for a longer duration. Granulomas refer to a specific type of chronic inflammation characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are small areas of immune cells. However, pyogenic is not a recognized type of inflammation and therefore does not fit into the basic types of inflammation.

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  • 28. 

    All of the following are considered to be cardinal signs of inflammation except

    • A.

      Heat

    • B.

      Redness

    • C.

      Swelling

    • D.

      Exudation 

    Correct Answer
    D. Exudation 
    Explanation
    The cardinal signs of inflammation include heat, redness, and swelling. Exudation, on the other hand, refers to the leakage of fluid and cells from blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, which is also a common characteristic of inflammation. Therefore, exudation should not be considered as an exception to the cardinal signs of inflammation.

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  • 29. 

    Chemotaxis is

    • A.

      Recruitment of phagocytic white blood cells

    • B.

      Destruction of worn red blood cells

    • C.

      Destruction of target forgien protiens

    • D.

      Formation to antibodies by plasma cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Recruitment of phagocytic white blood cells
    Explanation
    Chemotaxis is the process of recruiting phagocytic white blood cells. Phagocytic white blood cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages, are responsible for engulfing and destroying foreign particles, such as bacteria or other pathogens. Chemotaxis allows these cells to be attracted to the site of infection or inflammation by following a chemical gradient. Once recruited, the phagocytic cells can eliminate the foreign particles and help in the body's immune response.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is not granulocyte

    • A.

      Lymphocyte

    • B.

      Neutrophil

    • C.

      Eosinophil

    • D.

      Basophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocyte
    Explanation
    Lymphocyte is not a granulocyte. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that contain granules in their cytoplasm. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all examples of granulocytes. However, lymphocytes do not contain granules and are classified as agranulocytes. They play a key role in the immune response and are responsible for the production of antibodies and the coordination of cellular immune responses.

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  • 31. 

    A macrophage found within connective tissue is proper is termed a

    • A.

      Basophil

    • B.

      Histocyte

    • C.

      Phagocyte

    • D.

      Plasma cell

    Correct Answer
    B. Histocyte
    Explanation
    A macrophage is a type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys foreign particles, cellular debris, and pathogens through a process called phagocytosis. It is commonly found within connective tissue. The term "histocyte" refers specifically to a macrophage found within connective tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is histocyte.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not considered to be part of the acute phase response

    • A.

      Fever

    • B.

      Increased cortisol levels in the blood

    • C.

      Leukocytosis

    • D.

      Lymphadenopathy

    Correct Answer
    D. Lymphadenopathy
    Explanation
    Lymphadenopathy refers to the enlargement of lymph nodes, which is not considered to be part of the acute phase response. The acute phase response is a systemic reaction to inflammation or infection, characterized by fever, increased cortisol levels in the blood, and leukocytosis. Lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, is a specific local response where the lymph nodes become enlarged due to the accumulation of immune cells to fight off infection or inflammation. While lymphadenopathy can occur as a result of an acute phase response, it is not considered a direct component of the response itself.

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  • 33. 

    A scaffold for tissue repair that is composed of chronic inflammatory cells fibroblasts collagen and endothelial cells describes

    • A.

      Granulation tissue

    • B.

      Granulomatous inflammation

    • C.

      Metastatic calcification

    • D.

      Hyperplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulation tissue
    Explanation
    Granulation tissue is a scaffold for tissue repair that is composed of chronic inflammatory cells, fibroblasts, collagen, and endothelial cells. This tissue forms during the healing process of a wound or injury, and its main function is to fill the gap and provide support for tissue regeneration. It is characterized by its pink or red appearance and is rich in blood vessels. Granulation tissue eventually matures and remodels into scar tissue.

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  • 34. 

    Wounds in which edges cannot be closely opposed undergo healing by

    • A.

      Primary intertion

    • B.

      Secondary intention 

    • C.

      Tertiary intention 

    • D.

      Scar tissue

    Correct Answer
    B. Secondary intention 
    Explanation
    Wounds in which edges cannot be closely opposed undergo healing by secondary intention. This means that the wound is left open and allowed to heal naturally from the bottom up, with the formation of granulation tissue and subsequent contraction. This process is typically used for larger, deeper wounds or those with significant tissue loss or contamination. It differs from primary intention, where the wound edges are brought together with sutures, and tertiary intention, where the wound is initially left open and then closed later. Scar tissue refers to the fibrous tissue that forms during the healing process, regardless of the method used.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following does not present as a white patch in the mouth 

    • A.

      Frictional keratosis

    • B.

      Morsicatio buccarum 

    • C.

      Hypermelanosis

    • D.

      Linea alba

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypermelanosis
    Explanation
    Hypermelanosis does not present as a white patch in the mouth. Melanocytes produce melanin, which gives color to the skin and mucous membranes. Hypermelanosis refers to an excessive production or accumulation of melanin, resulting in darkening of the affected area. Therefore, hypermelanosis would present as a dark or pigmented patch in the mouth, rather than a white patch.

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  • 36. 

    If a pigmented lesion does not appear radiographically as introgenically implanted dental amalgam 

    • A.

      The patient most likely has cancer

    • B.

      The lesion should be removed and examined under the microscope 

    • C.

      No further treatment is required

    • D.

      It should be radiographed again in 6 months

    Correct Answer
    B. The lesion should be removed and examined under the microscope 
    Explanation
    If a pigmented lesion does not appear radiographically as introgenically implanted dental amalgam, it suggests that the lesion is not related to dental work and may be a potential abnormal growth. Therefore, the correct course of action would be to remove the lesion and examine it under a microscope to determine if it is cancerous or requires further treatment.

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  • 37. 

    The loss of surface epithelium with exposure of the underlying connective tissue describes 

    • A.

      Geographic tongue

    • B.

      Ulcer

    • C.

      Hematoma

    • D.

      External resorption 

    Correct Answer
    B. Ulcer
    Explanation
    The loss of surface epithelium with exposure of the underlying connective tissue is characteristic of an ulcer. An ulcer is an open sore or wound that can occur on the skin or mucous membranes. It is often painful and can be caused by various factors such as infection, injury, or underlying medical conditions. In the context of the given options, ulcer is the most appropriate choice as geographic tongue refers to a benign condition characterized by irregular patches on the tongue, hematoma refers to a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, and external resorption refers to the breakdown of tooth structure.

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  • 38. 

    An exuberant growth of granulation tissue in response to a minor trauma

    • A.

      Traumatic ulcer

    • B.

      Traumatic neuroma

    • C.

      Pyogenic granuloma 

    • D.

      Traumatic fibroma

    Correct Answer
    C. Pyogenic granuloma 
    Explanation
    Pyogenic granuloma is the correct answer because it is characterized by an exuberant growth of granulation tissue in response to a minor trauma. This condition commonly occurs in the oral cavity and appears as a red, friable, and rapidly growing mass. Traumatic ulcer, traumatic neuroma, and traumatic fibroma are different conditions that do not specifically involve the exuberant growth of granulation tissue.

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  • 39. 

    The term epulis means that the lesion is

    • A.

      Found on the gingiva

    • B.

      Causes swelling

    • C.

      Expressing pus

    • D.

      Seen as radiolucency on pa

    Correct Answer
    A. Found on the gingiva
    Explanation
    The term "epulis" refers to a lesion that is found on the gingiva. This means that the swelling or abnormal growth is specifically located on the gums. The other options, such as causing swelling, expressing pus, or being seen as radiolucency on pa, are not necessarily characteristics of an epulis. Therefore, the correct answer is that an epulis is found on the gingiva.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following medications has not been associated with drug induced gingival overgrowth 

    • A.

      Phenytoin

    • B.

      Nifedipine

    • C.

      Cyclosporine

    • D.

      Carbamezine

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbamezine
    Explanation
    Carbamezine has not been associated with drug-induced gingival overgrowth. Phenytoin, nifedipine, and cyclosporine are known to cause this side effect. It is important to note that drug-induced gingival overgrowth is a condition characterized by an abnormal enlargement of the gum tissues, which can be caused by certain medications.

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  • 41. 

    When a salivary gland duct is severed and mucin spills into the surrounding submoucosa it causes swelling called

    • A.

      Mucocele

    • B.

      Mucous duct cysts

    • C.

      Necrotizing sialometaplasia

    • D.

      Adenomatoid hyperplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Mucocele
    Explanation
    When a salivary gland duct is severed, the mucin, which is a component of saliva, spills into the surrounding submucosa. This leads to the formation of a swelling called a mucocele. A mucocele is a benign cyst that forms when the flow of saliva is blocked or disrupted, causing the saliva to accumulate and form a fluid-filled sac. It typically appears as a painless, bluish swelling in the oral cavity and can resolve on its own or may require surgical intervention for removal.

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  • 42. 

    Which form of denture stomatosis appears as folds of tissue that look like waves against the denture flange

    • A.

      Candidiasis

    • B.

      Inflam. papillary hyperplasia

    • C.

      Epulis fissuratum

    • D.

      Fibroepithelial polyp

    Correct Answer
    C. Epulis fissuratum
    Explanation
    Epulis fissuratum is a condition that occurs due to ill-fitting dentures. It is characterized by the presence of folds or ridges of tissue that resemble waves against the denture flange. This condition is caused by chronic irritation and pressure from the denture, leading to the overgrowth of fibrous tissue. The excessive tissue growth can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty in wearing the denture. Treatment involves adjusting or replacing the denture to alleviate the pressure and irritation.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following will not appear as an apical radiolucency

    • A.

      Condensing osteitis

    • B.

      Periapical cyst

    • C.

      Chronic apical periodontitis

    • D.

      Apical scar

    Correct Answer
    A. Condensing osteitis
    Explanation
    Condensing osteitis is a condition characterized by the thickening of the bone near the apex of a tooth. Unlike the other options listed, which are all pathological conditions involving inflammation or cyst formation, condensing osteitis does not result in the formation of a radiolucent (dark) area on an X-ray. Instead, it appears as a radiopaque (light) area due to the increased density of the bone. Therefore, condensing osteitis will not appear as an apical radiolucency on an X-ray.

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  • 44. 

    Florid osseous dysplasia is a potentially serious disease because patients are at risk for

    • A.

      Bone cancer

    • B.

      Jaw fracture

    • C.

      A serious jaw infection if they have a tooth extracted

    • D.

      Rampant caries

    Correct Answer
    C. A serious jaw infection if they have a tooth extracted
    Explanation
    Patients with florid osseous dysplasia are at risk for a serious jaw infection if they have a tooth extracted. This is because the condition causes abnormal bone growth in the jaw, which can make it difficult for the extraction site to heal properly. The compromised healing process increases the likelihood of developing an infection, which can be potentially serious and lead to further complications. Therefore, it is important for patients with florid osseous dysplasia to take precautions and closely monitor their oral health to prevent such infections.

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  • 45. 

    Loss of dental hard tissue due to exposure to chemical agents is termed 

    • A.

      Abfraction

    • B.

      Erosion

    • C.

      Attrition

    • D.

      Abrasion

    Correct Answer
    B. Erosion
    Explanation
    Erosion is the correct answer because it refers to the loss of dental hard tissue due to exposure to chemical agents. This process can be caused by acidic substances, such as certain foods and drinks, which gradually wear away the enamel and dentin of the teeth. Erosion differs from other terms listed as it specifically involves the chemical breakdown of dental tissues, rather than mechanical forces or wear.

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  • 46. 

    Infections caused by microorganisms that are not normally pathogenic to a person with a healthy immune system are known as

    • A.

      Attenuated

    • B.

      Pathogens

    • C.

      Opportunistic

    • D.

      Compromised

    Correct Answer
    C. Opportunistic
    Explanation
    Opportunistic infections are caused by microorganisms that typically do not cause harm to individuals with a healthy immune system. However, when a person's immune system is compromised or weakened, these microorganisms can take advantage of the opportunity to cause infection. This can occur in individuals with conditions such as HIV/AIDS, cancer, or those taking immunosuppressive medications. In such cases, the immune system is unable to effectively fight off these normally non-pathogenic microorganisms, leading to opportunistic infections.

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  • 47. 

    A type of mircoorganism that can only cause disease after entering and replicating in a host cell is

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Virus

    • C.

      Fungi

    • D.

      Protozoa

    Correct Answer
    B. Virus
    Explanation
    Viruses are a type of microorganism that can only cause disease after entering and replicating in a host cell. Unlike bacteria, fungi, and protozoa, viruses are acellular and cannot replicate on their own. They rely on host cells to provide the necessary machinery for replication. Once inside a host cell, viruses take over the cellular machinery to produce more virus particles, eventually leading to the destruction of the host cell. This ability to hijack host cells and replicate within them is what allows viruses to cause diseases in humans and other organisms.

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  • 48. 

    Which of these is not one of the three main routes of human disease transmission

    • A.

      Sexual

    • B.

      Fecel-oral

    • C.

      Respiratory

    • D.

      Animal vector

    Correct Answer
    D. Animal vector
    Explanation
    Animal vector transmission is not one of the three main routes of human disease transmission. The three main routes are sexual transmission, fecal-oral transmission, and respiratory transmission. Animal vector transmission refers to the spread of diseases through animals, such as mosquitoes carrying malaria or ticks spreading Lyme disease. While animal vector transmission is an important mode of disease transmission, it is not one of the three main routes mentioned in the question.

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  • 49. 

    Serological testing preformed to diagnose a viral infection most often involves the detection of

    • A.

      Antibodies

    • B.

      Toxins

    • C.

      Genetic material 

    • D.

      Components of the cell wall

    Correct Answer
    C. Genetic material 
    Explanation
    Serological testing is a diagnostic method that involves the detection of antibodies in the blood to determine if a person has been exposed to a specific virus. Antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to an infection, so the presence of specific antibodies indicates a viral infection. This type of testing is commonly used to diagnose viral infections such as HIV, hepatitis, and COVID-19. Detection of genetic material or components of the cell wall may be used in other diagnostic methods, but serological testing primarily focuses on the detection of antibodies.

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  • 50. 

    A disease control agent that uses live or killed microorganisms or their components to stimulate immune response and create memory is known as 

    • A.

      Antibody

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Vaccine

    • D.

      Antiboitic

    Correct Answer
    C. Vaccine
    Explanation
    A vaccine is a disease control agent that uses live or killed microorganisms or their components to stimulate an immune response and create memory. By introducing a weakened or dead form of a pathogen into the body, vaccines trigger the immune system to produce antibodies and develop immunity against that specific pathogen. This helps prevent future infections and provides long-term protection against the disease.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 09, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Morgan
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