Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? 

    • An action done a. to show inability to take full responsibility for actions.
    • B. without legal justification or authorization.
    • C. with full medical justification and authorization.
    • D. with legal authorization and personal justification.
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About This Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 2 focuses on the rules and ethical considerations in the use of force within the military and law enforcement contexts. It assesses understanding of engagement rules, force levels, and legal standards, crucial for personnel in defense and security roles.

Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime 

    • A. a government vehicle is involved.

    • b. more than two vehicles are involved.

    • An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander.

    • A Security Force member who has completed the Traffic Management and Collision Investigation Course conducts a minor traffic investigation.

    Correct Answer
    A. An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander.
  • 3. 

    In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and 

    • A. Vandals.

    • B. Terrorists.

    • C. Psychotics.

    • D. Trespassers.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Terrorists.
    Explanation
    In the case of a nuclear security system, the primary concern is to protect against potential adversaries who may pose a threat to the facility. While criminals, protestors, and trespassers could potentially cause disruption, terrorists pose the greatest risk due to their intent to cause widespread destruction and harm. Their motivations and capabilities make them the most dangerous group to guard against in a nuclear security system.

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  • 4. 

    It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible 

    • A. in a military court only.

    • B. in a civilian court only.

    • C. in both a civilian and military court.

    • D. to the Defense Force Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. in both a civilian and military court.
    Explanation
    Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices ensures that the evidence obtained through the training is admissible in both civilian and military courts. This implies that the certification holds value and can be used as evidence in legal proceedings regardless of the court jurisdiction.

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  • 5. 

    What type of force is required at all installations supporting protection level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources? 

    • A. Security patrols.

    • B. Fire teams (FT).

    • C. Alarm fire team (AFT).

    • D. Security response team (SRT).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Security response team (SRT).
    Explanation
    At all installations supporting protection level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources, a security response team (SRT) is required. This team is responsible for quickly responding to any security threats or incidents that may occur. They are trained to handle various situations and ensure the safety and protection of the resources. Unlike security patrols, fire teams, or alarm fire teams, the security response team is specifically focused on responding to security-related issues.

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  • 6. 

    The letter “E” next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to 

    • A. educate personnel in those restricted areas.

    • B. escort personnel into those restricted areas.

    • C. exclude personnel into those restricted areas.

    • D. employee personnel for those restricted areas.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. escort personnel into those restricted areas.
    Explanation
    The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identifies that an individual is authorized to escort personnel into those restricted areas.

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  • 7. 

    When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person? 

    • A. Before it has been fully processed for evidence.

    • B. After it has been fully processed for evidence.

    • c. After the coroner pronounces them dead.

    • D. After the body has been photographed.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. After it has been fully processed for evidence.
    Explanation
    After a crime scene has been fully processed for evidence, it is the appropriate time to cover the body of a deceased person. This ensures that all necessary evidence has been collected and documented before the body is covered. It is important to preserve the integrity of the crime scene and avoid contaminating or disturbing any potential evidence. Therefore, covering the body after it has been fully processed for evidence is the correct procedure.

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  • 8. 

    What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim? 

    • A. Aggravated assault.

    • B. Simple assault.

    • C. Assault.

    • D. Battery.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Aggravated assault.
    Explanation
    Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states and involves the defendant intending to do more than merely frighten the victim. This means that the defendant's actions go beyond simple assault, which is a lesser offense. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harm caused to the victim, whereas assault is the threat or attempt to cause harm. Therefore, aggravated assault is the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.

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  • 9. 

     What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?

    • A. See first and act first.

    • B. First in and fit to fight.

    • C. Defense of others and operationally fortified.

    • D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment.
    Explanation
    The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow individuals or units to use force to protect themselves or their allies when they are under threat or attack. Mission accomplishment, on the other hand, refers to the rules that guide the use of force in order to achieve the objectives of a specific mission or operation. These two categories of ROE ensure that military personnel can defend themselves while also working towards the successful completion of their assigned tasks.

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  • 10. 

    When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

    • A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

    • B. Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

    • C. Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

    • D. Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force.
    Explanation
    Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force is justified, the same factors are considered, such as the threat level posed by the suspect, the immediacy of the threat, and the availability of other alternatives. The use of non-lethal force must still be reasonable and proportionate to the situation at hand, just like the use of deadly force.

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  • 11. 

    How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries? 

    • A. 50 feet.

    • B. 75 feet.

    • C. 100 feet.

    • D. 125 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 100 feet.
    Explanation
    Restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along restricted area boundaries. This distance ensures that the signs are clearly visible and allow for adequate warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. Placing the signs closer together may cause confusion, while spacing them further apart may not provide sufficient notice of the restricted area. Therefore, 100 feet is the appropriate distance for displaying restricted area signs.

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  • 12. 

    Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world? 

    • A. Lob Nur Nuclear (LUN) site in China.

    • B. Aldermaston Central Facility (ACF) in the United Kingdom.

    • C. Semipalatinsk Nuclear (SN) site in the Soviet Union/Russia.

    • D. Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA.
    Explanation
    The Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC) in the USA is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world. This facility is located in New Mexico and is responsible for the storage and maintenance of a significant number of nuclear weapons.

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  • 13. 

    What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

    • A. T-position.

    • B. Shrimping.

    • C. Comb blocks.

    • D. Standup to base.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Comb blocks.
    Explanation
    Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the arms and hands to block and deflect incoming strikes, creating a barrier between the attacker's strikes and the head. By using comb blocks, the person in the ready stance can effectively protect their head and minimize the impact of strikes. Shrimping, T-position, and standup to base are not combative techniques specifically used for protecting the head from strikes in the ready stance.

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  • 14. 

    What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

    • A. Annual refresher.

    • B. Quarterly refresher.

    • C. Initial and annual refresher.

    • D. Initial and semiannual refresher.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Initial and annual refresher.
    Explanation
    If someone is armed with an expandable baton, they would need both initial and annual refresher training. This means that they would need to receive training when they first start using the baton to ensure they know how to properly handle and use it. Additionally, they would need to receive annual refresher training to keep their skills and knowledge up to date. This is important to ensure that they are able to use the baton effectively and safely in their role.

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  • 15. 

    What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?

    • A. Simple.

    • B. Partial.

    • C. Complete.

    • D. Plainview.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Complete.
    Explanation
    A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed search that may involve partially or completely disassembling the vehicle. This type of search is necessary when a more comprehensive examination is required to uncover hidden or hard-to-reach areas of the vehicle. It allows for a more in-depth inspection and investigation, ensuring that all potential evidence or information is discovered.

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  • 16. 

    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance? 

    • A. Article 92.

    • b. Article 108.

    • C. Article 112a.

    • D. Article 123a.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Article 112a.
    Explanation
    Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the possession, distribution, and use of illegal drugs, as well as the abuse of prescription medications. It outlines the penalties and consequences for violating these provisions, including potential court-martial and disciplinary actions.

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  • 17. 

    What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing? 

    • A. Neglect. b. Sexual. c. Mental. d. Physical.

    • B. Sexual.

    • C. Mental.

    • D. Physical.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Neglect. b. Sexual. c. Mental. d. Physical.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Neglect. This is because neglect refers to the failure to provide basic necessities for a child's well-being, such as nourishment, shelter, and clothing. Sexual abuse, mental abuse, and physical abuse are different types of child abuse, but they do not specifically involve the lack of providing these basic necessities.

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  • 18. 

    What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim? 

    • A. Your tact and poise.

    • B. Your ability to cope.

    • C. Your physical appearance.

    • D. Your tone of voice and manners.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Your tact and poise.
    Explanation
    The characteristics of tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because they contribute to creating a safe and supportive environment. Tact allows for sensitive and respectful communication, ensuring that the victim feels heard and understood. Poise helps the responder to remain calm and composed, which can help the victim feel more at ease and less anxious. Both of these characteristics are crucial in establishing trust and building a rapport with the victim, which can ultimately aid in their emotional healing and recovery.

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  • 19. 

     In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

    • A. selfishness.

    • B. higher awareness.

    • C. insecurity and isolation.

    • D. tentativeness and hesitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. tentativeness and hesitation.
    Explanation
    When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, it is likely that they will experience tentativeness and hesitation. This fear can cause them to second-guess their actions and be unsure about how to proceed, leading to a lack of confidence and a delay in taking necessary actions. This tentativeness and hesitation can hinder their ability to effectively employ force and respond to a potentially dangerous situation.

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  • 20. 

     What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4thAmendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

    • A. have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject.

    • B. have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject.

    • C. must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension.

    • D. do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. This means that law enforcement and security personnel are not required to use the least intrusive force alternative when making an arrest or other seizure of a person. Instead, they only need to use a reasonable amount of force to apprehend the subject. This allows for some flexibility in determining the appropriate level of force based on the specific circumstances of each situation.

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  • 21. 

     Conscious verbal communication occurs when

    • A. words are chosen carefully during a conversation.

    • B. words occur naturally during a conversation.

    • C. the communicator reads it directly from a form.

    • D. the communicator is in a hurry.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. words are chosen carefully during a conversation.
    Explanation
    Verbal communication requires the conscious selection of words during a conversation. This means that the communicator is actively thinking about the words they use and choosing them carefully to convey their message effectively. This involves considering the context, the audience, and the desired outcome of the communication. It is not about words occurring naturally or being read from a form, nor is it about being in a hurry.

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  • 22. 

    Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

    • A. back of the neck.

    • B. wrist of the farthest hand.

    • C. ring or middle finger.

    • D. wrist of the nearest hand.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. ring or middle finger.
    Explanation
    To gain positive control of a subject before applying handcuffs, it is recommended to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows for a secure grip and better control over the subject's hand, making it easier to apply the handcuffs effectively. Grasping the back of the neck (option a) may be more appropriate for controlling the head or neck area, while grasping the wrist of the farthest hand (option b) or nearest hand (option d) may not provide as much control over the subject's movements.

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  • 23. 

    What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

    • A. Wall.

    • B. Prone.

    • C. Kneeling.

    • D. Standing.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Standing.
    Explanation
    When suspects do not appear dangerous, violent, or heavily intoxicated, law enforcement officers typically conduct a standing search. This type of search allows the officers to maintain control over the situation while minimizing physical contact with the suspect. It also ensures that the suspect is able to stand on their own power, indicating that they are not severely impaired. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Standing.

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  • 24. 

    Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders? 

    • A. Military Control (MILCON).

    • B. Tactical Control (TACON).

    • C. Operational Control (OPCON).

    • D. Administrative Control (ADCON).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Operational Control (OPCON).
    Explanation
    Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it is the control authority exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. OPCON gives commanders the authority to plan, direct, and control military operations. It allows them to organize and employ commands and forces as they see fit to accomplish their assigned missions. MILCON refers to the control of military construction projects, TACON refers to the control of tactical operations, and ADCON refers to the control of administrative matters.

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  • 25. 

    Vegetation in clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities? 

    • A. 24 inches.

    • B. 16 inches.

    • C. 8 inches.

    • D. 4 inches.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 8 inches.
    Explanation
    Inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities, the vegetation in clear zones will not exceed 8 inches in height. This limitation is likely in place to ensure that the vegetation does not obstruct visibility or interfere with the security and maintenance of the facilities. By keeping the vegetation at a maximum height of 8 inches, it allows for easier monitoring and access to the area.

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  • 26. 

    When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand 

    • A. next to your vehicle.

    • b. in the center of the road.

    • C. off to the side of the road.

    • D. in the center of the intersection.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. off to the side of the road.
    Explanation
    When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This allows you to have a clear view of the traffic and be visible to drivers approaching from both directions. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road can obstruct the view of drivers and increase the risk of accidents. Standing in the center of the intersection is also not recommended as it can confuse drivers and disrupt the flow of traffic. Therefore, standing off to the side of the road is the safest and most effective position for directing traffic on such streets.

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  • 27. 

    Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, you must advise the suspects 

    • A. of the implied consent policy.

    • B. of their right to speak to a lawyer.

    • C. that drivers cannot refuse a breath test.

    • D. that their test results cannot be used against them.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. of the implied consent policy.
    Explanation
    Before using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, it is important to inform the suspects about the implied consent policy. This policy states that by operating a vehicle, individuals are deemed to have given their consent to chemical tests to determine their blood alcohol concentration. This means that if a suspect refuses to take a breath test, they may face legal consequences such as license suspension or other penalties. Informing the suspects about the implied consent policy is essential to ensure their understanding of the legal implications of refusing a breath test.

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  • 28. 

    How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

    • A. By grabbing your weapon with your weapons side (WS) hand.

    • B. By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand.

    • C. By rolling onto support side (SS), keeping holstered weapon away from suspect.

    • D. By rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. By rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground.
    Explanation
    During a rear mount, attaining weapons retention is achieved by rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS) and keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This position helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed by the suspect. Rolling onto the support side (SS) or grabbing the weapon with the SS hand would not provide the same level of retention and could potentially allow the suspect to gain control of the weapon.

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  • 29. 

    To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions , what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting?

    • A. Advise the suspect of rights. .

    • B. Handcuff the suspect’s hands in the front.

    • c. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband.

    • D. Have a second SF member ride in the back with the suspect

    Correct Answer
    A. c. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband.
    Explanation
    Before placing a suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and to prevent any potential harm or danger during transportation. It is a standard procedure to conduct a search or frisk to ensure that the suspect does not have any weapons or illegal items that could pose a threat.

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  • 30. 

    What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

    • A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger.

    • B. Have a family member or friend ride in the front seat.

    • C. Notify Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) of ending mileage.

    • D. Have a second patrol officer follow you to Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger.
    Explanation
    When transporting a member of the opposite sex, the minimum requirement is to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This is to ensure the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misunderstandings or allegations. It also provides a witness in case any issues arise during the transport. This requirement helps maintain a professional and respectful environment for all parties involved.

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  • 31. 

    How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

    • A. One.

    • B. Two.

    • C. Three.

    • D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Two.
    Explanation
    The electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired.

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  • 32. 

    What must be established at each incident site?

    • A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP).

    • B. Secondary ECP.

    • c. Cordon and operational rally point.

    • D. Evacuation point.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP).
    Explanation
    At each incident site, it is necessary to establish a cordon and entry control point (ECP). This is important for maintaining security and controlling access to the site. The cordon ensures that unauthorized personnel are kept out of the area, while the ECP allows authorized personnel to enter and exit the site while being screened and monitored. By establishing a cordon and ECP, the incident site can be properly secured and managed, ensuring the safety of both responders and the public.

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  • 33. 

    What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

    • A. How to employ different types of searching techniques.

    • B. Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area.

    • C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available.

    • D. Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available.
    Explanation
    The SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available before making the decision on how to search an area. These factors are important in determining the most effective and efficient way to conduct the search, ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately and that the search is conducted safely and successfully. The items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and the number of patrols available may also be considerations, but they are not as comprehensive as the factors listed in option c.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority? 

    • A. to secure an unlocked door.

    • B. to prevent injury to persons.

    • C. to render aid to someone in danger.

    • D. to prevent serious damage to property.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. to secure an unlocked door.
    Explanation
    Making an entry without search authority is not done to secure an unlocked door. It is done for reasons such as preventing injury to persons, rendering aid to someone in danger, or preventing serious damage to property. However, securing an unlocked door can be done without the need for making an entry without search authority.

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  • 35. 

    What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made? 

    • A. AF Form 1109.

    • B. AF Form 1297.

    • c. AF Form 1920.

    • D. AF Form 3545.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. AF Form 3545.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form is used to document all instances where an apprehension is made. It is a standardized form used by the Air Force to record information about the apprehension, including the details of the individual being apprehended, the reasons for the apprehension, and any other relevant information. This form ensures that there is a consistent and comprehensive record of all apprehensions made within the Air Force.

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  • 36. 

    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse? 

    • A. Neglect. b. Sexual. c. Mental. d. Physical.

    • B. Sexual.

    • C. Mental.

    • d. Physical.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Sexual.
    Explanation
    Child pornography and child prostitution involve the sexual exploitation of children, making them examples of sexual abuse. This type of abuse involves the use of children for sexual purposes, which can cause severe physical and psychological harm to the child victims. It is important to recognize and address this form of abuse to protect children and ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 37. 

     In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • A. Protect inherently dangerous property.

    • B. Protect assets vital to national security.

    • C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle.

    • D. Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle.
    Explanation
    Using deadly force is not authorized to prevent someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force can be used to protect oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm, protect inherently dangerous property, and protect assets vital to national security. However, in this situation, the act of breaking into a government vehicle does not pose an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm, therefore deadly force would not be authorized.

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  • 38. 

    What type of sentries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level (PL)1 assets? 

    • A. Close-in-sentry CIS).

    • B. Flight line sentry (FLS).

    • C. Installation Controller (EC).

    • D. Close-boundary sentry (CBS).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Close-in-sentry CIS).
    Explanation
    Close-in-sentry (CIS) controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level (PL)1 assets.

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  • 39. 

    At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission? 

    • A. Tactical.

    • B. Financial.

    • C. Operational.

    • D. Administrative.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Operational.
    Explanation
    The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission at the operational level. This means that it focuses on the day-to-day activities and management of the nuclear mission, including ensuring the safety, security, and effectiveness of nuclear operations. The operational level is where the practical implementation of policies and procedures takes place, making it crucial for maintaining the integrity and success of the nuclear mission.

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  • 40. 

    What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search? 

    • A. Continue the search since the suspect has already agreed to it.

    • B. Keep searching because the 5th Amendment does not allow suspect to withdraw consent.

    • C. Get authorization from Flight Chief to continue.

    • D. Terminate the search immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Terminate the search immediately.
    Explanation
    If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct course of action is to terminate the search immediately. This is because once consent is withdrawn, law enforcement no longer has the legal authority to continue the search without obtaining a warrant or establishing another legal justification.

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  • 41. 

    What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified? 

    • A. After action report.

    • B. After execution report.

    • C. Plaining objective report.

    • D. Teaching objective reports.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. After action report.
    Explanation
    The primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified is through an after action report. This report is typically conducted after an event or activity and provides a detailed analysis of what occurred, including successes, failures, and areas for improvement. It helps to identify lessons learned and provides recommendations for future actions.

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  • 42. 

    How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?

    • A. From top to bottom, left to right.

    • B. From right to left, top to bottom.

    • C. From left to right, bottom to top.

    • D. From bottom to top, left to right.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. From left to right, bottom to top.
    Explanation
    To read a grid map and find a grid coordinate, you start from the left side and move towards the right, and then move from the bottom upwards. This means that you first locate the column on the left side of the grid, and then move up to find the row at the bottom. This method ensures that you read the grid map in a systematic and organized manner, allowing you to accurately determine the grid coordinate.

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  • 43. 

    How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

    • A. Flat markers.

    • B. Lights and cones.

    • C. Elevated markers.

    • D. Posted SF personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Elevated markers.
    Explanation
    Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are easily visible and can be seen from a distance, ensuring that drivers are aware of the boundaries and do not enter these areas. Flat markers may not be as visible, while lights and cones may not be as effective in clearly defining the boundaries. Posted SF personnel may not always be available or visible, making elevated markers the most suitable option for marking the boundaries.

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  • 44. 

    What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military? 

    • A. Federal Rules of Evidence.

    • B. Manual for Courts Martial.

    • C. Federal Statutes of Evidence.

    • D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Manual for Courts Martial.
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. This document provides guidance and regulations on how evidence should be presented and considered in military courts. It outlines the procedures and standards that must be followed during the trial process, ensuring fairness and consistency in the military justice system. The Federal Rules of Evidence and Federal Statutes of Evidence are not specific to the military, while the Uniform Code of Military Justice primarily focuses on defining criminal offenses and procedures for the military.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse? 

    • A. Neglect.

    • b. Sexual abuse.

    • C. Mental abuse.

    • D. Physical abuse.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Mental abuse.
    Explanation
    The three types of child abuse are neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse. Mental abuse is not included in the list of three types of child abuse.

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  • 46. 

    Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups? 

    • A. Line.

    • B. Wedge.

    • C. Circular.

    • D. Diamond.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Wedge.
    Explanation
    The wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of riot control personnel forming a triangular shape, with the point of the triangle leading the way. The narrow point of the wedge allows the formation to cut through the crowd, creating a divide and making it easier for the personnel to control and disperse the crowd. This formation is effective in breaking up large groups and preventing them from regrouping.

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  • 47. 

    Where on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, would you annotate the results of a suspect’s blood alcohol chemical test? 

    • A. Section I, Suspect’s Data.

    • B. Section II, Initial Contact.

    • C. Section III, Standardization Field Sobriety Testing.

    • D. Section IV, Synopsis.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Section III, Standardization Field Sobriety Testing.
    Explanation
    In Section III, Standardization Field Sobriety Testing, you would annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test. This section is specifically designated for recording the results of the sobriety tests conducted on the suspect, including any chemical tests such as a blood alcohol test.

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  • 48. 

     What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

    • A. Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets.

    • B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.

    • C. Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.

    • D. Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense.
    Explanation
    The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that US forces are authorized to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit if they are under threat or attack. This allows them to take necessary action to defend themselves and fulfill their mission objectives.

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  • 49. 

    Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the 

    • A. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.(ATF).

    • B. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI).

    • C. Federal Law Enforcement Officers Association (FLEOA).

    • D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the NHTSA. This agency is responsible for setting the standards and guidelines for traffic safety in the United States, including the procedures for testing drivers suspected of driving under the influence. The NHTSA has developed the SFST as a standardized method for evaluating a driver's impairment due to alcohol or drugs. By using these approved tests, Security Forces personnel can ensure that they are following the recognized standards and procedures for determining a driver's sobriety.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 17, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Rapsonnel
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