Oral Path Ch 1-5

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1. The clinical hallmark of reticular oral lichen planus is 

Explanation

Wickham's striae is the correct answer because it is a characteristic feature of reticular oral lichen planus. Wickham's striae refers to a fine white lace-like pattern that appears on the oral mucosa affected by lichen planus. It is caused by hyperkeratosis and irregular acanthosis of the epithelium. This finding is often accompanied by other symptoms such as itching, but the main clinical hallmark is the presence of Wickham's striae. Pruritic purple papules, target lesions, and major aphthous ulcerations are not specific to reticular oral lichen planus.

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About This Quiz
Oral Path Ch 1-5 - Quiz

This quiz titled 'oral path ch 1-5' explores fundamental concepts in oral pathology, assessing knowledge from basic pathology to specific oral lesions and patient assessments. It's designed to... see moretest comprehension and recognition skills crucial for dental professionals. see less

2. Butterfly rash on the face is most characteristic of what disease

Explanation

The butterfly rash on the face is most characteristic of cutaneous lupus erythematosus. This rash appears in the shape of a butterfly across the cheeks and bridge of the nose, which is a common symptom of cutaneous lupus. Linear IgA disease, lichen planus, and erythema multiform do not typically present with this specific rash pattern.

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3. Cysts with an origin related to tooth development  are termed

Explanation

Cysts with an origin related to tooth development are called odontogenic cysts. These cysts form from the remnants of dental tissues and are commonly found in the jawbones. They can cause swelling, pain, and other symptoms. Odontogenic cysts are different from pseudocysts, which are not true cysts but rather fluid-filled cavities. Intraosseous refers to cysts that are located within the bone, while extraosseous refers to cysts that are located outside of the bone.

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4. A list of diseases that share signs and symptoms is known as

Explanation

The term "differential diagnosis" refers to a list of diseases or conditions that have similar signs and symptoms. This list is created by a healthcare professional to narrow down the possible causes of a patient's symptoms and help determine the most likely diagnosis. It involves considering various factors such as medical history, physical examination, and medical tests to differentiate between different diseases and ultimately arrive at the correct diagnosis.

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5. All of the following are considered to be cardinal signs of inflammation except

Explanation

The cardinal signs of inflammation include heat, redness, and swelling. Exudation, on the other hand, refers to the leakage of fluid and cells from blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, which is also a common characteristic of inflammation. Therefore, exudation should not be considered as an exception to the cardinal signs of inflammation.

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6. Which of the following is not granulocyte

Explanation

Lymphocyte is not a granulocyte. Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that contain granules in their cytoplasm. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all examples of granulocytes. However, lymphocytes do not contain granules and are classified as agranulocytes. They play a key role in the immune response and are responsible for the production of antibodies and the coordination of cellular immune responses.

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7. Alllergic reactions in which exaggerated response leads to tissue destruction are known as

Explanation

Hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions in which the immune system overreacts to a harmless substance, leading to tissue destruction. These reactions can range from mild to severe and can occur in response to various allergens such as pollen, certain foods, or medications. The exaggerated immune response can cause symptoms such as itching, swelling, rash, or difficulty breathing. Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types (Type I, II, III, and IV) based on the underlying immune mechanisms involved.

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8. The most common fungal infection of the oral cavity

Explanation

Candidiasis is the most common fungal infection of the oral cavity. It is caused by the overgrowth of Candida, a type of yeast, in the mouth. This infection can occur in people with weakened immune systems, those taking certain medications, or those with poor oral hygiene. Symptoms of candidiasis include white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, or roof of the mouth, as well as redness, soreness, and difficulty swallowing. Treatment typically involves antifungal medications or mouth rinses to control the infection.

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9. Tethering of the anterior tongue to the floor of the mouth is called

Explanation

Ankyloglossia refers to the condition where the anterior tongue is tethered to the floor of the mouth. This condition, also known as tongue-tie, can restrict the movement of the tongue and affect speech and feeding. It is characterized by a short, tight frenulum that limits the tongue's range of motion. Ankyloglossia can be treated with a simple surgical procedure called a frenectomy to release the tongue and improve its function. Aglossia refers to the absence of the tongue, mircosomia is not a recognized medical term, and macroglossia refers to an abnormally large tongue.

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10. A lesion is a 

Explanation

A lesion refers to a defined area of pathogenic tissue alteration. This means that a lesion is a specific area in the body where there is an abnormal change or damage to the tissue, which can be caused by various factors such as infection, injury, or disease. Lesions can occur in different parts of the body and can be identified through various diagnostic methods like imaging or biopsy. Therefore, the correct answer is "defined area of pathogenic tissue alteration."

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11. The loss of surface epithelium with exposure of the underlying connective tissue describes 

Explanation

The loss of surface epithelium with exposure of the underlying connective tissue is characteristic of an ulcer. An ulcer is an open sore or wound that can occur on the skin or mucous membranes. It is often painful and can be caused by various factors such as infection, injury, or underlying medical conditions. In the context of the given options, ulcer is the most appropriate choice as geographic tongue refers to a benign condition characterized by irregular patches on the tongue, hematoma refers to a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, and external resorption refers to the breakdown of tooth structure.

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12. Patient assessment

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above" because patient assessment involves obtaining medical, dental, and social histories, which are important in understanding the patient's overall health and any potential risks or complications. This information helps to determine the appropriate dental care and treatment plan. Additionally, patient assessment also includes a physical evaluation of the patient, which allows the dentist to assess the oral health and identify any specific issues or conditions that may need to be addressed. Therefore, all of these components play a crucial role in patient assessment and impact the proposed dental care.

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13. Which of the following is not an indication of pagets disease

Explanation

The given answer states that all of the mentioned indications are actually indications of Paget's disease. This means that elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, hypercementosis, and the onset of new spacing between teeth are all signs that can be observed in patients with Paget's disease.

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14. A type of mircoorganism that can only cause disease after entering and replicating in a host cell is

Explanation

Viruses are a type of microorganism that can only cause disease after entering and replicating in a host cell. Unlike bacteria, fungi, and protozoa, viruses are acellular and cannot replicate on their own. They rely on host cells to provide the necessary machinery for replication. Once inside a host cell, viruses take over the cellular machinery to produce more virus particles, eventually leading to the destruction of the host cell. This ability to hijack host cells and replicate within them is what allows viruses to cause diseases in humans and other organisms.

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15. Auscultation is 

Explanation

Auscultation is the act of listening to body sounds. It is a diagnostic technique used by healthcare professionals to assess the health of various organs and systems within the body. During auscultation, a healthcare provider uses a stethoscope to listen to sounds such as heartbeats, lung sounds, and bowel sounds. This helps in detecting any abnormal or unusual sounds that may indicate an underlying medical condition. Auscultation is an important tool in physical examinations and can provide valuable information about a patient's overall health.

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16. Which of these is not one of the three main routes of human disease transmission

Explanation

Animal vector transmission is not one of the three main routes of human disease transmission. The three main routes are sexual transmission, fecal-oral transmission, and respiratory transmission. Animal vector transmission refers to the spread of diseases through animals, such as mosquitoes carrying malaria or ticks spreading Lyme disease. While animal vector transmission is an important mode of disease transmission, it is not one of the three main routes mentioned in the question.

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17. Radiographically enamel pearls may be mistaken for 

Explanation

Enamel pearls are small, round, or ovoid enamel projections that can be found on the root surface or in furcation areas of teeth. They can sometimes appear radiographically as small calcified masses, which can be mistaken for calculus. Calculus, also known as tartar, is a hard, calcified deposit that forms on teeth due to the accumulation of plaque and minerals from saliva. Both enamel pearls and calculus can appear radiographically as calcified structures, leading to the potential confusion between the two.

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18. The union of one or more teeth by cementum is

Explanation

Concrescence refers to the fusion of two or more teeth by cementum, which is the hard tissue that covers the root of the tooth. It occurs when the roots of adjacent teeth become joined together, usually due to excessive cementum deposition. This condition can lead to difficulties in extraction or orthodontic treatment.

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19. Your 45 yr old pt. presents with dry eyes and dry mouth and you suspect sjogrens syndrome. which of the following should be the plan to manage this patient

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the salivary glands and tear glands, leading to dry mouth and dry eyes. The management of this condition involves multiple approaches. Daily home fluoride and intensive oral hygiene instruction can help prevent dental caries and maintain oral health. Dietary analysis for excessive sugar intake is important as high sugar intake can worsen dental problems. The use of artificial saliva can provide relief from dry mouth symptoms. Therefore, all of the mentioned options should be included in the management plan for a patient with Sjogren's syndrome.

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20. An excisional biopsy of an oral lesion is performed 

Explanation

An excisional biopsy of an oral lesion is performed when a lesion is small and can be totally removed. This type of biopsy involves removing the entire lesion, including a margin of healthy tissue around it. It is typically done when the lesion is small and localized, making complete removal feasible. This allows for a more accurate diagnosis and may also serve as a definitive treatment if the lesion is benign. Performing an excisional biopsy in such cases helps to ensure that the entire lesion is removed and reduces the risk of recurrence.

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21. B cells

Explanation

B cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. When B cells encounter antigens, which are foreign substances like bacteria or viruses, they become activated. This activation leads to the differentiation of B cells into plasma cells, which are specialized cells that produce and secrete antibodies. Each plasma cell produces only one specific type of antibody, allowing for a targeted immune response against the specific antigen encountered. Therefore, the correct answer is that B cells become plasma cells and produce one specific antibody.

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22. A disease control agent that uses live or killed microorganisms or their components to stimulate immune response and create memory is known as 

Explanation

A vaccine is a disease control agent that uses live or killed microorganisms or their components to stimulate an immune response and create memory. By introducing a weakened or dead form of a pathogen into the body, vaccines trigger the immune system to produce antibodies and develop immunity against that specific pathogen. This helps prevent future infections and provides long-term protection against the disease.

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23. Which of the following bacterial infections may be reactivated later in life if a person becomes immunocomprimised or debilitated

Explanation

TB, or tuberculosis, is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a chronic infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also affect other parts of the body. The bacteria can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if a person's immune system becomes compromised or weakened, such as due to HIV infection, malnutrition, or certain medications, the bacteria can become active again and cause tuberculosis. This reactivation can occur at any point in a person's life, making TB a bacterial infection that can be reactivated later in life if a person becomes immunocompromised or debilitated.

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24. A biopsy is 

Explanation

A biopsy is a surgical procedure performed when the condition cannot be diagnosed with clinical procedures alone. It is obtained in order to determine the definitive diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all the given statements are true about a biopsy.

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25. Which of the following does not present as a white patch in the mouth 

Explanation

Hypermelanosis does not present as a white patch in the mouth. Melanocytes produce melanin, which gives color to the skin and mucous membranes. Hypermelanosis refers to an excessive production or accumulation of melanin, resulting in darkening of the affected area. Therefore, hypermelanosis would present as a dark or pigmented patch in the mouth, rather than a white patch.

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26. Which of the following statements is false about tori

Explanation

Tori are excessive growths of normal bone, also known as exostoses. They can occur in the palate or bilaterally along the lingual aspect of the mandible. However, the false statement is that they most commonly occur in the presence of other disease processes.

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27. Loss of dental hard tissue due to exposure to chemical agents is termed 

Explanation

Erosion is the correct answer because it refers to the loss of dental hard tissue due to exposure to chemical agents. This process can be caused by acidic substances, such as certain foods and drinks, which gradually wear away the enamel and dentin of the teeth. Erosion differs from other terms listed as it specifically involves the chemical breakdown of dental tissues, rather than mechanical forces or wear.

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28. Which of the following statements is true

Explanation

Signs are objective and observed by the clinician means that signs are physical or measurable indications of a medical condition that can be observed by a healthcare professional. This is different from symptoms, which are experienced and reported by the patient. Examples of signs may include abnormal heart rate, high blood pressure, or abnormal lung sounds.

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29. Which of the following medications has not been associated with drug induced gingival overgrowth 

Explanation

Carbamezine has not been associated with drug-induced gingival overgrowth. Phenytoin, nifedipine, and cyclosporine are known to cause this side effect. It is important to note that drug-induced gingival overgrowth is a condition characterized by an abnormal enlargement of the gum tissues, which can be caused by certain medications.

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30. A distinct white line is observed along the occlusal plane. it most likely represents

Explanation

The distinct white line observed along the occlusal plane most likely represents linea alba. Linea alba is a common finding in the oral cavity, especially in individuals who clench or grind their teeth. It appears as a white, raised line along the buccal or labial mucosa and is caused by hyperkeratosis or thickening of the epithelium. It is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment. Leukoedema refers to a generalized white, milky appearance of the oral mucosa, Fordyce granules are small, yellowish-white bumps on the oral mucosa, and physiological pigmentation refers to normal variations in the color of the oral mucosa.

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31. Fordyce granules

Explanation

Fordyce granules are small, harmless bumps that appear on the oral mucosa. They are ectopic sebaceous glands, meaning they are sebaceous glands that are found in a location where they are not normally present. These glands are identical to the sebaceous glands that are typically found in the skin. Fordyce granules are usually translucent white or opalescent white in color and may occur as a result of indentations from opposing teeth. They do not contain melanin pigmentation.

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32. A macrophage found within connective tissue is proper is termed a

Explanation

A macrophage is a type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys foreign particles, cellular debris, and pathogens through a process called phagocytosis. It is commonly found within connective tissue. The term "histocyte" refers specifically to a macrophage found within connective tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is histocyte.

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33. Which of these therapies is not an antifungal agent

Explanation

Penicillin is not an antifungal agent. It is an antibiotic that is used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections. Nystatin, amphotericin B, and fluconazole are all antifungal agents commonly used to treat fungal infections.

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34. Which of the following does not produce the clinical presentation of desquamative gingivitis

Explanation

Sjogren's syndrome does not produce the clinical presentation of desquamative gingivitis. Desquamative gingivitis is characterized by red, swollen, and easily bleeding gums. It is commonly seen in erosive lichen planus, mucous membrane pemphigoid, and pemphigus vulgaris, which are autoimmune disorders that cause inflammation and blistering of the mucous membranes, including the gums. Sjogren's syndrome, on the other hand, primarily affects the salivary and lacrimal glands, leading to dry mouth and eyes, but it does not typically cause desquamative gingivitis.

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35. A firm, pink or bluish swelling over an erupting tooth best describes which cyst

Explanation

The term "eruption" refers to the process of a tooth breaking through the gum tissue and emerging into the mouth. During this process, a firm, pink or bluish swelling can occur over the erupting tooth. This swelling is a normal part of the eruption process and is not indicative of any specific cyst. Therefore, the correct answer is "eruption."

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36. Lingual thyroid is most frequently observed

Explanation

The lingual thyroid is most frequently observed near the foramen cecum. The foramen cecum is a small depression at the back of the tongue where the thyroid gland initially develops in the embryo. In some cases, the thyroid gland fails to descend to its normal position in the neck during development, resulting in a lingual thyroid. This condition occurs more commonly near the foramen cecum, making it the correct answer.

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37. Hemifacial microsomia

Explanation

Hemifacial microsomia is a condition that commonly presents as underdevelopment of one-half of the face. This means that the affected individual may have asymmetry in facial features, such as a smaller or underdeveloped jaw, cheekbone, or ear on one side of the face. It is considered the most common birth defect in the head and neck region. The condition rarely develops before embryonic week 16, indicating that it typically occurs later in fetal development. While it may have functional and cosmetic implications for the patient, the statement suggests that it has few cosmetic implications, which is incorrect.

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38. When a salivary gland duct is severed and mucin spills into the surrounding submoucosa it causes swelling called

Explanation

When a salivary gland duct is severed, the mucin, which is a component of saliva, spills into the surrounding submucosa. This leads to the formation of a swelling called a mucocele. A mucocele is a benign cyst that forms when the flow of saliva is blocked or disrupted, causing the saliva to accumulate and form a fluid-filled sac. It typically appears as a painless, bluish swelling in the oral cavity and can resolve on its own or may require surgical intervention for removal.

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39. Which one of the following is important in minimizing transplant rejections

Explanation

MHC markers, also known as major histocompatibility complex markers, play a crucial role in minimizing transplant rejections. These markers are proteins found on the surface of cells that help the immune system distinguish between self and foreign cells. In the context of organ transplantation, MHC markers are important because they determine the compatibility between the donor and recipient. Matching MHC markers as closely as possible reduces the likelihood of the recipient's immune system recognizing the transplanted organ as foreign and mounting an immune response, thereby minimizing the risk of rejection.

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40. Oral cytologic smears are helpful in 

Explanation

Oral cytologic smears are helpful in diagnosing candidiasis because they allow for the examination of cells from the oral cavity under a microscope. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by the overgrowth of Candida yeast, and it can manifest as white patches or plaques in the mouth. By analyzing the cytologic smears, the presence of Candida yeast cells can be identified, confirming the diagnosis of candidiasis.

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41. Free radicals are removed from the body by

Explanation

Antioxidants are substances that can prevent or slow damage to cells caused by free radicals, which are unstable molecules that can cause oxidative stress and damage to cells. Antioxidants work by neutralizing free radicals, thus preventing them from causing harm to the body. Therefore, antioxidants play a crucial role in removing free radicals from the body and maintaining overall health and well-being.

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42. Lymphocytes are 

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that represent 20-25% of all white blood cells. They are responsible for the immune response in the body and play a crucial role in fighting off infections and diseases. They are different from granulocytes, which are another type of white blood cells. Lymphocytes are not short-lived and are not considered as tissue granulocytes.

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43. The most common location for siaololith is the

Explanation

The correct answer is the submandibular glands. Sialoliths are calcified structures that form in the salivary glands. They are most commonly found in the submandibular glands, which are located beneath the lower jaw. Sialoliths can cause blockage of the salivary ducts, leading to symptoms such as swelling, pain, and difficulty in producing saliva. Treatment usually involves removal of the sialolith, which can be done through various techniques depending on the size and location of the stone.

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44. Which form of denture stomatosis appears as folds of tissue that look like waves against the denture flange

Explanation

Epulis fissuratum is a condition that occurs due to ill-fitting dentures. It is characterized by the presence of folds or ridges of tissue that resemble waves against the denture flange. This condition is caused by chronic irritation and pressure from the denture, leading to the overgrowth of fibrous tissue. The excessive tissue growth can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty in wearing the denture. Treatment involves adjusting or replacing the denture to alleviate the pressure and irritation.

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45. Pathognomonic features 

Explanation

Pathognomonic features are virtually characteristic of a particular disease. This means that these features are highly specific and unique to a certain disease, making their presence a strong indication of that specific condition. Unlike signs and symptoms, which can be present in multiple diseases, pathognomonic features are highly specific and can help in making an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is that pathognomonic features are virtually characteristic of a particular disease.

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46. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is 

Explanation

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is a condition that is often characterized by the presence of intense malodor. It is usually asymptomatic, meaning that it does not typically cause any noticeable symptoms. This condition is not treated with systemic antiviral medication, as it is not caused by a viral infection. It is most commonly found in elderly patients, although it can occur in individuals of any age.

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47. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a streptococal infection

Explanation

Diphtheria is not caused by a streptococcal infection. It is caused by the bacteria Corynebacterium diphtheriae. While impetigo, scarlet fever, and erysipelas are all caused by streptococcal infections, diphtheria is caused by a different type of bacteria. Diphtheria is a highly contagious respiratory infection that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. It is characterized by the formation of a grayish membrane in the throat and can cause difficulty breathing and swallowing. Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent diphtheria.

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48. Strawberry tongue and skin rash that looks like sunburn is a characteristic of 

Explanation

Strawberry tongue and a skin rash that looks like sunburn are both characteristic symptoms of scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. It primarily affects children and is characterized by a bright red rash that feels like sandpaper and starts on the face and neck before spreading to the rest of the body. The tongue may also appear red and swollen, resembling a strawberry. Other symptoms may include fever, sore throat, headache, and swollen glands. Prompt medical treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent complications.

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49. Cervicofacial actinomycosis is most often seen in which of these anatomic locations

Explanation

Cervicofacial actinomycosis is most often seen in the skin overlying the mandibular angle. This condition is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, which are normal inhabitants of the oral cavity. The infection typically occurs after a break in the skin or mucous membrane, such as dental procedures or trauma. The mandibular angle is a common site for this infection because it is an area where the skin is thin and susceptible to injury. Symptoms include swelling, pain, and draining sinus tracts. Treatment involves long-term antibiotics and sometimes surgical drainage.

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50. Elongated filiform papillae are more common in patients who

Explanation

The correct answer is "smoke or ingest certain medications." Elongated filiform papillae are more common in patients who smoke or take certain medications. Smoking can cause irritation and inflammation in the mouth, leading to the elongation of these papillae. Certain medications, such as antipsychotics or antihistamines, can also cause this condition as a side effect. Eating hot or spicy food, having leukoedema, or linea alba are not directly associated with the presence of elongated filiform papillae.

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51. Infections caused by microorganisms that are not normally pathogenic to a person with a healthy immune system are known as

Explanation

Opportunistic infections are caused by microorganisms that typically do not cause harm to individuals with a healthy immune system. However, when a person's immune system is compromised or weakened, these microorganisms can take advantage of the opportunity to cause infection. This can occur in individuals with conditions such as HIV/AIDS, cancer, or those taking immunosuppressive medications. In such cases, the immune system is unable to effectively fight off these normally non-pathogenic microorganisms, leading to opportunistic infections.

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52. Inspection is the critical appraisal of a patient for pathology and includes

Explanation

Inspection is the process of critically appraising a patient for any signs of pathology. This involves three main components: examination, measurement, and comparison with normal. Examination refers to thoroughly observing and assessing the patient's physical appearance, behavior, and any visible abnormalities. Measurement involves quantifying specific parameters such as vital signs, body temperature, or blood pressure. Lastly, comparison with normal involves evaluating the patient's findings against established norms or standards to identify any deviations or abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as inspection encompasses all these aspects.

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53. Which of the following is not a basic type of inflammation

Explanation

Pyogenic is not a basic type of inflammation. Acute, chronic, and granulomas are all well-known types of inflammation, characterized by different durations and patterns of immune response. Acute inflammation occurs rapidly and is typically short-lived, while chronic inflammation lasts for a longer duration. Granulomas refer to a specific type of chronic inflammation characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are small areas of immune cells. However, pyogenic is not a recognized type of inflammation and therefore does not fit into the basic types of inflammation.

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54. Chemotaxis is

Explanation

Chemotaxis is the process of recruiting phagocytic white blood cells. Phagocytic white blood cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages, are responsible for engulfing and destroying foreign particles, such as bacteria or other pathogens. Chemotaxis allows these cells to be attracted to the site of infection or inflammation by following a chemical gradient. Once recruited, the phagocytic cells can eliminate the foreign particles and help in the body's immune response.

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55. Which one of the following conditions is characterized by an elongated pulp chamber and short pointed roots

Explanation

Taurodontism is a condition characterized by an elongated pulp chamber and short pointed roots. This means that the pulp chamber, which contains the nerves and blood vessels of the tooth, is larger and extends further into the roots than usual. The roots themselves are shorter and more pointed in shape. Taurodontism is a developmental anomaly that can affect multiple teeth and is often associated with other dental abnormalities.

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56. The most useful clinical feature for determining the type of cyst is

Explanation

The most useful clinical feature for determining the type of cyst is its location. This is because the location of the cyst can provide important information about the underlying cause and potential complications. For example, a cyst located near a joint may suggest a ganglion cyst, while a cyst located in the breast may indicate a benign or malignant tumor. Therefore, understanding the location of the cyst can help guide further diagnostic testing and treatment decisions.

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57. In autoimmune diseases 

Explanation

In autoimmune diseases, the immune system is activated to distinguish between self and nonself. This activation leads to the production of antibodies by activated B cells, which target self antigens. These antibodies are known as autoantibodies. The immune response in autoimmune diseases is characterized by the lack of recognition of abnormal tissue by cytotoxic T cells. Symptoms of autoimmune diseases typically manifest in type 1 hypersensitivity reactions.

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58. Children with cyclic neutropenia may demonstrate all of the following except 

Explanation

Children with cyclic neutropenia may demonstrate recurrent gingivitis, frequent systemic infections, and a decrease in the ability to heal after minor trauma. However, they do not typically have ulcerations only on non-keratinized tissue.

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59. Wounds in which edges cannot be closely opposed undergo healing by

Explanation

Wounds in which edges cannot be closely opposed undergo healing by secondary intention. This means that the wound is left open and allowed to heal naturally from the bottom up, with the formation of granulation tissue and subsequent contraction. This process is typically used for larger, deeper wounds or those with significant tissue loss or contamination. It differs from primary intention, where the wound edges are brought together with sutures, and tertiary intention, where the wound is initially left open and then closed later. Scar tissue refers to the fibrous tissue that forms during the healing process, regardless of the method used.

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60. All of the following are true about immune response except 

Explanation

The immune system is capable of mistaking itself for nonself, which is known as an autoimmune response. This occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. This can lead to various autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and multiple sclerosis. Therefore, the statement that the immune system cannot mistake itself for nonself is incorrect.

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61. An example of reversible cell injury is 

Explanation

Hyperplasia is the correct answer because it refers to an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, which is a reversible process. It occurs in response to certain stimuli or as a compensatory mechanism. On the other hand, necrosis, ischemia, and calcification are examples of irreversible cell injuries. Necrosis is the death of cells due to injury or disease, ischemia is the lack of blood supply to tissues, and calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues.

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62. If a pigmented lesion does not appear radiographically as introgenically implanted dental amalgam 

Explanation

If a pigmented lesion does not appear radiographically as introgenically implanted dental amalgam, it suggests that the lesion is not related to dental work and may be a potential abnormal growth. Therefore, the correct course of action would be to remove the lesion and examine it under a microscope to determine if it is cancerous or requires further treatment.

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63. The etiologic agent responsible for cervical cancer and growing number of oropharyngeal cancers is 

Explanation

Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the correct answer because it is a well-established etiologic agent responsible for cervical cancer and a growing number of oropharyngeal cancers. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause abnormal cell growth and lead to cancer over time. It is important to note that while Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and cytomegalovirus (CMV) are also associated with certain types of cancer, they are not specifically linked to cervical or oropharyngeal cancers. HIV, on the other hand, weakens the immune system and increases the risk of developing various types of cancer, but it is not the primary etiologic agent for cervical or oropharyngeal cancers.

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64. The first step in the assessment of oral pathology is

Explanation

The first step in the assessment of oral pathology is recognition. This means being able to identify and acknowledge the presence of any abnormality or disease in the oral cavity. Recognition involves observing and noting any signs or symptoms that may indicate an oral pathology, such as changes in the color, texture, or appearance of the oral tissues. It is an essential step as it allows for further investigation and appropriate management of the condition.

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65. Bullae are

Explanation

Bullae are defined as blisters that are larger than 5mm in size. Blisters are fluid-filled sacs that form on the skin, typically due to friction, burns, or certain medical conditions. Bullae are larger than the average blister and may be caused by more severe burns, certain autoimmune diseases, or infections. They can be painful and may take longer to heal compared to smaller blisters.

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66. A scaffold for tissue repair that is composed of chronic inflammatory cells fibroblasts collagen and endothelial cells describes

Explanation

Granulation tissue is a scaffold for tissue repair that is composed of chronic inflammatory cells, fibroblasts, collagen, and endothelial cells. This tissue forms during the healing process of a wound or injury, and its main function is to fill the gap and provide support for tissue regeneration. It is characterized by its pink or red appearance and is rich in blood vessels. Granulation tissue eventually matures and remodels into scar tissue.

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67. Which cyst is always located around the crown of an unerupted tooth 

Explanation

The correct answer is dentigerous. Dentigerous cysts are always located around the crown of an unerupted tooth. These cysts form from the accumulation of fluid between the reduced enamel epithelium and the tooth crown. They are commonly associated with impacted wisdom teeth or unerupted permanent teeth.

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68. Which one of the following is often associated with down syndrome?

Explanation

Macroglossia is often associated with Down syndrome. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. One of the common physical features of individuals with Down syndrome is a larger than normal tongue, known as macroglossia. This condition can lead to difficulties with speech, eating, and breathing. Macroglossia is not exclusive to Down syndrome but is frequently observed in individuals with this condition.

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69. Labratory tests to help reach a definative diagnosis include all of the following except 

Explanation

Radiographs, or X-rays, are not typically used as a laboratory test to reach a definitive diagnosis. While they can provide valuable information about the structure and condition of bones and certain organs, they are not typically used to detect or diagnose diseases or infections. Urinalysis, microbiologic cultures, and complete blood count are commonly used laboratory tests to help reach a definitive diagnosis.

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70. Tissue damage as a result of ischemia is termed 

Explanation

Tissue damage as a result of ischemia is termed infarction. Ischemia refers to the inadequate blood supply to a particular tissue or organ, leading to oxygen and nutrient deprivation. This lack of blood flow can cause tissue damage and ultimately result in infarction, which is the death of tissue due to this ischemic injury. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, while atrophy refers to a decrease in cell size. Caseous necrosis is a form of tissue death characterized by a cheesy, granular appearance, typically seen in certain types of infections.

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71. Recurrent internal herpes simplex virus infections are almost always located on the 

Explanation

Recurrent internal herpes simplex virus infections are almost always located on the attached gingiva or hard palate. This is because the herpes simplex virus tends to infect the mucous membranes in the mouth, and the attached gingiva and hard palate are common sites for these infections. The tongue, buccal mucosa, and soft palate can also be affected by the virus, but they are not the primary locations for recurrent internal herpes simplex virus infections.

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72. Postherpetic neuralgia is a common complication of 

Explanation

Postherpetic neuralgia is a common complication of herpes zoster, also known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. After the initial infection, the virus remains dormant in the sensory ganglia of the nervous system. When it reactivates, it can cause a painful rash and nerve damage, leading to postherpetic neuralgia. Herpes simplex is a different virus that causes cold sores and genital herpes, but it is not associated with postherpetic neuralgia. Herpangina is a viral infection that causes ulcers in the throat and mouth, but it is not related to postherpetic neuralgia.

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73. Pathology is the study of

Explanation

Pathology is the study of disease processes, including infectious diseases and neoplasia (abnormal growth of cells). This field focuses on understanding the causes, mechanisms, and effects of diseases, as well as their diagnosis and treatment. By studying all of these aspects, pathologists can contribute to the prevention and management of various diseases, making "all of the above" the correct answer.

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74. Which one of the following is the most common supernumerary tooth?

Explanation

The most common supernumerary tooth is the mesiodens. Supernumerary teeth are extra teeth that can develop in addition to the normal set of teeth. The mesiodens specifically refers to an extra tooth that is located in the middle of the upper front teeth, between the two central incisors. It is the most common supernumerary tooth because it is often small and does not cause significant dental problems.

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75. Which of the following infections can cause serious harm to a fetus if the mother is infected during pregnancy

Explanation

All of the infections listed (toxoplasmosis, syphilis, and rubella) can cause serious harm to a fetus if the mother is infected during pregnancy. Toxoplasmosis is caused by a parasite and can lead to severe brain and eye damage in the fetus. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by bacteria, and if left untreated, it can cause stillbirth, premature birth, or birth defects. Rubella, also known as German measles, can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, and a range of birth defects if the mother is infected during the early stages of pregnancy. Therefore, all of these infections can pose a significant risk to the health and development of the fetus.

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76. Which one of the following cysts may occur anywhere from the foramen cecum to the suprasternal notch

Explanation

The thyroglossal tract is a congenital abnormality that occurs during embryonic development. It is a cystic structure that may develop anywhere along the path from the foramen cecum (a small depression at the base of the tongue) to the suprasternal notch (the hollow at the base of the neck). This tract is formed when the thyroid gland, which normally descends from the base of the tongue to its final position in the neck, fails to close completely. As a result, a cystic structure can form along this tract, causing the development of a thyroglossal cyst.

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77. Which of the following is not considered to be part of the acute phase response

Explanation

Lymphadenopathy refers to the enlargement of lymph nodes, which is not considered to be part of the acute phase response. The acute phase response is a systemic reaction to inflammation or infection, characterized by fever, increased cortisol levels in the blood, and leukocytosis. Lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, is a specific local response where the lymph nodes become enlarged due to the accumulation of immune cells to fight off infection or inflammation. While lymphadenopathy can occur as a result of an acute phase response, it is not considered a direct component of the response itself.

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78. A patient with multiple odontogenic keratocysts should be evaluated for

Explanation

A patient with multiple odontogenic keratocysts should be evaluated for nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome, also known as Gorlin syndrome, is a rare genetic disorder characterized by the development of multiple odontogenic keratocysts in the jaw. Other features of this syndrome include basal cell carcinomas, skeletal abnormalities, and various other benign tumors. Therefore, it is important to consider nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome in patients presenting with multiple odontogenic keratocysts to ensure appropriate management and surveillance for associated conditions.

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79. MHC markers are 

Explanation

MHC markers are proteins found on the surface of cells that help the immune system distinguish between self and non-self cells. They act as markers of self, indicating that the cell belongs to the body's own tissues and should not be attacked by the immune system. These markers are not present on cells that have been transformed by cancer or viral infection, which allows the immune system to recognize and target these abnormal cells. MHC markers are highly specific and play a crucial role in transplant rejection, as they help the immune system identify foreign tissues and mount an immune response against them.

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80. Which one of the following is the first antibody produced in response to an antigen

Explanation

IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an antigen. It is a pentameric antibody that is secreted by plasma cells during the primary immune response. IgM is effective in neutralizing pathogens and activating the complement system. It is a large antibody and is mainly found in the bloodstream. IgM is also the first antibody to be produced in newborns, providing them with passive immunity.

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81. Reactions to transfusions and erythroblasts  fetalis are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction 

Explanation

Reactions to transfusions and erythroblasts fetalis are examples of type 2 hypersensitivity reactions. In type 2 hypersensitivity, the immune system mistakenly targets and attacks specific cells or tissues in the body. In this case, the immune system attacks the red blood cells during transfusions or in the case of erythroblasts fetalis, the immune system attacks fetal red blood cells in the mother's body. This immune response can lead to various complications and symptoms depending on the specific condition.

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82. Which of the following will not appear as an apical radiolucency

Explanation

Condensing osteitis is a condition characterized by the thickening of the bone near the apex of a tooth. Unlike the other options listed, which are all pathological conditions involving inflammation or cyst formation, condensing osteitis does not result in the formation of a radiolucent (dark) area on an X-ray. Instead, it appears as a radiopaque (light) area due to the increased density of the bone. Therefore, condensing osteitis will not appear as an apical radiolucency on an X-ray.

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83. Cytology

Explanation

Cytology involves the removal of superficial tissue cells for microscopic examination. This means that a sample of cells is taken from the surface of a tissue and examined under a microscope to study their structure and function. This technique is commonly used in the diagnosis of various diseases, such as cancer, by analyzing the characteristics of the individual cells. It is important to note that cytology is not suitable for cases of candidiasis, a fungal infection, as it requires the examination of cells rather than microorganisms.

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84. The term epulis means that the lesion is

Explanation

The term "epulis" refers to a lesion that is found on the gingiva. This means that the swelling or abnormal growth is specifically located on the gums. The other options, such as causing swelling, expressing pus, or being seen as radiolucency on pa, are not necessarily characteristics of an epulis. Therefore, the correct answer is that an epulis is found on the gingiva.

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85. All of the following are true about activated t cells except 

Explanation

Activated T cells are a type of immune cells that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for recognizing and binding to antigens, which are foreign substances in the body. Once activated, T cells can differentiate into different subsets, including memory T cells, which retain the memory of an antigen and can provide long-term protection upon re-exposure. Additionally, activated T cells can release chemical signals called cytokines to direct and regulate the immune response. However, activated T cells do not directly attack infected or cancerous cells. Instead, they release cytokines that can recruit other immune cells to eliminate the infected or cancerous cells.

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86. Florid osseous dysplasia is a potentially serious disease because patients are at risk for

Explanation

Patients with florid osseous dysplasia are at risk for a serious jaw infection if they have a tooth extracted. This is because the condition causes abnormal bone growth in the jaw, which can make it difficult for the extraction site to heal properly. The compromised healing process increases the likelihood of developing an infection, which can be potentially serious and lead to further complications. Therefore, it is important for patients with florid osseous dysplasia to take precautions and closely monitor their oral health to prevent such infections.

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87. Major apthous ulcers 

Explanation

Major apthous ulcers are most common in adolescents and young adults. This is because these ulcers tend to occur more frequently during periods of hormonal changes, such as puberty and young adulthood. Additionally, the immune system in this age group may be more reactive, leading to an increased risk of developing these ulcers. It is important to note that major apthous ulcers are not contagious and they do not occur on keratinized mucosa such as the hard palate.

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88. Which of the following statements is false

Explanation

Hairy tongue does not indicate a serious disease process. It is a harmless condition where the papillae on the tongue become elongated and trap bacteria, debris, and pigments, giving the tongue a "hairy" appearance. It is usually caused by poor oral hygiene, certain medications, tobacco use, or excessive consumption of coffee or tea. Treatment involves maintaining good oral hygiene and avoiding contributing factors.

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89. Talon cusp is an example of 

Explanation

Talon cusp is a dental anomaly characterized by an extra cusp-like structure that extends from the cingulum area of the tooth. This condition is known as dens evaginatus, which is the correct answer option given. Dens-in-dente refers to a tooth within a tooth, dens invaginatus refers to an enamel invagination, and gemination refers to the division of a single tooth into two.

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90. Clefts are considered the most common developmental facial abnormality. they occur during embryotic life?

Explanation

Clefts, which are the most common developmental facial abnormality, occur during embryotic life between the sixth and eleventh week.

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91. Persistant generalized lymphadenopathy raises suspicion for the possibility of 

Explanation

Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy refers to the persistent enlargement of multiple lymph nodes throughout the body. This condition is commonly associated with HIV infection, as the virus can cause chronic immune activation and inflammation, leading to lymph node enlargement. Measles, HPV infection, and hand foot mouth disease are not typically associated with persistent generalized lymphadenopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is HIV infection.

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92. Your patient has an acute extensive blistering erosive disease of the oral mucosa that errupted suddenly. there are lare pruritic red concentric circular macules n his arms and neck he is in pain and cannot eat. which of the following has most likely precipitated your patients current condition

Explanation

The patient's acute extensive blistering erosive disease of the oral mucosa, along with the pruritic red concentric circular macules on the arms and neck, suggests a condition known as erythema multiforme. This condition is commonly triggered by a recent episode of recurrent herpes labialis, which is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus. The symptoms of pain and difficulty eating further support this explanation.

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93. Which of the following is flase regaurding crohns disease

Explanation

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94. Which of the following is not considered an etiologic factor in the development of necrotizing sialometaplasia

Explanation

Allergy to dentrifrices is not considered an etiologic factor in the development of necrotizing sialometaplasia. Necrotizing sialometaplasia is a benign, self-limiting inflammatory condition that affects the salivary glands, typically the minor salivary glands in the palate. It is believed to be caused by local ischemia or trauma, such as pressure from dentures or recent dental work. The development of a tumor in the area and trauma to the area are known etiologic factors for necrotizing sialometaplasia. However, there is no evidence to suggest that allergy to dentrifrices plays a role in its development.

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95. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with autoimmune diseases such as RA

Explanation

Autoimmune diseases such as RA involve a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, immune complexes form when antibodies bind to self-antigens. These immune complexes then deposit in various tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. In the case of RA, immune complexes accumulate in the joints, causing chronic inflammation and destruction of joint tissues.

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96. Which one of the following conditions develops in utero and results in intrinsic staining of the primary dentition 

Explanation

Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition that develops in utero and can result in intrinsic staining of the primary dentition. It occurs when there is a blood group incompatibility between the mother and fetus, leading to the destruction of fetal red blood cells. This can cause the release of bilirubin, which can stain the developing teeth. The other conditions listed, such as contemporaneous enamel hyperplasia, fluorosis, and Turner tooth, do not typically result in intrinsic staining of the primary dentition.

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97. Enamel hyperplasia affecting the facial surface of multiple, anterior permanent teeth in a band-like pattern is known as

Explanation

Contemporaneous enamel hypoplasia refers to a condition where there is an abnormal development of enamel on the facial surface of multiple, anterior permanent teeth in a band-like pattern. This condition is characterized by a deficiency in enamel formation during tooth development, resulting in thin or missing enamel in affected areas. It is different from enamel hyperplasia, which is an excessive growth of enamel. Fluorosis is a condition caused by excessive fluoride intake during tooth development, leading to enamel discoloration and pitting. Turner tooth refers to a single tooth that is smaller and has an abnormal shape due to trauma or infection. Erythroblastic enamel hypoplasia is a condition where enamel development is disrupted due to a systemic disease or condition, such as anemia.

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98. Contact dermatitis

Explanation

Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that occurs when the skin comes into direct contact with an allergen or irritant. It does not require contact with all allergens, but rather with specific substances that an individual is allergic to. Repeated exposure to the allergen can lead to sensitization and subsequent allergic reactions. Contact dermatitis is not a lifelong immunity, as individuals can still develop the condition even after previous exposure. Treatment options for contact dermatitis include avoiding the allergen, using topical corticosteroids, and taking antihistamines. It is considered a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, not type 1.

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99. In which one of the following is less than the normal number of teeth present

Explanation

Fusion is a dental anomaly where two teeth are joined together, resulting in a decreased number of teeth compared to the normal count. This occurs when the tooth buds fuse during development, causing the teeth to merge into one. As a result, the individual will have one less tooth than the normal number.

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100. All of the following immune defects predispose patients to developing recurrent apthous stomatitis except

Explanation

Hormonal changes during pregnancy do not predispose patients to developing recurrent apthous stomatitis. This is because hormonal changes during pregnancy do not directly affect the immune system or the mucosal barrier, which are the main factors that contribute to the development of recurrent apthous stomatitis. The other options, including decreased mucosal barrier, increased antigenic exposure, and inherited immune dysregulation, can all lead to immune defects that increase the likelihood of developing recurrent apthous stomatitis.

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101. Central papilary atrophy and angular cheilitis are both manifestations of 

Explanation

Central papillary atrophy and angular cheilitis are both manifestations of candidiasis. Central papillary atrophy refers to the loss of papillae on the tongue, which can be a result of candidiasis. Angular cheilitis is the inflammation and cracking of the corners of the mouth, which can also be caused by candidiasis. These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with candidiasis, a fungal infection caused by an overgrowth of Candida yeast.

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102. The most important dental complication of both dens invaginatus and evaginatus is

Explanation

Both dens invaginatus and evaginatus are dental anomalies that involve the abnormal development of tooth structures. In both cases, there is a risk of pulp exposure, which can lead to inflammation and infection of the dental pulp. If left untreated, this can progress to apical pathology, which refers to diseases or conditions affecting the root apex of the tooth. Therefore, the most important dental complication of both dens invaginatus and evaginatus is pulp exposure and subsequent apical pathology.

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103. Serological testing preformed to diagnose a viral infection most often involves the detection of

Explanation

Serological testing is a diagnostic method that involves the detection of antibodies in the blood to determine if a person has been exposed to a specific virus. Antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to an infection, so the presence of specific antibodies indicates a viral infection. This type of testing is commonly used to diagnose viral infections such as HIV, hepatitis, and COVID-19. Detection of genetic material or components of the cell wall may be used in other diagnostic methods, but serological testing primarily focuses on the detection of antibodies.

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104. A chronic blistering disease of the skin and mucous membranes that feature erosive  gingivitis, blisters of mucous membranes and other skin surfaces and symblepharon is 

Explanation

Pemphigoid is a chronic blistering disease of the skin and mucous membranes that is characterized by erosive gingivitis, blisters of mucous membranes and other skin surfaces, and symblepharon. This condition causes the immune system to attack the connective tissue, leading to the formation of blisters. It commonly affects older adults and can cause discomfort and pain. Treatment usually involves medications to suppress the immune system and reduce inflammation.

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105. Which one of the following is not a function of cytokines

Explanation

Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in regulating the immune response. They are responsible for carrying information to and from immune cells, attracting cells to migrate to an area by chemotaxis, and releasing histamine to kill parasites. However, enhancing cell growth and differentiation is not a function of cytokines. They primarily act as mediators of immune responses rather than promoting cell growth and differentiation.

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106. All of the following are examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases except

Explanation

Erythroblastosis fetalis is not an example of a primary immunodeficiency disease. It is a condition that occurs in newborns when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and the fetus. It is caused by the mother's antibodies attacking the red blood cells of the fetus. In contrast, selective IgA deficiency, hypergammaglobulinemia, and DiGeorge syndrome are all examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases where the immune system is compromised in some way.

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107. Which one of the following is found in the bodies fluids

Explanation

IgE is found in the body fluids. IgE is an immunoglobulin that is involved in allergic reactions and plays a role in defending against parasitic infections. It is found in the blood and other bodily fluids, such as saliva and tears. IgE binds to allergens and triggers the release of chemicals, such as histamine, which cause allergic symptoms like itching, swelling, and inflammation.

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108. An exuberant growth of granulation tissue in response to a minor trauma

Explanation

Pyogenic granuloma is the correct answer because it is characterized by an exuberant growth of granulation tissue in response to a minor trauma. This condition commonly occurs in the oral cavity and appears as a red, friable, and rapidly growing mass. Traumatic ulcer, traumatic neuroma, and traumatic fibroma are different conditions that do not specifically involve the exuberant growth of granulation tissue.

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109. Among healthy patients most primary herpes simplex virus infections are

Explanation

Among healthy patients, most primary herpes simplex virus infections are asymptomatic. This means that individuals do not exhibit any noticeable symptoms or signs of infection. While herpes labialis (cold sores) is a common manifestation of the herpes simplex virus, it is not the most prevalent outcome in healthy individuals. Acute herpetic gingivostomatosis refers to an acute infection of the gums and mouth, but it is less common in healthy patients. Central papillary atrophy is a condition characterized by red patches on the tongue, but it is not directly associated with primary herpes simplex virus infections.

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110. In active immunity 

Explanation

In active immunity, antibodies are produced by the host itself. This is in contrast to passive immunity, where antibodies are obtained from an external source, such as a mother to her infant. Active immunity provides long-lasting protection as the host's immune system actively produces antibodies in response to an infection or vaccination. Therefore, the statement "antibodies are not produced by the host" contradicts the concept of active immunity.

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111. A fungal infection that may be acquired by an immunocompromised patient during a hospitalization stay particularly in the setting of building renovation is

Explanation

Aspergillosis is a fungal infection that is commonly acquired by immunocompromised patients during hospital stays, especially when there is building renovation taking place. This infection is caused by the Aspergillus fungus and can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs, sinuses, and brain. The spores of the fungus can be present in the air and can be inhaled by patients with weakened immune systems. Aspergillosis can lead to severe respiratory symptoms and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly.

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112. All of the following are true about primary immune respone except 

Explanation

The correct answer is that memory B cells left behind after the primary response are not primed. Memory B cells are a type of white blood cell that are formed during the primary immune response and are responsible for providing long-term immunity. These cells are not primed, meaning they do not require further activation or stimulation to respond to the same antigen in the future. Instead, they are already "primed" and ready to quickly produce antibodies upon re-exposure to the antigen, leading to a faster and more effective secondary immune response.

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113. Macrophages

Explanation

Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the body's defense against foreign antigens. They eliminate these antigens by releasing powerful chemical signals called antibodies. These antibodies help to neutralize or destroy the foreign substances, preventing further harm to the body. Macrophages are present in various tissues and organs, but they are relatively rare in the lungs, kidneys, brain, and liver.

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The clinical hallmark of reticular oral lichen planus is 
Butterfly rash on the face is most characteristic of what disease
Cysts with an origin related to tooth development  are termed
A list of diseases that share signs and symptoms is known as
All of the following are considered to be cardinal signs of...
Which of the following is not granulocyte
Alllergic reactions in which exaggerated response leads to tissue...
The most common fungal infection of the oral cavity
Tethering of the anterior tongue to the floor of the mouth is called
A lesion is a 
The loss of surface epithelium with exposure of the underlying...
Patient assessment
Which of the following is not an indication of pagets disease
A type of mircoorganism that can only cause disease after entering and...
Auscultation is 
Which of these is not one of the three main routes of human disease...
Radiographically enamel pearls may be mistaken for 
The union of one or more teeth by cementum is
Your 45 yr old pt. presents with dry eyes and dry mouth and you...
An excisional biopsy of an oral lesion is performed 
B cells
A disease control agent that uses live or killed microorganisms or...
Which of the following bacterial infections may be reactivated later...
A biopsy is 
Which of the following does not present as a white patch in the...
Which of the following statements is false about tori
Loss of dental hard tissue due to exposure to chemical agents is...
Which of the following statements is true
Which of the following medications has not been associated with drug...
A distinct white line is observed along the occlusal plane. it most...
Fordyce granules
A macrophage found within connective tissue is proper is termed a
Which of these therapies is not an antifungal agent
Which of the following does not produce the clinical presentation of...
A firm, pink or bluish swelling over an erupting tooth best describes...
Lingual thyroid is most frequently observed
Hemifacial microsomia
When a salivary gland duct is severed and mucin spills into the...
Which one of the following is important in minimizing transplant...
Oral cytologic smears are helpful in 
Free radicals are removed from the body by
Lymphocytes are 
The most common location for siaololith is the
Which form of denture stomatosis appears as folds of tissue that look...
Pathognomonic features 
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is 
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a streptococal...
Strawberry tongue and skin rash that looks like sunburn is a...
Cervicofacial actinomycosis is most often seen in which of these...
Elongated filiform papillae are more common in patients who
Infections caused by microorganisms that are not normally pathogenic...
Inspection is the critical appraisal of a patient for pathology and...
Which of the following is not a basic type of inflammation
Chemotaxis is
Which one of the following conditions is characterized by an elongated...
The most useful clinical feature for determining the type of cyst is
In autoimmune diseases 
Children with cyclic neutropenia may demonstrate all of the following...
Wounds in which edges cannot be closely opposed undergo healing by
All of the following are true about immune response except 
An example of reversible cell injury is 
If a pigmented lesion does not appear radiographically as...
The etiologic agent responsible for cervical cancer and growing number...
The first step in the assessment of oral pathology is
Bullae are
A scaffold for tissue repair that is composed of chronic inflammatory...
Which cyst is always located around the crown of an unerupted...
Which one of the following is often associated with down syndrome?
Labratory tests to help reach a definative diagnosis include all of...
Tissue damage as a result of ischemia is termed 
Recurrent internal herpes simplex virus infections are almost always...
Postherpetic neuralgia is a common complication of 
Pathology is the study of
Which one of the following is the most common supernumerary tooth?
Which of the following infections can cause serious harm to a fetus if...
Which one of the following cysts may occur anywhere from the foramen...
Which of the following is not considered to be part of the acute phase...
A patient with multiple odontogenic keratocysts should be evaluated...
MHC markers are 
Which one of the following is the first antibody produced in response...
Reactions to transfusions and erythroblasts  fetalis are examples...
Which of the following will not appear as an apical radiolucency
Cytology
The term epulis means that the lesion is
All of the following are true about activated t cells except 
Florid osseous dysplasia is a potentially serious disease because...
Major apthous ulcers 
Which of the following statements is false
Talon cusp is an example of 
Clefts are considered the most common developmental facial...
Persistant generalized lymphadenopathy raises suspicion for the...
Your patient has an acute extensive blistering erosive disease of the...
Which of the following is flase regaurding crohns disease
Which of the following is not considered an etiologic factor in the...
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with autoimmune...
Which one of the following conditions develops in utero and results in...
Enamel hyperplasia affecting the facial surface of multiple, anterior...
Contact dermatitis
In which one of the following is less than the normal number of teeth...
All of the following immune defects predispose patients to developing...
Central papilary atrophy and angular cheilitis are both manifestations...
The most important dental complication of both dens invaginatus and...
Serological testing preformed to diagnose a viral infection most often...
A chronic blistering disease of the skin and mucous membranes that...
Which one of the following is not a function of cytokines
All of the following are examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases...
Which one of the following is found in the bodies fluids
An exuberant growth of granulation tissue in response to a minor...
Among healthy patients most primary herpes simplex virus infections...
In active immunity 
A fungal infection that may be acquired by an immunocompromised...
All of the following are true about primary immune respone...
Macrophages
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