Exam #3 Advanced Assessment

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1/119 Questions

MCV or Mean Corpuscular Volume is the average volume/size of RBC's in the blood and the normal values are between 80-100?
- True
- False

About This Quiz

Exam #3 Advanced Assessment tests understanding of hematological disorders. It covers neutrophil and lymphocyte responses in infections, RBC indices like MCV and MCH, and differentiates types of microcytic anemia, focusing on iron deficiency anemia.

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2.

MCH or mean corpuscular hemoglobin is the average amount of hemoglobin on a RBC, normal is 1.68-1.92
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The statement is true because MCH, or mean corpuscular hemoglobin, is indeed the average amount of hemoglobin on a red blood cell (RBC). The normal range for MCH is 1.68-1.92, indicating the average amount of hemoglobin present in a healthy RBC.

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3.

Client has a blood work profile that includes a low H & H, low MCV/MCH, low ferritin level and an increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC). What is the suspected anemic cause?
- Lead poisoning
- Iron deficiency
- Thalassemia
- Option 4
Correct Answer

A. Iron deficiency

Explanation

The client's blood work profile shows low H & H, low MCV/MCH, low ferritin level, and increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC). These findings are consistent with iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency is a common cause of anemia and can result from inadequate dietary intake, poor absorption, or excessive blood loss. The low levels of hemoglobin and red blood cells (H & H), small size of red blood cells (MCV/MCH), low ferritin (iron stores), and increased TIBC (reflecting the body's attempt to increase iron uptake) all point towards iron deficiency as the likely cause of anemia in this client.

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4.

Another cause of macrocytic anemia is alcoholism/liver disease?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Alcoholism and liver disease can lead to macrocytic anemia. Chronic alcohol consumption can result in nutritional deficiencies, particularly of folate and vitamin B12, which are essential for red blood cell production. Additionally, liver disease can impair the liver's ability to store and release these vitamins, further contributing to anemia. Therefore, it is true that alcoholism and liver disease can cause macrocytic anemia.

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5.

Client has a b12 deficiency but it is found that the anti-intrinsic factor is +, what is suspected as the cause of the macrocytic anemia associated with extended G2 phase of cell reproduction?
- Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency
- Pernicious Anemia
- Lead poisoning
- Thalassemia
Correct Answer

A. Pernicious Anemia

Explanation

A positive anti-intrinsic factor means that the stomach lining is not producing enough intrinsic factor and the body is unable to absorb enough b12.

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6.

Liver enzymes are non-specific as the values are representative of normal cellular decay in healthy individuals. It is not necessary to follow-up with enzymes unless the values are 2 or more times the normal values?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Liver enzymes are substances produced by liver cells that are released into the bloodstream when liver cells are damaged or die. The values of liver enzymes in healthy individuals are within a certain range, which is considered normal. These values can slightly vary from person to person. However, liver enzymes are not specific to liver diseases and can also be elevated in other conditions. Therefore, a slight increase in liver enzyme values may not necessarily indicate liver disease. It is generally recommended to follow-up with liver enzymes only if the values are significantly higher, typically 2 or more times the normal range. Hence, the statement "It is not necessary to follow-up with enzymes unless the values are 2 or more times the normal values" is true.

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7.

If you have a microcytic anemia and you have a normal ferritin level you could rule out Iron deficiency and suspect lead poisoning or thalassemia?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

If a person has a microcytic anemia (a condition characterized by small red blood cells) and a normal ferritin level (a protein that stores iron), it is unlikely to be caused by iron deficiency. Iron deficiency is a common cause of microcytic anemia and is usually associated with low ferritin levels. Therefore, ruling out iron deficiency suggests that the microcytic anemia may be due to other causes such as lead poisoning or thalassemia.

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8.

The _______ test which when elevated may be the first indicator of cirrhosis.

Correct Answer
INR

Explanation
Normal INR is 0.8-1.1, you need to make sure the client is on no blood thinning agents.

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9.

A decreased serum Albumin, elevated INR and elevated bilirubin indicate?
- Cirrhosis
- Pancreatitis
- Peritonitis
Correct Answer

A. Cirrhosis

Explanation

A decreased Albumin is the likely cause for ascites with reduced osmotic pull of fluids into the veins/capillaries from the interstitial spaces caused by a lack of protein. Liver enzymes are a poor test with chronic cirrhosis as the liver tissue is not decaying/dying as fast with less viable tissue left. Tests may be normal.

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10.

The patient has an elevated BUN with a slightly and slower elevating creatinine test, the BUN/Creatinine ration is >20. We can suspect a pre-renal failure such as renal stenosis or dehydration?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Urine osmolality will be elevated with dehydration as the body is trying to retain fluid. Urine Na will be lower than 20

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11.

The BUN and Creatinine both increase relative to each other and the client has painful urination, likely post renal failure such as a kidney stone?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The given answer is true because an increase in both BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Painful urination can be a symptom of post renal failure, which can be caused by a kidney stone blocking the urinary tract. Therefore, the combination of increased BUN and creatinine levels along with painful urination suggests the possibility of post renal failure, such as a kidney stone.

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12.

Testicular CA risk factors
- Male 20-54
- White
- Undescended testicle
- Hx of testicular CA
- Family Hx of testicular CA
Correct Answer(s)

A. Male 20-54
A. White
A. Undescended testicle
A. Hx of testicular CA
A. Family Hx of testicular CA

Explanation

The given answer includes all the known risk factors for testicular cancer. Testicular cancer is more common in males between the ages of 20-54, and white males are at a higher risk compared to other ethnicities. Having an undescended testicle increases the risk, as well as having a personal history or family history of testicular cancer. Therefore, all the factors mentioned in the answer contribute to an increased risk of developing testicular cancer.

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13.

This state of penile being is possibly caused by leukemia, sickle cell disease or standard ED treatment.
- Phimosis
- Priapism
- Hydrocele
- Balanitis
Correct Answer

A. Priapism

Explanation

Priapism refers to a prolonged and painful erection that lasts for more than four hours without sexual stimulation. This condition can be caused by various factors, including leukemia, sickle cell disease, or certain medications used to treat erectile dysfunction (ED). Leukemia and sickle cell disease can affect blood flow, leading to priapism. Additionally, some ED treatments, such as injections or medications, can cause priapism as a side effect. Therefore, the given statement suggests that priapism can be caused by these conditions or treatments.

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14.

A strangulated hernia is not reducible and requires prompt surgical intervention?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

A strangulated hernia occurs when a part of the intestine becomes trapped and the blood supply to that area is cut off. This leads to severe pain, tenderness, and swelling. In such cases, the hernia cannot be pushed back into place (reduced) manually and immediate surgical intervention is necessary to release the trapped intestine and restore blood flow. Therefore, the statement that a strangulated hernia is not reducible and requires prompt surgical intervention is true.

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15.

Having no sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes may be a result of Diabetic neuropathy or syphilis?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Having no sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes may be a result of diabetic neuropathy or syphilis. Diabetic neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves and can lead to loss of sensation, including in the testes. Syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, can also cause nerve damage and result in decreased sensitivity to pain. Therefore, it is true that both diabetic neuropathy and syphilis can cause a lack of sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes.

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16.

Client presents with acute, very painful right testicle, reports N and V with anorexia. Client has an absent Cremasteric reflex on the right side. No reports of fever or malaise. Client is an adolescent who is very active. What is likely cause?
- Phymosis
- Testicular torsion
- Epididymitis
- Hydrocele
Correct Answer

A. Testicular torsion

Explanation

The client's symptoms of acute, severe pain in the right testicle, along with the absence of the Cremasteric reflex, suggest testicular torsion as the likely cause. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This condition is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention to prevent permanent damage to the testicle. The absence of fever or malaise and the client's age and activity level further support this diagnosis. Phymosis, epididymitis, and hydrocele do not typically present with the same symptoms or require urgent intervention.

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17.

Client presents with a mildly edematous scrotum that has gradually become more tender. The client reports a fever and general fatigue. He also reports pyuria and pus drainage from the urethra. He has no N/V to report. Client reports recent sexual activity and is 26. You note a firm lumpy epididymitis and beading of the vas deferens. What is likely cause?
- Spermatocele
- Torsion
- Epididymitis
- Paraphymosis
Correct Answer

A. Epididymitis

Explanation

The client's symptoms of a mildly edematous scrotum, tenderness, fever, fatigue, pyuria, and pus drainage from the urethra, along with the physical examination findings of a firm lumpy epididymitis and beading of the vas deferens, are consistent with epididymitis. Epididymitis is an inflammation of the epididymis, which is commonly caused by a bacterial infection. It often occurs as a result of a urinary tract infection or sexually transmitted infection. The client's recent sexual activity and age of 26 also support the diagnosis of epididymitis.

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18.

You could suspect gonococcal urethritis if patient presents with green/yellow discharge with painful/burning urination?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The presence of green/yellow discharge and painful/burning urination are common symptoms of gonococcal urethritis. This condition is caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is transmitted through sexual contact. The green/yellow discharge is a result of the infection, while the painful/burning urination is caused by inflammation of the urethra. Therefore, if a patient presents with these symptoms, it is reasonable to suspect gonococcal urethritis.

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19.

If on examination of the prostate there is urethral drainage you should collect and culture the drainage?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

If there is urethral drainage during examination of the prostate, it is important to collect and culture the drainage. This is because the presence of drainage may indicate an infection or inflammation in the prostate or urinary tract. Collecting and culturing the drainage allows for the identification of any potential pathogens present, which can help guide appropriate treatment decisions. It is an important step in diagnosing and managing prostate and urinary tract infections.

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20.

Hemorrhoids in children are rare and may indicate serious underlying problem such as portal hypertension?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Hemorrhoids in children are indeed rare and can be a cause for concern as they may indicate a serious underlying issue such as portal hypertension. Portal hypertension refers to high blood pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver. When this vein is blocked or damaged, it can lead to the development of hemorrhoids. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct in stating that hemorrhoids in children may indicate a serious underlying problem like portal hypertension.

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21.

Small flat flaps of skin around the rectum (Condylomas) are commonly from hpv infection?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Small flat flaps of skin around the rectum, known as condylomas, are commonly caused by HPV infection. HPV, or human papillomavirus, is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital warts. Condylomas are a type of genital wart that can occur in and around the rectal area. HPV is a very common infection, with many different strains, and it can be spread through sexual contact. Therefore, it is true that condylomas are commonly caused by HPV infection.

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22.

Tufts of hair, sinuses and dimpling of the pilonidal area may indicate spinal deformities and alert the examiner for a need of ultrasound to evaluate potential spinal deformities?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Tufts of hair, sinuses, and dimpling of the pilonidal area are all signs that may indicate the presence of spinal deformities. These deformities can affect the alignment and structure of the spine, potentially causing pain and other complications. Therefore, if these signs are observed, it would be prudent for the examiner to consider the possibility of spinal deformities and recommend an ultrasound to further evaluate the condition.

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23.

A constantly empty rectum in children with presence of constipation should alert to hirschsprung disease.
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The statement is true because Hirschsprung disease is a condition where there is a lack of nerve cells in the rectum and colon, leading to difficulty in passing stool. This can result in constipation. If a child consistently has an empty rectum despite having constipation, it suggests that there may be an underlying issue such as Hirschsprung disease. Therefore, the presence of a constantly empty rectum in children with constipation should indeed alert to Hirschsprung disease.

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24.

Client presents with typical symptoms of frequency, dysuria, hesitancy, nocturia and incomplete emptying/retention. The client labs show no bacteremia. Prostate feels enlarged with a smooth symmetric and slightly boggy feel. What is suspected?
- Prostate cancer
- BPH
- Prostatitis
- Healthy prostate
Correct Answer

A. BPH

Explanation

Based on the client's symptoms of frequency, dysuria, hesitancy, nocturia, and incomplete emptying/retention, along with the physical examination findings of an enlarged prostate with a smooth symmetric and slightly boggy feel, the suspected condition is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that commonly occurs in older men. It can cause urinary symptoms similar to those described by the client, and the physical examination findings are consistent with an enlarged prostate. Prostate cancer would typically present with different symptoms and may not have the same physical examination findings. Prostatitis is another possible condition, but the absence of bacteremia makes it less likely. "Healthy prostate" is not a plausible explanation given the client's symptoms and examination findings.

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25.

Male client presents with symptoms consistent with BpH, on exam the prostate feels hard and asymmetric with no tenderness and the median sulcus is obliterated. What is suspected?
- Prostatitis
- BPH
- Prostate CA
- Colon CA
Correct Answer

A. Prostate CA

Explanation

PSA would likely be elevated at this point.

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26.

People with dysplastic nevi are at more risk for melanoma?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

People with dysplastic nevi, which are atypical moles, are at a higher risk for melanoma. Dysplastic nevi often have irregular borders, uneven coloration, and a larger size compared to normal moles. These characteristics indicate cellular changes that increase the likelihood of developing melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Regular monitoring and early detection of any changes in these moles are crucial for individuals with dysplastic nevi to prevent the progression to melanoma. Therefore, the statement "people with dysplastic nevi are at more risk for melanoma" is true.

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27.

This kind of light is used to help determine any presence of some types of fungus on the skin and will fluorescence green/yellow. Also used to determine hypo and hyper pigmentation demarcation lines.
- Fluorescent lighting
- Woods lamp
- LCD lighting
- Candle light
Correct Answer

A. Woods lamp

Explanation

A Woods lamp is the correct answer because it is a type of light that is used to determine the presence of certain types of fungus on the skin. This light emits ultraviolet rays that cause certain substances, such as fungus, to fluoresce green or yellow. Additionally, a Woods lamp can be used to identify hypo and hyperpigmentation demarcation lines on the skin. Fluorescent lighting, LCD lighting, and candle light do not have the specific properties necessary for these purposes.

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28.

Client has a green/black singular nail bed, reports that he has pain on palpation. We can rule out pseudomonas infection as a result. What is the likely diagnosis?
- Subungal infection
- Splinter hemorrhages
- Trauma to the nail bed.
- Cellulitis
Correct Answer

A. Trauma to the nail bed.

Explanation

The client's green/black singular nail bed, along with the report of pain on palpation, suggests that there has been some form of injury or trauma to the nail bed. This is the likely diagnosis because the symptoms are consistent with trauma rather than an infection or other conditions such as subungal infection or cellulitis. Splinter hemorrhages typically present as small lines of blood under the nail and are not associated with pain on palpation. Therefore, trauma to the nail bed is the most plausible explanation for the client's symptoms.

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29.

If your bands on a CBC are increasing but overall WBC's are going down the prognosis is poor?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

conversely if bands are rising and WBC's are rising prognosis is good.

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30.

GGT increases with ETOH/Barbiturate/Dilantin use
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The statement is true because ETOH (alcohol), barbiturates, and Dilantin (phenytoin) are known to increase the levels of gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) in the body. GGT is an enzyme found in various organs, including the liver, and its levels can be used as a marker for liver damage or disease. These substances can cause liver toxicity and therefore elevate GGT levels.

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31.

Triad of lab values for chronic cirrhosis are?
- Increased bilirubin, Increased INR and decreased Albumin.
- Decreased bilirubin, Increased INR and Increased Albumin
- Increase in all three: INR, Bilirubin and Albumin.
- Option 4
Correct Answer

A. Increased bilirubin, Increased INR and decreased Albumin.

Explanation

The triad of lab values for chronic cirrhosis includes increased bilirubin, increased INR, and decreased albumin. This combination of findings is commonly seen in patients with cirrhosis due to impaired liver function. Increased bilirubin levels occur because the liver is unable to properly process and excrete bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Increased INR indicates impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors, which can result in a prolonged clotting time. Decreased albumin levels are a result of decreased liver synthesis of this protein. Overall, these lab values reflect the compromised liver function that is characteristic of chronic cirrhosis.

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32.

AST/ALT is a poor indicator if client is suspected of having chronic cirrhosis as the cells of the liver are fewer and not dying at an acute or increased rate?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The statement is true because AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are enzymes found in the liver cells. In chronic cirrhosis, the liver cells are fewer in number and not dying at an acute or increased rate. Therefore, the levels of AST and ALT may not be significantly elevated in chronic cirrhosis, making them poor indicators of the condition.

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33.

Iron deficiency anemia may be normocytic early in the process?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Iron deficiency anemia will microcytic after a while, low ferritin levels when the MCV is normal(80-100) would be an early indicator if low.

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34.

If LDL is elevated mildly above 130 what is the correct course of action?
- Educate on diet and exercise and re-evaluate in 3-6 months.
- Treat with medicines
- Nothing.
Correct Answer

A. Educate on diet and exercise and re-evaluate in 3-6 months.

Explanation

If LDL (low-density lipoprotein) levels are mildly elevated above 130, the correct course of action is to educate the individual on diet and exercise. This approach aims to promote lifestyle changes that can help lower LDL levels. By providing information and guidance on healthier eating habits and regular physical activity, the individual can make positive changes to their lifestyle. Additionally, it is recommended to re-evaluate their LDL levels in 3-6 months to assess the effectiveness of the lifestyle modifications. This approach prioritizes non-pharmacological interventions before considering medication as a treatment option.

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35.

One way to raise your HDL is to increase activity?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Increasing physical activity has been shown to raise levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, commonly known as "good" cholesterol. Regular exercise can help improve the function of HDL, which plays a crucial role in removing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, or "bad" cholesterol, from the bloodstream. By increasing activity levels, individuals can stimulate the production of HDL cholesterol, leading to a higher level of this beneficial lipid in the body. This, in turn, can help reduce the risk of heart disease and improve overall cardiovascular health.

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36.

Triglycerides can increase with which of the following?
- Increased carb intake.
- Increased exercise.
- Alcohol abuse.
- Increase as client reaches diabetes level of BG.
Correct Answer(s)

A. Increased carb intake.
A. Alcohol abuse.
A. Increase as client reaches diabetes level of BG.

Explanation

Triglycerides are a type of fat found in the blood. They can increase with increased carb intake because excess carbohydrates are converted into triglycerides and stored as fat. Alcohol abuse can also increase triglyceride levels as alcohol is metabolized into triglycerides in the liver. Additionally, triglyceride levels can increase as a client reaches diabetes level of blood glucose (BG) because insulin resistance and elevated blood sugar levels can lead to higher triglyceride production.

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37.

In order to determine rotation we calculate the distance between the spinous process and the medial ends of the clavicles?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

No rotation will be evident with equidistance between the spinous process and the medial ends of the clavicles. It the patient is left lying or tilted left the spinous process witll be closer to the right medial clavicle end.

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38.

The heart should be less than 50% of Cardio/thoracic diameter?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Possible normal causes for >50% are: Portable AP film, obesity, pregnant.

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39.

If the client is doing an xray and fails to take a deep breath the lung can appear to have consolidation/pnemonia in the lower film?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

This is eradicated with increased inspiration.

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40.

The _________ diaphram is higher on xray then the __________

Correct Answer
Right, Left

Explanation
The right diaphragm appears higher on x-ray than the left diaphragm.

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41.

A meniscus sign in the AP/PA x ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung bases laterally/medially? This is a sign of pleural effusion?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The meniscus sign in the AP/PA x-ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung bases laterally or medially. This pooling of fluid is a characteristic sign of pleural effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space surrounding the lungs. Therefore, the statement "A meniscus sign in the AP/PA x-ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung bases laterally/medially" is true.

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42.

You measure head circumference each visit until 2 and graph out?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The statement is suggesting that head circumference should be measured at each visit until the age of 2, and then graphed out. This implies that measuring head circumference is important for monitoring the growth and development of a child's head until the age of 2. By graphing out the measurements, healthcare professionals can track any abnormalities or deviations from the expected growth pattern, which can be indicative of potential health issues or developmental delays. Therefore, the answer "True" is correct as it aligns with the recommended practice of measuring and graphing head circumference until the age of 2.

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43.

Blood pressure should be checked yearly at age 3?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Blood pressure should be checked yearly at age 3 because it is important to monitor and detect any potential abnormalities or health issues at an early stage. Regular blood pressure checks can help identify conditions such as hypertension or other cardiovascular problems that may require intervention or treatment. By checking blood pressure yearly, healthcare professionals can ensure the child's overall health and well-being are maintained and any potential risks are addressed promptly.

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44.

Autism should be screened at 9, 18 and 24 months. What is a possible sign of autism at 4 months of age?
- Absence of pincer grasp
- Head lag
- Absence of rooting reflex
- Inability to turn over from back to stomach
Correct Answer

A. Head lag

Explanation

Hypotonic neck results in an inability to align the head with the trunk if held horizontal.

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45.

Pulling down and back on the ear lobe is the way to visualize the TM in infants/young children?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Pulling down and back on the ear lobe is the recommended technique for visualizing the tympanic membrane (TM) in infants and young children. This maneuver helps straighten the ear canal and provides a clearer view of the TM. By gently pulling the ear lobe downwards and backwards, healthcare professionals can assess the TM for any signs of infection, inflammation, or fluid buildup. This technique is particularly useful in this age group as their ear canals are shorter and more angled compared to adults, making visualization more challenging.

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46.

Iron fortified formula should be used if using formula? Also it is wise to check for anemia on adolescent girls who have began their period?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

It is recommended to use iron fortified formula if using formula as it provides additional iron to support the baby's growth and development. Additionally, it is wise to check for anemia in adolescent girls who have begun their period as they are at a higher risk of developing iron deficiency due to blood loss during menstruation. Regular screening for anemia can help identify and address any deficiencies early on.

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47.

Lead risk checked at 6-9 months, check at 1 year unless low risk and again at 2 years if high risk?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

The statement is suggesting that lead risk should be checked at 6-9 months, then again at 1 year unless the risk is low, and finally at 2 years if the risk is high. This implies that there is a specific timeline for checking lead risk in individuals, with different intervals depending on the level of risk. Therefore, the answer "True" indicates that the statement accurately represents the recommended schedule for lead risk checks.

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48.

Girls with higher bmi generally start puberty sooner?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

Girls with higher BMI generally start puberty sooner because body fat plays a role in the onset of puberty. Higher levels of body fat can lead to an increase in the production of estrogen, a hormone that triggers the development of secondary sexual characteristics and the start of puberty. Therefore, girls with a higher BMI, which is often associated with higher levels of body fat, are more likely to experience earlier puberty compared to girls with a lower BMI.

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49.

UTI is 90% predictive if the client has dysuria and frequency even without vaginal discharge?
- True
- False
Correct Answer

A. True

Explanation

50% predictive with one of the following: dysuria, frequency, CVA tenderness, back pain, hematuria.

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Exam #3 Advanced Assessment

MCV or Mean Corpuscular Volume is the average volume/size of RBC's in the blood and the normal values are between 80-100?

Quiz Preview

MCH or mean corpuscular hemoglobin is the average amount of hemoglobin on a RBC, normal is 1.68-1.92

Client has a blood work profile that includes a low H & H, low MCV/MCH, low ferritin level and an increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC). What is the suspected anemic cause?

Another cause of macrocytic anemia is alcoholism/liver disease?

Client has a b12 deficiency but it is found that the anti-intrinsic factor is +, what is suspected as the cause of the macrocytic anemia associated with extended G2 phase of cell reproduction?

Liver enzymes are non-specific as the values are representative of normal cellular decay in healthy individuals. It is not necessary to follow-up with enzymes unless the values are 2 or more times the normal values?

If you have a microcytic anemia and you have a normal ferritin level you could rule out Iron deficiency and suspect lead poisoning or thalassemia?

The _______ test which when elevated may be the first indicator of cirrhosis.

A decreased serum Albumin, elevated INR and elevated bilirubin indicate?

The patient has an elevated BUN with a slightly and slower elevating creatinine test, the BUN/Creatinine ration is >20. We can suspect a pre-renal failure such as renal stenosis or dehydration?

The BUN and Creatinine both increase relative to each other and the client has painful urination, likely post renal failure such as a kidney stone?

Testicular CA risk factors

This state of penile being is possibly caused by leukemia, sickle cell disease or standard ED treatment.

A strangulated hernia is not reducible and requires prompt surgical intervention?

Having no sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes may be a result of Diabetic neuropathy or syphilis?

Client presents with acute, very painful right testicle, reports N and V with anorexia. Client has an absent Cremasteric reflex on the right side. No reports of fever or malaise. Client is an adolescent who is very active. What is likely cause?

You could suspect gonococcal urethritis if patient presents with green/yellow discharge with painful/burning urination?

If on examination of the prostate there is urethral drainage you should collect and culture the drainage?

Hemorrhoids in children are rare and may indicate serious underlying problem such as portal hypertension?

Small flat flaps of skin around the rectum (Condylomas) are commonly from hpv infection?

Tufts of hair, sinuses and dimpling of the pilonidal area may indicate spinal deformities and alert the examiner for a need of ultrasound to evaluate potential spinal deformities?

A constantly empty rectum in children with presence of constipation should alert to hirschsprung disease.

Client presents with typical symptoms of frequency, dysuria, hesitancy, nocturia and incomplete emptying/retention. The client labs show no bacteremia. Prostate feels enlarged with a smooth symmetric and slightly boggy feel. What is suspected?

Male client presents with symptoms consistent with BpH, on exam the prostate feels hard and asymmetric with no tenderness and the median sulcus is obliterated. What is suspected?

People with dysplastic nevi are at more risk for melanoma?

This kind of light is used to help determine any presence of some types of fungus on the skin and will fluorescence green/yellow. Also used to determine hypo and hyper pigmentation demarcation lines.

Client has a green/black singular nail bed, reports that he has pain on palpation. We can rule out pseudomonas infection as a result. What is the likely diagnosis?

If your bands on a CBC are increasing but overall WBC's are going down the prognosis is poor?

GGT increases with ETOH/Barbiturate/Dilantin use

Triad of lab values for chronic cirrhosis are?

AST/ALT is a poor indicator if client is suspected of having chronic cirrhosis as the cells of the liver are fewer and not dying at an acute or increased rate?

Iron deficiency anemia may be normocytic early in the process?

If LDL is elevated mildly above 130 what is the correct course of action?

One way to raise your HDL is to increase activity?

Triglycerides can increase with which of the following?

In order to determine rotation we calculate the distance between the spinous process and the medial ends of the clavicles?

The heart should be less than 50% of Cardio/thoracic diameter?

If the client is doing an xray and fails to take a deep breath the lung can appear to have consolidation/pnemonia in the lower film?

The _________ diaphram is higher on xray then the __________

A meniscus sign in the AP/PA x ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung bases laterally/medially? This is a sign of pleural effusion?

You measure head circumference each visit until 2 and graph out?

Blood pressure should be checked yearly at age 3?

Autism should be screened at 9, 18 and 24 months. What is a possible sign of autism at 4 months of age?

Pulling down and back on the ear lobe is the way to visualize the TM in infants/young children?

Iron fortified formula should be used if using formula? Also it is wise to check for anemia on adolescent girls who have began their period?

Lead risk checked at 6-9 months, check at 1 year unless low risk and again at 2 years if high risk?

Girls with higher bmi generally start puberty sooner?

UTI is 90% predictive if the client has dysuria and frequency even without vaginal discharge?

The _ diaphram is higher on xray then the __