Exam #3 Advanced Assessment

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1. You measure head circumference each visit until 2 and graph out?

Explanation

The statement is suggesting that head circumference should be measured at each visit until the age of 2, and then graphed out. This implies that measuring head circumference is important for monitoring the growth and development of a child's head until the age of 2. By graphing out the measurements, healthcare professionals can track any abnormalities or deviations from the expected growth pattern, which can be indicative of potential health issues or developmental delays. Therefore, the answer "True" is correct as it aligns with the recommended practice of measuring and graphing head circumference until the age of 2.

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Exam #3 Advanced Assessment - Quiz

Exam #3 Advanced Assessment tests understanding of hematological disorders. It covers neutrophil and lymphocyte responses in infections, RBC indices like MCV and MCH, and differentiates types of microcytic anemia, focusing on iron deficiency anemia.

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2. AST/ALT is a poor indicator if client is suspected of having chronic cirrhosis as the cells of the liver are fewer and not dying at an acute or increased rate?

Explanation

The statement is true because AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are enzymes found in the liver cells. In chronic cirrhosis, the liver cells are fewer in number and not dying at an acute or increased rate. Therefore, the levels of AST and ALT may not be significantly elevated in chronic cirrhosis, making them poor indicators of the condition.

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3. If the client is doing an xray and fails to take a deep breath the lung can appear to have consolidation/pnemonia in the lower film?

Explanation

This is eradicated with increased inspiration.

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4. Blood pressure should be checked yearly at age 3?

Explanation

Blood pressure should be checked yearly at age 3 because it is important to monitor and detect any potential abnormalities or health issues at an early stage. Regular blood pressure checks can help identify conditions such as hypertension or other cardiovascular problems that may require intervention or treatment. By checking blood pressure yearly, healthcare professionals can ensure the child's overall health and well-being are maintained and any potential risks are addressed promptly.

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5. In order to determine rotation we calculate the distance between the spinous process and the medial ends of the clavicles?

Explanation

No rotation will be evident with equidistance between the spinous process and the medial ends of the clavicles. It the patient is left lying or tilted left the spinous process witll be closer to the right medial clavicle end.

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6. The _________ diaphram is higher on xray then the __________

Explanation

The right diaphragm appears higher on x-ray than the left diaphragm.

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7. Autism should be screened at 9, 18 and 24 months. What is a possible sign of autism at 4 months of age?

Explanation

Hypotonic neck results in an inability to align the head with the trunk if held horizontal.

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8. If your bands on a CBC are increasing but overall WBC's are going down the prognosis is poor?

Explanation

conversely if bands are rising and WBC's are rising prognosis is good.

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9. Client presents with a mildly edematous scrotum that has gradually become more tender. The client reports a fever and general fatigue. He also reports pyuria and pus drainage from the urethra. He has no N/V to report. Client reports recent sexual activity and is 26.  You note a firm lumpy epididymitis and beading of the vas deferens. What is likely cause?

Explanation

The client's symptoms of a mildly edematous scrotum, tenderness, fever, fatigue, pyuria, and pus drainage from the urethra, along with the physical examination findings of a firm lumpy epididymitis and beading of the vas deferens, are consistent with epididymitis. Epididymitis is an inflammation of the epididymis, which is commonly caused by a bacterial infection. It often occurs as a result of a urinary tract infection or sexually transmitted infection. The client's recent sexual activity and age of 26 also support the diagnosis of epididymitis.

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10. A constantly empty rectum in children with presence of constipation should alert to hirschsprung disease.

Explanation

The statement is true because Hirschsprung disease is a condition where there is a lack of nerve cells in the rectum and colon, leading to difficulty in passing stool. This can result in constipation. If a child consistently has an empty rectum despite having constipation, it suggests that there may be an underlying issue such as Hirschsprung disease. Therefore, the presence of a constantly empty rectum in children with constipation should indeed alert to Hirschsprung disease.

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11. Male client presents with symptoms consistent with BPH, on exam the prostate feels hard and asymmetric with no tenderness and the median sulcus is obliterated. What is suspected?

Explanation

PSA would likely be elevated at this point.

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12. Iron deficiency anemia may be normocytic early in the process?

Explanation

Iron deficiency anemia will microcytic after a while, low ferritin levels when the MCV is normal(80-100) would be an early indicator if low.

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13. Pulling down and back on the ear lobe is the way to visualize the TM in infants/young children?

Explanation

Pulling down and back on the ear lobe is the recommended technique for visualizing the tympanic membrane (TM) in infants and young children. This maneuver helps straighten the ear canal and provides a clearer view of the TM. By gently pulling the ear lobe downwards and backwards, healthcare professionals can assess the TM for any signs of infection, inflammation, or fluid buildup. This technique is particularly useful in this age group as their ear canals are shorter and more angled compared to adults, making visualization more challenging.

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14. Testicular CA risk factors

Explanation

The given answer includes all the known risk factors for testicular cancer. Testicular cancer is more common in males between the ages of 20-54, and white males are at a higher risk compared to other ethnicities. Having an undescended testicle increases the risk, as well as having a personal history or family history of testicular cancer. Therefore, all the factors mentioned in the answer contribute to an increased risk of developing testicular cancer.

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15. Girls with higher bmi generally start puberty sooner?

Explanation

Girls with higher BMI generally start puberty sooner because body fat plays a role in the onset of puberty. Higher levels of body fat can lead to an increase in the production of estrogen, a hormone that triggers the development of secondary sexual characteristics and the start of puberty. Therefore, girls with a higher BMI, which is often associated with higher levels of body fat, are more likely to experience earlier puberty compared to girls with a lower BMI.

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16. Iron fortified formula should be used if using formula? Also it is wise to check for anemia on adolescent girls who have began their period?

Explanation

It is recommended to use iron fortified formula if using formula as it provides additional iron to support the baby's growth and development. Additionally, it is wise to check for anemia in adolescent girls who have begun their period as they are at a higher risk of developing iron deficiency due to blood loss during menstruation. Regular screening for anemia can help identify and address any deficiencies early on.

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17. If LDL is elevated mildly above 130 what is the correct course of action?

Explanation

If LDL (low-density lipoprotein) levels are mildly elevated above 130, the correct course of action is to educate the individual on diet and exercise. This approach aims to promote lifestyle changes that can help lower LDL levels. By providing information and guidance on healthier eating habits and regular physical activity, the individual can make positive changes to their lifestyle. Additionally, it is recommended to re-evaluate their LDL levels in 3-6 months to assess the effectiveness of the lifestyle modifications. This approach prioritizes non-pharmacological interventions before considering medication as a treatment option.

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18. One way to raise your HDL is to increase activity?

Explanation

Increasing physical activity has been shown to raise levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, commonly known as "good" cholesterol. Regular exercise can help improve the function of HDL, which plays a crucial role in removing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, or "bad" cholesterol, from the bloodstream. By increasing activity levels, individuals can stimulate the production of HDL cholesterol, leading to a higher level of this beneficial lipid in the body. This, in turn, can help reduce the risk of heart disease and improve overall cardiovascular health.

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19. A meniscus sign in the AP/PA x ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung bases laterally/medially? This is a sign of pleural effusion?

Explanation

The meniscus sign in the AP/PA x-ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung bases laterally or medially. This pooling of fluid is a characteristic sign of pleural effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space surrounding the lungs. Therefore, the statement "A meniscus sign in the AP/PA x-ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung bases laterally/medially" is true.

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20. Triglycerides can increase with which of the following? 

Explanation

Triglycerides are a type of fat found in the blood. They can increase with increased carb intake because excess carbohydrates are converted into triglycerides and stored as fat. Alcohol abuse can also increase triglyceride levels as alcohol is metabolized into triglycerides in the liver. Additionally, triglyceride levels can increase as a client reaches diabetes level of blood glucose (BG) because insulin resistance and elevated blood sugar levels can lead to higher triglyceride production.

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21. MCV or Mean Corpuscular Volume is the average volume/size of RBC's in the blood and the normal values are between 80-100?

Explanation

The correct answer is true because MCV, or Mean Corpuscular Volume, refers to the average volume or size of red blood cells in the blood. Normal values for MCV typically range between 80-100.

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22. MCH or mean corpuscular hemoglobin is the average amount of hemoglobin on a RBC, normal is 1.68-1.92

Explanation

The statement is true because MCH, or mean corpuscular hemoglobin, is indeed the average amount of hemoglobin on a red blood cell (RBC). The normal range for MCH is 1.68-1.92, indicating the average amount of hemoglobin present in a healthy RBC.

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23. A strangulated hernia is not reducible and requires prompt surgical intervention?

Explanation

A strangulated hernia occurs when a part of the intestine becomes trapped and the blood supply to that area is cut off. This leads to severe pain, tenderness, and swelling. In such cases, the hernia cannot be pushed back into place (reduced) manually and immediate surgical intervention is necessary to release the trapped intestine and restore blood flow. Therefore, the statement that a strangulated hernia is not reducible and requires prompt surgical intervention is true.

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24. If on examination of the prostate there is urethral drainage you should collect and culture the drainage?

Explanation

If there is urethral drainage during examination of the prostate, it is important to collect and culture the drainage. This is because the presence of drainage may indicate an infection or inflammation in the prostate or urinary tract. Collecting and culturing the drainage allows for the identification of any potential pathogens present, which can help guide appropriate treatment decisions. It is an important step in diagnosing and managing prostate and urinary tract infections.

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25. Having no sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes may be a result of Diabetic neuropathy or syphilis?

Explanation

Having no sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes may be a result of diabetic neuropathy or syphilis. Diabetic neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves and can lead to loss of sensation, including in the testes. Syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, can also cause nerve damage and result in decreased sensitivity to pain. Therefore, it is true that both diabetic neuropathy and syphilis can cause a lack of sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes.

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26. Liver enzymes are non-specific as the values are representative of normal cellular decay in healthy individuals. It is not necessary to follow-up with enzymes unless the values are 2 or more times the normal values?

Explanation

Liver enzymes are substances produced by liver cells that are released into the bloodstream when liver cells are damaged or die. The values of liver enzymes in healthy individuals are within a certain range, which is considered normal. These values can slightly vary from person to person. However, liver enzymes are not specific to liver diseases and can also be elevated in other conditions. Therefore, a slight increase in liver enzyme values may not necessarily indicate liver disease. It is generally recommended to follow-up with liver enzymes only if the values are significantly higher, typically 2 or more times the normal range. Hence, the statement "It is not necessary to follow-up with enzymes unless the values are 2 or more times the normal values" is true.

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27. The heart should be less than 50% of Cardio/thoracic diameter?

Explanation

Possible normal causes for >50% are: Portable AP film, obesity, pregnant.

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28. If you have a microcytic anemia and you have a normal ferritin level you could rule out Iron deficiency and suspect lead poisoning or thalassemia?

Explanation

If a person has a microcytic anemia (a condition characterized by small red blood cells) and a normal ferritin level (a protein that stores iron), it is unlikely to be caused by iron deficiency. Iron deficiency is a common cause of microcytic anemia and is usually associated with low ferritin levels. Therefore, ruling out iron deficiency suggests that the microcytic anemia may be due to other causes such as lead poisoning or thalassemia.

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29. This state of penile being is possibly caused by leukemia, sickle cell disease or standard ED treatment.

Explanation

Priapism refers to a prolonged and painful erection that lasts for more than four hours without sexual stimulation. This condition can be caused by various factors, including leukemia, sickle cell disease, or certain medications used to treat erectile dysfunction (ED). Leukemia and sickle cell disease can affect blood flow, leading to priapism. Additionally, some ED treatments, such as injections or medications, can cause priapism as a side effect. Therefore, the given statement suggests that priapism can be caused by these conditions or treatments.

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30. Client has a green/black singular nail bed, reports that he has pain on palpation. We can rule out pseudomonas infection as a result. What is the likely diagnosis?

Explanation

The client's green/black singular nail bed, along with the report of pain on palpation, suggests that there has been some form of injury or trauma to the nail bed. This is the likely diagnosis because the symptoms are consistent with trauma rather than an infection or other conditions such as subungal infection or cellulitis. Splinter hemorrhages typically present as small lines of blood under the nail and are not associated with pain on palpation. Therefore, trauma to the nail bed is the most plausible explanation for the client's symptoms.

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31. Hemorrhoids in children are rare and may indicate serious underlying problem such as portal hypertension?

Explanation

Hemorrhoids in children are indeed rare and can be a cause for concern as they may indicate a serious underlying issue such as portal hypertension. Portal hypertension refers to high blood pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver. When this vein is blocked or damaged, it can lead to the development of hemorrhoids. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct in stating that hemorrhoids in children may indicate a serious underlying problem like portal hypertension.

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32. Small flat flaps of skin around the rectum (Condylomas) are commonly from hpv infection?

Explanation

Small flat flaps of skin around the rectum, known as condylomas, are commonly caused by HPV infection. HPV, or human papillomavirus, is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital warts. Condylomas are a type of genital wart that can occur in and around the rectal area. HPV is a very common infection, with many different strains, and it can be spread through sexual contact. Therefore, it is true that condylomas are commonly caused by HPV infection.

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33. Client has a blood work profile that includes a low H & H, low MCV/MCH, low ferritin level and an increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC). What is the suspected anemic cause?

Explanation

The client's blood work profile shows low H & H, low MCV/MCH, low ferritin level, and increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC). These findings are consistent with iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency is a common cause of anemia and can result from inadequate dietary intake, poor absorption, or excessive blood loss. The low levels of hemoglobin and red blood cells (H & H), small size of red blood cells (MCV/MCH), low ferritin (iron stores), and increased TIBC (reflecting the body's attempt to increase iron uptake) all point towards iron deficiency as the likely cause of anemia in this client.

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34. The BUN and Creatinine both increase relative to each other and the client has painful urination, likely post renal failure such as a kidney stone?

Explanation

The given answer is true because an increase in both BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Painful urination can be a symptom of post renal failure, which can be caused by a kidney stone blocking the urinary tract. Therefore, the combination of increased BUN and creatinine levels along with painful urination suggests the possibility of post renal failure, such as a kidney stone.

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35. UTI is 90% predictive if the client has dysuria and frequency even without vaginal discharge?

Explanation

50% predictive with one of the following: dysuria, frequency, CVA tenderness, back pain, hematuria.

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36. This kind of light is used to help determine any presence of some types of fungus on the skin and will fluorescence green/yellow. Also used to determine hypo and hyper pigmentation demarcation lines.

Explanation

A Woods lamp is the correct answer because it is a type of light that is used to determine the presence of certain types of fungus on the skin. This light emits ultraviolet rays that cause certain substances, such as fungus, to fluoresce green or yellow. Additionally, a Woods lamp can be used to identify hypo and hyperpigmentation demarcation lines on the skin. Fluorescent lighting, LCD lighting, and candle light do not have the specific properties necessary for these purposes.

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37. Client presents with typical symptoms of frequency, dysuria, hesitancy, nocturia and incomplete emptying/retention. The client labs show no bacteremia. Prostate feels enlarged with a smooth symmetric and slightly boggy feel. What is suspected?

Explanation

Based on the client's symptoms of frequency, dysuria, hesitancy, nocturia, and incomplete emptying/retention, along with the physical examination findings of an enlarged prostate with a smooth symmetric and slightly boggy feel, the suspected condition is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that commonly occurs in older men. It can cause urinary symptoms similar to those described by the client, and the physical examination findings are consistent with an enlarged prostate. Prostate cancer would typically present with different symptoms and may not have the same physical examination findings. Prostatitis is another possible condition, but the absence of bacteremia makes it less likely. "Healthy prostate" is not a plausible explanation given the client's symptoms and examination findings.

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38. Tufts of hair, sinuses and dimpling of the pilonidal area may indicate spinal deformities and alert the examiner for a need of ultrasound to evaluate potential spinal deformities?

Explanation

Tufts of hair, sinuses, and dimpling of the pilonidal area are all signs that may indicate the presence of spinal deformities. These deformities can affect the alignment and structure of the spine, potentially causing pain and other complications. Therefore, if these signs are observed, it would be prudent for the examiner to consider the possibility of spinal deformities and recommend an ultrasound to further evaluate the condition.

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39. The _______ test which when elevated may be the first indicator of cirrhosis.

Explanation

Normal INR is 0.8-1.1, you need to make sure the client is on no blood thinning agents.

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40. Lead risk checked at 6-9 months, check at 1 year unless low risk and again at 2 years if high risk?

Explanation

The statement is suggesting that lead risk should be checked at 6-9 months, then again at 1 year unless the risk is low, and finally at 2 years if the risk is high. This implies that there is a specific timeline for checking lead risk in individuals, with different intervals depending on the level of risk. Therefore, the answer "True" indicates that the statement accurately represents the recommended schedule for lead risk checks.

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41. You could suspect gonococcal urethritis if patient presents with green/yellow discharge with painful/burning urination?

Explanation

The presence of green/yellow discharge and painful/burning urination are common symptoms of gonococcal urethritis. This condition is caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is transmitted through sexual contact. The green/yellow discharge is a result of the infection, while the painful/burning urination is caused by inflammation of the urethra. Therefore, if a patient presents with these symptoms, it is reasonable to suspect gonococcal urethritis.

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42. Another cause of macrocytic anemia is alcoholism/liver disease?

Explanation

Alcoholism and liver disease can lead to macrocytic anemia. Chronic alcohol consumption can result in nutritional deficiencies, particularly of folate and vitamin B12, which are essential for red blood cell production. Additionally, liver disease can impair the liver's ability to store and release these vitamins, further contributing to anemia. Therefore, it is true that alcoholism and liver disease can cause macrocytic anemia.

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43. The patient has an elevated BUN with a slightly and slower elevating creatinine test, the BUN/Creatinine ration is >20. We can suspect a pre-renal failure such as renal stenosis or dehydration?

Explanation

Urine osmolality will be elevated with dehydration as the body is trying to retain fluid. Urine Na will be lower than 20

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44. GGT increases with ETOH/Barbiturate/Dilantin use

Explanation

The statement is true because ETOH (alcohol), barbiturates, and Dilantin (phenytoin) are known to increase the levels of gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) in the body. GGT is an enzyme found in various organs, including the liver, and its levels can be used as a marker for liver damage or disease. These substances can cause liver toxicity and therefore elevate GGT levels.

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45. A decreased serum Albumin, elevated INR and elevated bilirubin indicate?

Explanation

A decreased Albumin is the likely cause for ascites with reduced osmotic pull of fluids into the veins/capillaries from the interstitial spaces caused by a lack of protein. Liver enzymes are a poor test with chronic cirrhosis as the liver tissue is not decaying/dying as fast with less viable tissue left. Tests may be normal.

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46. People with dysplastic nevi are at more risk for melanoma?

Explanation

People with dysplastic nevi, which are atypical moles, are at a higher risk for melanoma. Dysplastic nevi often have irregular borders, uneven coloration, and a larger size compared to normal moles. These characteristics indicate cellular changes that increase the likelihood of developing melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Regular monitoring and early detection of any changes in these moles are crucial for individuals with dysplastic nevi to prevent the progression to melanoma. Therefore, the statement "people with dysplastic nevi are at more risk for melanoma" is true.

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47. Client has a b12 deficiency but it is found that the anti-intrinsic factor is +, what is suspected as the cause of the macrocytic anemia associated with extended G2 phase of cell reproduction?

Explanation

A positive anti-intrinsic factor means that the stomach lining is not producing enough intrinsic factor and the body is unable to absorb enough b12.

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48. Triad of lab values for chronic cirrhosis are?

Explanation

The triad of lab values for chronic cirrhosis includes increased bilirubin, increased INR, and decreased albumin. This combination of findings is commonly seen in patients with cirrhosis due to impaired liver function. Increased bilirubin levels occur because the liver is unable to properly process and excrete bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Increased INR indicates impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors, which can result in a prolonged clotting time. Decreased albumin levels are a result of decreased liver synthesis of this protein. Overall, these lab values reflect the compromised liver function that is characteristic of chronic cirrhosis.

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49. Client presents with acute, very painful right testicle, reports N and V with anorexia. Client has an absent Cremasteric reflex on the right side. No reports of fever or malaise.  Client is an adolescent who is very active.  What is likely cause?

Explanation

The client's symptoms of acute, severe pain in the right testicle, along with the absence of the Cremasteric reflex, suggest testicular torsion as the likely cause. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This condition is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention to prevent permanent damage to the testicle. The absence of fever or malaise and the client's age and activity level further support this diagnosis. Phymosis, epididymitis, and hydrocele do not typically present with the same symptoms or require urgent intervention.

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50. Select those that are associated with megaloblastic anemia.

Explanation

The given answer options correctly identify the characteristics associated with megaloblastic anemia. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by low hemoglobin (H) and hematocrit (H) levels, as indicated by the option "Low H and H." Additionally, an elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV) greater than 100 is a characteristic feature of megaloblastic anemia, as mentioned in the option "MCV >100." Lastly, megaloblastic anemia can be caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate/folic acid, as stated in the option "B12/folate or folic acid deficiency."

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51. Types of Microcytic anemia's.

Explanation

These anemia's occur as a result of a low MCV or low volume of RBC's.

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52. Client presents with a high MCV and a low H and H, provider suspects a megaloblastic anemia. With an increased Methylmalonic acid what does the provider assume is the cause of the anemia?

Explanation

If the Methylmalonic acid is normal then we would suspect that the folate level is low and the cause of the megaloblastic anemia.

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53. What is the goal LDL for diabetics and then Cardiac patients?

Explanation

The goal LDL (low-density lipoprotein) for diabetics and cardiac patients is 100/70. LDL cholesterol is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because high levels of it can increase the risk of heart disease. Diabetics and cardiac patients are at a higher risk of developing heart disease, so maintaining a lower LDL level is important for their overall health and well-being. The recommended goal of 100/70 indicates the desired levels of LDL cholesterol in the blood for these individuals.

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54. Normocytic and normochromic anemia types:

Explanation

Aplastic Anemia-body stops producing enough new RBC's-can be fatal.

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55. The left testicle hangs lower than the right in general due to a longer spermatic chord on the left?

Explanation

The left testicle hanging lower than the right is generally true because the left testicle has a longer spermatic cord. The spermatic cord is responsible for connecting the testicles to the rest of the reproductive system, and its length can cause one testicle to hang lower than the other.

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56. Scrotal edema is related to a genital disease state in most cases?

Explanation

Scrotal edema is generally not a genital condition sign but rather a sign of renal, cardiac or hepatic disease.

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57. Select the risk factors for penile cancer.

Explanation

The risk factors for penile cancer include being uncircumcised with poor hygiene, having phimosis, HPV infection, increased age, being a smoker, being HIV positive, and UV light exposure in individuals with psoriasis. These factors can increase the likelihood of developing penile cancer, emphasizing the importance of practicing good hygiene, getting vaccinated against HPV, quitting smoking, and protecting oneself from UV light.

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58. ALP and ALT are elevated in which disease state?

Explanation

ALP (alkaline phosphatase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are liver enzymes that are commonly measured in blood tests. In cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, these liver enzymes can be elevated. This is because cholecystitis can lead to inflammation and irritation of the liver, causing an increase in the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Therefore, the correct answer is cholecystitis.

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59. Prostatitis findings acute:

Explanation

Prostatitis can be result of a biopsy or sti

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60. Skin turgor is a fairly reliable was to check fluid volume status, you should always check turgor on the back of the hand?

Explanation

Turgor should be checked on the forearm and or sternum, the back of the hand has elastic/fibrotic breakdown and may give a poor assessment.

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61. Client has suspected kidney failure, the BUN is rising but slowly compared to the creatinine level, the BUN/Creatinine level is <20 and the patient is a diabetic. What kind of renal failure is likely?

Explanation

Likely in diabetic renal failure, urine Na will be over 30.

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62. Which is a common finding with aging nails?

Explanation

Longitudinal ridging is a common finding with aging nails. As individuals age, the nails may develop vertical ridges or lines running from the cuticle to the tip of the nail. This is often a normal part of the aging process and is not usually a cause for concern. These ridges can be more pronounced in some individuals and may be more noticeable in certain lighting. However, it is important to note that if the ridges are accompanied by other symptoms or changes in the nails, it may be necessary to consult a healthcare professional for further evaluation.

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63. Characteristics of normal nevi

Explanation

Normal nevi, or moles, typically have certain characteristics. They have a uniform color, meaning that the color is consistent throughout the mole. They also have a flat texture and uniform texture, meaning that the surface of the mole is smooth and even. Normal nevi are usually less than 6mm in size, and it is common to have 10-40 of them on the body.

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64. Characteristics of abnormal or dysplastic nevi

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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65. The prostate should feel like a pencil erases with some mobility, smooth and nodular free, will have a central sulcus with 2 lobes. Healthy prostrate will extend less than 1cm into the rectum.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that a healthy prostate should have certain characteristics, such as feeling like a pencil eraser with some mobility, being smooth and nodular free, having a central sulcus with 2 lobes, and extending less than 1cm into the rectum. Therefore, the statement "The prostate should feel like a pencil erases with some mobility, smooth and nodular free, will have a central sulcus with 2 lobes. Healthy prostrate will extend less than 1cm into the rectum" is true.

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66. Select those that are associated with ALT

Explanation

The items associated with ALT are Avandia/Actose, Liver damage/hepatitis, and Toxins. ALT (alanine aminotransferase) is an enzyme found mainly in the liver. Avandia/Actose are medications used to treat diabetes, and they have been associated with liver damage and hepatitis. Toxins can also cause liver damage and increase ALT levels. Therefore, these items are all related to ALT and its associated conditions.

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67. Select those that are associated with AST

Explanation

Alcohol, statins, Tylenol/Dilantin and Tegretol, and fatty liver disease are all associated with AST. AST (aspartate aminotransferase) is an enzyme found in the liver and other organs. Elevated levels of AST in the blood may indicate liver damage or disease. Alcohol, when consumed in excess, can cause liver damage and increase AST levels. Statins, a type of medication used to lower cholesterol, can sometimes cause liver damage and increase AST levels. Tylenol, Dilantin, and Tegretol are medications that can also cause liver damage and elevate AST levels. Fatty liver disease, a condition characterized by the accumulation of fat in the liver, can also lead to elevated AST levels.

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68. On x-ray when you are viewing the costophrenic angles you are looking for what abnormality?

Explanation

When viewing the costophrenic angles on an x-ray, if there is a pleural effusion present, it means that there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This can cause the costophrenic angles to appear blunted or obscured on the x-ray. Pleural effusion can be caused by various factors such as infection, inflammation, or heart failure.

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69. When viewing an Xray what denotes good inspiration?

Explanation

9 ribs in hospital is adequate, 10 countable posterior ribs is goal.

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70. ALP and ALt increase with?

Explanation

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, which can cause increased levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and alanine transaminase (ALT) in the blood. ALP is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver and bile ducts, and its levels can rise in conditions affecting these organs. ALT is primarily found in the liver and is released into the bloodstream when there is liver damage or inflammation. Therefore, cholecystitis can lead to increased ALP and ALT levels.

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71. Risk factors for prostate cancer.

Explanation

The risk factors for prostate cancer include a diet high in animal fat, dairy, and calcium, being over the age of 50, being of black ethnicity, having gene mutations of BRCA 1 and 2, being inactive, having a family history of prostate cancer, and having high androgen levels. These factors have been identified through research and studies as being associated with an increased risk of developing prostate cancer.

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72. Match the following
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73. Kidney Function Tests:
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74. On a microscopic scan there are bacterial casts and white cells present from a recent UA, what may be suspected?

Explanation

Another common finding with pyelonephritis is CVA tenderness on the side of infection.

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75. Match
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76. Lab results with infectious process
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77. 4 components of good x-ray
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78. Match the following
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79. Hyperlipidemia normal values:

Explanation

With a LDL of mild elevation first treatment is education on diet and exercise, treat with no changes in value after 6 months.

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80. Match the following
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81. Type question here. Example: Practice makes you _____

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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82. Match the following
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83. Puberty statistics
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84. Liver Enzymes
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85. Prostate enlargement grading:
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86. Testicle/scrotum translumination
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87. Match the following
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88. Match the following
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89. Tanner stages of breast development.
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90. Hernia matching:
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91. Match the following
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92. Match pancreatic enzymes
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93. Tanner female pubic stages.
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94. Match lung densities.
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95. Match the following
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96. Match the following
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97. Tanner stages for boys.
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98. Anal problems
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99. PSA values
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100. Anemia's
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101. Match the following
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102. Hemorrhoid internal grading
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103. Match the following
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104. Match the following
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105. Match the following
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106. Match the following
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107. If questioning interstitial cystitis you will need to obtain a _________ due to the inflammation of the _____________  wall. 

Explanation

When questioning interstitial cystitis, a cystoscopy is needed to obtain a clear view of the bladder wall. This procedure involves inserting a thin tube with a camera into the bladder to examine the lining for signs of inflammation. By directly visualizing the bladder, a cystoscopy can help diagnose and evaluate the extent of inflammation in interstitial cystitis.

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108. Match the following
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109. Match the following
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110. Match the following
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111. Alkaline phosphate increases with injury/disease to the liver, bones and intestine. Match ALP rates to a more specific cause.
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112. Infants should sleep on their ________ until 6 months, on a _______ mattress and not in the __________ bed.

Explanation

Infants should sleep on their backs until 6 months to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Sleeping on their backs helps to maintain an open airway and prevents them from rolling onto their stomachs, which can be dangerous. It is recommended to use a firm mattress for the baby's crib to provide a safe and supportive sleeping surface. Additionally, infants should not sleep in the parental bed as it increases the risk of suffocation or accidental injury.

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113. Match the following
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114. Counsel patients on no ____________ __________ for feeding infants/babies, wean from bottle to a cup at ____________ months,  first dental visit at ___________ year, dental visits at __________-__________ years can be done by provider but the visit in ________th grade must be by a dentist.

Explanation

Patients should be counseled on no bottle feeding for infants/babies. It is recommended to wean them from bottle to a cup at 12 months. The first dental visit should be at 1 year, and dental visits at 4-5 years can be done by a provider. However, the visit in 9th grade must be done by a dentist.

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115. Match the following
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116. Match the following
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117. Match the following
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118. Prostate characteristics and associated diagnosis
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119. Match the following
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You measure head circumference each visit until 2 and graph out?
AST/ALT is a poor indicator if client is suspected of having chronic...
If the client is doing an xray and fails to take a deep breath the...
Blood pressure should be checked yearly at age 3?
In order to determine rotation we calculate the distance between the...
The _________ diaphram is higher on xray then the __________
Autism should be screened at 9, 18 and 24 months. What is a possible...
If your bands on a CBC are increasing but overall WBC's are going...
Client presents with a mildly edematous scrotum that has gradually...
A constantly empty rectum in children with presence of constipation...
Male client presents with symptoms consistent with BPH, on exam the...
Iron deficiency anemia may be normocytic early in the process?
Pulling down and back on the ear lobe is the way to visualize the TM...
Testicular CA risk factors
Girls with higher bmi generally start puberty sooner?
Iron fortified formula should be used if using formula? Also it is...
If LDL is elevated mildly above 130 what is the correct course of...
One way to raise your HDL is to increase activity?
A meniscus sign in the AP/PA x ray indicates fluid pooling in the lung...
Triglycerides can increase with which of the following? 
MCV or Mean Corpuscular Volume is the average volume/size of RBC's...
MCH or mean corpuscular hemoglobin is the average amount of hemoglobin...
A strangulated hernia is not reducible and requires prompt surgical...
If on examination of the prostate there is urethral drainage you...
Having no sensitivity to painful stimuli in the testes may be a result...
Liver enzymes are non-specific as the values are representative of...
The heart should be less than 50% of Cardio/thoracic diameter?
If you have a microcytic anemia and you have a normal ferritin level...
This state of penile being is possibly caused by leukemia, sickle cell...
Client has a green/black singular nail bed, reports that he has pain...
Hemorrhoids in children are rare and may indicate serious underlying...
Small flat flaps of skin around the rectum (Condylomas) are commonly...
Client has a blood work profile that includes a low H & H, low...
The BUN and Creatinine both increase relative to each other and the...
UTI is 90% predictive if the client has dysuria and frequency even...
This kind of light is used to help determine any presence of some...
Client presents with typical symptoms of frequency, dysuria,...
Tufts of hair, sinuses and dimpling of the pilonidal area may indicate...
The _______ test which when elevated may be the first indicator...
Lead risk checked at 6-9 months, check at 1 year unless low risk...
You could suspect gonococcal urethritis if patient presents with...
Another cause of macrocytic anemia is alcoholism/liver disease?
The patient has an elevated BUN with a slightly and slower elevating...
GGT increases with ETOH/Barbiturate/Dilantin use
A decreased serum Albumin, elevated INR and elevated bilirubin...
People with dysplastic nevi are at more risk for melanoma?
Client has a b12 deficiency but it is found that the anti-intrinsic...
Triad of lab values for chronic cirrhosis are?
Client presents with acute, very painful right testicle, reports N and...
Select those that are associated with megaloblastic anemia.
Types of Microcytic anemia's.
Client presents with a high MCV and a low H and H, provider suspects a...
What is the goal LDL for diabetics and then Cardiac patients?
Normocytic and normochromic anemia types:
The left testicle hangs lower than the right in general due to a...
Scrotal edema is related to a genital disease state in most cases?
Select the risk factors for penile cancer.
ALP and ALT are elevated in which disease state?
Prostatitis findings acute:
Skin turgor is a fairly reliable was to check fluid volume status, you...
Client has suspected kidney failure, the BUN is rising but slowly...
Which is a common finding with aging nails?
Characteristics of normal nevi
Characteristics of abnormal or dysplastic nevi
The prostate should feel like a pencil erases with some mobility,...
Select those that are associated with ALT
Select those that are associated with AST
On x-ray when you are viewing the costophrenic angles you are looking...
When viewing an Xray what denotes good inspiration?
ALP and ALt increase with?
Risk factors for prostate cancer.
Match the following
Kidney Function Tests:
On a microscopic scan there are bacterial casts and white cells...
Match
Lab results with infectious process
4 components of good x-ray
Match the following
Hyperlipidemia normal values:
Match the following
Type question here. Example: Practice makes you _____
Match the following
Puberty statistics
Liver Enzymes
Prostate enlargement grading:
Testicle/scrotum translumination
Match the following
Match the following
Tanner stages of breast development.
Hernia matching:
Match the following
Match pancreatic enzymes
Tanner female pubic stages.
Match lung densities.
Match the following
Match the following
Tanner stages for boys.
Anal problems
PSA values
Anemia's
Match the following
Hemorrhoid internal grading
Match the following
Match the following
Match the following
Match the following
If questioning interstitial cystitis you will need to obtain...
Match the following
Match the following
Match the following
Alkaline phosphate increases with injury/disease to the liver, bones...
Infants should sleep on their ________ until 6 months, on a _______...
Match the following
Counsel patients on no ____________ __________ for feeding...
Match the following
Match the following
Match the following
Prostate characteristics and associated diagnosis
Match the following
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