Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 2

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| By Rapsonnel

Rapsonnel

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 754

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1/100 Questions

In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause
- A. selfishness.
- B. higher awareness.
- C. insecurity and isolation.
- D. tentativeness and hesitation.

About This Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 2 focuses on the rules and ethical considerations in the use of force within the military and law enforcement contexts. It assesses understanding of engagement rules, force levels, and legal standards, crucial for personnel in defense and security roles.

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2.

What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4thAmendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel
- A. have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject.
- B. have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject.
- C. must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension.
- D. do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.
Correct Answer

A. D. do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. This means that law enforcement and security personnel are not required to use the least intrusive force alternative when making an arrest or other seizure of a person. Instead, they only need to use a reasonable amount of force to apprehend the subject. This allows for some flexibility in determining the appropriate level of force based on the specific circumstances of each situation.

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3.

In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
- A. Protect inherently dangerous property.
- B. Protect assets vital to national security.
- C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle.
- D. Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.
Correct Answer

A. C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle.

Explanation

Using deadly force is not authorized to prevent someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force can be used to protect oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm, protect inherently dangerous property, and protect assets vital to national security. However, in this situation, the act of breaking into a government vehicle does not pose an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm, therefore deadly force would not be authorized.

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4.

What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?
- A. Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets.
- B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.
- C. Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.
- D. Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets.
Correct Answer

A. B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.

Explanation

The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that US forces are authorized to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit if they are under threat or attack. This allows them to take necessary action to defend themselves and fulfill their mission objectives.

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5.

What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?
- A. See first and act first.
- B. First in and fit to fight.
- C. Defense of others and operationally fortified.
- D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment.
Correct Answer

A. D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment.

Explanation

The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow individuals or units to use force to protect themselves or their allies when they are under threat or attack. Mission accomplishment, on the other hand, refers to the rules that guide the use of force in order to achieve the objectives of a specific mission or operation. These two categories of ROE ensure that military personnel can defend themselves while also working towards the successful completion of their assigned tasks.

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6.

What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?
- A. Law of armed conflict.
- B. Rules for use of force.
- C. Operational orders.
- D. Operations plans.
Correct Answer

A. B. Rules for use of force.

Explanation

During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). The rules of engagement outline the circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, while the rules for use of force provide specific guidelines and procedures for how that force should be used. While closely related, these two concepts are distinct and should not be mistaken for one another.

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7.

Conscious verbal communication occurs when
- A. words are chosen carefully during a conversation.
- B. words occur naturally during a conversation.
- C. the communicator reads it directly from a form.
- D. the communicator is in a hurry.
Correct Answer

A. A. words are chosen carefully during a conversation.

Explanation

Verbal communication requires the conscious selection of words during a conversation. This means that the communicator is actively thinking about the words they use and choosing them carefully to convey their message effectively. This involves considering the context, the audience, and the desired outcome of the communication. It is not about words occurring naturally or being read from a form, nor is it about being in a hurry.

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8.

How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?
- A. Command, subject to "HALT," bring your M4 carbine to port arms or your M9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual.
- B. Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you.
- C. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD. "
- D. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSS YOUR FEET."
Correct Answer

A. C. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD. "

Explanation

This answer is the correct one because it provides clear and specific commands for the suspect to follow in order to place them in the final challenge position. By raising their hands above their head, spreading their fingers, spreading their feet, and pointing their toes outward, the suspect is effectively immobilized and in a position that allows for easy monitoring and control. This command ensures the safety of law enforcement personnel and allows for further direction to be given by BDOC (Base Defense Operations Center) for the disposition of the individual.

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9.

Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the
- A. back of the neck.
- B. wrist of the farthest hand.
- C. ring or middle finger.
- D. wrist of the nearest hand.
Correct Answer

A. C. ring or middle finger.

Explanation

To gain positive control of a subject before applying handcuffs, it is recommended to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows for a secure grip and better control over the subject's hand, making it easier to apply the handcuffs effectively. Grasping the back of the neck (option a) may be more appropriate for controlling the head or neck area, while grasping the wrist of the farthest hand (option b) or nearest hand (option d) may not provide as much control over the subject's movements.

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10.

When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be
- A. complete and simple.
- B. systematic and simple.
- C. complete and thorough.
- D. systematic and thorough.
Correct Answer

A. D. systematic and thorough.

Explanation

When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic means following a structured and organized approach to ensure that no information is missed or overlooked. Being thorough means conducting a comprehensive search, considering all relevant sources and gathering as much information as possible. This combination of being systematic and thorough helps to ensure that the search is efficient and effective, allowing for a comprehensive understanding of the individual being searched.

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11.

What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?
- A. Wall.
- B. Prone.
- C. Kneeling.
- D. Standing.
Correct Answer

A. D. Standing.

Explanation

When suspects do not appear dangerous, violent, or heavily intoxicated, law enforcement officers typically conduct a standing search. This type of search allows the officers to maintain control over the situation while minimizing physical contact with the suspect. It also ensures that the suspect is able to stand on their own power, indicating that they are not severely impaired. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Standing.

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12.

When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?
- A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
- B. Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
- C. Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
- D. Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
Correct Answer

A. A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

Explanation

Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force is justified, the same factors are considered, such as the threat level posed by the suspect, the immediacy of the threat, and the availability of other alternatives. The use of non-lethal force must still be reasonable and proportionate to the situation at hand, just like the use of deadly force.

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13.

What is the level of force necessary to compel a subject’s compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death?
- A. Minimum use of force.
- B. Maximum use of force.
- C. Transitional use of force.
- D. Intermediate use of force.
Correct Answer

A. D. Intermediate use of force.

Explanation

The level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death is referred to as intermediate use of force. This level of force is typically used when a subject is resistant but not posing an immediate threat to the safety of others or themselves. It is a step above minimum use of force but falls short of maximum use of force, which could potentially cause serious harm or death. Transitional use of force is not a term commonly used in this context.

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14.

What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?
- A. T-position.
- B. Shrimping.
- C. Comb blocks.
- D. Standup to base.
Correct Answer

A. C. Comb blocks.

Explanation

Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the arms and hands to block and deflect incoming strikes, creating a barrier between the attacker's strikes and the head. By using comb blocks, the person in the ready stance can effectively protect their head and minimize the impact of strikes. Shrimping, T-position, and standup to base are not combative techniques specifically used for protecting the head from strikes in the ready stance.

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15.

How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?
- A. By grabbing your weapon with your weapons side (WS) hand.
- B. By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand.
- C. By rolling onto support side (SS), keeping holstered weapon away from suspect.
- D. By rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.
Correct Answer

A. D. By rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.

Explanation

During a rear mount, attaining weapons retention is achieved by rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS) and keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This position helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed by the suspect. Rolling onto the support side (SS) or grabbing the weapon with the SS hand would not provide the same level of retention and could potentially allow the suspect to gain control of the weapon.

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16.

To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions , what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting?
- A. Advise the suspect of rights. .
- B. Handcuff the suspect’s hands in the front.
- c. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband.
- D. Have a second SF member ride in the back with the suspect
Correct Answer

A. c. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband.

Explanation

Before placing a suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and to prevent any potential harm or danger during transportation. It is a standard procedure to conduct a search or frisk to ensure that the suspect does not have any weapons or illegal items that could pose a threat.

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17.

What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?
- A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger.
- B. Have a family member or friend ride in the front seat.
- C. Notify Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) of ending mileage.
- D. Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).
Correct Answer

A. A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger.

Explanation

When transporting a member of the opposite sex, the minimum requirement is to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This is to ensure the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misunderstandings or allegations. It also provides a witness in case any issues arise during the transport. This requirement helps maintain a professional and respectful environment for all parties involved.

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18.

To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?
- A. US Marshal.
- B. Military sponsor.
- C. Local law enforcement.
- D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations AFOSI.
Correct Answer

A. B. Military sponsor.

Explanation

In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, civilians who commit a minor offense are released to a military sponsor. This means that the military takes responsibility for the individual and oversees their release. The military sponsor may provide guidance, support, or supervision to ensure that the civilian complies with any necessary legal processes or requirements. This arrangement allows for a coordinated approach between the military and local law enforcement in handling minor offenses committed by civilians in areas with concurrent jurisdiction.

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19.

What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?
- A. Annual refresher.
- B. Quarterly refresher.
- C. Initial and annual refresher.
- D. Initial and semiannual refresher.
Correct Answer

A. C. Initial and annual refresher.

Explanation

If someone is armed with an expandable baton, they would need both initial and annual refresher training. This means that they would need to receive training when they first start using the baton to ensure they know how to properly handle and use it. Additionally, they would need to receive annual refresher training to keep their skills and knowledge up to date. This is important to ensure that they are able to use the baton effectively and safely in their role.

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20.

How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject’s facial area last?
- A. 1 second.
- B. 3 seconds.
- C. 5 seconds.
- D. 7 seconds.
Correct Answer

A. A. 1 second.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 1 second. The duration of a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area should last for only 1 second. This is because pepper spray is a highly potent and effective self-defense weapon, and a short burst of 1 second is usually enough to incapacitate an attacker and allow the victim to escape from the dangerous situation. A longer duration may cause unnecessary harm or potential legal consequences.

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21.

How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?
- A. One.
- B. Two.
- C. Three.
- D. Four.
Correct Answer

A. B. Two.

Explanation

The electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired.

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22.

How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?
- A. From top to bottom, left to right.
- B. From right to left, top to bottom.
- C. From left to right, bottom to top.
- D. From bottom to top, left to right.
Correct Answer

A. C. From left to right, bottom to top.

Explanation

To read a grid map and find a grid coordinate, you start from the left side and move towards the right, and then move from the bottom upwards. This means that you first locate the column on the left side of the grid, and then move up to find the row at the bottom. This method ensures that you read the grid map in a systematic and organized manner, allowing you to accurately determine the grid coordinate.

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23.

Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?
- A. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
- B. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).
- c. Department of Justice (DOJ).
- D. Department of State (DOS).
Correct Answer

A. c. Department of Justice (DOJ).

Explanation

The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories. The DOJ is responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting those who violate them. They have various agencies under their jurisdiction, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which specializes in counterterrorism efforts. The DOJ's role in handling terrorist and high-risk incidents is crucial in maintaining national security and protecting the American people.

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24.

What must be established at each incident site?
- A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP).
- B. Secondary ECP.
- c. Cordon and operational rally point.
- D. Evacuation point.
Correct Answer

A. A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP).

Explanation

At each incident site, it is necessary to establish a cordon and entry control point (ECP). This is important for maintaining security and controlling access to the site. The cordon ensures that unauthorized personnel are kept out of the area, while the ECP allows authorized personnel to enter and exit the site while being screened and monitored. By establishing a cordon and ECP, the incident site can be properly secured and managed, ensuring the safety of both responders and the public.

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25.

How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?
- A. Flat markers.
- B. Lights and cones.
- C. Elevated markers.
- D. Posted SF personnel.
Correct Answer

A. C. Elevated markers.

Explanation

Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are easily visible and can be seen from a distance, ensuring that drivers are aware of the boundaries and do not enter these areas. Flat markers may not be as visible, while lights and cones may not be as effective in clearly defining the boundaries. Posted SF personnel may not always be available or visible, making elevated markers the most suitable option for marking the boundaries.

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26.

What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?
- A. Simple.
- B. Partial.
- C. Complete.
- D. Plainview.
Correct Answer

A. A. Simple.

Explanation

A simple search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle. This means that the search is conducted by visually inspecting the vehicle and its compartments, without the need to take anything apart or dismantle any components. It is a straightforward and non-invasive method of searching a vehicle.

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27.

What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?
- A. Simple.
- B. Partial.
- C. Complete.
- D. Plainview.
Correct Answer

A. C. Complete.

Explanation

A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed search that may involve partially or completely disassembling the vehicle. This type of search is necessary when a more comprehensive examination is required to uncover hidden or hard-to-reach areas of the vehicle. It allows for a more in-depth inspection and investigation, ensuring that all potential evidence or information is discovered.

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28.

What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?
- A. How to employ different types of searching techniques.
- B. Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area.
- C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available.
- D. Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs.
Correct Answer

A. C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available.

Explanation

The SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available before making the decision on how to search an area. These factors are important in determining the most effective and efficient way to conduct the search, ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately and that the search is conducted safely and successfully. The items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and the number of patrols available may also be considerations, but they are not as comprehensive as the factors listed in option c.

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29.

Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?
- A. to secure an unlocked door.
- B. to prevent injury to persons.
- C. to render aid to someone in danger.
- D. to prevent serious damage to property.
Correct Answer

A. A. to secure an unlocked door.

Explanation

Making an entry without search authority is not done to secure an unlocked door. It is done for reasons such as preventing injury to persons, rendering aid to someone in danger, or preventing serious damage to property. However, securing an unlocked door can be done without the need for making an entry without search authority.

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30.

When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?
- A. Before it has been fully processed for evidence.
- B. After it has been fully processed for evidence.
- c. After the coroner pronounces them dead.
- D. After the body has been photographed.
Correct Answer

A. B. After it has been fully processed for evidence.

Explanation

After a crime scene has been fully processed for evidence, it is the appropriate time to cover the body of a deceased person. This ensures that all necessary evidence has been collected and documented before the body is covered. It is important to preserve the integrity of the crime scene and avoid contaminating or disturbing any potential evidence. Therefore, covering the body after it has been fully processed for evidence is the correct procedure.

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31.

What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?
- A. Rough and refine.
- B. Partial and refined.
- C. Rough and finished.
- D. Partial and complete.
Correct Answer

A. C. Rough and finished.

Explanation

The two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene are rough and finished. A rough sketch is typically drawn at the scene and provides a basic representation of the layout and important details. It is often hand-drawn and not to scale. A finished sketch, on the other hand, is a more detailed and precise representation of the crime scene. It is usually created later using computer software or other professional tools and is to scale.

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32.

What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?
- A. Federal Rules of Evidence.
- B. Manual for Courts Martial.
- C. Federal Statutes of Evidence.
- D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer

A. B. Manual for Courts Martial.

Explanation

The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. This document provides guidance and regulations on how evidence should be presented and considered in military courts. It outlines the procedures and standards that must be followed during the trial process, ensuring fairness and consistency in the military justice system. The Federal Rules of Evidence and Federal Statutes of Evidence are not specific to the military, while the Uniform Code of Military Justice primarily focuses on defining criminal offenses and procedures for the military.

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33.

From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?
- A. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
- B. Defense Force Commander (DFC).
- C. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).
- D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
Correct Answer

A. A. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).

Explanation

Before disposing of crime scene evidence, approval must be obtained from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the military command, including matters related to criminal investigations and evidence handling. They ensure that proper legal procedures are followed and that the disposal of evidence is done in compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

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34.

Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance?
- A. Article 92.
- b. Article 108.
- C. Article 112a.
- D. Article 123a.
Correct Answer

A. C. Article 112a.

Explanation

Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the possession, distribution, and use of illegal drugs, as well as the abuse of prescription medications. It outlines the penalties and consequences for violating these provisions, including potential court-martial and disciplinary actions.

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35.

When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined?
- An action done a. to show inability to take full responsibility for actions.
- b. without legal justification or authorization.
- C. with full medical justification and authorization.
- D. with legal authorization and personal justification.
Correct Answer

A. b. without legal justification or authorization.

Explanation

Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as performing an action without legal justification or authorization. This means that any action involving controlled substances that is not permitted by law or authorized by the appropriate authorities would be considered wrongful.

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36.

What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?
- A. Family Advocacy Officer (FAO).
- B. Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI).
- C. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).
- D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
Correct Answer

A. D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

Explanation

The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations and providing specialized investigative services in support of the Air Force and the Department of Defense. They have the expertise and resources to handle cases involving serious bodily harm to children and are trained to handle such sensitive situations. The other options, such as the Family Advocacy Officer (FAO), the Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI), and the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC), may have roles in addressing child abuse or neglect, but they do not have primary jurisdiction for cases involving serious bodily harm.

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37.

What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?
- A. AF Form 1109.
- B. AF Form 1297.
- c. AF Form 1920.
- D. AF Form 3545.
Correct Answer

A. D. AF Form 3545.

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form is used to document all instances where an apprehension is made. It is a standardized form used by the Air Force to record information about the apprehension, including the details of the individual being apprehended, the reasons for the apprehension, and any other relevant information. This form ensures that there is a consistent and comprehensive record of all apprehensions made within the Air Force.

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38.

What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?
- A. Rights advisement.
- B. Complete search.
- C. Interrogation.
- D. Interview.
Correct Answer

A. D. Interview.

Explanation

During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves gathering information from the involved parties and witnesses to understand the situation, identify any injuries or threats, and evaluate the level of danger present. The interview helps law enforcement officers make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of the individuals involved.

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39.

Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?
- A. Neglect.
- b. Sexual abuse.
- C. Mental abuse.
- D. Physical abuse.
Correct Answer

A. C. Mental abuse.

Explanation

The three types of child abuse are neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse. Mental abuse is not included in the list of three types of child abuse.

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40.

Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?
- A. Neglect. b. Sexual. c. Mental. d. Physical.
- B. Sexual.
- C. Mental.
- d. Physical.
Correct Answer

A. B. Sexual.

Explanation

Child pornography and child prostitution involve the sexual exploitation of children, making them examples of sexual abuse. This type of abuse involves the use of children for sexual purposes, which can cause severe physical and psychological harm to the child victims. It is important to recognize and address this form of abuse to protect children and ensure their safety and well-being.

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41.

What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?
- A. Neglect. b. Sexual. c. Mental. d. Physical.
- B. Sexual.
- C. Mental.
- D. Physical.
Correct Answer

A. A. Neglect. b. Sexual. c. Mental. d. Physical.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Neglect. This is because neglect refers to the failure to provide basic necessities for a child's well-being, such as nourishment, shelter, and clothing. Sexual abuse, mental abuse, and physical abuse are different types of child abuse, but they do not specifically involve the lack of providing these basic necessities.

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42.

What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?
- A. Your tact and poise.
- B. Your ability to cope.
- C. Your physical appearance.
- D. Your tone of voice and manners.
Correct Answer

A. A. Your tact and poise.

Explanation

The characteristics of tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because they contribute to creating a safe and supportive environment. Tact allows for sensitive and respectful communication, ensuring that the victim feels heard and understood. Poise helps the responder to remain calm and composed, which can help the victim feel more at ease and less anxious. Both of these characteristics are crucial in establishing trust and building a rapport with the victim, which can ultimately aid in their emotional healing and recovery.

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43.

What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?
- A. Aggravated Assault.
- B. Simple Assault.
- C. Assault.
- D. Battery.
Correct Answer

A. C. Assault.

Explanation

Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another person, whether successful or not, as long as the target is aware of the danger. It does not require physical contact or harm to occur, only the intention and awareness of the threat. Aggravated Assault involves more serious or dangerous circumstances, while Simple Assault refers to less severe forms of physical harm. Battery, on the other hand, involves the actual physical contact or harm inflicted upon another person. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is c. Assault.

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44.

What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?
- A. Aggravated assault.
- B. Simple assault.
- C. Assault.
- D. Battery.
Correct Answer

A. A. Aggravated assault.

Explanation

Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states and involves the defendant intending to do more than merely frighten the victim. This means that the defendant's actions go beyond simple assault, which is a lesser offense. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harm caused to the victim, whereas assault is the threat or attempt to cause harm. Therefore, aggravated assault is the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.

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45.

What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?
- A. Notification, response, confinement, and release.
- B. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement.
- C. Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement.
- D. Initial contact, administrative, prosecution, and confinement.
Correct Answer

A. B. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement. In the victim/witness assistance program, it is important to brief all victims and witnesses on these four phases of the judicial process. The response phase involves immediate actions taken by law enforcement and first responders. The investigation phase involves gathering evidence and conducting interviews. The prosecution phase involves presenting the case in court. The confinement phase involves the incarceration or supervision of the offender.

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46.

What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?
- A. Casual.
- B. Sighting.
- C. Agitated.
- D. Mob-like.
Correct Answer

A. A. Casual.

Explanation

Casual crowds are identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together. They come together by chance and do not have a specific purpose or goal. Unlike other types of crowds, such as agitated or mob-like crowds, casual crowds do not exhibit any strong emotions or collective behavior. They are simply a gathering of people who happen to be in the same place at the same time, without any significant connection or shared interest.

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47.

The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?
- A. Fire chief.
- B. Flight chief.
- C. Commander.
- D. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).
Correct Answer

A. C. Commander.

Explanation

The use of the riot baton is based on the commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The commander is responsible for assessing the overall situation and determining the appropriate level of force to be used. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the use of riot batons and other force options based on their evaluation of the circumstances.

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48.

Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?
- A. Line.
- B. Wedge.
- C. Circular.
- D. Diamond.
Correct Answer

A. B. Wedge.

Explanation

The wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of riot control personnel forming a triangular shape, with the point of the triangle leading the way. The narrow point of the wedge allows the formation to cut through the crowd, creating a divide and making it easier for the personnel to control and disperse the crowd. This formation is effective in breaking up large groups and preventing them from regrouping.

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49.

Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?
- A. Deter.
- B. Detect.
- C. Negate.
- D. Preempt.
Correct Answer

A. C. Negate.

Explanation

The force protection measure taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations is to negate it. This means taking actions to neutralize or eliminate the threat or hazard, making it ineffective and unable to cause any harm or disruption to the operations. This could involve implementing security measures, deploying countermeasures, or taking proactive steps to prevent the threat from materializing.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Nov 17, 2017

Quiz Created by
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Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 2

In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

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