Quiz : How Much Do You Know About Oxygenation And Nutrition In The Body

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About This Quiz

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Nutrition and oxygenation are essential for survival. Just how much do you know about the nutrition and oxygenation in the body? Why not test your knowledge about the concepts with this super fun quiz? You are given four choices and out of which only one is correct, you are required to choose the correct option only. Please make sure to read all the questions very carefully before attempting. Your scores will be given to you once you've completed answering all the questions on the quiz. Please note there is no time bar on the quiz. Keep learning and have fun!

Quiz : How Much Do You Know About Oxygenation And Nutrition In The Body - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When should a nurse suction a client?

    • As desired

    • As needed

    • Every 1 hour

    • Every 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    A nurse should suction a client as needed. Suctioning is a procedure used to remove secretions or foreign substances from the airway to maintain a clear passage for breathing. The need for suctioning can vary depending on the client's condition and the presence of excessive secretions or blockage. Suctioning should be performed when the client is experiencing difficulty breathing, has audible or visible secretions, or when there is a risk of aspiration. Performing suctioning as needed ensures that the client's airway is kept clear and promotes optimal respiratory function.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?

    • Use an oil based lubricant

    • Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process

    • Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertion

    • Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for bubbling sound

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process. This is the correct method for determining the appropriate length of the NGT to be inserted into the patient's stomach. By measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and then to the xiphoid process, the nurse can ensure that the tube is inserted to the correct depth and reaches the stomach. This measurement technique is commonly used in clinical practice to ensure accurate placement of the NGT.

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  • 4. 

    A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable complication being experienced by the client?

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Hypoglycemia

    • Infection

    • Fluid overload

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoglycemia
    Explanation
    The client is experiencing hypoglycemia, which is characterized by symptoms such as tremors, dizziness, weakness, and diaphoresis. This is likely due to the fact that the TPN (total parenteral nutrition) is already empty and the scheduled replacement is delayed by 3 hours. TPN provides essential nutrients, including glucose, to the client. When the TPN is not available or delayed, the client's blood sugar level can drop, leading to hypoglycemia.

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  • 5. 

    The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is

    • Aspiration

    • Dehydration

    • Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

    • Malnutrition

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration
    Explanation
    The most threatening complication of vomiting in clients with stroke is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when food, liquid, or vomit is inhaled into the lungs instead of being swallowed into the stomach. This can lead to pneumonia or other respiratory infections, which can be life-threatening for individuals with weakened immune systems, such as stroke patients. Aspiration can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs, making it a serious concern in this population. Dehydration, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, and malnutrition are also potential complications of vomiting, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as aspiration.

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  • 6. 

    Incident of prostate cancer is found to have been reduced on a population exposed in tolerable amount of sunlight. Which vitamin is associated with this phenomenon?

    • Vitamin A

    • Vitamin B

    • Vitamin C

    • Vitamin D

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin D
    Explanation
    Exposure to sunlight helps the body produce vitamin D. Several studies have shown that individuals with higher levels of vitamin D have a lower risk of developing prostate cancer. Vitamin D is known to have anti-cancer properties and plays a role in regulating cell growth and division. Therefore, it is likely that the reduction in prostate cancer incidence in the population exposed to tolerable amounts of sunlight is due to the association between vitamin D and the prevention of prostate cancer.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

    • Lungs

    • Intercostal Muscles

    • Diaphragm

    • Pectoralis major

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is considered as the main muscle of respiration because it plays a crucial role in the breathing process. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs, separating the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. When we inhale, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, creating more space in the chest cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. When we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes and moves back up, pushing the air out of the lungs. Therefore, the diaphragm is essential for the process of inhalation and exhalation, making it the main muscle of respiration.

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  • 8. 

    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

    • Galactose + Galactose

    • Glucose + Fructose

    • Glucose + Galactose

    • Fructose + Fructose

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose + Fructose
    Explanation
    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on sucrose, it breaks down the sucrose molecule into two monosaccharides, namely glucose and fructose. This is a common process that occurs during the digestion of carbohydrates in the small intestine. Glucose and fructose are both simple sugars that can be easily absorbed into the bloodstream for energy utilization.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?

    • X-Ray

    • Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles produced

    • Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidic

    • Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area

    Correct Answer
    A. X-Ray
    Explanation
    The best method for assessing the correct placement of the NGT is through an X-Ray. This is because an X-Ray provides a clear visual image of the tube's placement, allowing healthcare professionals to accurately determine if it is in the correct position. The other methods mentioned, such as immersing the tube in water to check for bubbles, aspirating gastric content, or instilling air and listening for a gurgling sound, may provide some indication of placement but are not as reliable or definitive as an X-Ray.

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  • 10. 

    Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

    • Nasal Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non Rebreather mask

    • Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasal Cannula
    Explanation
    The nasal cannula is a method of oxygenation that least likely produces anxiety and apprehension because it is a comfortable and non-invasive option. It consists of two small prongs that are inserted into the nostrils, delivering a low to moderate flow of oxygen. This method allows the patient to breathe through their mouth and nose, providing a more natural and less restrictive experience compared to masks. The simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial rebreather mask may cause discomfort, claustrophobia, and anxiety due to their coverage of the face and potential restriction of breathing.

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  • 11. 

    Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.

    • Vitamin D

    • Iron

    • Calcium

    • Sodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Calcium deficiency leads to various health conditions such as tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and rickets. Tetany is characterized by muscle spasms and twitching, while osteomalacia is the softening of bones. Osteoporosis is the weakening of bones, making them more prone to fractures, and rickets is a condition that affects bone development in children. Calcium is an essential mineral for the proper functioning and development of bones and teeth, and its deficiency can have significant negative effects on overall health.

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  • 12. 

    An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

    • 1,000 calories

    • 1,500 calories

    • 2,000 calories

    • 2,500 calories

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,000 calories
    Explanation
    An average adult Filipino requires approximately 2,000 calories in a day. This is the recommended daily calorie intake for maintaining a healthy weight and providing enough energy for daily activities. It is important to note that individual calorie needs may vary depending on factors such as age, gender, weight, and activity level.

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  • 13. 

    Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent neural tube defects?

    • Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, Tomatoes

    • Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolk

    • Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanuts

    • Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs

    Correct Answer
    A. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs
    Explanation
    During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is important to emphasize foods that are rich in folate to prevent neural tube defects. Organ meats, green leafy vegetables, liver, and eggs are all excellent sources of folate. Folate is a B-vitamin that plays a crucial role in the development of the neural tube in the early stages of pregnancy. By consuming these foods, the pregnant mother can ensure an adequate intake of folate, which is essential for the healthy development of the baby's brain and spinal cord.

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  • 14. 

    A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid?

    • Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver

    • Salmon, Sardines, Tuna

    • Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals

    • Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver
    Explanation
    Coumadin is a medication that acts as a blood thinner. It works by reducing the ability of the blood to clot. Foods that are high in vitamin K, such as spinach, green leafy vegetables, cabbage, and liver, can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin. These foods are known to promote blood clotting. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid consuming these foods in large quantities while taking Coumadin.

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  • 15. 

    How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    The right lung has three lobes. The lungs are divided into lobes, with the right lung being larger and having three lobes - the upper, middle, and lower lobes. Each lobe is responsible for different functions in the respiratory system, such as oxygen exchange and removal of carbon dioxide.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?

    • All individual have the same caloric needs

    • Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more calories

    • During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR

    • Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day

    Correct Answer
    A. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR
    Explanation
    During cold weather, people need more calories due to increased BMR. This is because the body needs to work harder to maintain its core temperature in cold environments. The increase in basal metabolic rate (BMR) helps generate more heat, which requires more energy in the form of calories. Therefore, individuals tend to require more calories during cold weather to meet their increased energy needs.

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  • 17. 

    There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

    • Fr. 18

    • Fr. 12

    • Fr. 10

    • Fr, 5

    Correct Answer
    A. Fr. 18
    Explanation
    Mr. Hamilton should use Fr. 18 catheter size because it is the largest size available among the given options. Generally, larger catheter sizes are used for adult patients to ensure efficient drainage and minimize the risk of blockage. Smaller sizes like Fr. 12, Fr. 10, and Fr. 5 are usually used for pediatric or neonatal patients.

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  • 18. 

    Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

    • Ehtmoid

    • Sphenoid

    • Maxillary

    • Frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal
    Explanation
    The frontal sinus is found over the eyebrow.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?

    • Nasal Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non Rebreather mask

    • Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Non Rebreather mask
    Explanation
    A non-rebreather mask is the oxygen delivery method that can deliver 100% oxygen at 15 LPM. This mask has a reservoir bag attached to it, which allows the patient to inhale pure oxygen without rebreathing exhaled air. The oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM ensures that the patient receives a high concentration of oxygen. Nasal cannula, simple face mask, and partial rebreather mask do not provide 100% oxygen at 15 LPM.

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  • 20. 

    Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

    • Mouth

    • Esophagus

    • Small intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Mouth
    Explanation
    The digestion of carbohydrates starts in the mouth. Salivary glands in the mouth produce an enzyme called amylase, which breaks down carbohydrates into smaller molecules. When we chew our food, the amylase in saliva begins to break down the complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. This initial breakdown of carbohydrates in the mouth is an important step in the overall process of digestion.

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  • 21. 

    Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

    • God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    • Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air

    • Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air

    • Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    Correct Answer
    A. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
    Explanation
    The best response is "Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air." This answer accurately states that humans require 21% of oxygen, which is the correct percentage. It also states that we have 21% available in our air, which means that the oxygen concentration in the air is sufficient for human needs.

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  • 22. 

    Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

    • High fowlers

    • Semi fowlers

    • Prone

    • Side lying

    Correct Answer
    A. Side lying
    Explanation
    The correct position to place Mr. Hamilton in is side lying. This position helps prevent aspiration and allows for effective suctioning of secretions. It also promotes optimal lung expansion and ventilation. In addition, side lying position reduces the risk of pressure ulcers and provides comfort for the patient.

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  • 23. 

    A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis

    • Vitamin B1

    • Vitamin B2

    • Vitamin B3

    • Vitamin B6

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin B6
    Explanation
    Vitamin B6 is taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis. ISONIAZID is a medication used to treat tuberculosis, but it can cause a deficiency in vitamin B6, leading to peripheral neuritis. By taking vitamin B6 along with ISONIAZID, the deficiency can be prevented and the risk of peripheral neuritis is reduced.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?

    • Pork meat

    • Lean read meat

    • Pork liver

    • Green mongo

    Correct Answer
    A. Pork liver
    Explanation
    Pork liver provides the richest source of iron per area of their meat compared to the other options. Liver is known to be a highly concentrated source of iron, and pork liver specifically is rich in this mineral. Iron is essential for the production of red blood cells and the transportation of oxygen throughout the body. Including pork liver in the diet can help prevent iron deficiency anemia and support overall health.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?

    • Popsicles

    • Pureed vegetable meat

    • Pineapple juice with pulps

    • Mashed potato

    Correct Answer
    A. Popsicles
    Explanation
    A full liquid diet includes foods that are liquid or semi-liquid at room temperature. Popsicles are a suitable option for a full liquid diet as they are made of flavored liquid that is frozen. Pureed vegetable meat, pineapple juice with pulps, and mashed potato are not considered full liquid options as they contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.

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  • 26. 

    Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?

    • Vitamin B1

    • Vitamin B2

    • Vitamin B3

    • Vitamin B6

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin B6
    Explanation
    Levodopa is a medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. It is converted into dopamine in the brain, helping to alleviate symptoms. However, levodopa can also increase the levels of Vitamin B6 in the body. High levels of Vitamin B6 can potentially reduce the effectiveness of levodopa by speeding up its metabolism. Therefore, it is not recommended to take Vitamin B6 in conjunction with levodopa in Parkinson's disease cases.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?

    • Tachycardia

    • Restlessness

    • Thirst

    • Poor skin turgor

    Correct Answer
    A. Thirst
    Explanation
    Thirst is the first sign of dehydration because when the body loses water, it triggers the sensation of thirst as a signal for the individual to drink fluids and replenish the water levels in the body. Thirst is the body's way of alerting us to the need for hydration and preventing further dehydration. It is a natural response to water loss and serves as an early warning sign before other symptoms of dehydration, such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate), restlessness, and poor skin turgor, become apparent.

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  • 28. 

    Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?

    • Type I pneumocytes

    • Type II pneumocytes

    • Goblet cells

    • Adipose cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Goblet cells
    Explanation
    Goblet cells are responsible for secreting mucus in the respiratory tract. Mucus acts as a protective layer that helps to trap debris and particles, preventing them from entering the lungs. This is important for maintaining the health and functioning of the respiratory system. Type I and Type II pneumocytes are not involved in mucus secretion, and adipose cells are not directly related to the respiratory tract.

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  • 29. 

    This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration

    • Inspiratory reserve volume

    • Expiratory reserve volume

    • Functional residual capacity

    • Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Residual volume
    Explanation
    The residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration. This volume cannot be voluntarily expelled from the lungs and is necessary to keep the lungs inflated and prevent collapse. It represents the minimum amount of air that is always present in the respiratory system, even after complete exhalation.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

    • Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes

    • Should last only for 60 minutes

    • Done best P.C

    • An independent nursing action

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes
    Explanation
    Postural drainage is a technique used to help clear mucus and secretions from the lungs in patients with respiratory conditions. The correct answer states that the patient assumes the position for 10 to 15 minutes. This is true because during postural drainage, the patient is positioned in specific postures that allow gravity to assist in moving the mucus towards the larger airways, making it easier to cough up. The patient typically stays in each position for a specific amount of time, usually 10 to 15 minutes, to maximize the effectiveness of the technique.

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  • 31. 

    Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

    • Uses venture mask in oxygen administration

    • Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source

    • Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen

    • Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
    Explanation
    Putting a non rebreather mask on the patient before opening the oxygen source can lead to a buildup of oxygen inside the mask, which can cause a fire hazard. It is important to open the oxygen source first and then place the mask on the patient to ensure proper oxygen flow and prevent any potential accidents.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?

    • Do not give the feeding and notify the doctor of residual of the last feeding is greater than or equal to 50 ml

    • Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow introduction of feeding

    • Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome

    • Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome
    Explanation
    The nurse deviates from the standards of NGT feeding by asking the client to position in a supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food or liquid moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The correct position to prevent dumping syndrome after NGT feeding is a semi-Fowler's position, not a supine position.

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  • 33. 

    Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

    • We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543

    • Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

    Correct Answer
    A. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
  • 34. 

    The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?

    • 2-5 mmHg

    • 5-10 mmHg

    • 10-15 mmHg

    • 15-25 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-15 mmHg
    Explanation
    The pressure of suction equipment needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and airways in case of portable suction units is 10-15 mmHg. This range of pressure is considered safe and effective for removing secretions without causing damage to the delicate tissues of the mucus membrane and airways. Higher pressures may lead to trauma and injury, while lower pressures may not be sufficient to effectively clear the airways. Therefore, a pressure of 10-15 mmHg is recommended for safe and effective suctioning.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

    • Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.

    • Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane

    • Oxygen supports combustion

    • Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    Excessive oxygen administration can lead to respiratory acidosis, a condition where the blood pH decreases due to an excess of carbon dioxide. Normally, oxygen administration helps to maintain proper oxygen levels in the blood, but when too much oxygen is given, it can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to a buildup of carbon dioxide and subsequent acidosis. This can be particularly problematic for individuals with certain respiratory conditions or those who are already experiencing respiratory distress.

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  • 36. 

    Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume

    • Inspiratory reserve volume

    • Expiratory reserve volume

    • Functional residual capacity

    • Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspiratory reserve volume
    Explanation
    The inspiratory reserve volume refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume. It is the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. This additional volume of air allows for increased oxygen intake during times of increased physical activity or when the body needs more oxygen.

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  • 37. 

    The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

    • Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non rebreather mask

    • Venturi mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannula
    Explanation
    The best method of oxygen administration for a client with COPD is using a cannula. This is because a cannula delivers a low-flow oxygen rate, which is more suitable for COPD patients who retain carbon dioxide. A cannula allows the client to breathe in room air along with the supplemental oxygen, preventing oxygen toxicity. Additionally, a cannula is comfortable and easy to wear, making it a preferred choice for long-term oxygen therapy.

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  • 38. 

    The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

    • Mouth

    • Small intestine

    • Large intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Small intestine
    Explanation
    The small intestine is the correct answer because it is the primary site of digestion and absorption of nutrients in the digestive system. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and further breaks it down using enzymes produced by the pancreas and the intestine itself. The small intestine has a large surface area due to its length and the presence of villi, which increases the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. This is where most of the nutrients, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, are absorbed into the body for energy and other functions.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?

    • It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solid

    • The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formed

    • It is a sterile body cavity

    • It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a sterile body cavity
    Explanation
    The large intestine is not a sterile body cavity. It contains a large number of bacteria that aid in the digestion process. These bacteria help break down undigested food, produce certain vitamins, and prevent the growth of harmful bacteria. Therefore, the statement that the large intestine is a sterile body cavity is not true.

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  • 40. 

    Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup of rice?

    • 150 calories

    • 200 calories

    • 250 calories

    • 400 calories

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 calories
    Explanation
    A cup of rice contains 50 grams of carbohydrates. Carbohydrates provide 4 calories per gram, so 50 grams of carbohydrates would provide 200 calories (50 grams x 4 calories per gram = 200 calories). Therefore, the correct answer is 200 calories.

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  • 41. 

    Which is not a clear liquid diet?

    • Hard candy

    • Gelatin

    • Coffee with Coffee mate

    • Bouillon

    Correct Answer
    A. Coffee with Coffee mate
    Explanation
    Coffee with Coffee mate is not a clear liquid diet because it contains Coffee mate, which is a powdered creamer. Clear liquid diets are composed of fluids that are transparent and do not contain any solid particles or additives, such as creamers. Therefore, Coffee with Coffee mate does not meet the criteria of a clear liquid diet.

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  • 42. 

    The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

    • 1:2

    • 2:1

    • 3:1

    • 1:3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2:1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2:1. In medical terms, L:S ratio refers to the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid. This ratio is an important indicator of fetal lung maturity. A ratio of 2:1 or higher is considered normal and indicates that the baby's lungs are mature enough for them to be able to breathe properly after birth. A ratio of less than 2:1 suggests that the baby's lungs may not be fully developed and they may require additional medical intervention or support after birth.

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  • 43. 

    A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the residual volume, you determined that he has 40 cc residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of residual volume and added the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the lumen and the tube. How much will you put in the client’s chart as input?

    • 250 cc

    • 290 cc

    • 350 cc

    • 310 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 310 cc
    Explanation
    After checking the residual volume of 40 cc from the last feeding, the nurse reinstills this volume into the client's stomach. Then, the nurse adds the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor. Additionally, 60 cc of water is instilled to clear the lumen and the tube. Therefore, the total volume that is put into the client's chart as input is the sum of these amounts, which is 310 cc.

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  • 44. 

    To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best used?

    • Food likes and dislikes

    • Regularity of meal times

    • 3 day diet recall

    • Eating style and habits

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 day diet recall
    Explanation
    A 3-day diet recall is the best assessment parameter to assess the adequacy of food intake. This method involves the individual recalling all the food and beverages consumed over a period of three days. It provides a comprehensive overview of the person's dietary habits and allows for the evaluation of nutrient intake. By analyzing the 3-day diet recall, healthcare professionals can determine if the individual is consuming a balanced and adequate diet or if any adjustments need to be made to improve their food intake.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

    • A passive process

    • The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration

    • Stridor is commonly heard during expiration

    • Requires energy to be carried out

    Correct Answer
    A. A passive process
    Explanation
    Expiration is the process of exhaling or breathing out. It is considered a passive process because it does not require any active muscle contraction. Instead, it relies on the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall to push air out of the lungs. The statement that expiration requires energy to be carried out is incorrect, as it is a passive process. The length of expiration is not necessarily half of the length of inspiration, as it can vary depending on factors such as respiratory rate and lung capacity. Stridor, a high-pitched wheezing sound, is not commonly heard during expiration.

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  • 46. 

    All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except

    • It is where the digestion process starts

    • Mechanical digestion is brought about by mastication

    • The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose

    • Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva

    Correct Answer
    A. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose
    Explanation
    The action of ptyalin or the salivary trypsin breaks down starches into maltose.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following statement by a client with prolonged vomiting indicates the initial onset of hypokalemia?

    • My arm feels so weak

    • I felt my heart beat just right now

    • My face muscle is twitching

    • Nurse, help! My legs are cramping

    Correct Answer
    A. Nurse, help! My legs are cramping
    Explanation
    The statement "Nurse, help! My legs are cramping" indicates the initial onset of hypokalemia because cramping in the legs is a common symptom of low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can occur due to prolonged vomiting, which can lead to excessive loss of potassium from the body. The weakness in the arm, heart palpitations, and twitching of face muscles can also be symptoms of hypokalemia, but the legs cramping is a more specific indicator in this case.

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  • 48. 

    Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

    • Pancytopenia

    • Anemia

    • Fingers are Club-like

    • Hematocrit of client is decreased

    Correct Answer
    A. Fingers are Club-like
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fingers are Club-like." Clubbing of the fingers is a common finding in conditions that cause chronic hypoxia, such as lung disease or heart disease. It is characterized by the enlargement and rounding of the fingertips, giving them a club-like appearance. In this case, Miguelito de balboa, an OFW (Overseas Filipino Worker), presents with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, which suggests the presence of chronic hypoxia. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find clubbing of the fingers in this patient.

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  • 49. 

    Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA?

    • Strawberry tongue

    • Currant Jelly stool

    • Beefy red tongue

    • Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC

    Correct Answer
    A. Beefy red tongue
    Explanation
    A beefy red tongue is a characteristic finding in pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a condition in which the body is unable to absorb enough vitamin B12, leading to a deficiency. The deficiency affects the production of red blood cells, causing them to be pale and hypochromic. Additionally, the lack of vitamin B12 can lead to changes in the tongue, resulting in a beefy red appearance. Therefore, the finding of a beefy red tongue is consistent with pernicious anemia.

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  • Aug 29, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    RNpedia.com
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