Into To Criminal Justice Final

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Into To Criminal Justice Final - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    According to a study by researchers at eight universities, which of the following types of new stories dominates local television news shows?

    • A.

      Crime and criminal justice

    • B.

      Government and politics

    • C.

      Natural disasters

    • D.

      Sports

    Correct Answer
    A. Crime and criminal justice
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Crime and criminal justice. This is based on a study conducted by researchers at eight universities, which found that local television news shows tend to focus more on crime and criminal justice stories compared to other types of news such as government and politics, natural disasters, and sports. This suggests that these types of stories are more prevalent and receive more coverage in local news broadcasts.

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  • 2. 

    Like the family, schools, organized religion, the media and the law, criminal justice is a(n):

    • A.

      Institution of social control

    • B.

      Private response to crime

    • C.

      Informal method of social control

    • D.

      Subtle social control

    Correct Answer
    A. Institution of social control
    Explanation
    Criminal justice is considered an institution of social control because it plays a crucial role in maintaining order and regulating behavior within a society. It is responsible for enforcing laws, punishing offenders, and ensuring that justice is served. By establishing rules and consequences, criminal justice helps to deter crime and protect the safety and well-being of the community. It operates within a formal structure and is backed by the authority of the state, making it an institution that exercises control over individuals who violate societal norms.

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  • 3. 

    The term jurisdiction, as used in your text, means:

    • A.

      The specific location in which a court is located

    • B.

      The loose confederation of prisons and jails around the country

    • C.

      A politically defined geographical area

    • D.

      The system of rank and hierarchy within police agencies

    Correct Answer
    C. A politically defined geographical area
    Explanation
    The term jurisdiction, as used in the text, refers to a politically defined geographical area. This means that it is a specific region or territory over which a governing body or authority has legal authority and control. In the context of the question, it is important to understand that jurisdiction is not limited to just courts, but can also apply to other areas of governance and law enforcement.

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  • 4. 

    After an arrest has been made, the suspect is brought to the police station to be:

    • A.

      Incarcerated

    • B.

      Booked

    • C.

      Interrogated

    • D.

      Tried

    Correct Answer
    B. Booked
    Explanation
    After an arrest has been made, the suspect is brought to the police station to be booked. Booking is the process where the suspect's personal information is recorded, including their name, address, and fingerprints. They may also have their photograph taken, be searched, and have their personal belongings confiscated. This information is crucial for establishing an official record of the arrest and the suspect's identity. It is an important step before the suspect can be further processed, such as being detained or released on bail, and before any formal charges or interrogation can take place.

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  • 5. 

    A(n) ____ outlines the formal charge or charges, the law or laws that have been violated and the evidence to support the charge or charges.

    • A.

      Information

    • B.

      Grand jury indictment

    • C.

      Complaint

    • D.

      Ordinance violation

    Correct Answer
    A. Information
    Explanation
    An information is a document that outlines the formal charge or charges, the law or laws that have been violated, and the evidence to support the charge or charges. It is typically filed by a prosecutor and is used to initiate criminal proceedings against a defendant. Unlike a grand jury indictment, which is obtained through a grand jury proceeding, an information is filed directly by the prosecutor without the need for a grand jury. It is a formal accusation that informs the defendant of the charges against them and allows them to prepare their defense.

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  • 6. 

    The primary purpose of the ____ is to hear the formal information or indictment and to allow the defendant to enter a plea.

    • A.

      Preliminary hearing

    • B.

      Indictment

    • C.

      Arraignment

    • D.

      Initial appearance

    Correct Answer
    C. Arraignment
    Explanation
    The arraignment is the court proceeding where the defendant is formally informed of the charges against them and given the opportunity to enter a plea. This is an important step in the legal process as it ensures that the defendant understands the charges and can respond accordingly. The arraignment is usually the first time the defendant appears before a judge after being arrested, and it sets the stage for the rest of the criminal proceedings.

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  • 7. 

    Cases that are not resolved through plea bargaining or by a jury trial are decided by a judge in a:

    • A.

      Grand jury

    • B.

      Indictment

    • C.

      Bench trial

    • D.

      Arraignment

    Correct Answer
    C. Bench trial
    Explanation
    In cases that are not resolved through plea bargaining or by a jury trial, they are decided by a judge in a bench trial. A bench trial is a legal proceeding where the judge acts as both the fact-finder and the decision-maker. The judge listens to the evidence presented by both sides, evaluates the arguments, and makes a ruling based on the law. Unlike a jury trial, there is no jury present in a bench trial, and the judge's decision is final.

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  • 8. 

    The ultimate goal of the crime control model is:

    • A.

      Due process

    • B.

      The means by which crime is controlled

    • C.

      Control

    • D.

      Human rights

    Correct Answer
    C. Control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Control". The ultimate goal of the crime control model is to control crime. This model focuses on the efficient and swift apprehension and punishment of criminals in order to deter future criminal behavior. It prioritizes public safety and the protection of society over individual rights and due process. The crime control model advocates for aggressive law enforcement tactics, strict sentencing, and limited procedural safeguards in order to effectively control and reduce crime rates.

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  • 9. 

    If defendants are not satisfied with the outcome of their trials, then they have the right to:

    • A.

      Declare a mistrial

    • B.

      Appeal

    • C.

      Demand a retrial

    • D.

      Request new counsel

    Correct Answer
    B. Appeal
    Explanation
    Defendants have the right to appeal if they are not satisfied with the outcome of their trials. This means they can request a higher court to review the decision made by the lower court. By appealing, defendants can argue that errors were made during the trial that may have affected the outcome. It is a way for them to seek a different judgment or have the case reconsidered.

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  • 10. 

    ____ is the conditional release of prisoners before they have served their full sentences.

    • A.

      Parole

    • B.

      Booking

    • C.

      Bail

    • D.

      Probation

    Correct Answer
    A. Parole
    Explanation
    Parole is the conditional release of prisoners before they have served their full sentences. It allows inmates to serve the remainder of their sentences in the community under supervision, rather than in prison. This can be granted based on factors such as good behavior, rehabilitation progress, and the likelihood of successful reintegration into society. Parole aims to provide individuals with an opportunity to transition back into society while still under supervision and support.

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  • 11. 

    One problem with finding an appropriate definition of crime is that:

    • A.

      Too many behaviors exist that could be defined as crimes

    • B.

      Crime should be defined only by the presence of physical injury to another person

    • C.

      Many dangerous and harmful behaviors are not defined as crimes, while many less dangerous and less harmful behaviors are

    • D.

      Most behaviors that are defined as criminal are actually "victimless crimes."

    Correct Answer
    C. Many dangerous and harmful behaviors are not defined as crimes, while many less dangerous and less harmful behaviors are
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the problem with finding an appropriate definition of crime is that many dangerous and harmful behaviors are not defined as crimes, while many less dangerous and less harmful behaviors are. This implies that the current definition of crime does not accurately reflect the level of harm or danger associated with certain behaviors, leading to inconsistencies and potential injustice in the legal system.

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  • 12. 

    If a person does not want to commit a crime but is forced to do so against his or her will, he or she committed the crime:

    • A.

      Under duress

    • B.

      In entrapment

    • C.

      In self-defense

    • D.

      In defense of a third party

    Correct Answer
    A. Under duress
    Explanation
    If a person does not want to commit a crime but is forced to do so against their will, they would be considered to have committed the crime under duress. This means that their actions were a result of being coerced or threatened, leaving them with no other choice but to engage in the criminal act. It is important to note that the person's intention to not commit the crime is taken into consideration, as they are acting under extreme pressure or fear.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following tests for insanity currently is used in most of the United States?

    • A.

      The M'Naghten rule

    • B.

      The irresistible impulse or control test

    • C.

      Durham's rule

    • D.

      The substantial capacity test of the American Law Institute's Model Penal Code

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The M'Naghten rule
    B. The irresistible impulse or control test
    Explanation
    The M'Naghten rule and the irresistible impulse or control test are both tests used to determine insanity in most of the United States. The M'Naghten rule focuses on whether the defendant knew the nature and quality of their actions or if they knew it was wrong. The irresistible impulse or control test examines whether the defendant was unable to control their actions due to a mental disorder. Both tests are commonly used to assess a defendant's mental state at the time of the crime.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following legal defenses was used successfully by Amy Carter, daughter of former President Jimmy Carter, Jerry Rubin and other activists who were charged with trespassing for protesting apartheid on the property of the South African embassy in Washington, D.C.?

    • A.

      Necessity

    • B.

      Entrapment

    • C.

      Insanity

    • D.

      Under age

    Correct Answer
    A. Necessity
    Explanation
    The legal defense of necessity was used successfully by Amy Carter, Jerry Rubin, and other activists who were charged with trespassing for protesting apartheid on the property of the South African embassy in Washington, D.C. The defense of necessity argues that the defendants had no other choice but to commit the illegal act in order to prevent a greater harm or danger. In this case, the activists believed that their actions were necessary to bring attention to and oppose the injustice of apartheid.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following offenses accounted for the largest number of arrests made by the police in 2005?

    • A.

      Driving under the influence

    • B.

      Larceny theft

    • C.

      Drug abuse violations

    • D.

      Simple assault

    Correct Answer
    C. Drug abuse violations
    Explanation
    In 2005, the offense that accounted for the largest number of arrests made by the police was drug abuse violations. This suggests that drug-related crimes were prevalent during that time and law enforcement agencies prioritized cracking down on these offenses.

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  • 16. 

    A study by the National Institute of Justice (NIJ) determined which crimes have the highest annual victim costs. Three of the following crimes have the highest annual victim costs. Which one does NOT belong?

    • A.

      Assault

    • B.

      Rape

    • C.

      Murder

    • D.

      Arson

    Correct Answer
    D. Arson
    Explanation
    Arson does not belong on the list because it is not a crime that typically involves direct harm to individuals. While it can cause significant property damage and financial loss, it does not directly result in physical harm or injury to victims. In contrast, assault, rape, and murder all involve direct harm to individuals and can have severe physical and psychological consequences for the victims.

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  • 17. 

    Survey results discussed in your text suggest that there is a greater fear of being ____ than there is of being ____.

    • A.

      The victim of a property crime; the victim of a violent crime

    • B.

      The victim of burglaries when one is not home; the victim of sexual assault

    • C.

      A crime victim in general; the victim of a specific crime

    • D.

      The victim of sexual assault; a crime victim in general

    Correct Answer
    B. The victim of burglaries when one is not home; the victim of sexual assault
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the victim of burglaries when one is not home; the victim of sexual assault. The survey results discussed in the text suggest that people have a greater fear of being the victim of burglaries when they are not at home compared to being the victim of sexual assault. This implies that individuals are more concerned about the security of their property and personal belongings than their personal safety from sexual assault.

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  • 18. 

    A crime is a violation of the ____ of a political jurisdiction.

    • A.

      Tort

    • B.

      Civil law

    • C.

      Penal code

    • D.

      Morals

    Correct Answer
    C. Penal code
    Explanation
    A crime is a violation of the penal code of a political jurisdiction. The penal code consists of laws and regulations that define and prohibit certain behaviors that are considered crimes. These laws outline the specific acts that are illegal and the corresponding penalties for committing them. Therefore, when someone commits a crime, they are breaking the laws and regulations set forth in the penal code of the jurisdiction they are in.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following refers to the scope of criminal law?

    • A.

      Specificity

    • B.

      Uniformity

    • C.

      Politicality

    • D.

      Regularity

    Correct Answer
    A. Specificity
    Explanation
    Specificity refers to the level of detail and precision in criminal law. It means that the law should clearly define and describe the prohibited conduct and the corresponding penalties. A specific law leaves little room for interpretation and ensures that individuals are aware of what actions are considered criminal. This helps to ensure fairness and consistency in the application of the law.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following refers to the way in which the criminal law should be enforced?

    • A.

      Specificity

    • B.

      Uniformity

    • C.

      Politicality

    • D.

      Regularity

    Correct Answer
    B. Uniformity
    Explanation
    Uniformity refers to the way in which the criminal law should be enforced. This means that the application and enforcement of the law should be consistent and standardized across different jurisdictions and cases. It ensures that individuals are treated fairly and equally under the law, regardless of their background or circumstances. Uniformity helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the criminal justice system by promoting consistency and predictability in the enforcement of laws.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following penal sanctions is used primarily to prevent undesired conduct and to provide retribution?

    • A.

      Punishment

    • B.

      Restitution

    • C.

      Regulation

    • D.

      Treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Punishment
    Explanation
    Punishment is the correct answer because it is primarily used to prevent undesired conduct and to provide retribution. Punishment serves as a deterrent, discouraging individuals from engaging in harmful or illegal behavior. It also serves as a form of retribution, seeking to balance the scales of justice by imposing a penalty or consequence for the wrongdoing committed. Restitution, regulation, and treatment may have different purposes or goals, but they are not primarily focused on preventing undesired conduct and providing retribution.

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  • 22. 

    In case law, the decision becomes a potential basis or ____, for deciding the outcomes of similar cases in the future.

    • A.

      Stare decisis

    • B.

      Precedent

    • C.

      Ordinance

    • D.

      Common law

    Correct Answer
    B. Precedent
    Explanation
    Precedent refers to a legal decision that serves as a guide or reference for future cases with similar circumstances. When a court establishes a precedent, it becomes a potential basis for deciding the outcomes of similar cases in the future. This means that judges in subsequent cases can look to the precedent to help determine how to rule. Precedents help maintain consistency and predictability in the legal system, as they ensure that similar cases are treated similarly. They also provide guidance for judges and lawyers when interpreting and applying the law.

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  • 23. 

    The ____ protects Americans from "unreasonable searches and seizures."

    • A.

      Eighth Amendment

    • B.

      Fifth Amendment

    • C.

      Sixth Amendment

    • D.

      Fourth Amendment

    Correct Answer
    D. Fourth Amendment
    Explanation
    The Fourth Amendment protects Americans from "unreasonable searches and seizures." This means that law enforcement cannot search a person's property or seize their belongings without a valid reason or a search warrant. The Fourth Amendment ensures that individuals have the right to privacy and protects them from arbitrary government intrusion. It is an essential component of the constitutional rights and freedoms granted to American citizens.

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  • 24. 

    The ____ states that excessive bail shall not be required.

    • A.

      Eighth Amendment

    • B.

      Fifth Amendment

    • C.

      Sixth Amendment

    • D.

      Fourth Amendment

    Correct Answer
    A. Eighth Amendment
    Explanation
    The Eighth Amendment states that excessive bail shall not be required. This amendment is a part of the United States Constitution and is aimed at protecting individuals from being subjected to unreasonable or excessive bail amounts. It ensures that bail is set at a fair and reasonable level, preventing individuals from being unfairly burdened or denied their right to pretrial release.

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  • 25. 

    A ____ is a written order from a court directing law enforcement officers to conduct a search or to arrest a person.

    • A.

      Subpoena

    • B.

      Warrant

    • C.

      Writ

    • D.

      Seizure

    Correct Answer
    B. Warrant
    Explanation
    A warrant is a written order from a court directing law enforcement officers to conduct a search or to arrest a person. It is a legal document that authorizes law enforcement to take specific actions, such as searching a property or apprehending an individual, based on probable cause. Warrants are issued by a judge or magistrate and are necessary to ensure that law enforcement acts within the boundaries of the law and respects individuals' constitutional rights.

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  • 26. 

    In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court broaden the protection against compelled self-incrimination to cover nearly all custodial police interrogations?

    • A.

      Miranda v. Arizona

    • B.

      Escobedo v. Illinois

    • C.

      Brown v. Mississippi

    • D.

      Arizona v. Fulminante

    Correct Answer
    A. Miranda v. Arizona
    Explanation
    Miranda v. Arizona is the correct answer because in this case, the Supreme Court expanded the protection against compelled self-incrimination to include nearly all custodial police interrogations. The Court ruled that suspects must be informed of their rights, including the right to remain silent and the right to have an attorney present during questioning. This landmark decision established the famous Miranda warnings that are now required to be given to individuals in police custody.

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  • 27. 

    In jury trials, when does jeopardy attach?

    • A.

      When the first witness has been sworn in

    • B.

      When the verdict is read

    • C.

      When the judge passes sentence upon the convicted person

    • D.

      When the entire jury has been selected and sworn in

    Correct Answer
    D. When the entire jury has been selected and sworn in
    Explanation
    Jeopardy attaches in jury trials when the entire jury has been selected and sworn in. This means that once the jury selection process is complete and all members of the jury have taken an oath to fulfill their duties, jeopardy attaches. It signifies that the defendant is now at risk of being convicted and sentenced based on the outcome of the trial.

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  • 28. 

    The right to counsel may be waived, but only if the waiver is made:

    • A.

      By the defendant's attorney

    • B.

      Knowingly, intelligently and voluntarily

    • C.

      By the defendant and at least two witnesses known to the defendant

    • D.

      Within 14 days after charges are filed

    Correct Answer
    B. Knowingly, intelligently and voluntarily
    Explanation
    The right to counsel can be waived, but it must be done knowingly, intelligently, and voluntarily. This means that the defendant must fully understand the implications of waiving their right to counsel and make the decision without any coercion or pressure. It is important to ensure that the defendant is fully aware of their rights and the potential consequences of waiving their right to counsel before allowing them to do so.

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  • 29. 

    _____ is a formal means of social control that involves the use of rules that are interpreted and are enforceable, by the courts of a political community. The function of the rules is to set limits to the conduct of the citizens, to guide the officials (police and other administrators) and to define conditions of deviance or unacceptable behavior.

    • A.

      Substantive law

    • B.

      Procedural law

    • C.

      Civil law

    • D.

      Criminal law

    Correct Answer
    D. Criminal law
    Explanation
    Criminal law is a formal means of social control that involves the use of rules that are interpreted and enforceable by the courts of a political community. The function of criminal law is to set limits to the conduct of citizens, guide officials such as police and administrators, and define conditions of deviance or unacceptable behavior. It focuses on crimes and punishments, aiming to maintain social order and protect the public by deterrence, punishment, and rehabilitation of offenders.

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  • 30. 

    For most people, the only personal experience they have with the criminal justice process is contact with a:

    • A.

      Federal police officer

    • B.

      Courtroom

    • C.

      Correctional institution

    • D.

      Local police officer

    Correct Answer
    D. Local police officer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a local police officer. This is because, for most people, their only personal experience with the criminal justice process is usually through interactions with local police officers. These officers are typically the first point of contact when a crime is reported or when individuals are involved in a criminal incident. They play a crucial role in maintaining law and order within communities and are responsible for enforcing local laws and regulations.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is unquestionably the most time-consuming and resource-intensive task of any police agency?

    • A.

      Patrol

    • B.

      Investigation

    • C.

      DNA profiling

    • D.

      Field interrogation

    Correct Answer
    A. Patrol
    Explanation
    Patrol is unquestionably the most time-consuming and resource-intensive task of any police agency. This is because patrol officers are responsible for maintaining public safety, preventing crime, and responding to emergency calls. They spend a significant amount of time patrolling the streets, neighborhoods, and public areas, which requires constant vigilance and availability. Additionally, patrol officers are often the first responders to incidents, which further adds to their workload and demands on resources.

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  • 32. 

    Your textbook names five roles that investigators may play in a police department. Three are listed below. Which one does NOT belong?

    • A.

      Investigators conducting background checks of applicants to the police department

    • B.

      Uniformed patrol officers investigating the crimes they have been dispatched to or have encountered on their own while on patrol

    • C.

      Uniformed police officers conducting field interrogations and other types of aggressive patrol

    • D.

      Internal affairs investigators conducting investigations of alleged crimes by police personnel

    Correct Answer
    C. Uniformed police officers conducting field interrogations and other types of aggressive patrol
    Explanation
    The three roles mentioned in the question are all related to investigations within a police department. However, the role of uniformed police officers conducting field interrogations and other types of aggressive patrol does not involve conducting investigations. Instead, it focuses on proactive policing activities such as gathering information and deterring crime through visible presence and interaction with the community.

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  • 33. 

    With DNA profiling, a unique genetic profile can be derived from ____ found at the scene of a crime or on a victim.

    • A.

      Hair

    • B.

      Semen

    • C.

      Blood

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    DNA profiling is a technique used to identify individuals based on their unique genetic profile. It can be derived from various sources found at the scene of a crime or on a victim, including hair, semen, and blood. These sources contain DNA, which can be extracted and analyzed to create a genetic profile that can be used for identification purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all of these sources can provide valuable DNA evidence in criminal investigations.

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  • 34. 

    Some of the more important functions of traffic units are:

    • A.

      To recommend traffic engineering changes that will enhance the flow of traffic and promote safety

    • B.

      To enforce traffic laws, particularly when violations of those laws cause traffic accidents

    • C.

      To educate motorists in a community about traffic safety and proper driving procedures

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the mentioned functions of traffic units are important. Traffic units are responsible for recommending traffic engineering changes to improve traffic flow and safety, enforcing traffic laws to prevent accidents, and educating motorists about traffic safety and proper driving procedures. These functions work together to ensure the smooth and safe movement of traffic in a community.

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  • 35. 

    The crime triangle is a view of crime and disorder as an interaction among three variables, which are:

    • A.

      Preventive patrol, investigation and follow-up

    • B.

      Citizens, police and criminals

    • C.

      Urban, suburban and rural locations

    • D.

      Victim, offender and location

    Correct Answer
    D. Victim, offender and location
    Explanation
    The crime triangle refers to the three main factors that contribute to the occurrence of a crime: the victim, the offender, and the location. These three variables interact with each other to create opportunities for criminal behavior. The victim provides the target, the offender provides the motive and means, and the location provides the setting for the crime to take place. Understanding and analyzing these three elements can help in developing effective crime prevention strategies and interventions.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following drug enforcement strategies accounts for the greatest number of drug arrests and seizures?

    • A.

      Street-level enforcement

    • B.

      Mid-level investigations

    • C.

      Major investigations

    • D.

      Drug demand reduction

    Correct Answer
    A. Street-level enforcement
    Explanation
    Street-level enforcement accounts for the greatest number of drug arrests and seizures because it focuses on targeting low-level drug dealers and users who are more easily accessible and visible in communities. This strategy involves proactive policing, undercover operations, and community policing efforts to disrupt drug markets at the street level. By making numerous arrests and seizing drugs in smaller quantities, street-level enforcement contributes to a higher overall number of drug-related arrests and seizures compared to other strategies that may target higher-level drug traffickers or focus on reducing drug demand.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is the FBI's definition of terrorism?

    • A.

      The unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives

    • B.

      The systematic use of terror or unpredictable violence against governments, publics or individuals to attain a political objective

    • C.

      Premeditated, politically motivated violence perpetrated against noncombatant targets by subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually intended to influence an audience

    • D.

      The unlawful use or threatened use, of force or violence by a group or individual based and operating entirely within the United States or its territories without foreign direction committed against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives

    Correct Answer
    B. The systematic use of terror or unpredictable violence against governments, publics or individuals to attain a political objective
    Explanation
    This answer accurately describes the FBI's definition of terrorism as the systematic use of terror or unpredictable violence to achieve a political objective. It highlights the key elements of terrorism, including the use of violence, the targeting of governments, publics, or individuals, and the motivation of achieving political goals.

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  • 38. 

    A role expectation consists of the rights and responsibilities associated with a particular position in society.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A role expectation does not consist only of the rights and responsibilities associated with a particular position in society. It also includes the beliefs, norms, and behaviors that are expected from individuals in that role. Therefore, the statement that a role expectation consists only of rights and responsibilities is false.

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  • 39. 

    In street police work, passion is the ability to use force or the recognition that force is a legitimate means of resolving conflict.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Passion in street police work does not refer to the ability to use force or the recognition that force is a legitimate means of resolving conflict. Instead, passion in this context would typically refer to a strong dedication or enthusiasm for the job, a commitment to serving and protecting the community, and a drive to uphold justice and maintain law and order.

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  • 40. 

    Field interrogations generally do not reduce crime in targeted areas.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Field interrogations generally do not reduce crime in targeted areas because they primarily focus on gathering information rather than directly preventing or deterring criminal activity. Field interrogations involve questioning individuals who may be suspected of criminal involvement or have knowledge about criminal activity. While this can provide valuable intelligence for law enforcement, it does not directly address the underlying causes of crime or effectively deter potential offenders. Additionally, field interrogations can sometimes lead to negative community perceptions and strained relationships between law enforcement and the public, which can further hinder crime reduction efforts.

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  • 41. 

    According to your text, three highly important qualities for police are:

    • A.

      The three I's of police selection, common sense and compassion

    • B.

      Strength, endurance and compassion

    • C.

      Strength, common sense and the three I's of police selection

    • D.

      The three I's of police selection, appearance and compassion

    Correct Answer
    A. The three I's of police selection, common sense and compassion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The three I's of police selection, common sense and compassion." This answer aligns with the information given in the text, which states that the three highly important qualities for police are the three I's of police selection (which are not specified in the question), common sense, and compassion. Strength, endurance, appearance, and other options mentioned in the question are not mentioned as highly important qualities for police in the given text.

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  • 42. 

    Your textbook names some of the characteristics of a police chief's job. Three are listed below. Which of the following is NOT listed in your textbook?

    • A.

      A typical police chief rarely serves longer than 10 years

    • B.

      Police chiefs must be long-term (preferably lifetime) local residents in order to fully understand the needs of the community

    • C.

      Police chiefs must be politically savvy in order to survive

    • D.

      Much of the political controversy and many of the social problems in major cities and counties end up involving the police department and its chief

    Correct Answer
    B. Police chiefs must be long-term (preferably lifetime) local residents in order to fully understand the needs of the community
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Police chiefs must be long-term (preferably lifetime) local residents in order to fully understand the needs of the community." This is not listed in the textbook. The other characteristics mentioned, such as a typical police chief rarely serving longer than 10 years, police chiefs needing to be politically savvy, and the involvement of police departments and chiefs in political controversies and social problems, are all mentioned in the textbook.

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  • 43. 

    The practice of relying on the judgment of the police leadership and rank-and-file officers to decide which laws to enforce is referred to as:

    • A.

      Limited discretion

    • B.

      Selective enforcement

    • C.

      High discretion

    • D.

      Full enforcement

    Correct Answer
    B. Selective enforcement
    Explanation
    Selective enforcement refers to the practice of police leadership and officers using their judgment to decide which laws to enforce. This means that they have the discretion to prioritize certain laws over others, based on factors such as the severity of the offense, available resources, and community priorities. This approach allows for flexibility in law enforcement and can help focus efforts on more serious crimes or areas of concern.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following has/have always made the police the major respondents to domestic violence calls?

    • A.

      Ongoing police interest

    • B.

      High concern for women's safety

    • C.

      Referrals from other agencies

    • D.

      The availability of 24-hour service

    Correct Answer
    D. The availability of 24-hour service
    Explanation
    The availability of 24-hour service has always made the police the major respondents to domestic violence calls. This is because the police are always accessible and ready to respond to emergencies at any time of the day or night. Unlike other agencies or services that may have limited operating hours, the police are available around the clock, ensuring that victims of domestic violence can seek help and protection whenever they need it. This availability makes the police the primary point of contact for domestic violence incidents.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is defined as the harmful physical and emotional outcomes that occur when the requirements of a job do not match the capabilities, resources or needs of the employee?

    • A.

      Racial profiling

    • B.

      Stress management

    • C.

      Organizational change

    • D.

      Job stress

    Correct Answer
    D. Job stress
    Explanation
    Job stress is defined as the harmful physical and emotional outcomes that occur when the requirements of a job do not match the capabilities, resources, or needs of the employee. This means that when an employee is faced with excessive work demands, lack of control or support, or conflicting job expectations, it can lead to negative consequences on their well-being. Job stress can manifest in various forms such as burnout, anxiety, depression, and physical health issues. It is important for organizations to address and manage job stress to ensure the well-being and productivity of their employees.

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  • 46. 

    When did the systematic psychological testing of police officers begin?

    • A.

      1950s

    • B.

      1960s

    • C.

      1970s

    • D.

      1980s

    Correct Answer
    A. 1950s
    Explanation
    The systematic psychological testing of police officers began in the 1950s. This means that during this decade, there was a shift towards implementing standardized psychological assessments as part of the hiring and selection process for police officers. This was likely done in order to ensure that individuals entering the police force had the necessary psychological traits and abilities to perform their duties effectively and handle the stress and demands of the job.

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  • 47. 

    _____ are officers who actively seek ways to make money illegally while on duty.

    • A.

      Meat eaters

    • B.

      Grass eaters

    • C.

      Vegans

    • D.

      Carnivores

    Correct Answer
    A. Meat eaters
    Explanation
    The term "meat eaters" is used metaphorically in this context to refer to officers who engage in corrupt practices to make money illegally while on duty. Just as meat is often associated with indulgence and excess, these officers actively seek opportunities to exploit their position for personal gain. The term "meat eaters" highlights their unethical behavior and implies that they are willing to go to any lengths to satisfy their greed.

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  • 48. 

    A court of ____ jurisdiction has the authority to hear a case when it is first brought to court.

    • A.

      Original

    • B.

      General

    • C.

      Special

    • D.

      Appellate

    Correct Answer
    A. Original
    Explanation
    A court of original jurisdiction is the court that has the authority to hear a case when it is first brought to court. This means that the court has the power to make initial decisions and judgments on the case, rather than reviewing decisions made by lower courts (appellate jurisdiction). General and special jurisdiction refer to the types of cases that a court can hear, while original jurisdiction refers to the stage at which the court hears the case.

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  • 49. 

    In highly controversial cases, all of the judges in a circuit may sit together and hear a case in what is known as a(n):

    • A.

      Bench trial

    • B.

      Grand jury

    • C.

      En banc hearing

    • D.

      Circuit court

    Correct Answer
    C. En banc hearing
    Explanation
    In highly controversial cases, when all of the judges in a circuit sit together and hear a case, it is known as an en banc hearing. This type of hearing is typically reserved for cases that are deemed to be of significant importance or cases that involve complex legal issues. It allows for a full panel of judges to participate in the decision-making process, ensuring a more comprehensive and diverse perspective on the case. This practice helps to promote consistency and uniformity in the circuit's rulings.

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  • 50. 

    Trial courts of ____ jurisdiction are sometimes referred to generally as "inferior trial courts" or simply as "lower courts."

    • A.

      Special

    • B.

      General

    • C.

      Personal

    • D.

      Limited

    Correct Answer
    D. Limited
    Explanation
    The term "limited jurisdiction" refers to trial courts that have specific and narrow authority to hear and decide cases within a particular subject matter or geographic area. These courts are often referred to as "inferior trial courts" or "lower courts" because they have limited powers compared to higher courts, such as appellate or supreme courts. Therefore, the correct answer is "Limited."

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 13, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Kfitzgerald2196
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