LOM CHAPTER 7-SxS CHAPTER 20-ESSENTIALS CHAPTER 12
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Review week one mod 3.
- 1.Portion of the urinary bladder:
- A.
Pylorus
- B.
Hilum
- C.
Trigone
- D.
Medulla
- E.
Fundus
- 2.Glomerular:
- A.
Pertaining to a tube in the bladder
- B.
Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney
- C.
Pertaining to a collecting chamber in the kidney
- D.
Pertaining to a tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
- E.
Pertaining to the urinary bladder
- 3.Meatal stenosis:
- A.
Enalrgement of an opening
- B.
Incision of an opening
- C.
Stoppage of blood flow to the kidney
- D.
Narrowing of the urethral opening to the outside of the body
- E.
Widening of the bladder orifice
- 4.Electrolyte:
- A.
Sodium
- B.
Albumin
- C.
Bilirubin
- D.
Creatinine
- E.
Glucose
- 5.Nitrogenous waste:
- A.
Creatinine
- B.
Lipid
- C.
Fatty acid
- D.
Sugar
- E.
Carbon dioxide
- 6.Renal pelvis:
- A.
Nephr/o
- B.
Cyst/o
- C.
Pyel/o
- D.
Ren/o
- E.
Py/o
- 7.A term that means no urine production is:
- A.
Diuresis
- B.
Anuria
- C.
Nocturia
- D.
Voiding
- E.
Micturition
- 8.Surrounding the urinary bladder:
- A.
Perinephric
- B.
Perivisceral
- C.
Perivesical
- D.
Infrarenal
- E.
Suprarenal
- 9.Uremia:
- A.
Dysuria
- B.
Azotemia
- C.
Hemorrhage
- D.
Dysuria
- E.
Cystitis
- 10.X-ray of the urinary tract:
- A.
BUN
- B.
Cystoscopy
- C.
Renal ultrasonography
- D.
KUB
- E.
Renal dialysis
- 11.Oliguria:
- A.
Scanty urination
- B.
Pus in the urine
- C.
Nocturia
- D.
Bacteriuria
- E.
Polyuria
- 12.Diabetes insipidus is characterized by all of the following except:
- A.
Glycosuria
- B.
Polydipsia
- C.
Insufficient ADH
- D.
Pituitary gland malfunction
- E.
Ployuria
- 13.Hernia of the tube connecting the kidney and urinary bladder:
- A.
Urethroileostomy
- B.
Herniorrhaphy
- C.
Ureterocele
- D.
Urethrostomy
- E.
Urethrocele
- 14.Artificial kidney machine:
- A.
CAPD
- B.
Hemodialysis
- C.
Renal biopsy
- D.
Renal transplantation
- E.
Lithotripsy
- 15.Nephrolithotomy:
- A.
Removal of the urinary bladder and kidney stones
- B.
Hardening of a stone
- C.
Removal of the kidney and stones
- D.
Incision to remove a renal calculus
- E.
Bladder calculi
- 16.Protein in the urine:
- A.
Albuminuria
- B.
Acetonuria
- C.
Ketonuria
- D.
Hyperbilirubinemia
- E.
Bilirubinuria
- 17.Renal abscess may lead to:
- A.
Nephroptosis
- B.
Ascites
- C.
Pyuria
- D.
Diabetes insipidus
- E.
Diabetes mellitus
- 18.Alkaline:
- A.
PH
- B.
Acetone
- C.
Water
- D.
Acidic
- E.
Basic
- 19.A group of symptoms marked by edema, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminemia:
- A.
Renal ischemia
- B.
Essential hypertension
- C.
Polycystic kidney
- D.
Nephrotic syndrome
- E.
Diabetes mellitus
- 20.High levels of ketones in the blood can lead to:
- A.
Excessive elimination of fats
- B.
Acidosis
- C.
High pH of urine
- D.
Low specific gravity
- E.
Diabetes insipidus
- 21.Childhood renal carcinoma:
- A.
Hypernephroma
- B.
Polycystic kidney
- C.
Glomerulonephritis
- D.
Wilms tumor
- E.
Phenylketonuria
- 22.Urine is held in the bladder:
- A.
Pyuria
- B.
Urinary retention
- C.
Polyuria
- D.
Urinary incontinence
- E.
Nocturia
- 23.Test that measures the amount of urea in the blood:
- A.
RP
- B.
CT scan
- C.
Creatinine clearance test
- D.
VCU
- E.
BUN
- 24.Nephrosclerosis:
- A.
A test of kidney function
- B.
Loss of protein in the urine
- C.
Prolapse of the kidney
- D.
Hardening of blood vessels in the kidney
- E.
Excess fluid in the kidney
- 25.Lithotripsy:
- A.
Shock waves crush urinary tract stones
- B.
Panendoscopy
- C.
Renal transplant
- D.
Foley catheterization
- E.
Radioscopic study
- 26.Swelling;fluid in tissues:
- A.
Edema
- B.
Edemia
- C.
Ademia
- 27.Visual examination of the bladder:
- A.
Cystascopy
- B.
Sistoscopy
- C.
Cystoscopy
- 28.Hardening of vessels in the kidney:
- A.
Neferosclerosis
- B.
Nephrosclerosis
- C.
Nephroscherosis
- 29.Protein in the urine:
- A.
Albuminuria
- B.
Albuminurea
- C.
Albumenuria
- 30.Stone:
- A.
Calculis
- B.
Calculus
- C.
Calkulus
- 31.Excessive thirst:
- A.
Polydipsia
- B.
Polidipsia
- C.
Polydypsia
- 32.Collecting area in the kidney:
- A.
Kalyx
- B.
Calics
- C.
Calyx
- 33.Inability to hold urine in bladder:
- A.
Incontinence
- B.
Incontinance
- C.
Incontenence
- 34.Chemical that carries an electrical charge
- A.
Electrolite
- B.
Electricolyte
- C.
Electrolyte
- 35.Hormone secreted by the kidney to increase red blood cells:
- A.
Erythropoietin
- B.
Erithropoeitin
- C.
Erythropoeitin
- 36.Disease of the kidney: nephro____________
- 37.Incision to remove a stone from the renal pelvis: ____________lithotomy
- 38.Protein in the urine: ____________________uria
- 39.Visual examination of the urinary bladder: _________________scopy
- 40.Sugar in the urine: _____________uria
- 41.Vesic/o
- 42.Lith/o
- 43.Ren/o
- 44.Py/o
- 45.-tripsy
- 46.-poietin
- 47.-sclerosis
- 48.Peri-
- 49.Poly-
- 50.Dys-
- 51.Dia-
- 52.En-
- 53.New opening
- 54.Incision
- 55.Disease condition
- 56.Removal
- 57.Blood condition
- 58.Thirst
- 59.Night
- 60.Blood vessel
- 61.Colpotomy is an incision into the vagina
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 62.A radical vulvectomy is the removal of greater than 80% of the vulvar area
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 63.Diagnostic amniocentesis includes radiologic supervision and interpretaion
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 64.Reporting code 59300 is acceptable when reporting 59400
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 65.The code for a curettage performed after delivery is 58120
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 66.The code for destruction of a vaginal lesion is 17000
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 67.Surgical laparoscopy always includes:
- A.
Paracervical block
- B.
Diagnostic laparoscopy
- C.
Biopsy
- D.
All of the above
- 68.For medical complications of pregnancy the physician would report his additional professional services using codes from what section or subsection
- A.
Female genital system
- B.
Maternity care and delivery
- C.
E/M
- D.
Medicine
- 69.When coding a total abdominal hysterectomy with an anterior/posterior colphorrhaphy the correct modifier to add to the second procedure would be
- A.
-26
- B.
-50
- C.
-51
- D.
-79
- 70.Antepartum care includes
- A.
Initial and subsequent history, recording of weight, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine Hgb
- B.
Initial and subsequent history recording of weight, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine UA
- C.
Initial and subsequent history, physical exams, recording of weight, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine Hgb
- D.
Initial and subsequent history, physical exams, recording of wieght, blood pressures, fetal heart tones, and routine UA
- 71.The anatomy in the female genital system subsection starts with the vulva and progresses upward to the
- A.
Fallopian tube
- B.
Ovary
- C.
Uterus
- D.
Perineum
- 72.Incision and drainage of these glands are not reported using female genital system codes, but are instead reported using surgery section, urinary system codes:
- A.
Skene's
- B.
Bartholin's
- C.
Weber's
- D.
Virchow's
- 73.According to the text, vulvectomy codes are divided based on the ______ and extent of vulvar area removed during the procedure.
- A.
Status (malignant or premalignant lesions)
- B.
Recurrence
- C.
Complexity
- D.
Size
- 74.The term describes an insision of the vagina to gain access to the peritoneal cul-de-sac to esplore or to drain an abscess:
- A.
Colpocentesis
- B.
Perineoplasty
- C.
Colpocleisis
- D.
Oophorectomy
- 75.Loop electrode excision procedures are also referred to as
- A.
LEEP
- B.
LETZ
- C.
Cervical loop diathermy
- D.
All of the above
- 76.Hysterectomy codes are first divided in the cpt manual based on the _______ and then on any secondary procedure(s) that were done
- A.
Approach
- B.
Severity
- C.
Patient age
- D.
Duration
- 77.In which of the following categories would you locate a code for the removal of an IUD
- A.
Removal
- B.
Introduction
- C.
Excision
- D.
Manipulation
- 78.Lysis of adhesions is performed on either the fallopian tubes or the
- A.
Vagina
- B.
Vulva
- C.
Uterus
- D.
Ovaries
- 79.You would expect to code a service for an amniocentesis using a code from the female genital system subsection and a code from the ____________ section
- A.
Medicine
- B.
Anesthesia
- C.
Radiology
- D.
E/M
- 80.The code 59400 doesnt include
- A.
A cerclage
- B.
The delivery
- C.
Postpartum care
- D.
Antepartum care
- 81.If a patient has had a previous cesarean delivery and the has a vaginal delivery, the correct code would be
- A.
59618
- B.
59400
- C.
59410
- D.
59610
- 82.A fetal non-stress test is completed on a 36-week pregnancy. the correct code would be
- A.
59050
- B.
59012
- C.
59025
- D.
59020
- 83.Biopsy of the vaginal mucosa code is
- A.
56605
- B.
58900
- C.
57100
- D.
57110
- 84.Aftificial insemination performed via intrauterine is reported using
- A.
58321
- B.
58322
- C.
58323
- D.
58350
- 85.What surgery subheading has only two codes
- A.
Urinary system
- B.
Intersex sugery
- C.
Laparoscopy
- D.
Delivery
- 86.The most commonly diagnosed std in the united states is
- A.
Gonorrhea
- B.
Genital herpes
- C.
Human papillomavirus virus (HPV)
- D.
Chancroid
- 87.HPV is commonly associated with
- A.
Genital herpes
- B.
Genital warts and many different types of cancer
- C.
Trichomoniasis
- D.
Syphilis
- 88.The STD sometimes referred to as the silent STD, which is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID, is
- A.
Genital herpes
- B.
Trichomoniasis
- C.
Syphilis
- D.
Chlamydia
- 89.Failure to seek treatment for a gonorrhea infection can result in complications including
- A.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
- B.
Septicemia
- C.
Septic arthritis
- D.
All of the above
- 90.The treatment of genital herpes is directed at
- A.
Curing the disease
- B.
Preventing transmission at all times
- C.
Reducing the duration and frequency of outbreaks
- D.
All of the above
- 91.Which of the following statements is true about syphilis
- A.
The cause and mode of transmission is unclear
- B.
Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy
- C.
No known cure of the disease exists
- D.
When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured
- 92.Invasive cervical cancer
- A.
Is often considered a preventable disease
- B.
Has no identifiable risk factors
- C.
Is most commonly diagnosed before the age of 35
- D.
Is none of the above
- 93.The pathologic outcomes of endometriosis includes
- A.
Functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity
- B.
changes that result from menopause
- C.
Fluid-filled sacs that form on or near ovaries
- D.
All of the above
- 94.The diagnosis of PID may include
- A.
A grams stain and sensitivity studies
- B.
A laparoscopy
- C.
Ultrasonography
- D.
All of the above
- 95.The cause of toxic shock syndrome is thought to be
- A.
Unprotected sexual intercourse
- B.
Staphylococcal toxin found in superabsorbent tampon fibers
- C.
Estrogen replacement therapy
- D.
All of the above
- 96.Early diagnosis and prompt treatment of PID helps prevent complications including
- A.
Pelvic adhesions
- B.
Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
- C.
Peritonitis and septicemia
- D.
All of the above
- 97.The symptoms and signs of toxemia in pregnancy, preeclampsia, and eclampsia include
- A.
Hypertension, edema, protein in the urine, and convulsions
- B.
Symptoms that mimic pregnancy
- C.
Hypotension and other indications of shock
- D.
None of the above
- 98.In pregnancy, when the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment and encroaches on the internal cervical os causing vaginal bleeding, the condition is called
- A.
Placenta previa
- B.
Abruptio placentae
- C.
Ectopic pregnancy
- D.
Hyperemesis gravidarum
- 99.Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) causes
- A.
Acute onset of fever, malaise, and pain
- B.
A weak stream of urine with inability to empty the bladder
- C.
Swelling and tenderness of one or both tests.
- D.
All of the above
- 100.Diagnostic evaluation for prostatic cancer includes
- A.
A rectal examination
- B.
Blood testing for prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- C.
A biopsy to confirm the diagnosis
- D.
All of the above
- 101.Hormone replacement therapy for postmenopausal women
- A.
Is highly individualized
- B.
Is risk free
- C.
Has no containdications
- D.
None of the above
- 102.The leading cause of deaths attributed to the female reproductive system is
- A.
Uterine cancer
- B.
PID
- C.
Ovarian cancer
- D.
Breast cancer
- 103.The first sign of testicular cancer is
- A.
Sexual dysfunction
- B.
A painful lump discovered in the testicle
- C.
Urinary incontinence
- D.
A painless lump discovered in the testicle
- 104.Risk factors that place women at a higher risk for cancer of the breast include
- A.
Family history, being over age 50, and a history of exposure to radiation or carcinogens
- B.
Never having been pregnant or a first pregnancy after age 35
- C.
An early menarche or menopause occurring after age 50
- D.
All of the above
- 105.Endometrial cancer is
- A.
May be detected on a routine pap smear
- B.
Primarily a disease of postmenopausal women
- C.
Is often due to high cumulative exposure to estrogen
- D.
All of the above
- 106.Either men or women can experience dyspareunia, but it is more common in women.
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 107.Alcohol, recreational drugs, antihistamines, diuretics, and drugs used to treat hypertension can cause impotence
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 108.There are various possible causes of male or female infertility, including the presence of an STD
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 109.The absence of menstrual periods, whether temporary or permanent, is called dysmenorrhea
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 110.The best prevention of epididymitis is the early treatment of urinary tract infections
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 111.Testicular cancer is most common in men over age 60
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 112.Hyperemesis gravidarum is usually self-limiting and transient
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 113.A sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding requires prompt medical attention
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 114.Altough the cause is not always clearly understood, the best prevention of premature labor is good prenatal care.
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 115.The patient with hydatidiform mole experiences symptoms that mimic pregnancy
- A.
T
- B.
F
- 116.Fibroadenoma is a nontender malignant tumor of the breast
- A.
T
- B.
F
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