Trivia Quiz: What Do You Know About Unicellular Organisms?

79 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Trivia Quiz: What Do You Know About Unicellular Organisms?

What do you know about unicellular organisms? One fact you should know by now is that they are single-celled and either be prokaryotic organisms and eukaryotic organisms. Over the course of your studies, you have covered some of their basic characteristics and the different organisms that fall under this group. Test how much you know about them by taking this test!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The theory of endosymbiosis proposes the:      
    • A. 

      Origin of prokaryotic cells

    • B. 

      Origin of mitochondria

    • C. 

      Origin of fossils

    • D. 

      Origin of eukaryotic cells

  • 2. 
    Protozoa are always unicellular organisms whereas fungi and algae can be unicellular or multicellular.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    Eukaryotic cells evolved about 2 billion years before prokaryotic cells.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    In eukaryotic cells, what structure is embedded in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?  
    • A. 

      Vesicles

    • B. 

      Ribosomes

    • C. 

      Chromatin

    • D. 

      Golgi Apparatus

  • 5. 
    Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are composed of a '9+2' arrangement of microtubules encased in a membrane.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    In eukaryotic cells, the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis and a collection area for ribosomal subunits is the __________________.      
  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Fungi

    • B. 

      Algae and fungi

    • C. 

      Protzoa

    • D. 

      Algae

  • 8. 
    Yeasts are _______________fungi, and molds are ________________fungi.      
    • A. 

      Water, terrestrial

    • B. 

      Unicellular, filamentous

    • C. 

      Motile, nonmotile

    • D. 

      Macroscopic, nonmacroscopic

  • 9. 
    Yeasts cells reproduce by spore formation, whereas molds reproduce by budding. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    In general, fungi derive their nutrients by:
    • A. 

      Engulfing bacteria

    • B. 

      Photosynthesis

    • C. 

      Parasitism

    • D. 

      Digesting organic substrates

  • 11. 
    In eukaryotic cells, which of the following is true of the nuclear envelope?
    • A. 

      It has pores that allow communication with the cytoplasm

    • B. 

      It is the site of lipid synthesis in the cell

    • C. 

      It contains ribosomes

    • D. 

      It is a not a membraned structure

  • 12. 
    A hypha divided into compartments by cross walls is called:
    • A. 

      Nonseptate

    • B. 

      Septate

    • C. 

      Perfect

    • D. 

      Imperfect

  • 13. 
    A mass of hyphae that makes up the colony of mold is called a __________________ 
  • 14. 
    All algae contain some type of chlorophyll.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Locomotion

    • B. 

      Cyst formation

    • C. 

      Trophozoite form

    • D. 

      Spore formation

  • 16. 
    Mushrooms belong to which Phylum of Fungi?
    • A. 

      Ascomycota

    • B. 

      None of these

    • C. 

      Zygomycota

    • D. 

      Basidiomycota

  • 17. 
    Enterobius vermicularis is the organism that causes malaria.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    Human fungal infections involve and affect what areas of the body?      
    • A. 

      Skin

    • B. 

      Lungs

    • C. 

      Mucous membranes

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 19. 
    The number of cases of helminth infections worldwide is less than 10,000 per year since these are not common infections.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Viruses are not considered living things because:      
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      They lack metabolism

    • C. 

      They cannot reproduce by themselves

    • D. 

      They are not cells

  • 21. 
    A virus has either DNA or RNA, not both.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    The specific viral structure consisting of a 3-dimensional polyhedron which resembles a hollow sphere with the nucleic acid inside is called a(an)___________________ virus.
    • A. 

      Naked

    • B. 

      Icosahedral

    • C. 

      Enveloped

    • D. 

      Helical

  • 23. 
    Viruses are measured using what unit of measure?      
    • A. 

      Nanometers

    • B. 

      Milimeters

    • C. 

      Centimeters

    • D. 

      Micrometers

  • 24. 
    Viruses are capable of infecting:      
    • A. 

      Only animals

    • B. 

      Only plants

    • C. 

      Only bacteria

    • D. 

      All organisms

  • 25. 
    The identical protein subunits which make up the viral capsid are called spikes.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    The viral envelope of an animal virus is derived from the ____________________of  the host cell.      
    • A. 

      Cell wall

    • B. 

      Glyocalyx

    • C. 

      Spikes

    • D. 

      Cell membrane

  • 27. 
    The major steps in the interaction of an animal virus with its host cell are:      
    • A. 

      Adsorption, duplication, assembly, lysis

    • B. 

      Endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, exocytosis

    • C. 

      Endocytosis, replication, assembly, release

    • D. 

      Adsorption, penetration, synthesis, assembly, release

  • 28. 
    The major difference between a naked virus and an enveloped virus is that a naked virus does not contain nucleic acid and an enveloped virus contains nucleic acid.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    The most important function for viral spikes is:      
    • A. 

      Release of the virus from the host cell

    • B. 

      Attachment of the virus to a specific host cell

    • C. 

      Maturation of viral particles in the host cell

    • D. 

      Disruption of the host immune system so that the virus is not destroyed

  • 30. 
    Bacteriophages are:      
    • A. 

      Viruses that infect animal cells

    • B. 

      Bacteria that infect animal cells

    • C. 

      Viruses that infect bacteria

    • D. 

      Bacteria that infect viruses

  • 31. 
    The suffix '-viridae' indicates that it is a viral _________________.      
    • A. 

      Class

    • B. 

      Genus

    • C. 

      Family

    • D. 

      Species

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Cultures in broth or agar media

    • B. 

      Cell cultures

    • C. 

      Bird embryos

    • D. 

      Animal models

  • 33. 
    Prions are a group of highly infectious viruses.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    In general, RNA viruses multiply in the cell_________________, and DNA viruses multiply in the cell_________________.      
    • A. 

      Nucleus, nucleus

    • B. 

      Nucleus, cytoplasm

    • C. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus

    • D. 

      Cytoplasm, nucleus

  • 35. 
    Viruses that can persist in the cell and cause recurrent infections are considered:      
    • A. 

      Oncogenic

    • B. 

      Latent

    • C. 

      Cytopathic

    • D. 

      Resistant

  • 36. 
    Clear, well-defined patches in cell cultures that indicate sites of virus infection are called ____________________.      
  • 37. 
    A prophage is a/an _______________________stage in the cycle of ___________________________.      
    • A. 

      Latent, bacterial viruses

    • B. 

      Late, enveloped viruses

    • C. 

      Early, poxviruses

    • D. 

      Infective, RNA viruses

  • 38. 
    A _______________________is an inserted piece of viral DNA into the host bacterial cell chromosome. The source of the viral DNA is a bacteriophage.      
    • A. 

      Plaque

    • B. 

      Prophage

    • C. 

      Capsomere

    • D. 

      Spike

  • 39. 
    An oncovirus is capable of initiating_______________________.      
    • A. 

      A rash

    • B. 

      The flu

    • C. 

      Tumor development

    • D. 

      Plaque formation

  • 40. 
    The major source of energy for a photoautotroph is:      
    • A. 

      Simple inorganic chemicals

    • B. 

      Organic nutrients

    • C. 

      Sunlight

    • D. 

      Organic matter from dead organisms

  • 41. 
    A heterotroph is an organism that can make its own food.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    The main difference between organic and inorganic nutrients is that organic nutrients contain ______________________.      
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Nitrogen and carbon dioxide

    • C. 

      Carbon and hydrogen

    • D. 

      Oxygen and carbon dioxide

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Simple inorganic chemicals

    • B. 

      Organic nutrients

    • C. 

      Growth factors

    • D. 

      Oxygen gas

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      Simple diffusion

    • B. 

      Osmosis

    • C. 

      Endocytosis

    • D. 

      Facilitated diffusion

  • 45. 
    Osmosis involves the diffusion of ____________________into the cell.      
    • A. 

      Ions

    • B. 

      Sugar

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Nutrients

  • 46. 
    A hypotonic condition is one in which the external environment has a higher solute concentration than the cell's internal environment.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    In a hypertonic environment, ______________________________.      
    • A. 

      There is no net flow of water across the cell membrane and the cell volume remains the same

    • B. 

      Water flows into the cell and the cell swells

    • C. 

      Water flows out of the cell and the cell shrinks

    • D. 

      The cell is destroyed by lysis

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Group translocation

    • B. 

      Carrier-mediated active transport

    • C. 

      Phagocytosis

    • D. 

      Pinocytosis

  • 49. 
    A psychrophile is an organism that functions optimally in a temperature range of 20-40 degrees C.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    The atmospheric gases which most influence microbial growth are oxygen and carbon dioxide.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    All microorganisms require oxygen for growth.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 52. 
    Most organisms are sensitive to the pH of their environment and function best in a pH range of _________________.      
    • A. 

      PH 3-ph5

    • B. 

      PH 6-pH 12

    • C. 

      PH 10- 12

    • D. 

      PH 6-pH 8

  • 53. 
    The time it takes for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the ____________________.      
    • A. 

      Exponential growth rate

    • B. 

      Generation time

    • C. 

      Lag period

    • D. 

      Burst time

  • 54. 
    Binary fission is an asexual means of reproduction.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    The average generation time for bacteria under optimum conditions is:      
    • A. 

      30 to 60 min

    • B. 

      1-2 hours

    • C. 

      10-30 days

    • D. 

      10-15 minutes

  • 56. 
    In the bacterial growth curve, which phase is a period of maximum cell division?      
    • A. 

      Stationary growth phase

    • B. 

      Exponential growth (or log) phase

    • C. 

      Death phase

    • D. 

      Lag phase

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      Log phase, lag phase, stationary growth phase, death phase

    • B. 

      Stationary phase, lag phase, log phase, death phase

    • C. 

      Lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, death phase

    • D. 

      Stationary phase, log phase, lag phase, death phase

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Inducer molecules

    • B. 

      Quorum sensing

    • C. 

      Extracellular matrix

    • D. 

      Antibiosis

  • 59. 
    A saprobe is an organism that exists strictly on dead organic matter in the environment and is unable to adapt to the body of a live host.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 60. 
    Enzymes are a special class of __________________.      
    • A. 

      Carbohydrates

    • B. 

      Proteins

    • C. 

      Nucleic acids

    • D. 

      Lipids

  • 61. 
    Enzymes are very important for biochemical reactions because they:      
    • A. 

      Elevate the energy of activation

    • B. 

      Break down the product

    • C. 

      Lower the energy of activation

    • D. 

      Denature the substrates

  • 62. 
    Anabolism is a process whereby larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules with the release of energy.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    Enzymes are not very specific for the substrates they interact with. For example, a specific enzyme is capable of interacting with many different types of substrates.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Vitamins are very important_________________________.      
    • A. 

      Metal enzymes

    • B. 

      Apoenzymes

    • C. 

      Holoenzymes

    • D. 

      Coenzymes

  • 65. 
    _________________________is another word for biosynthesis.      
    • A. 

      Catabolism

    • B. 

      Anabolism

    • C. 

      Metabolism

    • D. 

      Catalysis

  • 66. 
    An enzyme
    • A. 

      Becomes part of the final products

    • B. 

      Is nonspecific for the substrate

    • C. 

      Is consumed by the reaction

    • D. 

      Is heat and pH labile

  • 67. 
    To digest cellulose in its environment, a fungus produces a/an______________________________.      
    • A. 

      Endoenzyme

    • B. 

      Exoenzyme

    • C. 

      Polymerase

    • D. 

      Fungicide

  • 68. 
    Energy in biological systems is primarily:      
    • A. 

      Mechanical

    • B. 

      Chemical

    • C. 

      Electrical

    • D. 

      Radiant

  • 69. 
    Energy is carried from catabolic to anabolic reactions in the form of _____________________.      
    • A. 

      ADP

    • B. 

      Coenzymes

    • C. 

      Inorganic phosphate

    • D. 

      High-energy ATPbonds

  • 70. 
    Regulated enzymes, by definition, are enzymes that are always present in the cell in relatively constant amounts regardless of the amount of substrate present.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 71. 
    In terms of the amount of energy produced, the most efficient pathway for the breakdown of glucose is__________________________.      
    • A. 

      Anaerobic respiration

    • B. 

      Alcoholic fermentation

    • C. 

      Acidic fermentation

    • D. 

      Aerobic respiration

  • 72. 
    In the process of glycolysis, glucose is converted to _____________________.      
    • A. 

      Pyruvic acid

    • B. 

      Acetyl CoA

    • C. 

      NADH

    • D. 

      Starch

  • 73. 
    In the process of fermentation, the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain are not involved.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    In anaerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is oxygen.      
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 75. 
    The fermentation of 1 glucose molecule has the potential to produce a net number of __________ATPs.      
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      36

  • 76. 
    In the process of photosynthesis, the ______________________molecule harvests the energy of photons and converts it to chemical energy.      
    • A. 

      Chloroplasts

    • B. 

      Chlorophyll

    • C. 

      Thylakoid

    • D. 

      Carbon dioxide

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      It does not require light

    • B. 

      ATP is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds

    • C. 

      It requires light

    • D. 

      The end product can be glucose

  • 78. 
    The oxygen produced in photosynthesis comes from:      
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • C. 

      Nitrate

    • D. 

      Glucose

  • 79. 
    In the process of photosynthesis, the  ATP synthase enzyme located in the thylakoid membrane converts___________________________.      
    • A. 

      ATP to ADP

    • B. 

      AMP to ADP

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide to glucose

    • D. 

      ADP to ATP