NCLEX Questions On Burn Injury Nursing Management

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  • 1/10 Questions

    Which laboratory result. obtained on a client 24 hours post-burn injury. will the nurse report to the physician immediately?

    • Arterial pH. 7.32
    • Hematocrit. 52%
    • Serum potassium.7.5 mmol/L (mEq/L)
    • Serum sodium. 131 mmol/L (mEq/L)
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About This Quiz

This NCLEX practice quiz focuses on the management of burn injuries, assessing knowledge in areas such as emergent care, nutrition, and rehabilitation. It evaluates critical skills needed for effective nursing intervention and patient education post-burn injury.

NCLEX Questions On Burn Injury Nursing Management - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which statement best exemplifies the client’s understanding of rehabilitation after a full-thickness burn injury?

    • “I am fully recovered when all the wounds are closed.”

    • “I will eventually be able to perform all my former activities.”

    • “My goal is to achieve the highest level of functioning that I can.”

    • “There is never full recovery from a major burn injury.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “My goal is to achieve the highest level of functioning that I can.”
    Explanation
    Although a return to pre-burn functional levels is rarely possible. burned clients are considered fully recovered or rehabilitated when they have achieved their highest possible level of physical. social. and emotional functioning. The technical rehabilitative phase of rehabilitation begins with wound closure and ends when the client returns to her or his highest possible level of functioning.

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  • 3. 

    Which finding is characteristic during the emergent period after a deep full thickness burn injury?

    • Blood pressure of 170/100 mm Hg

    • Foul-smelling discharge from wound

    • Pain at site of injury

    • Urine output of 10 mL/hr

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine output of 10 mL/hr
    Explanation
    During the fluid shift of the emergent period. blood flow to the kidney may not be adequate for glomerular filtration. As a result. urine output is greatly decreaseD. Foul-smelling discharge does not occur during the emergent phase and blood pressure is usually low. Pain does not occur with deep full-thickness burns.

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  • 4. 

    Which is the priority nursing diagnosis during the first 24 hours for a client with chemical burns to the legs and arms that are red in color. edematous. and without pain?

    • Decreased Tissue Perfusion

    • Disturbed Body Image

    • Risk for Disuse Syndrome

    • Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased Tissue Perfusion
    Explanation
    During the emergent phase. fluid shifts into interstitial tissue in burned areas. When the burn is circumferential on an extremity. the swelling can compress blood vessels to such an extent that circulation is impaired distal to the injury. causing decreased tissue perfusion and necessitating the intervention of an escharotomy. Chemical burns do not cause inhalation injury and a disrupted breathing pattern. Disturbed body image and disuse syndrome can develop. However. these are not priority diagnoses at this time.

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  • 5. 

    The client with a dressing covering the neck is experiencing some respiratory difficulty. What is the nurse’s best first action?

    • Administer oxygen.

    • Loosen the dressing.

    • Notify the emergency team.

    • Document the observation as the only action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loosen the dressing.
    Explanation
    Respiratory difficulty can arise from external pressure. The first action in this situation would be to loosen the dressing and then reassess the client’s respiratory status.

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  • 6. 

    Which intervention is most important to use to prevent infection by autocontamination in the burned client during the acute phase of recovery?

    • Changing gloves between wound care on different parts of the client’s body.

    • Avoiding sharing equipment such as blood pressure cuffs between clients.

    • Using the closed method of burn wound management.

    • Using proper and consistent handwashing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Changing gloves between wound care on different parts of the client’s body.
    Explanation
    Autocontamination is the transfer of microorganisms from one area to another area of the same client’s body. causing infection of a previously uninfected area. Although all techniques listed can help reduce the risk for infection. only changing gloves between carrying out wound care on different parts of the client’s body can prevent autocontamination.

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  • 7. 

    The burned client relates the following history of previous health problems. Which one should alert the nurse to the need for alteration of the fluid resuscitation plan?

    • Seasonal asthma

    • Hepatitis B 10 years ago

    • Myocardial infarction 1 year ago

    • Kidney stones within the last 6 month

    Correct Answer
    A. Myocardial infarction 1 year ago
    Explanation
    It is likely the client has a diminished cardiac output as a result of the old MI and would be at greater risk for the development of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema during fluid resuscitation.

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  • 8. 

    Which statement indicates that a client with facial burns understands the need to wear a facial pressure garment?

    • “My facial scars should be less severe with the use of this mask.”

    • “The mask will help protect my skin from sun damage.”

    • “This treatment will help prevent infection.”

    • “Using this mask will prevent scars from being permanent.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “My facial scars should be less severe with the use of this mask.”
    Explanation
    The purpose of wearing the pressure garment over burn injuries for up to 1 year is to prevent hypertrophic scarring and contractures from forming. Scars will still be present. Although the mask does provide protection of sensitive. newly healed skin and grafts from sun exposure. this is not the purpose for wearing the mask. The pressure garment will not alter the risk for infection.

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  • 9. 

    During the acute phase. the nurse applied gentamicin sulfate (topical antibiotic) to the burn before dressing the wound. The client has all the following manifestations. Which manifestation indicates that the client is having an adverse reaction to this topical agent?

    • Increased wound pain 30 to 40 minutes after drug application

    • Presence of small. pale pink bumps in the wound beds

    • Decreased white blood cell count

    • Increased serum creatinine level

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased serum creatinine level
    Explanation
    Gentamicin does not stimulate pain in the wound. The small. pale pink bumps in the wound bed are areas of re-epithelialization and not an adverse reaction. Gentamicin is nephrotoxic and sufficient amounts can be absorbed through burn wounds to affect kidney function. Any client receiving gentamicin by any route should have kidney function monitored.

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  • 10. 

    Which nursing intervention is likely to be most helpful in providing adequate nutrition while the client is recovering from a thermal burn injury?

    • Allowing the client to eat whenever he or she wants

    • Beginning parenteral nutrition high in calories

    • Limiting calories to 3000 kcal/day

    • Providing a low-protein. high-fat diet

    Correct Answer
    A. Allowing the client to eat whenever he or she wants
    Explanation
    Clients should request food whenever they think that they can eat. not just according to the hospital’s standard meal schedule. The nurse needs to work with a nutritionist to provide a high-calorie. high-protein diet to help with wound healing. Clients who can eat solid foods should ingest as many calories as possible. Parenteral nutrition may be given as a last resort because it is invasive and can lead to infectious and metabolic complications.

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  • Nov 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 17, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Santepro
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