Imaging Procedures HHH

1. The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is

3 mm

5 mm

7 mm

2. Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?

Ct angiogram for circle of Willis

Coronal scan to r/o pituitary tumor

CT of brain to r/o subdural hematoma

Ct of brain to r/o metastatic disease

3. Which of the pelvic bones cobine(s) to form the acetabulum?

Ilium

Ischium

Pubis

A and C

A, B, and C

4. The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral dis is called

Aeration effect

Vacuum phenomenon

Oxygen saturation point

Carbonization sign

5. During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:

Continusly as the patient travels throught the gantry

One section at a time

In the form of a complete volumetric data set

A & B

A & C

6. Which of the following may be included as part of a routin preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?

Instructing the pt to take nothing by mouth for 4 hrs prior to exam

1200 mL of oral contrast agent administered 90 min. prior to exam

Having the patient drink 4 liters of polyethylene glycol (peg) 24 hrs prior to exam

A only

A and B

7. The tird ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:

Anterior commissure

Septum pellucidum

Cerebral aqueduct

Fornix

8. The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the :

Thrombolytic zone

Hemorrhage focus

Ischemic penumbra

Strocke volume

9. MPR and volume-rendered 3D images for a carotid artery CTA may be improved by

Reducing kvp for increase in displayed vessel opacification and contrast

Retrospective reconstructions with a 50% overlap

Bolus-tracking software to maximize contrast enhancement

A and c

A,b,and c

10. Non-contrast CT of the urinary tract is a valuable tool in the investigation of;

Transitional cell carcinoma(TCC)

Urinary tract lithiasis

Renal artery stenosis

Ureteral duplication

Lithiasis refers to the presence of stones

Explanation

Lithiasis refers to the presence of stones

11. Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lung?

Bronchiectasis

Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

Pulmonary metastasis

Bronchogenic carcinoma

example interstitial diseases are bronchiectasis, emphysema, asbestosis, and sarcoidosis

Explanation

example interstitial diseases are bronchiectasis, emphysema, asbestosis, and sarcoidosis

12. Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of

-40 to 0 HU

0 to 20 HU

30 to 50 HU

Above 60 HU

13. The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:

Spondylolisthesis

Spondylolysis

Herniated nucleus pulposus

Spinal stenosis

a result of degenerative changes of the facet joints.

Explanation

a result of degenerative changes of the facet joints.

14. Often evaluated during body CTA examinations, the branches of the celiac axis are the:

Left gastric artery

Common hepatic artery

Splenic artery

B and c

A,b, and c

15. An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication btw the bowel and the

Uterus

Bladder

Vagina

Umbilicus

16. Accurate demonstration of --------------------would most likely required the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest

Bronchiectasis

Pneumonia

Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

Plumonary nodule

17. During HRCT of the lungs, edematous changes in the posterior lungs may be differentiated by positioning of the patient in th e---------postion

Left lateral decub

Right lateral decub

Supine

Prone

edematous changes often seen in the lung bases

Explanation

edematous changes often seen in the lung bases

18. Delayed post-contrast acquistion of the lower extremities following a CTA of the pulmonary arteries is termed:

CT venography

CT perfusion

Femoral CTA

Iliac CTA

After the CTPA acquisition, a delay of 2 to 3 minutes is employed, and an acquisition is made from iliac crest to ankles CT venography (CTV)

Explanation

After the CTPA acquisition, a delay of 2 to 3 minutes is employed, and an acquisition is made from iliac crest to ankles CT venography (CTV)

19. Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?

Diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin)

Effervescent agents

Iopamidol (Isovue)

A and c

A,b,and c

20. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?

Early arterial

Corticomedullary

Nephrographic

Excretory

21. Which of the follwoing sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT oe neck?

0.75 mm thick every 0.75 mm

3 mm thick every 5 mm

3 mm thick every 3 mm

10 mm thick every 10 mm

22. The prone position may be used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to :

Reduce the lordotic curve

Decrease patient gonadal radiation dose

Reduce metrizamide pooling

Increase the lordotic curve

23. Surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum for treatment of pancreatic carcinoma

ERCP

Cholecystectomy

Roux-en-Y anastomosis

Whipple procedure

24. The average density of a mass within the kidney measure -75 Hounsfield units (HU). the mass is most likely a:

Cyst

Lipoma

Stone

Hydrocele

fat is -50 to -100

Explanation

fat is -50 to -100

25. The epithelial lining of the urinary tract called the:

Omentum

Haustrum

Urothelium

Pyelocalyx

site of transitional cell carcinoma (TCC), common malignacy of the bladder, ureters, and kidneys

Explanation

site of transitional cell carcinoma (TCC), common malignacy of the bladder, ureters, and kidneys

26. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at aproximately:

15-20 sec

25-35 sec

60-70 sec

120-180 sec

27. The stanford type A desecting aneurysm affects which portion of the aorta?

Ascending thoracic(arota)

Descending thoracic(arota)

Abdominal

Bifurcation

Stanford type B dissecting aneurysms affect the descending aorta

Explanation

Stanford type B dissecting aneurysms affect the descending aorta

28. Complete CT examinations of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections from the:

Mandible through the liver

Apices to the diaphragm

Top of the apices through the liver

Clavicles through the adrenals

29. Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

Leiomyoma

Cystic teratoma

Endometriosis

Corpus luteum

identified on CT examination as a bulky

Explanation

identified on CT examination as a bulky

30. Coronary artery calcium (CAC) quantitation by MDCT exam is used primarily to assess:

Aortic aneurysm

Atherosclerotic disease

Coronary artery stenosis

Ejection fraction

31. The volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified with use of a value called the:

Euler constant

Housfield number

Agatston score

Lambert-Beer value

32. A focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the regionof the vocal cords should extend:

From external auditory to the mandible

From above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage

From the cricoid cartilage inferiorly through sternoclavicular joint

From hard palate inferiorly to the hyoid bone

33. Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:

Dyspepsia

Intussusception

Ileus

Adhesion

34. The imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface is called

Coronal plane

Sagittal plane

Axial plane

Oblique axial plane

35. The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called

Varices

Claudication

Stenosis

Thrombosis

36. Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

Pancrease

Kidneys

Uterus

Liver

contains stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, ovaries, transverse colon, and most of small bowel

Explanation

contains stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, ovaries, transverse colon, and most of small bowel

37. The firm, outer portion of each intervertebral disc is called the:

Nucleus pulposus

Nucleus prepositus

Anulus fibrosus

Anulus stapedius

38. Prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient may undrgo a process of bowel cleansing termed:

Purgation

Hydration

Catharsis

Fasting

39. The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes:

Thin section pre-contrast acquisition through the adrenals

Arterial phase post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals

10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals

A and C

B and C

40. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of iodinated contrast material, the pancreatic phase of contrast enhancement occurs at approximatly

15-25 sec

35-45 sec

60-70 sec

120-180 sec

41. Arterial phase CT imaging of the liver is used to optimally demonstrate which of the following?

Fatty inflitration

Hepatic cysts

Portal vein thrombosis

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

HCC hypervascular lesions that appear hyperdense

Explanation

HCC hypervascular lesions that appear hyperdense

42. Vital components of a CT urogram (CT-IVP) protocol include:

1200 to1500 ml of a positive oral contrast agent 90 min rior to examination

Thin section excretory phase imaging of the entire urinary tract

Volume-rendered 3D and maximum intensity projection (MIP) imaging of the urinary tract

B and c

A , b, and c

43. At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of multiplannar reformation (MPR) images?

10%

25%

50%

100%

44. An enema is indicated prior to a CT examination of the pelvis to administer postitive contrast material into the large bowel. Which of the following dosages would be sufficient to opacify the rectosigmoid region?

150-250 ml

300-500 ml

500-750 ml

900-1100 ml

45. The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:

Tarsals and metatarsals

Tarsals and lower leg

Metatarsals and phalanges

Metatarsals and tarsals

site complex fractures and dislocations of the foot

Explanation

site complex fractures and dislocations of the foot

46. During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood (in mL) that moves through 100 g of tissue each minute is termed the:

Mean transit time (MTT)

Cerebral blood flow (CBF)

Cerebral blood volum (CBV)

Percentage washout value (PWV)

47. Diffuse fatty inflitration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:

Chromatosis

Steatosis

Cirrhosis

Lipomatosis

48. A specialized CT examination involving the administration of an enteral contrast agent directly into the small bowel via nasogastric tube is called

CT enteroclysis

CT colonography

CT enterography

CT colonoscopy

49. Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVRs) of the thorax known as:

Maximum intensity projections (MIPs)

3D volume renderings

Shaded-surface displays (SSDs)

Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)

50. Which of the following IV contrast phases does the bladder wall enhance

Early arterial

Corticomedullary

Nephrographic

Excretory

Nephrographic (70-90 sec)

Explanation

Nephrographic (70-90 sec)

51. The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is:

9.6 cm

15.0 cm

25.0 cm

50.0 cm

DFOV between 10 and 15 cm

Explanation

DFOV between 10 and 15 cm

Imaging Procedures Hhh

1. The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?

3. Which of the pelvic bones cobine(s) to form the acetabulum?

4. The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral dis is called

5. During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:

6. Which of the following may be included as part of a routin preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?

7. The tird ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:

8. The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the :

9. MPR and volume-rendered 3D images for a carotid artery CTA may be improved by

10. Non-contrast CT of the urinary tract is a valuable tool in the investigation of;

11. Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lung?

12. Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of

13. The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:

14. Often evaluated during body CTA examinations, the branches of the celiac axis are the:

15. An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication btw the bowel and the

16. Accurate demonstration of --------------------would most likely required the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest

17. During HRCT of the lungs, edematous changes in the posterior lungs may be differentiated by positioning of the patient in th e---------postion

18. Delayed post-contrast acquistion of the lower extremities following a CTA of the pulmonary arteries is termed:

19. Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?

20. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?

21. Which of the follwoing sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT oe neck?

22. The prone position may be used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to :

23. Surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum for treatment of pancreatic carcinoma

24. The average density of a mass within the kidney measure -75 Hounsfield units (HU). the mass is most likely a:

25. The epithelial lining of the urinary tract called the:

26. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at aproximately:

27. The stanford type A desecting aneurysm affects which portion of the aorta?

28. Complete CT examinations of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections from the:

29. Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

30. Coronary artery calcium (CAC) quantitation by MDCT exam is used primarily to assess:

31. The volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified with use of a value called the:

32. A focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the regionof the vocal cords should extend:

33. Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:

34. The imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface is called

35. The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called

36. Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

37. The firm, outer portion of each intervertebral disc is called the:

38. Prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient may undrgo a process of bowel cleansing termed:

39. The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes:

40. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of iodinated contrast material, the pancreatic phase of contrast enhancement occurs at approximatly

41. Arterial phase CT imaging of the liver is used to optimally demonstrate which of the following?

42. Vital components of a CT urogram (CT-IVP) protocol include:

43. At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of multiplannar reformation (MPR) images?

44. An enema is indicated prior to a CT examination of the pelvis to administer postitive contrast material into the large bowel. Which of the following dosages would be sufficient to opacify the rectosigmoid region?

45. The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:

46. During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood (in mL) that moves through 100 g of tissue each minute is termed the:

47. Diffuse fatty inflitration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:

48. A specialized CT examination involving the administration of an enteral contrast agent directly into the small bowel via nasogastric tube is called

49. Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVRs) of the thorax known as:

50. Which of the following IV contrast phases does the bladder wall enhance

51. The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is: