EOC Practice Test #2

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EOC Practice Test #2 - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    One difference between cytokinesis in plant cells and in animal cells is that plant cells have

    • A.

      A cell plate.

    • B.

      Chromatin.

    • C.

      Centrioles.

    • D.

      Centromeres

    Correct Answer
    A. A cell plate.
    Explanation
    Plant cells have cell walls which prevent the cell membrane from "pinching in" so they build a cell plate to divide the cytoplasm.

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  • 2. 

    During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the equator (middle) of the dividing cell?

    • A.

      Metaphase

    • B.

      Telophase

    • C.

      Anaphase

    • D.

      Prophase

    Correct Answer
    A. MetapHase
    Explanation
    Chromosomes are pulled to the equator (middle) of the cell during metaphase. Metaphase = Middle

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  • 3. 

    Crossing-over does not occur in mitosis, unlike meiosis. Which of the following is the likely reason?

    • A.

      Chromatids are not involved in mitosis.

    • B.

      A cell undergoing mitosis does not have homologous chromosomes.

    • C.

      There is no prophase during mitosis.

    • D.

      Homologous chromosomes do not pair up during mitosis.

    Correct Answer
    D. Homologous chromosomes do not pair up during mitosis.
    Explanation
    Homologous chromosomes pair up during meiosis in order to exchange genes and ensure that each of the 4 gametes produced have 1 copy of each gene. Mitosis produces genetically identical cells so all of the chromosomes line up independently on the spindle.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a TRUE about the events of the cell cycle?

    • A.

      The M phase is usually the longest phase.

    • B.

      Interphase consists of the G1, S, and, G2 phases.

    • C.

      Little happens during the G1 and G2 phases.

    • D.

      DNA replicates during cytokinesis.

    Correct Answer
    B. InterpHase consists of the G1, S, and, G2 pHases.
    Explanation
    Interphase is the longest stage of the cell cycle consisting of G1 (growth), S (DNA replication) and G2 (preparation for mitosis).

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?

    • A.

      The cell grows during the G1 phase.

    • B.

      Cell division ends with cytokinesis.

    • C.

      DNA replicates during the M phase.

    • D.

      Interphase is usually the longest phase.

    Correct Answer
    C. DNA replicates during the M pHase.
    Explanation
    DNA replication occurs during the S phase of Interphase. M phase is cell division.

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  • 6. 

    During what phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur?

    • A.

      Metaphase I

    • B.

      Anaphase I

    • C.

      Prophase II

    • D.

      Metaphase II

    Correct Answer
    B. AnapHase I
    Explanation
    Nondisjunction occurs when either Homologous Chromosomes fail to separate in Anaphase I or when Sister Chromatids fail to separate in Anaphase II.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT true about mitosis and meiosis?

    • A.

      Mitosis produces somatic cells and Meiosis produces gametes.

    • B.

      There are 2 separate divisions in Meiosis and only 1 division in Mitosis.

    • C.

      Mitosis produces genetically identical cells and Meiosis produces genetically different cells.

    • D.

      DNA replication happens once in Mitosis and DNA replicates twice in Meiosis.

    Correct Answer
    D. DNA replication happens once in Mitosis and DNA replicates twice in Meiosis.
    Explanation
    In Meiosis, DNA replication only happens once (during interphase).

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  • 8. 

    During what stage of Meiosis does crossing over occur?

    • A.

      Between Prophase I and Anaphase I

    • B.

      Between Prophase II and Anaphase II

    • C.

      During Interphase

    • D.

      Crossing over only occurs during Mitosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Between PropHase I and AnapHase I
    Explanation
    Crossing over occurs when Homologous Chromosomes pair up during Prophase I and separate during Anaphase I.

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  • 9. 

    During which phase of mitosis do spindle fibers separate (pull apart) sister chromatids?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Metaphase

    • C.

      Prophase

    • D.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer
    A. AnapHase
    Explanation
    Anaphase pulls apart sister chromatids.

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  • 10. 

    At what point are the cells in Meiosis first considered haploid?

    • A.

      Prophase I

    • B.

      Prophase II

    • C.

      Telophase II

    • D.

      Haploid cells are NOT present throughout in meiosis.

    Correct Answer
    B. PropHase II
    Explanation
    At the end of Telophase I (and through all of Meiosis II), the cells are haploid.

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  • 11. 

    Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

    • A.

      4 diploid cells.

    • B.

      2 diploid cells.

    • C.

      4 haploid cells.

    • D.

      2 haploid cells.

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 haploid cells.
    Explanation
    The purpose of Meiosis is to reduce the chromosome number by half.

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  • 12. 

    The region labeled A in Figure 9-1 is called the

    • A.

      Spindle.

    • B.

      Centriole.

    • C.

      Sister chromatid.

    • D.

      Centromere.

    Correct Answer
    D. Centromere.
    Explanation
    A chromosome consists of 2 sister chromatids (B) joined together at the centromere (A).

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  • 13. 

    These diagrams represent different stages of animal cell division. From start to finish, what is the correct order of the stages?

    • A.

      2, 4, 3, 1

    • B.

      2, 3, 4, 1

    • C.

      3, 2, 1, 4

    • D.

      3, 1, 2, 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2, 4, 3, 1
    Explanation
    Prophase (chromosomes condense & nuclear membrane disappears)
    Metaphase (chromosomes line up in the MIDDLE)
    Anaphase (chromosomes are pulled APART)
    Telophase (2 nuclear membranes form & cytokinesis occurs

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  • 14. 

    What is the purpose of mitosis?

    • A.

      To produce 2 cells, each with 2 complete sets of chromosomes

    • B.

      To produce 2 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    • C.

      To produce 4 cells, each with 2 complete sets of chromosomes

    • D.

      To produce 4 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    Correct Answer
    A. To produce 2 cells, each with 2 complete sets of chromosomes
    Explanation
    Mitosis produces 2 diploid cells. Meiosis produces 4 haploid cells.

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  • 15. 

    What occurs during metaphase I of meiosis?

    • A.

      Centromeres of replicated chromosomes line up along the cell’s equator.

    • B.

      Centromeres divide as sister chromatids move toward opposite poles of the cell.

    • C.

      Homologous chromosome pairs line up along the cell’s equator.

    • D.

      Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell.

    Correct Answer
    C. Homologous chromosome pairs line up along the cell’s equator.
    Explanation
    Metaphase I = homologous chromosomes are pulled to the middle of the cell

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following has the stages of the cell cycle in the correct sequence?

    • A.

      G1, G2, S, Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

    • B.

      G1, S, G2, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

    • C.

      G1, S, G2, Cytokinesis, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

    • D.

      S, G1, G2, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Cytokinesis

    Correct Answer
    B. G1, S, G2, PropHase, MetapHase, AnapHase, TelopHase, Cytokinesis
    Explanation
    I = Interphase (G1, S, G2)
    Play = Prophase
    My = Metaphase
    Accordion = Anaphase
    To = Telophase
    Cats = Cytokinesis

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is a major difference between the production of gametes in males and females?

    • A.

      Male sperm will have always have an X chromosome but female eggs will have either an X or a Y chromosome.

    • B.

      Males produce 4 viable cells but females only produce 1 viable cell and 3 polar bodies.

    • C.

      Mitosis occurs in males and meiosis occurs in females.

    • D.

      There is no difference between gamete production in males and females.

    Correct Answer
    B. Males produce 4 viable cells but females only produce 1 viable cell and 3 polar bodies.
    Explanation
    Cytokinesis is uneven in oogenesis (production of eggs) which produces only one good egg and 3 unusable cells called polar bodies.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is NOT true of crossing over?

    • A.

      Crossing over occurs when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material.

    • B.

      Crossing over occurs during DNA replication.

    • C.

      Crossing over increases genetic diversity.

    • D.

      Crossing over usually only occurs during Meiosis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Crossing over occurs during DNA replication.
    Explanation
    Crossing over occurs between Prophase I and Anaphase I of Meiosis.

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  • 19. 

    What is the goal of basic scientific research in biology?

    • A.

      Finding cures that will prolong human life through the study of disease

    • B.

      Developing a more complete understanding of the interactions within and surrounding living organisms

    • C.

      Creating a comprehensive set of laws that allow us to predict how matter behaves and interacts

    • D.

      Providing a better understanding of the origin of life in the universe

    Correct Answer
    B. Developing a more complete understanding of the interactions within and surrounding living organisms
    Explanation
    The goal of basic scientific research in biology is to develop a more complete understanding of the interactions within and surrounding living organisms. This involves studying various aspects of biology, such as the structure and function of cells, the mechanisms of genetic inheritance, and the behavior of organisms in their natural environment. By gaining a deeper understanding of these interactions, scientists can uncover new knowledge about the complexity of life and potentially make advancements in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and environmental conservation.

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  • 20. 

    The theory of spontaneous generation was first proposed by ___.

    • A.

      Needham

    • B.

      Aristotle

    • C.

      Plato

    • D.

      Redi

    Correct Answer
    B. Aristotle
    Explanation
    Aristotle was the first to propose the theory of spontaneous generation. He believed that living organisms could arise from non-living matter through a process called abiogenesis. According to Aristotle, certain conditions, such as the presence of heat and moisture, could lead to the spontaneous generation of life forms. This theory was widely accepted until the experiments of Francesco Redi and Louis Pasteur provided evidence against it.

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  • 21. 

    Dr. Hansen performs an experiment testing the effectiveness of different cough syrups. Identify the independent variable in the experiment.

    • A.

      Number of people taking each cough syrup

    • B.

      Type of cough syrup

    • C.

      Number of days people take each cough syrup

    • D.

      Flavor of the cough syrup

    Correct Answer
    B. Type of cough syrup
    Explanation
    The independent variable in this experiment is the type of cough syrup. This is because the researcher is testing the effectiveness of different cough syrups, and the type of cough syrup is the variable that is being manipulated and controlled by the researcher. The other options listed (number of people taking each cough syrup, number of days people take each cough syrup, flavor of the cough syrup) are not being directly manipulated or controlled in this experiment.

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  • 22. 

    Who helped disprove the idea of spontaneous generation by demonstrating that maggots come from fly eggs and NOT from meat?

    • A.

      Louis Pasteur

    • B.

      John Needham

    • C.

      Francesco Redi

    • D.

      Lazzaro Spallanzani

    Correct Answer
    C. Francesco Redi
    Explanation
    Francesco Redi helped disprove the idea of spontaneous generation by conducting an experiment with meat and flies. He set up two jars, one with meat exposed to air and another with meat covered. The jar with exposed meat attracted flies which laid eggs, resulting in maggots appearing on the meat. However, the jar with covered meat did not have any maggots. This experiment showed that maggots come from fly eggs, not spontaneously generated from the meat itself.

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  • 23. 

    Mr. Johnson asked his class to examine and make scientific observations about a soccer ball. Which of the following is an inference NOT an observation?

    • A.

      The object has never been used in a soccer game.

    • B.

      The object is black and white.

    • C.

      The object has a circumference of 71 cm.

    • D.

      The object weighs 454 grams.

    Correct Answer
    A. The object has never been used in a soccer game.
    Explanation
    An inference is a conclusion or deduction made based on observations or evidence. In this case, the statement "The object has never been used in a soccer game" is an inference because it goes beyond the direct observation of the soccer ball. The other statements, such as "The object is black and white," "The object has a circumference of 71 cm," and "The object weighs 454 grams," are all direct observations that can be made about the soccer ball without any assumptions or conclusions.

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  • 24. 

    Aisha wants to conduct an experiment to determine whether sun and shade varieties of the same plant species prefer the same wavelengths of light. She plans to measure rates of photosynthesis. Which design would be best for her experiment?

    • A.

      10 plants of the sun variety tested under blue light only; and 10 plants of the shade variety tested under blue light only

    • B.

      40 plants of the sun variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light with 40 plants of the shade variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light

    • C.

      1 plant of the sun variety tested under blue light only, and 1 plant of the shade variety tested under blue light only

    • D.

      4 plants of the sun variety: 1 tested under blue light, 1 under green, 1 under red, and 1 under yellow light with 4 plants of the shade variety: 1 tested under blue light, 1 under green, 1 under red, and 1 under yellow light

    Correct Answer
    B. 40 plants of the sun variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light with 40 plants of the shade variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light
    Explanation
    The best design for Aisha's experiment is to test 40 plants of the sun variety under different wavelengths of light (blue, green, red, and yellow) and 40 plants of the shade variety under the same wavelengths. This design allows for a comprehensive comparison between the two varieties and their preferences for different wavelengths of light. By testing multiple plants under each wavelength, Aisha can gather more data and make more accurate conclusions about the preferences of each variety.

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  • 25. 

    The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions fairly constant is called

    • A.

      Metabolism.

    • B.

      Homeostasis.

    • C.

      Photosynthesis.

    • D.

      Evolution.

    Correct Answer
    B. Homeostasis.
    Explanation
    Homeostasis is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. It involves various physiological mechanisms that regulate body temperature, pH levels, and other vital parameters within a narrow range. Metabolism is the set of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life, but it does not specifically refer to the regulation of internal conditions. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy, and evolution is the gradual change in species over time.

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  • 26. 

    Alice soaked six different kinds of seeds in water for 24 hours. Then she planted the seeds in soil at a depth of I cm. She used the same amount of water, light, and heat for each kind of seed.

    • A.

      Recognize a problem

    • B.

      Form a hypothesis

    • C.

      Draw conclusions

    • D.

      Perform an experiment

    Correct Answer
    D. Perform an experiment
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Perform an experiment," is the correct answer because Alice soaked the seeds in water, planted them in soil, and provided the same conditions of water, light, and heat for each kind of seed. This indicates that she carried out an experiment to test the effect of soaking the seeds and planting them at a specific depth. The other options mentioned (recognize a problem, form a hypothesis, and draw conclusions) are steps that typically follow after performing an experiment.

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  • 27. 

    A student wants to determine whether temperature affects the rate at which mold grows on bread. The student puts one piece of bread inside a Petri dish, closes the lid, and places the Petri dish in the refrigerator. Which treatment would be the best comparison for this experiment?

    • A.

      Placing another piece of bread in an open Petri dish in the same refrigerator

    • B.

      Placing another piece of bread in an open Petri dish on the countertop

    • C.

      Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop

    • D.

      Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish in the same refringerator

    Correct Answer
    C. Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop
    Explanation
    Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop would be the best comparison for this experiment. This is because the student's main objective is to determine whether temperature affects the rate at which mold grows on bread. By placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop, the student can keep all variables constant except for the temperature. This allows for a direct comparison between the bread in the refrigerator and the bread on the countertop, helping to determine the effect of temperature on mold growth.

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  • 28. 

    Michael fed different diets to three groups of guinea pigs. His experiment showed that guinea pigs need vitamin C and protein in their diets.

    • A.

      Form a hypothesis

    • B.

      Draw conclusions

    • C.

      Recognize a problem

    • D.

      Perform an experiment

    Correct Answer
    B. Draw conclusions
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, Michael performed an experiment where he fed different diets to three groups of guinea pigs. After conducting the experiment, he was able to observe and analyze the results, which led him to draw conclusions. This suggests that Michael formulated a hypothesis, performed the experiment, and then drew conclusions based on the data collected. Therefore, the correct answer is "Draw conclusions."

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  • 29. 

    The amount of light and temperature are examples of

    • A.

      Factors that affect reproduction.

    • B.

      Factors necessary for life.

    • C.

      Methods of energy production.

    • D.

      Factors to which living things respond.

    Correct Answer
    D. Factors to which living things respond.
    Explanation
    The statement "The amount of light and temperature are examples of factors to which living things respond" is correct because living organisms have the ability to sense and respond to changes in their environment. Light and temperature are two important factors that can greatly influence the behavior, growth, and reproduction of living organisms. They can trigger physiological and behavioral responses in organisms, such as migration, hibernation, or changes in metabolic rate, in order to adapt and survive in different environmental conditions.

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  • 30. 

    Kevin said, “If I grow five seedlings in red light, then I think the plants will grow faster than the five plants grown in white light.” What is his dependent variable?

    • A.

      Growth rate of the plants

    • B.

      Color of light used

    • C.

      Number of seedlings used

    • D.

      Amount of water given to the plants

    Correct Answer
    A. Growth rate of the plants
    Explanation
    The dependent variable in this scenario is the growth rate of the plants. This is because Kevin is testing the effect of different light colors on the plants' growth, and the growth rate is the measured outcome that will determine whether the plants grew faster in red light or white light. The other options (color of light used, number of seedlings used, and amount of water given to the plants) are not the variables being tested in this experiment, but rather the independent variables or control variables.

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  • 31. 

    The idea that life can come from non-living matter is called ___.

    • A.

      Evolution

    • B.

      Spontaneous generation

    • C.

      Autotrophism

    • D.

      Biogenesis

    Correct Answer
    B. Spontaneous generation
    Explanation
    Spontaneous generation refers to the belief that living organisms can arise spontaneously from non-living matter. This idea was widely accepted before the discovery of microorganisms and the development of the theory of biogenesis, which states that living organisms can only arise from pre-existing living organisms. The concept of spontaneous generation was eventually disproven through experiments by Louis Pasteur, leading to the acceptance of biogenesis and the understanding that life only comes from life.

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  • 32. 

    Dr. Graham has written a paper on the internal temperature of nests of alligator eggs. His data shows that temperature determines the sex of the hatchlings. What is the best method of validating the reliability of Dr. Graham’s experiment?

    • A.

      Dr. Graham should repeat the experiment at another time of year.

    • B.

      Several scientists should observe Dr. Graham as he repeats the experiment.

    • C.

      Several scientists should repeat the experiment using Dr. Graham’s design.

    • D.

      Dr. Graham should clearly document the experimental process.

    Correct Answer
    C. Several scientists should repeat the experiment using Dr. Graham’s design.
    Explanation
    To validate the reliability of Dr. Graham's experiment, several scientists should repeat the experiment using his design. This method allows for the replication of the experiment under the same conditions and controls, ensuring that the results are consistent and reliable. By having multiple scientists independently conduct the experiment and achieve similar results, it strengthens the validity of Dr. Graham's findings and reduces the chances of any biases or errors in his original study.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following characteristics of living things best explains why birds fly south for the winter?

    • A.

      Living things are based on a universal genetic code.

    • B.

      Living things are made up of units called cells.

    • C.

      Living things respond to their environment.

    • D.

      Living things maintain internal balance.

    Correct Answer
    C. Living things respond to their environment.
    Explanation
    Birds flying south for the winter is a behavior that demonstrates how living things respond to their environment. It is a natural instinct for birds to migrate to warmer climates in order to find food and avoid harsh winter conditions. This behavior is not determined by their genetic code or the fact that they are made up of cells. While maintaining internal balance is important for living things, it does not directly explain why birds fly south for the winter.

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  • 34. 

    John Needham performed an experiment testing spontaneous generation. He boiled chicken broth, placed it in a sterile flask, and then sealed the flask. After a few days, Needham observed microorganisms in the flask. Based on current understanding, how was his experiment flawed?

    • A.

      After Needham boiled the broth, microorganisms entered from the air.

    • B.

      Microorganisms entered the broth from the flask itself after the flask was sealed.

    • C.

      Boiling activated dormant microorganisms present in the broth.

    • D.

      Boiling the broth did not kill all microorganisms present.

    Correct Answer
    D. Boiling the broth did not kill all microorganisms present.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that boiling the broth did not kill all microorganisms present. This is because the process of boiling is meant to kill any existing microorganisms in the broth, but if some microorganisms were resistant to boiling or in a dormant state, they would not be killed and could later grow and reproduce in the sealed flask, leading to the observation of microorganisms after a few days.

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  • 35. 

    Lazzaro Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur both performed experiments hoping to disprove spontaneous generation. What conditions existed in Pasteur’s experiment that did not exist in Spallanzani’s?

    • A.

      Neither air nor microoganisms could enter the flasks.

    • B.

      Air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter.

    • C.

      Both air and microorganisms could enter the flasks.

    • D.

      No air could enter the flasks, but microorganisms could enter.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter.
    Explanation
    In Pasteur's experiment, air could enter the flasks but no microorganisms could enter. This is different from Spallanzani's experiment where neither air nor microorganisms could enter the flasks. The presence of air in Pasteur's experiment allowed him to test the hypothesis that microorganisms in the air were responsible for the contamination of the broth. By using a swan-necked flask that trapped any microorganisms in the air before they could reach the broth, Pasteur was able to demonstrate that the growth of microorganisms in the broth was due to contamination from external sources, rather than spontaneous generation.

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  • 36. 

    In an experiment, a scientist filled 2 open flasks, as shown in the figures, with broth and boiled the broth until it became clear. He then left the flasks open for several days. Which results showed that spontaneous generation did not occur? {C}{C}

    • A.

      The broth in Flask A became cloudy, and the broth in Flask B remained clear.

    • B.

      The broth in Flask A remained clear, and the broth in Flask B became cloudy.

    • C.

      The broth in both Flasks A and B became cloudy.

    • D.

      The broth in both Flasks A and B remained clear.

    Correct Answer
    A. The broth in Flask A became cloudy, and the broth in Flask B remained clear.
    Explanation
    The correct answer indicates that spontaneous generation did not occur because the broth in Flask A became cloudy, which suggests the growth of microorganisms, while the broth in Flask B remained clear, indicating the absence of any growth. This contradicts the idea of spontaneous generation, which suggests that living organisms can arise spontaneously from non-living matter.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?

    • A.

      Growth and development

    • B.

      Response to the environment

    • C.

      Ability to reproduce

    • D.

      Ability to move

    Correct Answer
    D. Ability to move
    Explanation
    The ability to move is not a characteristic of all living things. While many living organisms are capable of movement, such as animals and some plants, there are also many living things that are immobile, such as plants rooted in the ground or microorganisms that cannot move on their own. Therefore, the ability to move cannot be considered a universal characteristic of all living things.

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  • 38. 

    Redi placed pieces of meat in several jars. He divided the jars into two groups. He covered the first group of jars with fine cloth. He left the secound group of jars uncovered. Redi observed the jars for several days. He saw flies on the cloth of the covered jars, and he saw flies laying eggs on the meat in the uncovered jars. Maggots appeared only on the meat in the group of jars left uncovered. What was the control in Redi’s experiment?

    • A.

      The uncovered jars

    • B.

      The covered jars

    • C.

      The presence of maggots

    • D.

      The type of meat

    Correct Answer
    A. The uncovered jars
    Explanation
    The control in Redi's experiment was the uncovered jars. This is because the control group is the group that does not receive the experimental treatment or intervention. In this case, the uncovered jars were not covered with cloth, allowing flies to have direct access to the meat. By comparing the presence of maggots only in the uncovered jars, Redi could determine the effect of the flies on the meat.

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  • 39. 

    A scientist found that the results of an experiment did not support her hypothesis. If she is following proper scientific procedure, what should she do next?

    • A.

      Accept the hypothesis and exclude data that does not fit.

    • B.

      Discard those results and repeat the experiment.

    • C.

      Reject the hypothesis and assume it is incorrect.

    • D.

      Create a new hypothesis and a new experiment to test it.

    Correct Answer
    D. Create a new hypothesis and a new experiment to test it.
    Explanation
    If the results of an experiment do not support the hypothesis, it is important for the scientist to reject the hypothesis and assume it is incorrect. This is because scientific procedure requires that hypotheses be tested and either supported or rejected based on empirical evidence. By rejecting the hypothesis, the scientist acknowledges that it is not supported by the data obtained from the experiment. To continue the scientific process, the scientist should create a new hypothesis and design a new experiment to test it, in order to further investigate the phenomenon under study.

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  • 40. 

    A pigment is a light-absorbing molecule.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A pigment is a substance that absorbs certain wavelengths of light and reflects others, giving it a specific color. This absorption of light is what allows pigments to create color in various materials, such as paints, inks, and dyes. Therefore, it is correct to say that a pigment is a light-absorbing molecule.

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  • 41. 

    Chlorophyll absorbs green light and reflects all other colors.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Chlorophyll absorbs red and blue light and reflects green light. This is why plants appear green to our eyes. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 42. 

    What are the products of photosynthesis?

    • A.

      Carbon dioxide and Water

    • B.

      Light and ATP

    • C.

      Glucose and Oxygen

    • D.

      All of the answer choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    C. Glucose and Oxygen
    Explanation
    Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose (a sugar) and oxygen. Glucose is a vital source of energy for plants, which can be stored or used for growth and other metabolic processes. Oxygen is released as a byproduct of photosynthesis and is essential for the survival of many organisms, including humans, as it is required for respiration. Therefore, the correct answer is "Glucose and Oxygen."

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  • 43. 

    What are the reactants of Photosynthesis?

    • A.

      Carbon dioxide and Water

    • B.

      Light and ATP

    • C.

      Glucose and Oxygen

    • D.

      All of the answer choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon dioxide and Water
    Explanation
    Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose. The reactants of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water. During photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and water from the soil to produce glucose and oxygen. This process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells, where chlorophyll captures light energy to drive the chemical reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is carbon dioxide and water.

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  • 44. 

    Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b are different because

    • A.

      They absorb different wavelengths of light

    • B.

      They reflect different wavelengths of light

    • C.

      One is found in the thylakoid and the other in the stroma

    • D.

      All of the answer choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. They absorb different wavelengths of light
    Explanation
    Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b are different because they absorb different wavelengths of light. This is due to differences in their chemical structures, which result in variations in their absorption spectra. Chlorophyll a primarily absorbs blue and red light, while chlorophyll b absorbs blue and red-orange light. This allows plants to efficiently capture a broader range of light energy for photosynthesis.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following in NOT a factor that affects the rate of photosynthesis? a. Temperature c. Water availability b. Carbon dioxide availability d. pH

    • A.

      Temperature

    • B.

      Carbon dioxide availability

    • C.

      Water availability

    • D.

      PH

    Correct Answer
    D. pH
    Explanation
    The rate of photosynthesis is affected by various factors such as temperature, water availability, and carbon dioxide availability. pH, however, is not a factor that directly affects the rate of photosynthesis. pH refers to the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, and while it can indirectly affect plant growth and metabolism, it does not have a direct impact on the rate at which photosynthesis occurs.

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  • 46. 

    What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?

    • A.

      Adhesion energy

    • B.

      Activation energy

    • C.

      Cohesion energy

    • D.

      Chemical energy

    Correct Answer
    B. Activation energy
    Explanation
    Activation energy is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started. It is the minimum amount of energy required for a chemical reaction to occur. This energy is needed to break the existing bonds in the reactant molecules and initiate the formation of new bonds in the product molecules. Activation energy determines the rate at which a reaction proceeds, with higher activation energy resulting in slower reactions and lower activation energy resulting in faster reactions.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true? a. Enzymes work best at a specified pH. b. All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates.  c. Enzymes are proteins.         d. The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job. 

    • A.

      Enzymes work best at a specified pH

    • B.

      All enzymes have the same shaps as their substrates

    • C.

      Enzymes are proteins

    • D.

      The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job

    Correct Answer
    B. All enzymes have the same shaps as their substrates
    Explanation
    Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body. They have a specific three-dimensional shape that allows them to bind to their substrates and facilitate the reaction. However, enzymes and substrates do not have the same shape. Enzymes have a specific active site that is complementary in shape to the substrate, allowing for a specific interaction and reaction to occur. Therefore, the statement that all enzymes have the same shape as their substrates is not true.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following statements is true about catalysts? a. Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions. b. All catalysts are enzymes. c. Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction. d. Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.

    • A.

      Catalysts slow down the rate of chemical reactions

    • B.

      All catalysts are enzymes

    • C.

      Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction

    • D.

      Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction

    Correct Answer
    D. Catalysts lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction
    Explanation
    Catalysts are substances that increase the rate of a chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. They do not slow down the rate of chemical reactions. While some catalysts can be enzymes, not all catalysts are enzymes. Catalysts are not used up during a chemical reaction, as they are not consumed in the reaction and can be used repeatedly.

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  • 49. 

    A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)

    • A.

      Catalyst

    • B.

      Lipid

    • C.

      Molecule

    • D.

      Protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Catalyst
    Explanation
    A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. It works by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, allowing the reaction to occur more quickly. In other words, a catalyst speeds up the reaction by lowering the energy barrier that needs to be overcome for the reaction to take place. This enables the reaction to happen more easily and efficiently.

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  • 50. 

    Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the

    • A.

      Products of the reaction

    • B.

      Speed of the reaction

    • C.

      Temperature of the reaction

    • D.

      PH of the reaction

    Correct Answer
    B. Speed of the reaction
    Explanation
    Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in living cells. They do this by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur, thus increasing the rate or speed of the reaction. Enzymes themselves are not consumed or changed during the reaction, but they facilitate the conversion of reactants into products more efficiently and quickly. Therefore, enzymes primarily affect the speed of the reaction rather than the products, temperature, or pH.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 26, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Jdowdyrobinson

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