Imaging Procedures Hhh
Practicse test imaging procedures
- 1.
Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of
- A.
-40 to 0 HU
- B.
0 to 20 HU
- C.
30 to 50 HU
- D.
Above 60 HU
Correct Answer
B. 0 to 20 HU -
- 2.
After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at aproximately:
- A.
15-20 sec
- B.
25-35 sec
- C.
60-70 sec
- D.
120-180 sec
Correct Answer
B. 25-35 sec -
- 3.
The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral dis is called
- A.
Aeration effect
- B.
Vacuum phenomenon
- C.
Oxygen saturation point
- D.
Carbonization sign
Correct Answer
B. Vacuum phenomenon -
- 4.
During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:
- A.
Continusly as the patient travels throught the gantry
- B.
One section at a time
- C.
In the form of a complete volumetric data set
- D.
A & B
- E.
A & C
Correct Answer
E. A & C -
- 5.
Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?
- A.
Ct angiogram for circle of Willis
- B.
Coronal scan to r/o pituitary tumor
- C.
CT of brain to r/o subdural hematoma
- D.
Ct of brain to r/o metastatic disease
Correct Answer
C. CT of brain to r/o subdural hematoma -
- 6.
Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?
- A.
Early arterial
- B.
Corticomedullary
- C.
Nephrographic
- D.
Excretory
Correct Answer
D. Excretory -
- 7.
Which of the follwoing sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT oe neck?
- A.
0.75 mm thick every 0.75 mm
- B.
3 mm thick every 5 mm
- C.
3 mm thick every 3 mm
- D.
10 mm thick every 10 mm
Correct Answer
C. 3 mm thick every 3 mm -
- 8.
The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the :
- A.
Thrombolytic zone
- B.
Hemorrhage focus
- C.
Ischemic penumbra
- D.
Strocke volume
Correct Answer
C. Ischemic penumbra -
- 9.
Diffuse fatty inflitration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:
- A.
Chromatosis
- B.
Steatosis
- C.
Cirrhosis
- D.
Lipomatosis
Correct Answer
B. Steatosis -
- 10.
Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lung?
- A.
Bronchiectasis
- B.
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
- C.
Pulmonary metastasis
- D.
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Correct Answer
A. BronchiectasisExplanation
example interstitial diseases are bronchiectasis, emphysema, asbestosis, and sarcoidosisRate this question:
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- 11.
An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication btw the bowel and the
- A.
Uterus
- B.
Bladder
- C.
Vagina
- D.
Umbilicus
Correct Answer
B. Bladder -
- 12.
Prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient may undrgo a process of bowel cleansing termed:
- A.
Purgation
- B.
Hydration
- C.
Catharsis
- D.
Fasting
Correct Answer
C. Catharsis -
- 13.
The imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface is called
- A.
Coronal plane
- B.
Sagittal plane
- C.
Axial plane
- D.
Oblique axial plane
- E.
Oblique axial plane
Correct Answer
C. Axial plane -
- 14.
The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called
- A.
Varices
- B.
Claudication
- C.
Stenosis
- D.
Thrombosis
Correct Answer
B. Claudication -
- 15.
Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?
- A.
Leiomyoma
- B.
Cystic teratoma
- C.
Endometriosis
- D.
Corpus luteum
Correct Answer
A. LeiomyomaExplanation
identified on CT examination as a bulkyRate this question:
-
- 16.
The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is
- A.
3 mm
- B.
5 mm
- C.
7 mm
Correct Answer
A. 3 mm -
- 17.
Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?
- A.
Pancrease
- B.
Kidneys
- C.
Uterus
- D.
Liver
Correct Answer
D. LiverExplanation
contains stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, ovaries, transverse colon, and most of small bowelRate this question:
-
- 18.
Which of the following may be included as part of a routin preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?
- A.
Instructing the pt to take nothing by mouth for 4 hrs prior to exam
- B.
1200 mL of oral contrast agent administered 90 min. prior to exam
- C.
Having the patient drink 4 liters of polyethylene glycol (peg) 24 hrs prior to exam
- D.
A only
- E.
A and B
Correct Answer
E. A and B -
- 19.
The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is:
- A.
9.6 cm
- B.
15.0 cm
- C.
25.0 cm
- D.
50.0 cm
Correct Answer
D. 50.0 cmExplanation
DFOV between 10 and 15 cmRate this question:
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- 20.
Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVRs) of the thorax known as:
- A.
Maximum intensity projections (MIPs)
- B.
3D volume renderings
- C.
Shaded-surface displays (SSDs)
- D.
Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)
Correct Answer
D. Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs) -
- 21.
The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:
- A.
Tarsals and metatarsals
- B.
Tarsals and lower leg
- C.
Metatarsals and phalanges
- D.
Metatarsals and tarsals
Correct Answer
A. Tarsals and metatarsalsExplanation
site complex fractures and dislocations of the footRate this question:
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- 22.
The volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified with use of a value called the:
- A.
Euler constant
- B.
Housfield number
- C.
Agatston score
- D.
Lambert-Beer value
Correct Answer
C. Agatston score -
- 23.
Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?
- A.
Diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin)
- B.
Effervescent agents
- C.
Iopamidol (Isovue)
- D.
A and c
- E.
A,b,and c
Correct Answer
E. A,b,and c -
- 24.
Which of the pelvic bones cobine(s) to form the acetabulum?
- A.
Ilium
- B.
Ischium
- C.
Pubis
- D.
A and C
- E.
A, B, and C
Correct Answer
E. A, B, and C -
- 25.
At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of multiplannar reformation (MPR) images?
- A.
10%
- B.
25%
- C.
50%
- D.
100%
Correct Answer
C. 50% -
- 26.
The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:
- A.
Spondylolisthesis
- B.
Spondylolysis
- C.
Herniated nucleus pulposus
- D.
Spinal stenosis
Correct Answer
A. SpondylolisthesisExplanation
a result of degenerative changes of the facet joints.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Accurate demonstration of --------------------would most likely required the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest
- A.
Bronchiectasis
- B.
Pneumonia
- C.
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
- D.
Plumonary nodule
Correct Answer
C. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy -
- 28.
A focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the regionof the vocal cords should extend:
- A.
From external auditory to the mandible
- B.
From above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage
- C.
From the cricoid cartilage inferiorly through sternoclavicular joint
- D.
From hard palate inferiorly to the hyoid bone
Correct Answer
B. From above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage -
- 29.
During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood (in mL) that moves through 100 g of tissue each minute is termed the:
- A.
Mean transit time (MTT)
- B.
Cerebral blood flow (CBF)
- C.
Cerebral blood volum (CBV)
- D.
Percentage washout value (PWV)
Correct Answer
B. Cerebral blood flow (CBF) -
- 30.
The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes:
- A.
Thin section pre-contrast acquisition through the adrenals
- B.
Arterial phase post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals
- C.
10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals
- D.
A and C
- E.
B and C
Correct Answer
D. A and C -
- 31.
Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:
- A.
Dyspepsia
- B.
Intussusception
- C.
Ileus
- D.
Adhesion
Correct Answer
C. Ileus -
- 32.
The tird ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:
- A.
Anterior commissure
- B.
Septum pellucidum
- C.
Cerebral aqueduct
- D.
Fornix
Correct Answer
C. Cerebral aqueduct -
- 33.
Complete CT examinations of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections from the:
- A.
Mandible through the liver
- B.
Apices to the diaphragm
- C.
Top of the apices through the liver
- D.
Clavicles through the adrenals
Correct Answer
C. Top of the apices through the liver -
- 34.
The prone position may be used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to :
- A.
Reduce the lordotic curve
- B.
Decrease patient gonadal radiation dose
- C.
Reduce metrizamide pooling
- D.
Increase the lordotic curve
Correct Answer
C. Reduce metrizamide pooling -
- 35.
After initiation of rapid bolus administration of iodinated contrast material, the pancreatic phase of contrast enhancement occurs at approximatly
- A.
15-25 sec
- B.
35-45 sec
- C.
60-70 sec
- D.
120-180 sec
Correct Answer
B. 35-45 sec -
- 36.
The average density of a mass within the kidney measure -75 Hounsfield units (HU). the mass is most likely a:
- A.
Cyst
- B.
Lipoma
- C.
Stone
- D.
Hydrocele
Correct Answer
B. LipomaExplanation
fat is -50 to -100Rate this question:
-
- 37.
An enema is indicated prior to a CT examination of the pelvis to administer postitive contrast material into the large bowel. Which of the following dosages would be sufficient to opacify the rectosigmoid region?
- A.
150-250 ml
- B.
300-500 ml
- C.
500-750 ml
- D.
900-1100 ml
Correct Answer
A. 150-250 ml -
- 38.
The stanford type A desecting aneurysm affects which portion of the aorta?
- A.
Ascending thoracic(arota)
- B.
Descending thoracic(arota)
- C.
Abdominal
- D.
Bifurcation
Correct Answer
A. Ascending thoracic(arota)Explanation
Stanford type B dissecting aneurysms affect the descending aortaRate this question:
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- 39.
During HRCT of the lungs, edematous changes in the posterior lungs may be differentiated by positioning of the patient in th e---------postion
- A.
Left lateral decub
- B.
Right lateral decub
- C.
Supine
- D.
Prone
Correct Answer
D. ProneExplanation
edematous changes often seen in the lung basesRate this question:
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- 40.
The firm, outer portion of each intervertebral disc is called the:
- A.
Nucleus pulposus
- B.
Nucleus prepositus
- C.
Anulus fibrosus
- D.
Anulus stapedius
Correct Answer
C. Anulus fibrosus -
- 41.
Surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum for treatment of pancreatic carcinoma
- A.
ERCP
- B.
Cholecystectomy
- C.
Roux-en-Y anastomosis
- D.
Whipple procedure
Correct Answer
D. Whipple procedure -
- 42.
Which of the following IV contrast phases does the bladder wall enhance
- A.
Early arterial
- B.
Corticomedullary
- C.
Nephrographic
- D.
Excretory
Correct Answer
C. NephrographicExplanation
Nephrographic (70-90 sec)Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Coronary artery calcium (CAC) quantitation by MDCT exam is used primarily to assess:
- A.
Aortic aneurysm
- B.
Atherosclerotic disease
- C.
Coronary artery stenosis
- D.
Ejection fraction
Correct Answer
B. Atherosclerotic disease -
- 44.
A specialized CT examination involving the administration of an enteral contrast agent directly into the small bowel via nasogastric tube is called
- A.
CT enteroclysis
- B.
CT colonography
- C.
CT enterography
- D.
CT colonoscopy
Correct Answer
A. CT enteroclysis -
- 45.
The epithelial lining of the urinary tract called the:
- A.
Omentum
- B.
Haustrum
- C.
Urothelium
- D.
Pyelocalyx
Correct Answer
C. UrotheliumExplanation
site of transitional cell carcinoma (TCC), common malignacy of the bladder, ureters, and kidneysRate this question:
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- 46.
Delayed post-contrast acquistion of the lower extremities following a CTA of the pulmonary arteries is termed:
- A.
CT venography
- B.
CT perfusion
- C.
Femoral CTA
- D.
Iliac CTA
Correct Answer
A. CT venographyExplanation
After the CTPA acquisition, a delay of 2 to 3 minutes is employed, and an acquisition is made from iliac crest to ankles CT venography (CTV)Rate this question:
-
- 47.
MPR and volume-rendered 3D images for a carotid artery CTA may be improved by
- A.
Reducing kvp for increase in displayed vessel opacification and contrast
- B.
Retrospective reconstructions with a 50% overlap
- C.
Bolus-tracking software to maximize contrast enhancement
- D.
A and c
- E.
A,b,and c
Correct Answer
E. A,b,and c -
- 48.
Often evaluated during body CTA examinations, the branches of the celiac axis are the:
- A.
Left gastric artery
- B.
Common hepatic artery
- C.
Splenic artery
- D.
B and c
- E.
A,b, and c
Correct Answer
E. A,b, and c -
- 49.
Vital components of a CT urogram (CT-IVP) protocol include:
- A.
1200 to1500 ml of a positive oral contrast agent 90 min rior to examination
- B.
Thin section excretory phase imaging of the entire urinary tract
- C.
Volume-rendered 3D and maximum intensity projection (MIP) imaging of the urinary tract
- D.
B and c
- E.
A , b, and c
Correct Answer
D. B and c -
- 50.
Arterial phase CT imaging of the liver is used to optimally demonstrate which of the following?
- A.
Fatty inflitration
- B.
Hepatic cysts
- C.
Portal vein thrombosis
- D.
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Correct Answer
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)Explanation
HCC hypervascular lesions that appear hyperdenseRate this question:
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Jan 15, 2013Quiz Edited by
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May 21, 2010Quiz Created by
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