Quiz : How Much Do You Know About Oxygenation And Nutrition In The Body

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?

    • For clearance mechanism such as coughing
    • Transport gases to the lower airways
    • Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air
    • Protect the lower airway from foreign mater
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About This Quiz

.
Nutrition and oxygenation are essential for survival. Just how much do you know about the nutrition and oxygenation in the body? Why not test your knowledge about the concepts with this super fun quiz? You are given four choices and out of which only one is correct, you are required to choose the correct option only. Please make sure See moreto read all the questions very carefully before attempting. Your scores will be given to you once you've completed answering all the questions on the quiz. Please note there is no time bar on the quiz. Keep learning and have fun!

Quiz : How Much Do You Know About Oxygenation And Nutrition In The Body - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects.

    • Cilia

    • Nares

    • Carina

    • Vibrissae

    Correct Answer
    A. Vibrissae
    Explanation
    Vibrissae are specialized hair-like structures found in various animals, including humans. They are typically located in the nostrils or around the face. Vibrissae serve as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects by trapping particles and preventing them from entering the respiratory system. These long and stiff hairs are highly sensitive and can detect even subtle changes in air movement, helping animals navigate and avoid obstacles in their environment. Therefore, the statement that vibrissae function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects is a valid explanation for their role in the vestibule.

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  • 3. 

    This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends back into the skull.

    • Ehtmoid

    • Sphenoid

    • Maxillary

    • Frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Ehtmoid
    Explanation
    The ethmoid sinus is a paranasal sinus located between the eyes and the nose. It extends back into the skull. This sinus is responsible for producing mucus that helps to moisten the nasal passages and filter out dust and other particles. It also plays a role in the sense of smell. The other options, sphenoid, maxillary, and frontal, are also paranasal sinuses, but they are located in different areas of the skull.

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  • 4. 

    Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

    • Ehtmoid

    • Sphenoid

    • Maxillary

    • Frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal
    Explanation
    The frontal sinus is found over the eyebrow.

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  • 5. 

    Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?

    • Right main stem bronchus

    • Left main stem bronchus

    • Be dislodged in between the carina

    • Be blocked by the closed epiglottis

    Correct Answer
    A. Right main stem bronchus
  • 6. 

    Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?

    • Type I pneumocytes

    • Type II pneumocytes

    • Goblet cells

    • Adipose cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Goblet cells
    Explanation
    Goblet cells are responsible for secreting mucus in the respiratory tract. Mucus acts as a protective layer that helps to trap debris and particles, preventing them from entering the lungs. This is important for maintaining the health and functioning of the respiratory system. Type I and Type II pneumocytes are not involved in mucus secretion, and adipose cells are not directly related to the respiratory tract.

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  • 7. 

    How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    The right lung has three lobes. The lungs are divided into lobes, with the right lung being larger and having three lobes - the upper, middle, and lower lobes. Each lobe is responsible for different functions in the respiratory system, such as oxygen exchange and removal of carbon dioxide.

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  • 8. 

    The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?

    • Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorter

    • Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorter

    • Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter

    • Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter

    Correct Answer
    A. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter
    Explanation
    The presence of the liver causes the right kidney to be lower and the right lung to be shorter. This is because the liver is located on the right side of the body, occupying space that would otherwise be available for the right kidney and lung. As a result, the right kidney is pushed down and the right lung is compressed, leading to their lower position and shorter length compared to their counterparts on the left side of the body.

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  • 9. 

    Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?

    • Type I pneumocytes

    • Type II pneumocytes

    • Goblet cells

    • Adipose cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Type II pneumocytes
    Explanation
    Type II pneumocytes are responsible for producing surfactant in the alveoli. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing them from collapsing and allowing for efficient gas exchange in the lungs. Type I pneumocytes, on the other hand, are involved in the structure and support of the alveoli. Goblet cells are found in the respiratory tract and secrete mucus, while adipose cells are fat cells and not involved in surfactant production.

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  • 10. 

    The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

    • 1:2

    • 2:1

    • 3:1

    • 1:3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2:1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2:1. In medical terms, L:S ratio refers to the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid. This ratio is an important indicator of fetal lung maturity. A ratio of 2:1 or higher is considered normal and indicates that the baby's lungs are mature enough for them to be able to breathe properly after birth. A ratio of less than 2:1 suggests that the baby's lungs may not be fully developed and they may require additional medical intervention or support after birth.

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  • 11. 

    Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume

    • Inspiratory reserve volume

    • Expiratory reserve volume

    • Functional residual capacity

    • Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspiratory reserve volume
    Explanation
    The inspiratory reserve volume refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume. It is the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. This additional volume of air allows for increased oxygen intake during times of increased physical activity or when the body needs more oxygen.

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  • 12. 

    This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration

    • Inspiratory reserve volume

    • Expiratory reserve volume

    • Functional residual capacity

    • Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Residual volume
    Explanation
    The residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration. This volume cannot be voluntarily expelled from the lungs and is necessary to keep the lungs inflated and prevent collapse. It represents the minimum amount of air that is always present in the respiratory system, even after complete exhalation.

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  • 13. 

    Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

    • We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543

    • Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

    Correct Answer
    A. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
  • 14. 

    Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

    • Lungs

    • Intercostal Muscles

    • Diaphragm

    • Pectoralis major

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is considered as the main muscle of respiration because it plays a crucial role in the breathing process. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs, separating the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. When we inhale, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, creating more space in the chest cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. When we exhale, the diaphragm relaxes and moves back up, pushing the air out of the lungs. Therefore, the diaphragm is essential for the process of inhalation and exhalation, making it the main muscle of respiration.

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  • 15. 

    Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

    • God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    • Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air

    • Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air

    • Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    Correct Answer
    A. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
    Explanation
    The best response is "Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air." This answer accurately states that humans require 21% of oxygen, which is the correct percentage. It also states that we have 21% available in our air, which means that the oxygen concentration in the air is sufficient for human needs.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

    • A passive process

    • The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration

    • Stridor is commonly heard during expiration

    • Requires energy to be carried out

    Correct Answer
    A. A passive process
    Explanation
    Expiration is the process of exhaling or breathing out. It is considered a passive process because it does not require any active muscle contraction. Instead, it relies on the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall to push air out of the lungs. The statement that expiration requires energy to be carried out is incorrect, as it is a passive process. The length of expiration is not necessarily half of the length of inspiration, as it can vary depending on factors such as respiratory rate and lung capacity. Stridor, a high-pitched wheezing sound, is not commonly heard during expiration.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

    • Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes

    • Should last only for 60 minutes

    • Done best P.C

    • An independent nursing action

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes
    Explanation
    Postural drainage is a technique used to help clear mucus and secretions from the lungs in patients with respiratory conditions. The correct answer states that the patient assumes the position for 10 to 15 minutes. This is true because during postural drainage, the patient is positioned in specific postures that allow gravity to assist in moving the mucus towards the larger airways, making it easier to cough up. The patient typically stays in each position for a specific amount of time, usually 10 to 15 minutes, to maximize the effectiveness of the technique.

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  • 18. 

    All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

    • Mucolytic

    • Warm and humidify air

    • Administer medications

    • Promote bronchoconstriction

    Correct Answer
    A. Promote bronchoconstriction
    Explanation
    Steam inhalation is a common practice used to provide relief for respiratory conditions such as congestion, cough, and sinusitis. The purpose of steam inhalation is to help loosen mucus and phlegm, making it easier to expel from the body. It also helps to warm and humidify the airways, providing soothing relief for dryness and irritation. Additionally, steam inhalation can be used as a method to administer medications directly to the respiratory system. However, promoting bronchoconstriction, which is the narrowing of the airways, is not a purpose of steam inhalation. In fact, steam inhalation is often used to alleviate bronchoconstriction and promote easier breathing.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

    • It is a dependent nursing action

    • Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the nose

    • Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes

    • Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation

    Correct Answer
    A. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes
  • 20. 

    When should a nurse suction a client?

    • As desired

    • As needed

    • Every 1 hour

    • Every 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    A nurse should suction a client as needed. Suctioning is a procedure used to remove secretions or foreign substances from the airway to maintain a clear passage for breathing. The need for suctioning can vary depending on the client's condition and the presence of excessive secretions or blockage. Suctioning should be performed when the client is experiencing difficulty breathing, has audible or visible secretions, or when there is a risk of aspiration. Performing suctioning as needed ensures that the client's airway is kept clear and promotes optimal respiratory function.

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  • 21. 

    Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

    • High fowlers

    • Semi fowlers

    • Prone

    • Side lying

    Correct Answer
    A. Side lying
    Explanation
    The correct position to place Mr. Hamilton in is side lying. This position helps prevent aspiration and allows for effective suctioning of secretions. It also promotes optimal lung expansion and ventilation. In addition, side lying position reduces the risk of pressure ulcers and provides comfort for the patient.

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  • 22. 

    You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?

    • 50-95 mmHg

    • 200-350 mmHg

    • 100-120 mmHg

    • 10-15 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. 100-120 mmHg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100-120 mmHg. When using a Wall unit suction machine, the suction pressure should be set between 100-120 mmHg before suctioning a patient. This range ensures that enough pressure is applied to effectively remove secretions or fluids from the patient's airway without causing discomfort or injury. Setting the pressure too low may result in ineffective suctioning, while setting it too high may cause damage to the patient's airway tissues. Therefore, the optimal pressure range for suctioning Mr. Hamilton is 100-120 mmHg.

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  • 23. 

    The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?

    • 2-5 mmHg

    • 5-10 mmHg

    • 10-15 mmHg

    • 15-25 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-15 mmHg
    Explanation
    The pressure of suction equipment needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and airways in case of portable suction units is 10-15 mmHg. This range of pressure is considered safe and effective for removing secretions without causing damage to the delicate tissues of the mucus membrane and airways. Higher pressures may lead to trauma and injury, while lower pressures may not be sufficient to effectively clear the airways. Therefore, a pressure of 10-15 mmHg is recommended for safe and effective suctioning.

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  • 24. 

    There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

    • Fr. 18

    • Fr. 12

    • Fr. 10

    • Fr, 5

    Correct Answer
    A. Fr. 18
    Explanation
    Mr. Hamilton should use Fr. 18 catheter size because it is the largest size available among the given options. Generally, larger catheter sizes are used for adult patients to ensure efficient drainage and minimize the risk of blockage. Smaller sizes like Fr. 12, Fr. 10, and Fr. 5 are usually used for pediatric or neonatal patients.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client?

    • Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process

    • Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion

    • The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds

    • Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
    Explanation
    Measuring the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process is not the correct technique for determining the appropriate length of the catheter. The correct method is to measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and then to the midpoint between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. Measuring to the xiphoid process alone would result in using an incorrect length of the catheter and could potentially cause harm to the client.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?1. Tachypnea2. Tachycardia3. Cyanosis4. Pallor5. Irritability6. Flaring of Nares

    • 1,2

    • 2,5

    • 2,6

    • 3,4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,5
    Explanation
    Tachycardia and irritability are the initial signs of hypoxemia in an adult client. Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate, which can occur as the body tries to compensate for the lack of oxygen by pumping blood faster. Irritability can occur due to the brain not receiving enough oxygen, leading to changes in mood and behavior.

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  • 27. 

    Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

    • Nasal Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non Rebreather mask

    • Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasal Cannula
    Explanation
    The nasal cannula is a method of oxygenation that least likely produces anxiety and apprehension because it is a comfortable and non-invasive option. It consists of two small prongs that are inserted into the nostrils, delivering a low to moderate flow of oxygen. This method allows the patient to breathe through their mouth and nose, providing a more natural and less restrictive experience compared to masks. The simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial rebreather mask may cause discomfort, claustrophobia, and anxiety due to their coverage of the face and potential restriction of breathing.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?

    • Nasal Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non Rebreather mask

    • Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Non Rebreather mask
    Explanation
    A non-rebreather mask is the oxygen delivery method that can deliver 100% oxygen at 15 LPM. This mask has a reservoir bag attached to it, which allows the patient to inhale pure oxygen without rebreathing exhaled air. The oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM ensures that the patient receives a high concentration of oxygen. Nasal cannula, simple face mask, and partial rebreather mask do not provide 100% oxygen at 15 LPM.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

    • Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.

    • Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane

    • Oxygen supports combustion

    • Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    Excessive oxygen administration can lead to respiratory acidosis, a condition where the blood pH decreases due to an excess of carbon dioxide. Normally, oxygen administration helps to maintain proper oxygen levels in the blood, but when too much oxygen is given, it can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to a buildup of carbon dioxide and subsequent acidosis. This can be particularly problematic for individuals with certain respiratory conditions or those who are already experiencing respiratory distress.

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  • 30. 

    Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

    • Uses venture mask in oxygen administration

    • Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source

    • Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen

    • Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
    Explanation
    Putting a non rebreather mask on the patient before opening the oxygen source can lead to a buildup of oxygen inside the mask, which can cause a fire hazard. It is important to open the oxygen source first and then place the mask on the patient to ensure proper oxygen flow and prevent any potential accidents.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?

    • Client is tired and dyspneic

    • The client is coughing out blood

    • The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM

    • Client is frequently turning from side to side

    Correct Answer
    A. Client is frequently turning from side to side
    Explanation
    Frequent turning from side to side can be an early sign of hypoxia because the client may be trying to find a position that allows for better oxygenation. When the body is not receiving enough oxygen, it instinctively tries to compensate by changing positions to improve blood flow and oxygen delivery. This can be a sign that the client is experiencing difficulty breathing and may need further assessment and intervention from the nurse.

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  • 32. 

    Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

    • Pancytopenia

    • Anemia

    • Fingers are Club-like

    • Hematocrit of client is decreased

    Correct Answer
    A. Fingers are Club-like
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fingers are Club-like." Clubbing of the fingers is a common finding in conditions that cause chronic hypoxia, such as lung disease or heart disease. It is characterized by the enlargement and rounding of the fingertips, giving them a club-like appearance. In this case, Miguelito de balboa, an OFW (Overseas Filipino Worker), presents with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, which suggests the presence of chronic hypoxia. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find clubbing of the fingers in this patient.

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  • 33. 

    The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

    • Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non rebreather mask

    • Venturi mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannula
    Explanation
    The best method of oxygen administration for a client with COPD is using a cannula. This is because a cannula delivers a low-flow oxygen rate, which is more suitable for COPD patients who retain carbon dioxide. A cannula allows the client to breathe in room air along with the supplemental oxygen, preventing oxygen toxicity. Additionally, a cannula is comfortable and easy to wear, making it a preferred choice for long-term oxygen therapy.

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  • 34. 

    Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands for?

    • Chest tube thoracotomy

    • Chest tube thoracostomy

    • Closed tube thoracotomy

    • Closed tube thoracostmy

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed tube thoracotomy
    Explanation
    CTT stands for closed tube thoracotomy. In this context, it refers to a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the chest wall and inserting a closed tube to drain fluid or air from the pleural space. This procedure is commonly used to treat conditions such as pleural effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid in the space between the lungs and the chest wall. By inserting a closed tube, the excess fluid or air can be drained, relieving the pressure on the lungs and improving breathing.

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  • 35. 

    Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?

    • 2nd ICS

    • 4th ICS

    • 5th ICS

    • 8th ICS

    Correct Answer
    A. 8th ICS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8th ICS. The 8th intercostal space (ICS) is the appropriate location for inserting a CTT (chest tube thoracostomy) to drain fluids accumulated in Mang Dagul's pleura. This is because the 8th ICS is located in the lower part of the chest, near the diaphragm, which allows for effective drainage of pleural fluid. Placing the CTT in this location will help alleviate the accumulation of fluids and relieve any associated symptoms or complications.

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  • 36. 

    There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?

    • Consider this as normal findings

    • Notify the physician

    • Check for tube leak

    • Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing

    Correct Answer
    A. Consider this as normal findings
    Explanation
    The continuous bubbling and oscillation in the water sealed drainage system with suction can be considered as normal findings. This is because the bubbling and oscillation indicate that the suction is working properly and there is proper drainage of fluid from the patient's body. Therefore, as a nurse, there is no need to notify the physician or check for tube leak. Additionally, preparing a petrolatum gauze dressing is not relevant to the situation described.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is true about nutrition?

    • It is the process in which food are broken down, for the body to use in growth and development

    • It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are transported into the circulation

    • It is a chemical process that occurs in the cell that allows for energy production, energy use, growth and tissue repair

    • It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body

    Correct Answer
    A. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that nutrition is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are used by the body. This means that nutrition involves understanding the different types of nutrients needed by the body and how they are utilized for growth, energy production, tissue repair, and overall health. It goes beyond just the process of breaking down food or the transportation of digested substances into the circulation.

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  • 38. 

    The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

    • Mouth

    • Small intestine

    • Large intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Small intestine
    Explanation
    The small intestine is the correct answer because it is the primary site of digestion and absorption of nutrients in the digestive system. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and further breaks it down using enzymes produced by the pancreas and the intestine itself. The small intestine has a large surface area due to its length and the presence of villi, which increases the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. This is where most of the nutrients, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, are absorbed into the body for energy and other functions.

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  • 39. 

    All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except

    • It is where the digestion process starts

    • Mechanical digestion is brought about by mastication

    • The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose

    • Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva

    Correct Answer
    A. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose
    Explanation
    The action of ptyalin or the salivary trypsin breaks down starches into maltose.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?

    • Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and Rice

    • Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackers

    • Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, Suman

    • Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg

    Correct Answer
    A. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg
    Explanation
    Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg can lower the cardiac sphincter pressure. The cardiac sphincter is a muscular valve that separates the esophagus from the stomach. Certain foods can weaken this valve, leading to acid reflux and heartburn. Coffee is known to relax the lower esophageal sphincter, and the addition of coffee mate, bacon, and egg can further contribute to this relaxation. This can result in increased acid reflux and a decrease in cardiac sphincter pressure.

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  • 41. 

    Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

    • Mouth

    • Esophagus

    • Small intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Mouth
    Explanation
    The digestion of carbohydrates starts in the mouth. Salivary glands in the mouth produce an enzyme called amylase, which breaks down carbohydrates into smaller molecules. When we chew our food, the amylase in saliva begins to break down the complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. This initial breakdown of carbohydrates in the mouth is an important step in the overall process of digestion.

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  • 42. 

    Protein and Fat digestion begins where?

    • Mouth

    • Esophagus

    • Small intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Stomach
    Explanation
    Protein and fat digestion begins in the stomach. The stomach secretes gastric juices, including hydrochloric acid and enzymes like pepsin, which break down proteins into smaller peptides. The stomach also releases lipase, an enzyme that starts breaking down fats into fatty acids and glycerol. Therefore, the stomach plays a crucial role in the initial digestion of proteins and fats before they move on to the small intestine for further breakdown and absorption.

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  • 43. 

    All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach

    • Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hour

    • Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hours

    • HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa

    • HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion

    Correct Answer
    A. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa
    Explanation
    HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa. This statement is not true because HCl actually aids in the absorption of Calcium in the stomach. HCl helps to break down calcium compounds and make them more soluble, allowing for better absorption in the intestines.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?

    • Sucrase

    • Enterokinase

    • Amylase

    • Enterokinase

    Correct Answer
    A. Amylase
    Explanation
    Amylase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that is secreted by the salivary glands and the pancreas, not the small intestine. Sucrase and enterokinase are enzymes that are secreted by the small intestine to aid in the digestion of carbohydrates and proteins, respectively. Therefore, amylase is the only option that is not secreted by the small intestine.

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  • 45. 

    The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach

    • Enterogastrone

    • Cholecystokinin

    • Pancreozymin

    • Enterokinase

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreozymin
    Explanation
    Pancreozymin is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice. Pancreatic juice aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the stomach. Therefore, Pancreozymin plays a crucial role in regulating the digestive process by ensuring the proper secretion of pancreatic juice to neutralize the acidity of the bolus.

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  • 46. 

    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

    • Galactose + Galactose

    • Glucose + Fructose

    • Glucose + Galactose

    • Fructose + Fructose

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose + Fructose
    Explanation
    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on sucrose, it breaks down the sucrose molecule into two monosaccharides, namely glucose and fructose. This is a common process that occurs during the digestion of carbohydrates in the small intestine. Glucose and fructose are both simple sugars that can be easily absorbed into the bloodstream for energy utilization.

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  • 47. 

    This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion

    • Trypsin

    • Enterokinase

    • Enterogastrone

    • Amylase

    Correct Answer
    A. Trypsin
    Explanation
    Trypsin is the enzyme secreted by the pancreas that completes protein digestion. It is responsible for breaking down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can then be absorbed by the body. Enterokinase is an enzyme that activates trypsin, while enterogastrone is a hormone that inhibits gastric acid secretion. Amylase, on the other hand, is an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates. Therefore, out of the given options, trypsin is the correct answer for completing protein digestion.

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  • 48. 

    The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call

    • Nucleotides

    • Fatty acids

    • Glucose

    • Amino Acids

    Correct Answer
    A. Amino Acids
    Explanation
    Amino acids are the end product of protein digestion and are considered the building blocks of protein. When proteins are broken down during digestion, they are broken down into individual amino acids. These amino acids are then absorbed into the bloodstream and used by the body for various functions, such as building new proteins, repairing tissues, and supporting overall growth and development. Therefore, amino acids are the correct answer in this case.

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  • 49. 

    Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its digestion.

    • Lipase

    • Amylase

    • Cholecystokinin

    • Pancreozymin

    Correct Answer
    A. Cholecystokinin
    Explanation
    Cholecystokinin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is secreted by the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty food. It stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder, causing it to release bile, which aids in the emulsification and digestion of fats. Cholecystokinin also relaxes the sphincter of Oddi, allowing bile and pancreatic enzymes, including lipase, to enter the small intestine and further aid in the digestion of fats.

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  • Aug 29, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 14, 2012
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