Oral Path Ch 1-5

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  • 1/113 Questions

    A lesion is a 

    • Symptom of cancer within tissues
    • Defined area of pathogenic tissue alteration
    • Cytologic smear
    • Tissue biopsy
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'oral path ch 1-5' explores fundamental concepts in oral pathology, assessing knowledge from basic pathology to specific oral lesions and patient assessments. It's designed to test comprehension and recognition skills crucial for dental professionals.

Oral Path Ch 1-5 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Patient assessment

    • Includes obtaining medical dental and social histories

    • Impacts proposed dental care

    • Includes physical evaluation of the patient

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because patient assessment involves obtaining medical, dental, and social histories, which are important in understanding the patient's overall health and any potential risks or complications. This information helps to determine the appropriate dental care and treatment plan. Additionally, patient assessment also includes a physical evaluation of the patient, which allows the dentist to assess the oral health and identify any specific issues or conditions that may need to be addressed. Therefore, all of these components play a crucial role in patient assessment and impact the proposed dental care.

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  • 3. 

    Auscultation is 

    • Tapping on a surface to evaluate the underlying tissue structure

    • The act of listening to body sounds

    • Used to determine hypersensitivity of teeth 

    • Performed using the fingures and or hands

    Correct Answer
    A. The act of listening to body sounds
    Explanation
    Auscultation is the act of listening to body sounds. It is a diagnostic technique used by healthcare professionals to assess the health of various organs and systems within the body. During auscultation, a healthcare provider uses a stethoscope to listen to sounds such as heartbeats, lung sounds, and bowel sounds. This helps in detecting any abnormal or unusual sounds that may indicate an underlying medical condition. Auscultation is an important tool in physical examinations and can provide valuable information about a patient's overall health.

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  • 4. 

    A list of diseases that share signs and symptoms is known as

    • A treatment plan

    • The differential diagnosis

    • The definitive diagnosis

    • Abnormal variation

    Correct Answer
    A. The differential diagnosis
    Explanation
    The term "differential diagnosis" refers to a list of diseases or conditions that have similar signs and symptoms. This list is created by a healthcare professional to narrow down the possible causes of a patient's symptoms and help determine the most likely diagnosis. It involves considering various factors such as medical history, physical examination, and medical tests to differentiate between different diseases and ultimately arrive at the correct diagnosis.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not an indication of pagets disease

    • Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase

    • Hypercementosis

    • Onset of new spacing between teeth 

    • Are all indications of pagets disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Are all indications of pagets disease
    Explanation
    The given answer states that all of the mentioned indications are actually indications of Paget's disease. This means that elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, hypercementosis, and the onset of new spacing between teeth are all signs that can be observed in patients with Paget's disease.

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  • 6. 

    All of the following are considered to be cardinal signs of inflammation except

    • Heat

    • Redness

    • Swelling

    • Exudation 

    Correct Answer
    A. Exudation 
    Explanation
    The cardinal signs of inflammation include heat, redness, and swelling. Exudation, on the other hand, refers to the leakage of fluid and cells from blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, which is also a common characteristic of inflammation. Therefore, exudation should not be considered as an exception to the cardinal signs of inflammation.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not granulocyte

    • Lymphocyte

    • Neutrophil

    • Eosinophil

    • Basophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocyte
    Explanation
    Lymphocyte is not a granulocyte. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that contain granules in their cytoplasm. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all examples of granulocytes. However, lymphocytes do not contain granules and are classified as agranulocytes. They play a key role in the immune response and are responsible for the production of antibodies and the coordination of cellular immune responses.

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  • 8. 

    The loss of surface epithelium with exposure of the underlying connective tissue describes 

    • Geographic tongue

    • Ulcer

    • Hematoma

    • External resorption 

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulcer
    Explanation
    The loss of surface epithelium with exposure of the underlying connective tissue is characteristic of an ulcer. An ulcer is an open sore or wound that can occur on the skin or mucous membranes. It is often painful and can be caused by various factors such as infection, injury, or underlying medical conditions. In the context of the given options, ulcer is the most appropriate choice as geographic tongue refers to a benign condition characterized by irregular patches on the tongue, hematoma refers to a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, and external resorption refers to the breakdown of tooth structure.

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  • 9. 

    A type of mircoorganism that can only cause disease after entering and replicating in a host cell is

    • Bacteria

    • Virus

    • Fungi

    • Protozoa

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus
    Explanation
    Viruses are a type of microorganism that can only cause disease after entering and replicating in a host cell. Unlike bacteria, fungi, and protozoa, viruses are acellular and cannot replicate on their own. They rely on host cells to provide the necessary machinery for replication. Once inside a host cell, viruses take over the cellular machinery to produce more virus particles, eventually leading to the destruction of the host cell. This ability to hijack host cells and replicate within them is what allows viruses to cause diseases in humans and other organisms.

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  • 10. 

    Which of these is not one of the three main routes of human disease transmission

    • Sexual

    • Fecel-oral

    • Respiratory

    • Animal vector

    Correct Answer
    A. Animal vector
    Explanation
    Animal vector transmission is not one of the three main routes of human disease transmission. The three main routes are sexual transmission, fecal-oral transmission, and respiratory transmission. Animal vector transmission refers to the spread of diseases through animals, such as mosquitoes carrying malaria or ticks spreading Lyme disease. While animal vector transmission is an important mode of disease transmission, it is not one of the three main routes mentioned in the question.

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  • 11. 

    The most common fungal infection of the oral cavity

    • Histoplasmosis

    • Candadiasis

    • Actinomycosis

    • Blastomycosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Candadiasis
    Explanation
    Candidiasis is the most common fungal infection of the oral cavity. It is caused by the overgrowth of Candida, a type of yeast, in the mouth. This infection can occur in people with weakened immune systems, those taking certain medications, or those with poor oral hygiene. Symptoms of candidiasis include white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth, as well as redness, soreness, and difficulty swallowing. Treatment typically involves antifungal medications or mouth rinses to control the infection.

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  • 12. 

    Alllergic reactions in which exaggerated response leads to tissue destruction are known as

    • Hypersensativity reactions

    • Passive immunity

    • Immunodeficient reaction

    • Hyposensitivity reaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypersensativity reactions
    Explanation
    Hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions in which the immune system overreacts to a harmless substance, leading to tissue destruction. These reactions can range from mild to severe and can occur in response to various allergens such as pollen, certain foods, or medications. The exaggerated immune response can cause symptoms such as itching, swelling, rash, or difficulty breathing. Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types (Type I, II, III, and IV) based on the underlying immune mechanisms involved.

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  • 13. 

    The clinical hallmark of reticular oral lichen planus is 

    • Pruritic purple papules

    • Wickhams striae

    • Target lesion

    • Major aphthous ulcerations

    Correct Answer
    A. Wickhams striae
    Explanation
    Wickham's striae is the correct answer because it is a characteristic feature of reticular oral lichen planus. Wickham's striae refers to a fine white lace-like pattern that appears on the oral mucosa affected by lichen planus. It is caused by hyperkeratosis and irregular acanthosis of the epithelium. This finding is often accompanied by other symptoms such as itching, but the main clinical hallmark is the presence of Wickham's striae. Pruritic purple papules, target lesions, and major aphthous ulcerations are not specific to reticular oral lichen planus.

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  • 14. 

    Butterfly rash on the face is most characteristic of what disease

    • Linear IgA disease

    • Cutaneous lupus erythematosus

    • Lichen planus

    • Erythema multiform

    Correct Answer
    A. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus
    Explanation
    The butterfly rash on the face is most characteristic of cutaneous lupus erythematosus. This rash appears in the shape of a butterfly across the cheeks and bridge of the nose, which is a common symptom of cutaneous lupus. Linear IgA disease, lichen planus, and erythema multiform do not typically present with this specific rash pattern.

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  • 15. 

    Tethering of the anterior tongue to the floor of the mouth is called

    • Ankyloglossia

    • Aglossia

    • Mircosomia

    • Macroglossia

    Correct Answer
    A. Ankyloglossia
    Explanation
    Ankyloglossia refers to the condition where the anterior tongue is tethered to the floor of the mouth. This condition, also known as tongue-tie, can restrict the movement of the tongue and affect speech and feeding. It is characterized by a short, tight frenulum that limits the tongue's range of motion. Ankyloglossia can be treated with a simple surgical procedure called a frenectomy to release the tongue and improve its function. Aglossia refers to the absence of the tongue, mircosomia is not a recognized medical term, and macroglossia refers to an abnormally large tongue.

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  • 16. 

    Cysts with an origin related to tooth development  are termed

    • Intraosseous

    • Extraosseous

    • Odontogenic

    • Pseudocysts

    Correct Answer
    A. Odontogenic
    Explanation
    Cysts with an origin related to tooth development are called odontogenic cysts. These cysts form from the remnants of dental tissues and are commonly found in the jawbones. They can cause swelling, pain, and other symptoms. Odontogenic cysts are different from pseudocysts, which are not true cysts but rather fluid-filled cavities. Intraosseous refers to cysts that are located within the bone, while extraosseous refers to cysts that are located outside of the bone.

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  • 17. 

    Your 45 yr old pt. presents with dry eyes and dry mouth and you suspect sjogrens syndrome. which of the following should be the plan to manage this patient

    • Daily home flouride and intensive OIC instruction

    • Dietary analysis for excessive sugar intake

    • Use of artificial saliva

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the salivary glands and tear glands, leading to dry mouth and dry eyes. The management of this condition involves multiple approaches. Daily home fluoride and intensive oral hygiene instruction can help prevent dental caries and maintain oral health. Dietary analysis for excessive sugar intake is important as high sugar intake can worsen dental problems. The use of artificial saliva can provide relief from dry mouth symptoms. Therefore, all of the mentioned options should be included in the management plan for a patient with Sjogren's syndrome.

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  • 18. 

    Radiographically enamel pearls may be mistaken for 

    • Caries

    • Internal resorption 

    • Tori 

    • Calculus

    Correct Answer
    A. Calculus
    Explanation
    Enamel pearls are small, round, or ovoid enamel projections that can be found on the root surface or in furcation areas of teeth. They can sometimes appear radiographically as small calcified masses, which can be mistaken for calculus. Calculus, also known as tartar, is a hard, calcified deposit that forms on teeth due to the accumulation of plaque and minerals from saliva. Both enamel pearls and calculus can appear radiographically as calcified structures, leading to the potential confusion between the two.

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  • 19. 

    The union of one or more teeth by cementum is

    • Fusion 

    • Concrescence 

    • Gemination 

    • Ankylosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Concrescence 
    Explanation
    Concrescence refers to the fusion of two or more teeth by cementum, which is the hard tissue that covers the root of the tooth. It occurs when the roots of adjacent teeth become joined together, usually due to excessive cementum deposition. This condition can lead to difficulties in extraction or orthodontic treatment.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following statements is true

    • Signs are subjective and precieved only by the patient

    • Signs are objective and observed by the clinician 

    • Examples of signs are fatigue anxiety and secretions

    • Symptoms are observed by both clinicians and patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Signs are objective and observed by the clinician 
    Explanation
    Signs are objective and observed by the clinician means that signs are physical or measurable indications of a medical condition that can be observed by a healthcare professional. This is different from symptoms, which are experienced and reported by the patient. Examples of signs may include abnormal heart rate, high blood pressure, or abnormal lung sounds.

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  • 21. 

    An excisional biopsy of an oral lesion is performed 

    • When a lesion is large

    • To cure the patient

    • When a lesion is small and can be totally removed

    • When a lesion has gone unnoticed for a prolonged period of time

    Correct Answer
    A. When a lesion is small and can be totally removed
    Explanation
    An excisional biopsy of an oral lesion is performed when a lesion is small and can be totally removed. This type of biopsy involves removing the entire lesion, including a margin of healthy tissue around it. It is typically done when the lesion is small and localized, making complete removal feasible. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and may also serve as a definitive treatment if the lesion is benign. Performing an excisional biopsy in such cases helps to ensure that the entire lesion is removed and reduces the risk of recurrence.

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  • 22. 

    A biopsy is 

    • A surgical procedure

    • Preformed when the condition cannot be diagnosed with clinical procedures alone

    • Obtained in order to determine the definitive diagnosis

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A biopsy is a surgical procedure performed when the condition cannot be diagnosed with clinical procedures alone. It is obtained in order to determine the definitive diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all the given statements are true about a biopsy.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following statements is false about tori

    • They represent excessive growths of normal bone

    • They are exostoses

    • They may occur in the palate or bilaterally along the lingual aspect of the mandible

    • They most commonly occur in the presence other disease processes

    Correct Answer
    A. They most commonly occur in the presence other disease processes
    Explanation
    Tori are excessive growths of normal bone, also known as exostoses. They can occur in the palate or bilaterally along the lingual aspect of the mandible. However, the false statement is that they most commonly occur in the presence of other disease processes.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following does not present as a white patch in the mouth 

    • Frictional keratosis

    • Morsicatio buccarum 

    • Hypermelanosis

    • Linea alba

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypermelanosis
    Explanation
    Hypermelanosis does not present as a white patch in the mouth. Melanocytes produce melanin, which gives color to the skin and mucous membranes. Hypermelanosis refers to an excessive production or accumulation of melanin, resulting in darkening of the affected area. Therefore, hypermelanosis would present as a dark or pigmented patch in the mouth, rather than a white patch.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following medications has not been associated with drug induced gingival overgrowth 

    • Phenytoin

    • Nifedipine

    • Cyclosporine

    • Carbamezine

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbamezine
    Explanation
    Carbamezine has not been associated with drug-induced gingival overgrowth. Phenytoin, nifedipine, and cyclosporine are known to cause this side effect. It is important to note that drug-induced gingival overgrowth is a condition characterized by an abnormal enlargement of the gum tissues, which can be caused by certain medications.

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  • 26. 

    Loss of dental hard tissue due to exposure to chemical agents is termed 

    • Abfraction

    • Erosion

    • Attrition

    • Abrasion

    Correct Answer
    A. Erosion
    Explanation
    Erosion is the correct answer because it refers to the loss of dental hard tissue due to exposure to chemical agents. This process can be caused by acidic substances, such as certain foods and drinks, which gradually wear away the enamel and dentin of the teeth. Erosion differs from other terms listed as it specifically involves the chemical breakdown of dental tissues, rather than mechanical forces or wear.

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  • 27. 

    A disease control agent that uses live or killed microorganisms or their components to stimulate immune response and create memory is known as 

    • Antibody

    • Antiseptic

    • Vaccine

    • Antiboitic

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaccine
    Explanation
    A vaccine is a disease control agent that uses live or killed microorganisms or their components to stimulate an immune response and create memory. By introducing a weakened or dead form of a pathogen into the body, vaccines trigger the immune system to produce antibodies and develop immunity against that specific pathogen. This helps prevent future infections and provides long-term protection against the disease.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following bacterial infections may be reactivated later in life if a person becomes immunocomprimised or debilitated

    • Cat-scratch disease

    • TB

    • Scarlet fever

    • Actinomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. TB
    Explanation
    TB, or tuberculosis, is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a chronic infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also affect other parts of the body. The bacteria can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if a person's immune system becomes compromised or weakened, such as due to HIV infection, malnutrition, or certain medications, the bacteria can become active again and cause tuberculosis. This reactivation can occur at any point in a person's life, making TB a bacterial infection that can be reactivated later in life if a person becomes immunocompromised or debilitated.

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  • 29. 

    B cells

    • Become inactive when they encounter antigens

    • Remain in the bone marrow for the life of an individual 

    • Are mature nuetrophils

    • Become plasma cells and produce one specific antibody

    Correct Answer
    A. Become plasma cells and produce one specific antibody
    Explanation
    B cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. When B cells encounter antigens, which are foreign substances like bacteria or viruses, they become activated. This activation leads to the differentiation of B cells into plasma cells, which are specialized cells that produce and secrete antibodies. Each plasma cell produces only one specific type of antibody, allowing for a targeted immune response against the specific antigen encountered. Therefore, the correct answer is that B cells become plasma cells and produce one specific antibody.

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  • 30. 

    A distinct white line is observed along the occlusal plane. it most likely represents

    • Linea alba

    • Leukoedema

    • Fordyce granules

    • Physiological pigmentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Linea alba
    Explanation
    The distinct white line observed along the occlusal plane most likely represents linea alba. Linea alba is a common finding in the oral cavity, especially in individuals who clench or grind their teeth. It appears as a white, raised line along the buccal or labial mucosa and is caused by hyperkeratosis or thickening of the epithelium. It is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment. Leukoedema refers to a generalized white, milky appearance of the oral mucosa, Fordyce granules are small, yellowish-white bumps on the oral mucosa, and physiological pigmentation refers to normal variations in the color of the oral mucosa.

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  • 31. 

    Fordyce granules

    • Appear translucent white or opalescent white

    • Occur as a consequence of the indentations from the opposing teeth 

    • Contain melanin pigmentation

    • Are ectopic sebaceous glands identical to those normally found in the skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Are ectopic sebaceous glands identical to those normally found in the skin
    Explanation
    Fordyce granules are small, harmless bumps that appear on the oral mucosa. They are ectopic sebaceous glands, meaning they are sebaceous glands that are found in a location where they are not normally present. These glands are identical to the sebaceous glands that are typically found in the skin. Fordyce granules are usually translucent white or opalescent white in color and may occur as a result of indentations from opposing teeth. They do not contain melanin pigmentation.

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  • 32. 

    A macrophage found within connective tissue is proper is termed a

    • Basophil

    • Histocyte

    • Phagocyte

    • Plasma cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Histocyte
    Explanation
    A macrophage is a type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys foreign particles, cellular debris, and pathogens through a process called phagocytosis. It is commonly found within connective tissue. The term "histocyte" refers specifically to a macrophage found within connective tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is histocyte.

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  • 33. 

    Which of these therapies is not an antifungal agent

    • Nystatin

    • Penecillin

    • Amphotercin B

    • Fluconazole

    Correct Answer
    A. Penecillin
    Explanation
    Penicillin is not an antifungal agent. It is an antibiotic that is used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections. Nystatin, amphotericin B, and fluconazole are all antifungal agents commonly used to treat fungal infections.

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  • 34. 

    When a salivary gland duct is severed and mucin spills into the surrounding submoucosa it causes swelling called

    • Mucocele

    • Mucous duct cysts

    • Necrotizing sialometaplasia

    • Adenomatoid hyperplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Mucocele
    Explanation
    When a salivary gland duct is severed, the mucin, which is a component of saliva, spills into the surrounding submucosa. This leads to the formation of a swelling called a mucocele. A mucocele is a benign cyst that forms when the flow of saliva is blocked or disrupted, causing the saliva to accumulate and form a fluid-filled sac. It typically appears as a painless, bluish swelling in the oral cavity and can resolve on its own or may require surgical intervention for removal.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following does not produce the clinical presentation of desquamative gingivitis

    • Erosive lichen planus

    • Mucous membrane pemphigoid

    • Sjogrens syndrome

    • Pemphigus vulgaris

    Correct Answer
    A. Sjogrens syndrome
    Explanation
    Sjogren's syndrome does not produce the clinical presentation of desquamative gingivitis. Desquamative gingivitis is characterized by red, swollen, and easily bleeding gums. It is commonly seen in erosive lichen planus, mucous membrane pemphigoid, and pemphigus vulgaris, which are autoimmune disorders that cause inflammation and blistering of the mucous membranes, including the gums. Sjogren's syndrome, on the other hand, primarily affects the salivary and lacrimal glands, leading to dry mouth and eyes, but it does not typically cause desquamative gingivitis.

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  • 36. 

    Lingual thyroid is most frequently observed

    • Near the foramen cecum

    • In the floor of the mouth

    • On the ventral tongue

    • At the junction of the hard and soft palate

    Correct Answer
    A. Near the foramen cecum
    Explanation
    The lingual thyroid is most frequently observed near the foramen cecum. The foramen cecum is a small depression at the back of the tongue where the thyroid gland initially develops in the embryo. In some cases, the thyroid gland fails to descend to its normal position in the neck during development, resulting in a lingual thyroid. This condition occurs more commonly near the foramen cecum, making it the correct answer.

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  • 37. 

    Hemifacial microsomia

    • Rarely develops before embryonic week 16

    • Is the most common birth defect in the head and neck

    • Commonly presents as underdevelopment of one-half of the face

    • Has few cosmetic implications for the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Commonly presents as underdevelopment of one-half of the face
    Explanation
    Hemifacial microsomia is a condition that commonly presents as underdevelopment of one-half of the face. This means that the affected individual may have asymmetry in facial features, such as a smaller or underdeveloped jaw, cheekbone, or ear on one side of the face. It is considered the most common birth defect in the head and neck region. The condition rarely develops before embryonic week 16, indicating that it typically occurs later in fetal development. While it may have functional and cosmetic implications for the patient, the statement suggests that it has few cosmetic implications, which is incorrect.

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  • 38. 

    A firm, pink or bluish swelling over an erupting tooth best describes which cyst

    • Dentigerous

    • Primordial

    • Odontogenic keratocyst

    • Eruption

    Correct Answer
    A. Eruption
    Explanation
    The term "eruption" refers to the process of a tooth breaking through the gum tissue and emerging into the mouth. During this process, a firm, pink or bluish swelling can occur over the erupting tooth. This swelling is a normal part of the eruption process and is not indicative of any specific cyst. Therefore, the correct answer is "eruption."

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  • 39. 

    Oral cytologic smears are helpful in 

    • Diagnosing candidiasis

    • Evaluating allergic reactions

    • Identifying normal antibody titers

    • Identifying abnormal antibody titers

    Correct Answer
    A. Diagnosing candidiasis
    Explanation
    Oral cytologic smears are helpful in diagnosing candidiasis because they allow for the examination of cells from the oral cavity under a microscope. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by the overgrowth of Candida yeast, and it can manifest as white patches or plaques in the mouth. By analyzing the cytologic smears, the presence of Candida yeast cells can be identified, confirming the diagnosis of candidiasis.

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  • 40. 

    Free radicals are removed from the body by

    • Macrophages

    • Apoptosis

    • Antioxidants

    • Vasoactive amines

    Correct Answer
    A. Antioxidants
    Explanation
    Antioxidants are substances that can prevent or slow damage to cells caused by free radicals, which are unstable molecules that can cause oxidative stress and damage to cells. Antioxidants work by neutralizing free radicals, thus preventing them from causing harm to the body. Therefore, antioxidants play a crucial role in removing free radicals from the body and maintaining overall health and well-being.

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  • 41. 

    Which one of the following is important in minimizing transplant rejections

    • Germinal centers

    • MHC markers

    • Passive antibodies

    • TCF markers

    Correct Answer
    A. MHC markers
    Explanation
    MHC markers, also known as major histocompatibility complex markers, play a crucial role in minimizing transplant rejections. These markers are proteins found on the surface of cells that help the immune system distinguish between self and foreign cells. In the context of organ transplantation, MHC markers are important because they determine the compatibility between the donor and recipient. Matching MHC markers as closely as possible reduces the likelihood of the recipient's immune system recognizing the transplanted organ as foreign and mounting an immune response, thereby minimizing the risk of rejection.

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  • 42. 

    Inspection is the critical appraisal of a patient for pathology and includes

    • Examination

    • Measurment

    • Comparison with normal

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Inspection is the process of critically appraising a patient for any signs of pathology. This involves three main components: examination, measurement, and comparison with normal. Examination refers to thoroughly observing and assessing the patient's physical appearance, behavior, and any visible abnormalities. Measurement involves quantifying specific parameters such as vital signs, body temperature, or blood pressure. Lastly, comparison with normal involves evaluating the patient's findings against established norms or standards to identify any deviations or abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as inspection encompasses all these aspects.

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  • 43. 

    Pathognomonic features 

    • Do not include signs

    • Do not include symptoms

    • Are virtually characteristic of a particular disease

    • Are only suggestive of a particular disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Are virtually characteristic of a particular disease
    Explanation
    Pathognomonic features are virtually characteristic of a particular disease. This means that these features are highly specific and unique to a certain disease, making their presence a strong indication of that specific condition. Unlike signs and symptoms, which can be present in multiple diseases, pathognomonic features are highly specific and can help in making an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is that pathognomonic features are virtually characteristic of a particular disease.

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  • 44. 

    Elongated filiform papillae are more common in patients who

    • Smoke or ingest certain medications 

    • Eat hot or spicy food

    • Have leukoedema

    • Have linea alba

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoke or ingest certain medications 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "smoke or ingest certain medications." Elongated filiform papillae are more common in patients who smoke or take certain medications. Smoking can cause irritation and inflammation in the mouth, leading to the elongation of these papillae. Certain medications, such as antipsychotics or antihistamines, can also cause this condition as a side effect. Eating hot or spicy food, having leukoedema, or linea alba are not directly associated with the presence of elongated filiform papillae.

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  • 45. 

    The most common location for siaololith is the

    • Submandibular glands

    • Parotid glands

    • Sunlingual glands

    • Minorglands of the lower lip

    Correct Answer
    A. Submandibular glands
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the submandibular glands. Sialoliths are calcified structures that form in the salivary glands. They are most commonly found in the submandibular glands, which are located beneath the lower jaw. Sialoliths can cause blockage of the salivary ducts, leading to symptoms such as swelling, pain, and difficulty in producing saliva. Treatment usually involves removal of the sialolith, which can be done through various techniques depending on the size and location of the stone.

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  • 46. 

    Which form of denture stomatosis appears as folds of tissue that look like waves against the denture flange

    • Candidiasis

    • Inflam. papillary hyperplasia

    • Epulis fissuratum

    • Fibroepithelial polyp

    Correct Answer
    A. Epulis fissuratum
    Explanation
    Epulis fissuratum is a condition that occurs due to ill-fitting dentures. It is characterized by the presence of folds or ridges of tissue that resemble waves against the denture flange. This condition is caused by chronic irritation and pressure from the denture, leading to the overgrowth of fibrous tissue. The excessive tissue growth can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty in wearing the denture. Treatment involves adjusting or replacing the denture to alleviate the pressure and irritation.

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  • 47. 

    Infections caused by microorganisms that are not normally pathogenic to a person with a healthy immune system are known as

    • Attenuated

    • Pathogens

    • Opportunistic

    • Compromised

    Correct Answer
    A. Opportunistic
    Explanation
    Opportunistic infections are caused by microorganisms that typically do not cause harm to individuals with a healthy immune system. However, when a person's immune system is compromised or weakened, these microorganisms can take advantage of the opportunity to cause infection. This can occur in individuals with conditions such as HIV/AIDS, cancer, or those taking immunosuppressive medications. In such cases, the immune system is unable to effectively fight off these normally non-pathogenic microorganisms, leading to opportunistic infections.

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  • 48. 

    Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is 

    • Usually asymptomatic 

    • Associated with intense maloder

    • Treated with systemic antiviral medication

    • Most often found in elderly patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Associated with intense maloder
    Explanation
    Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is a condition that is often characterized by the presence of intense malodor. It is usually asymptomatic, meaning that it does not typically cause any noticeable symptoms. This condition is not treated with systemic antiviral medication, as it is not caused by a viral infection. It is most commonly found in elderly patients, although it can occur in individuals of any age.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following diseases is not caused by a streptococal infection

    • Impetigo

    • Scarlet fever

    • Erysipelas

    • Diphtheria

    Correct Answer
    A. Diphtheria
    Explanation
    Diphtheria is not caused by a streptococcal infection. It is caused by the bacteria Corynebacterium diphtheriae. While impetigo, scarlet fever, and erysipelas are all caused by streptococcal infections, diphtheria is caused by a different type of bacteria. Diphtheria is a highly contagious respiratory infection that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. It is characterized by the formation of a grayish membrane in the throat and can cause difficulty breathing and swallowing. Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent diphtheria.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 23, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 09, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Morgan

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