Microbiology Midterm Review
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Practice test for the Microbiology Midterm.
- 1.Disease-causing microorganisms are called
- A.
Decomposers.
- B.
Procaryotes.
- C.
Pathogens.
- D.
Eucaryotes.
- E.
Fermenters.
- 2.The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
- A.
Decomposers.
- B.
Procaryotes.
- C.
Pathogens.
- D.
Eucaryotes.
- E.
Fermenters.
- 3.When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
- A.
Bioremediation.
- B.
Genetic engineering.
- C.
Epidemiology.
- D.
Immunology.
- E.
Taxonomy.
- 4.Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
- A.
Mosquito
- B.
Protozoa
- C.
Bacteria
- D.
Viruses
- E.
Fungi
- 5.Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms?
- A.
Cause human disease
- B.
Lack a nucleus
- C.
Cannot be seen without a microscope
- D.
Contain genetic material
- E.
Lack cell structure
- 6.Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that
- A.
Air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation.
- B.
Microbial fermentation could be used to make wine.
- C.
Dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.
- D.
Microorganisms could cause disease.
- E.
Microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions.
- 7.Spontaneous generation is the belief that
- A.
Germs cause infectious diseases.
- B.
Microbes are diverse and ubiquitous.
- C.
Microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it.
- D.
Aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings.
- E.
Living things arise from nonliving matter.
- 8.Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
- A.
Microbes are found on dust particles.
- B.
A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
- C.
Life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
- D.
A specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
- E.
Microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
- 9.Which of the following is a scientific name?
- A.
Bacteria
- B.
Protista
- C.
Species
- D.
Bacillus subtilis
- E.
Bacilli
- 10.The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
- A.
Biotechnology.
- B.
Genetics.
- C.
Recombinant DNA.
- D.
Phylogeny.
- E.
Taxonomy.
- 11.A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of
- A.
Food microbiology.
- B.
Epidemiology.
- C.
Agricultural microbiology.
- D.
Genetic engineering.
- E.
Biotechnology.
- 12.Helminths are
- A.
Bacteria.
- B.
Protozoa.
- C.
Molds.
- D.
Parasitic worms.
- E.
Infectious particles.
- 13.Organisms called parasites are
- A.
Always classified in the kingdom Monera.
- B.
Always harmful to their host.
- C.
The decomposers in ecosystems.
- D.
Always a virus.
- E.
Free-living.
- 14.The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
- A.
Joseph Lister.
- B.
Ignaz Semmelweis.
- C.
Robert Koch.
- D.
Louis Pasteur.
- E.
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
- 15.Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?
- A.
Bacteria and fungi
- B.
Bacteria and viruses
- C.
Algae and viruses
- D.
Protists and fungi
- E.
All organisms are decomposers
- 16.Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?
- A.
Diarrheal diseases
- B.
Tuberculosis
- C.
Malaria
- D.
Septicemia
- E.
Influenza
- 17.All of the following are correct about prokaryotes except
- A.
They are smaller than eukaryotes.
- B.
They lack a nucleus.
- C.
They are less complex than eukaryotes.
- D.
They have organelles.
- E.
They are found nearly everywhere.
- 18.Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium?
- A.
Staph Aureus
- B.
Staphylococcus Aureus
- C.
Staphylococcus aureus
- D.
Staphylococcus Aureus
- E.
S. Aureus
- 19.Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection?
- A.
Gastric ulcers
- B.
Female infertility
- C.
Coronary artery disease
- D.
Cervical cancer
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 20.The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
- A.
Inoculation.
- B.
Incubation.
- C.
Infection.
- D.
Isolation.
- E.
Identification.
- 21.All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
- A.
Broth.
- B.
Enriched.
- C.
Agar.
- D.
Petri dish.
- E.
Gelatin.
- 22.The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is
- A.
Isolation.
- B.
Inoculation.
- C.
Immunization.
- D.
Infection.
- E.
Contamination.
- 23.Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
- A.
Broth medium
- B.
Differential medium
- C.
Selective medium
- D.
Solid medium
- E.
Assay medium
- 24.A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation?
- A.
The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
- B.
The culture is contaminated.
- C.
The incubation temperature was incorrect.
- D.
The culture medium must be selective.
- E.
The culture medium must be differential.
- 25.A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?
- A.
The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
- B.
The culture is contaminated.
- C.
The incubation temperature was incorrect.
- D.
The culture medium must be selective.
- E.
The culture medium must be differential.
- 26.Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?
- A.
Streak plate.
- B.
Spread plate.
- C.
Pour plate.
- D.
All of the choices are correct.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 27.Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
- A.
Differential
- B.
Selective
- C.
Enumeration
- D.
Enriched
- E.
Reducing
- 28.A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture?
- A.
Fastidious
- B.
Gram positive
- C.
Anaerobe
- D.
Gram negative
- E.
Virus
- 29.Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
- A.
Resolving power
- B.
Magnification
- C.
Refraction
- D.
All of the choices are correct.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 30.If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens is 10X?
- A.
100X
- B.
950X
- C.
85X
- D.
850X
- E.
95X
- 31.The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is
- A.
Bright-field.
- B.
Dark-field.
- C.
Phase-contrast.
- D.
Fluorescence.
- E.
Electron.
- 32.This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification:
- A.
Bright-field
- B.
Dark-field
- C.
Phase-contrast
- D.
Fluorescence
- E.
Electron
- 33.Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?
- A.
It can be used to cultivate Neisseria.
- B.
It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated.
- C.
It has chocolate extract in it.
- D.
It is an enriched medium.
- E.
It is used to grow fastidious bacteria.
- 34.The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is
- A.
Hanging drop.
- B.
Fixed stained smear.
- C.
Gram stain.
- D.
Negative stain.
- E.
Flagellar stain.
- 35.The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
- A.
Kill them.
- B.
Secure them to the slide.
- C.
Enlarge the cells.
- D.
Add contrast in order to see them better.
- E.
See motility.
- 36.A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
- A.
Negative staining.
- B.
Using an acidic dye.
- C.
Simple staining.
- D.
Using the acid-fast stain.
- E.
Capsule staining.
- 37.Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
- A.
Fastidious.
- B.
Pathogenic.
- C.
Harmless.
- D.
Anaerobic.
- E.
Aerobic.
- 38.All of the following are correct about agar except
- A.
It is flexible.
- B.
It melts at the boiling point of water (100 degrees Celsius).
- C.
It is a source of nutrition for bacteria.
- D.
It solidifies below 42 degrees Celsius.
- E.
It is solid at room temperature.
- 39.Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called
- A.
Flagella.
- B.
Cilia.
- C.
Fimbriae.
- D.
Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
- E.
Sex pili.
- 40.The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called
- A.
Flagella.
- B.
Cilia.
- C.
Fimbriae.
- D.
Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
- E.
Sex pili.
- 41.All bacterial cells have
- A.
A chromosome.
- B.
Fimbriae.
- C.
Endospores.
- D.
Capsules.
- E.
Flagella.
- 42.The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is
- A.
Amphitrichous.
- B.
Atrichous.
- C.
Lophotrichous.
- D.
Monotrichous.
- E.
Peritrichous.
- 43.A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is
- A.
Mycobacterium.
- B.
Mycoplasma.
- C.
Streptococcus.
- D.
Corynebacterium.
- E.
Salmonella.
- 44.Which is mismatched?
- A.
Ribosomes - protein synthesis
- B.
Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials
- C.
Plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism
- D.
Nucleoid - hereditary material
- E.
Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution
- 45.The function of bacterial endospores is
- A.
Convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants.
- B.
Reproduction and growth.
- C.
Protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.
- D.
Storage of excess cell materials.
- E.
Sites for photosynthesis.
- 46.Endospores are
- A.
Metabolically inactive.
- B.
Resistant to heat and chemical destruction.
- C.
Resistant to destruction by radiation.
- D.
Living structures.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 47.Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes?
- A.
Coccus
- B.
Tetrad
- C.
Vibrio
- D.
Rod
- E.
Spirochete
- 48.When a rod shaped bacteria is short and plump, it is called a
- A.
Spirochete.
- B.
Pleomorphic.
- C.
Vibrio.
- D.
Coccobacillus.
- E.
Spirillum.
- 49.What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain?
- A.
Gram's iodine, crystal violet, alcohol, safranin
- B.
Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, Gram's iodine
- C.
Crystal violet, Gram's iodine, alcohol, safranin
- D.
Safranin, crystal violet, Gram's iodine, alcohol
- E.
Alcohol, crystal violet, safranin, Gram's iodine
- 50.All of the following are correct about biofilms except
- A.
They are cooperative associations among several microbial groups.
- B.
They play an important role in recycling elements in the earth.
- C.
They can colonize medical devices.
- D.
An example could be the scum that builds up in toilet bowls.
- E.
They are harmless aggregations of microbes.
- 51.Which cell structure is an important agent in modern genetic engineering techniques?
- A.
Ribosomes
- B.
Capsules
- C.
Plasmids
- D.
Inclusions
- E.
Mesosomes
- 52.The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's
- A.
Ribosomes.
- B.
Inclusions.
- C.
Cell wall.
- D.
Cell membrane.
- E.
Flagella.
- 53.The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be
- A.
Material would not be able to cross the cell membrane.
- B.
Protein synthesis would stop.
- C.
Destruction of the cell's DNA.
- D.
Formation of glycogen inclusions.
- E.
Loss of capsule.
- 54.A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has
- A.
Fimbriae.
- B.
Capsule.
- C.
Mesosomes.
- D.
Flagella.
- E.
Metachromatic granules.
- 55.Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial
- A.
Cell walls.
- B.
Cell membranes.
- C.
Capsules.
- D.
Slime layers.
- E.
Inclusions.
- 56.All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except
- A.
Inclusions.
- B.
Fimbriae.
- C.
Capsule.
- D.
Slime layer.
- E.
Outer membrane of gram negative cell walls.
- 57.Viruses have all the following except
- A.
Definite shape.
- B.
Metabolism.
- C.
Genes.
- D.
Ability to infect host cells.
- E.
Ultramicroscopic size.
- 58.Host cells of viruses include
- A.
Human and other animals.
- B.
Plants and fungi.
- C.
Bacteria.
- D.
Protozoa and algae.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 59.The core of every virus particle always contains
- A.
DNA.
- B.
Capsomers.
- C.
Enzymes.
- D.
DNA and RNA.
- E.
Either DNA or RNA.
- 60.Virus capsids are made from subunits called
- A.
Envelopes.
- B.
Spikes.
- C.
Capsomeres.
- D.
Prophages.
- E.
Peplomers.
- 61.Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
- A.
Spike.
- B.
Capsomere.
- C.
Envelope.
- D.
Capsid.
- E.
Core.
- 62.Which of the following is correct about viruses?
- A.
Cannot be seen with a light microscope
- B.
Are procaryotic
- C.
Contain 70S ribosomes
- D.
Undergo binary fission
- E.
Can be grown on nutrient agar
- 63.Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
- A.
Envelope
- B.
Capsomers
- C.
Capsid
- D.
Nucleic acid
- E.
Genome
- 64.These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors
- A.
Sheath.
- B.
Tail fibers.
- C.
Nucleic acid.
- D.
Capsid head.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 65.The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
- A.
Penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release.
- B.
Replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release.
- C.
Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.
- D.
Assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption.
- E.
Adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.
- 66.Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during
- A.
Replication.
- B.
Assembly.
- C.
Adsorption.
- D.
Release.
- E.
Penetration.
- 67.Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
- A.
Live lab animals
- B.
Embryonated bird eggs
- C.
Primary cell cultures
- D.
Continuous cell cultures
- E.
Blood agar
- 68.Host range is limited by
- A.
Type of nucleic acid in the virus.
- B.
Age of the host cell.
- C.
Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.
- D.
Size of the host cell.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 69.The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called
- A.
Lysogeny.
- B.
Budding.
- C.
Plaques.
- D.
Cytopathic effects.
- E.
Pocks.
- 70.Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
- A.
Lysogeny.
- B.
Budding.
- C.
Plaques.
- D.
Cytopathic effects.
- E.
Pocks.
- 71.Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called
- A.
Latent.
- B.
Oncogenic.
- C.
Prions.
- D.
Viroids.
- E.
Delta agents.
- 72.Infectious protein particles are called
- A.
Viroids.
- B.
Phages.
- C.
Prions.
- D.
Oncogenic viruses.
- E.
Spikes.
- 73.Infectious naked strands of RNA are called
- A.
Viroids.
- B.
Phages.
- C.
Prions.
- D.
Oncogenic viruses.
- E.
Spikes.
- 74.Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
- A.
Caused by a chronic latent virus.
- B.
Initiated by an oncogenic virus.
- C.
Caused by a viroid.
- D.
A spongiform encephalopathy of humans.
- E.
Also called "mad cow disease".
- 75.Satellite viruses are
- A.
Also called viroids.
- B.
Dependent on other viruses for replication.
- C.
The cause of spongiform encephalopathies.
- D.
Significant pathogens of plants.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 76.All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except
- A.
Viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.
- B.
Many antiviral drugs block viral replication.
- C.
Many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects.
- D.
Interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 77.Protists include
- A.
Yeasts and molds.
- B.
Algae and protozoa.
- C.
Helminths.
- D.
All of the choices are correct.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 78.Eucaryotic flagella differ from procaryotic flagella because only eucaryotic flagella
- A.
Are used for cell motility.
- B.
Facilitate chemotaxis.
- C.
Facilitate phototaxis.
- D.
Are long whip-like structures.
- E.
Contain microtubules.
- 79.Cilia are found in certain
- A.
Protozoa.
- B.
Algae.
- C.
Fungi.
- D.
Bacteria.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 80.Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of
- A.
Protozoa.
- B.
Algae.
- C.
Fungi.
- D.
Bacteria.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 81.Which of the following is found in eucaryotic cells but not in procaryotic cells?
- A.
Nucleus
- B.
Mitochondria
- C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
- D.
Lysosomes
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 82.The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the
- A.
Mitochondria.
- B.
Lysosomes.
- C.
Golgi apparatus.
- D.
Chloroplasts.
- E.
Endoplasmic reticulum.
- 83.An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the
- A.
Mitochondria.
- B.
Lysosomes.
- C.
Golgi apparatus.
- D.
Chloroplasts.
- E.
Endoplasmic reticulum.
- 84.Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?
- A.
Mitochondria
- B.
Lysosomes
- C.
Golgi apparatus
- D.
Chloroplasts
- E.
Endoplasmic reticulum
- 85.Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the
- A.
Mitochondria.
- B.
Lysosomes.
- C.
Golgi apparatus.
- D.
Chloroplasts.
- E.
Endoplasmic reticulum.
- 86.Filamentous fungi are called
- A.
Pseudohyphae.
- B.
Septa.
- C.
Molds.
- D.
Dimorphic.
- E.
Mycelium.
- 87.When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called
- A.
Pseudohyphae.
- B.
Septa.
- C.
Molds.
- D.
Dimorphic.
- E.
Mycelium.
- 88.Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called
- A.
Dimorphic.
- B.
Saprobes.
- C.
Pseudohyphae.
- D.
Spores.
- E.
Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota).
- 89.The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the
- A.
Trophozoite.
- B.
Cyst.
- C.
Sporozoite.
- D.
Oocyst.
- E.
Food vacuole.
- 90.Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of
- A.
Protozoa.
- B.
Algae.
- C.
Helminths.
- D.
Fungi.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 91.Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except
- A.
Infected animals.
- B.
Contaminated food.
- C.
Contaminated water.
- D.
Contaminated soil.
- E.
Contaminated air.
- 92.The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the
- A.
Golgi apparatus.
- B.
Lysosomes.
- C.
Cisternae.
- D.
Transitional vesicles.
- E.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
- 93.All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except
- A.
Motility.
- B.
Ectoplasm and endoplasm.
- C.
Heterotrophic nutrition.
- D.
Formation of a cyst stage.
- E.
Cell wall.
- 94.Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism:
- A.
Element
- B.
Macronutrient
- C.
Water
- D.
Growth factor
- E.
Trace element
- 95.Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:
- A.
Element
- B.
Macronutrient
- C.
Water
- D.
Growth factor
- E.
Trace element
- 96.The term phototroph refers to an organism that
- A.
Uses CO2 for its carbon source.
- B.
Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
- C.
Gets energy from sunlight.
- D.
Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
- E.
Does not need a carbon source.
- 97.The term heterotroph refers to an organism that
- A.
Uses CO2 for its carbon source.
- B.
Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
- C.
Gets energy from sunlight.
- D.
Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
- E.
Does not need a carbon source.
- 98.Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
- A.
Saprobes.
- B.
Parasites.
- C.
Autotrophs.
- D.
Lithoautotrophs.
- E.
Phototrophs.
- 99.The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called
- A.
Facilitated diffusion.
- B.
Diffusion.
- C.
Active transport.
- D.
Osmosis.
- E.
Endocytosis.
- 100.The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called
- A.
Facilitated diffusion.
- B.
Diffusion.
- C.
Active transport.
- D.
Osmosis.
- E.
Endocytosis.
- 101.The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called
- A.
Facilitated diffusion.
- B.
Diffusion.
- C.
Active transport.
- D.
Osmosis.
- E.
Endocytosis.
- 102.An organism with a temperature growth range of 45 degrees Celsius to 60 degrees Celsius would be called a/an
- A.
Extremophile.
- B.
Thermophile.
- C.
Psychrophile.
- D.
Facultative psychrophile.
- E.
Thermoduric.
- 103.
- A.
Grows best in an anaerobic jar.
- B.
Grows with or without oxygen.
- C.
Needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen.
- D.
Requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 104.The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the
- A.
Binary fission.
- B.
Growth curve.
- C.
Generation time.
- D.
Death phase.
- E.
Culture time.
- 105.The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the
- A.
Lag phase.
- B.
Log phase.
- C.
Stationary phase.
- D.
Death phase.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 106.The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of
- A.
Anabolism.
- B.
Catabolism.
- C.
Phosphorylation.
- D.
Fermentation.
- E.
Biosynthesis.
- 107.Enzymes are
- A.
Broken down in reactions that require energy input.
- B.
Proteins that function as catalysts.
- C.
Electron carrier molecules.
- D.
Not needed for catabolic reactions.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 108.Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called
- A.
Anabolism.
- B.
Phosphorylation.
- C.
Fermentation.
- D.
Exergonic.
- E.
Glycolysis.
- 109.Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperatures or other harsh conditions would be termed
- A.
Denatured.
- B.
Ribozymes.
- C.
Abzymes.
- D.
Exoenzymes.
- E.
Extremozymes.
- 110.In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate
- A.
ATP.
- B.
ADP.
- C.
Pyruvic acid.
- D.
Oxygen.
- E.
NAD.
- 111.During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is
- A.
Pyruvic acid.
- B.
Oxygen.
- C.
Nitrate.
- D.
Cytochrome c.
- E.
FAD.
- 112.In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the
- A.
Cell membrane.
- B.
Mitochondria.
- C.
Chloroplasts.
- D.
Ribosomes.
- E.
Cytoplasm.
- 113.In which pathway is the most NADH generated?
- A.
Electron transport system
- B.
TCA cycle
- C.
Glycolysis
- D.
Alcoholic fermentation
- E.
Mixed acid fermentation
- 114.During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
- A.
Electron transport
- B.
TCA cycle
- C.
Glycolysis
- D.
Processing of pyruvic acid for the TCA cycle
- E.
All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.
- 115.Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
- A.
Chromosomes.
- B.
Plasmids.
- C.
Mitochondrial DNA.
- D.
Chloroplast DNA.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 116.The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
- A.
Histones.
- B.
Amino acids.
- C.
Nucleotides.
- D.
MRNA.
- E.
Polymerases.
- 117.The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
- A.
Each base bonding at 1' position of the sugar.
- B.
A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.
- C.
One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.
- D.
An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 118.
- A.
Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar.
- B.
A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.
- C.
One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.
- D.
An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 119.The duplication of a cell's DNA is called
- A.
Mitosis.
- B.
Replication.
- C.
Transcription.
- D.
Translation.
- E.
Mutation.
- 120.An organism's genotype includes all the following except they
- A.
Are inherited.
- B.
Are structural genes coding for proteins.
- C.
Are genes coding for RNA.
- D.
Are regulatory genes controlling gene expression.
- E.
Are the expressed traits governed by the genes.
- 121.Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one
- A.
Protein.
- B.
Nucleotide.
- C.
Amino acid.
- D.
Purine.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 122.The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
- A.
Ribosomal RNA.
- B.
Messenger RNA.
- C.
Transfer RNA.
- D.
Primer RNA.
- E.
Ribozymes.
- 123.A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
- A.
Point mutation.
- B.
Silent mutation.
- C.
Back mutation.
- D.
Missense mutation.
- E.
Nonsense mutation.
- 124.Bacterial conjugation involves
- A.
Bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.
- B.
A donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus.
- C.
Naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell.
- D.
New progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 125.The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab is called
- A.
Genetic engineering.
- B.
Biotechnology.
- C.
Recombinant DNA.
- D.
Gel electrophoresis.
- E.
Gene probes.
- 126.The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called
- A.
Genetic engineering.
- B.
Biotechnology.
- C.
Recombinant DNA.
- D.
Gel electrophoresis.
- E.
Gene probes.
- 127.A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is
- A.
Genetic engineering.
- B.
Biotechnology.
- C.
Recombinant DNA.
- D.
Gel electrophoresis.
- E.
Gene probes.
- 128.EcoRI and HindIII are
- A.
Palindromes.
- B.
Reverse transcriptase.
- C.
Restriction endonucleases.
- D.
Ligases.
- E.
DNA polymerases.
- 129.Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are
- A.
Palindromes.
- B.
Reverse transcriptase.
- C.
Restriction endonucleases.
- D.
Ligases.
- E.
DNA polymerases.
- 130.Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
- A.
Larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells.
- B.
DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole.
- C.
DNA fragments are stained to see them.
- D.
An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 131.Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
- A.
Polymerase chain reaction.
- B.
DNA sequencing.
- C.
Gene probes.
- D.
Southern blot.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 132.Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
- A.
Used as cloning vectors.
- B.
Sources of heat stable DNA polymerases.
- C.
Genetically engineered bacteria.
- D.
Principal sources of restriction endonucleases.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 133.Transgenic animals
- A.
Can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins.
- B.
Are often obtained from germ line engineering.
- C.
Will pass the genes on to their offspring.
- D.
Commonly include mice.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 134.When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called
- A.
Cloning.
- B.
Gene therapy.
- C.
Antisense therapeutic.
- D.
DNA fingerprinting.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 135.This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:
- A.
Cloning
- B.
Gene therapy
- C.
Antisense therapeutic
- D.
DNA fingerprinting
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 136.Microbiological contaminants are best described as
- A.
Unwanted microbes present on or in a substance.
- B.
Any and all microbes present on or in a substance.
- C.
Pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance.
- D.
Vegetative microbes present on or in a substance.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 137.Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except
- A.
Ultraviolet radiation.
- B.
Boiling water.
- C.
HEPA filters.
- D.
Pasteurization.
- E.
Hydrogen peroxide.
- 138.The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is
- A.
Disinfection.
- B.
Sterilization.
- C.
Antisepsis.
- D.
Sanitization.
- E.
Degermation.
- 139.The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is
- A.
Disinfection.
- B.
Sterilization.
- C.
Antisepsis.
- D.
Sanitization.
- E.
Degermation.
- 140.Sterilization is achieved by
- A.
Flash pasteurization.
- B.
Hot water.
- C.
Boiling water.
- D.
Steam autoclave.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 141.The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the
- A.
Thermal death point (TDP).
- B.
Thermal death time (TDT).
- C.
Sporicidal time.
- D.
Death phase point.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 142.HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from
- A.
Air.
- B.
Liquids.
- C.
Human tissues.
- D.
Medical instruments.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 143.The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are
- A.
Naked viruses.
- B.
Vegetative bacteria and fungi.
- C.
Endospores.
- D.
Protozoan cysts.
- E.
Mycobacteria and staphylococci.
- 144.Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?
- A.
Escherichia coli
- B.
Pseudomonas
- C.
Hemophilus influenzae
- D.
Mycobacteria tuberculosis
- E.
Salmonella
- 145.
- A.
Food is not made radioactive by the process.
- B.
The World Health Organization does not endorse this process.
- C.
It is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken and pork.
- D.
It can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food.
- E.
No irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.
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