Practice Exam II

100 Questions

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

A collection of questions of the STST chapters - 100 questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    “Strike through” is used aseptically to describe:
    • A. 

      Perforation of sharp object through sterile wrapper

    • B. 

      Rupture of heat seal during sterilization

    • C. 

      Use of biologic indicator for sterilization

    • D. 

      Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers

  • 2. 
    The most common nosocomial infections are:
    • A. 

      Respiratory

    • B. 

      Surgical wound infection

    • C. 

      Urinary infections with catheter use

    • D. 

      Gastrointestinal

  • 3. 
    A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of a :
    • A. 

      Community acquired infection

    • B. 

      Nosocomial infection

    • C. 

      Recurrent infection

    • D. 

      Laten infection

  • 4. 
    What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and water droplets are on the inside?
    • A. 

      Discard the pitcher, it is contaminated

    • B. 

      Use the pitcher, droplets ae sterile

    • C. 

      Use it, but dry out with a sterile towel

    • D. 

      Let container air dry before use

  • 5. 
    Which of the following terms refers to the level of honesty and integrity that every surgical technologist must uphold in the delivery of quality patient care?
    • A. 

      Respondeat superior

    • B. 

      Standard precautions

    • C. 

      Aseptic technique

    • D. 

      Surgical conscience

  • 6. 
    For aseptic purposes, covering a sterile table for later use is:
    • A. 

      Permissible for up to one hour before the procedure

    • B. 

      Permissible in instances of an emergency

    • C. 

      Not permissible for up to two hours before the procedure

    • D. 

      Not permissible in any circumstance

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Reduce the number of microorganisms

    • B. 

      Sterilize the hands and arms

    • C. 

      Prevent wearing gown and gloves

    • D. 

      Allow touching nonsterile items

  • 8. 
    What action would NOT be taken following a needle stick?
    • A. 

      Prevent bleeding

    • B. 

      Cleanse area

    • C. 

      Remove glove immediately

    • D. 

      Report incident

  • 9. 
    Which of the following statements is correct?
    • A. 

      Once sterile drapes have been positioned, they should not be moved

    • B. 

      An item that extends below the table edge is considered sterile

    • C. 

      Inside of sterile wrappers is considered sterile up to a 3-inch perimeter

    • D. 

      When opening a sterile package, top flap is opened toward the body

  • 10. 
    A perforating towel clip is used on the sterile field to keep a drape in place but is moved by the surgeon. How should the surgical technologist handle the towel clip?
    • A. 

      Placed on sterile back table

    • B. 

      Handed off the field to the circulator

    • C. 

      Handed to circulator for removal from O.R.

    • D. 

      Placed back on drape in another area

  • 11. 
    What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arms?
    • A. 

      Telecommunications

    • B. 

      Telesurgery

    • C. 

      Artificial Intelligence

    • D. 

      Autonomous Surgery

  • 12. 
    What is the technical term for robotic arms?
    • A. 

      Telechirs

    • B. 

      Articulates

    • C. 

      Resolutions

    • D. 

      Manipulators

  • 13. 
    The robotic arm’s clockwise and counterclockwise movements around on axis are referred to as:
    • A. 

      Arm Movements

    • B. 

      Degrees of rotation

    • C. 

      Articulated geometry

    • D. 

      Degrees of freedom

  • 14. 
    A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called:
    • A. 

      Pitch

    • B. 

      Roll

    • C. 

      Yaw

    • D. 

      Rotation

  • 15. 
    What term refers to the robot’s ability to differentiate between two objects?
    • A. 

      Binocular machine vision

    • B. 

      Stereo vision

    • C. 

      Resolution

    • D. 

      Sensitivity

  • 16. 
    What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?
    • A. 

      Telepresence

    • B. 

      Manipulator

    • C. 

      Voice-activated

    • D. 

      Telechir

  • 17. 
    What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic arm?
    • A. 

      Pitch

    • B. 

      Yaw

    • C. 

      Roll

    • D. 

      Degree

  • 18. 
    Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?
    • A. 

      Uterus

    • B. 

      Renal calculi

    • C. 

      Tonsils

    • D. 

      Colon

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is a commonly used preservative solution for tissue specimens?
    • A. 

      Ethyl alcohol

    • B. 

      Formalin

    • C. 

      Distilled water

    • D. 

      Povidene iodine

  • 20. 
    All of the following statements are true for the handling of specimens EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Hemostatic clamp is not placed on the specimen

    • B. 

      Bilateral specimens are placed in the same container

    • C. 

      Anaerobic cultures should be refrigerated

    • D. 

      Specimens are not handed off on a surgical sponge

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Bullet is placed in a dry container

    • B. 

      Bullet is handed off with forceps

    • C. 

      Bullet is handed off on a towel

    • D. 

      Bullet has legal significance

  • 22. 
    A tissue specimen indicated for frozen section is sent to the pathology department in a specimen container with:
    • A. 

      No preservative

    • B. 

      Distilled water

    • C. 

      Formalin

    • D. 

      Saline

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is NOT routinely required for all patients preoperatively?
    • A. 

      Medical history and physical

    • B. 

      Surgical consent

    • C. 

      Chest X-ray

    • D. 

      Preoperative hygiene

  • 24. 
    Why should nail polish be removed?
    • A. 

      Prevent surgical wound infection

    • B. 

      Allow temperature to be recorded

    • C. 

      Monitor blood pressure

    • D. 

      Allow use of pulse oximeter

  • 25. 
    What report is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the O.R. that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?
    • A. 

      Operative report

    • B. 

      Incident report

    • C. 

      Medical record

    • D. 

      Advance directive

  • 26. 
    What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative records that record the perioperative care given to all surgical patients?
    • A. 

      JCAHO

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      NIOSH

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 27. 
    When handling drapes to the surgeon, where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand in relation to the surgeon?
    • A. 

      Opposite side of the O.R. table

    • B. 

      Same side of the O.R. table

    • C. 

      Foot of the table

    • D. 

      Head of the table

  • 28. 
    What type of drape would be used for an abdominoperineal resection performed with the patient in the lithotomy position?
    • A. 

      Laparotomy drape

    • B. 

      Split sheet

    • C. 

      Combined drape

    • D. 

      Transverse drape

  • 29. 
    What type of drape would be used for a vaginal or rectal procedure?
    • A. 

      Laparotomy drape

    • B. 

      Split sheet

    • C. 

      Transverse drape

    • D. 

      Perineal drape

  • 30. 
    What type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?
    • A. 

      Transverse drape

    • B. 

      Extremity drape

    • C. 

      Split sheet

    • D. 

      Perineal drape

  • 31. 
    Which technique is not acceptable when draping?
    • A. 

      Hold the drapes 12” above patient until over draping site

    • B. 

      Protect gloved hands by cuffing end of drape over it

    • C. 

      Unfold drape before bringing up to the O.R. table

    • D. 

      Place drapes on dry area when setting up back table

  • 32. 
    Lack of control over urination is called:
    • A. 

      Elimination

    • B. 

      Retention

    • C. 

      Micturition

    • D. 

      Incontinence

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Prostatitis

    • B. 

      PBH

    • C. 

      Balanitis

    • D. 

      Impotence

  • 34. 
    The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is a/an:
    • A. 

      Orchiectomy

    • B. 

      Orchiotomy

    • C. 

      Orchiopexy

    • D. 

      Testicular Biopsy

  • 35. 
    An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following procedures?
    • A. 

      Ureterolithotomy

    • B. 

      Total cystectomy

    • C. 

      Prostateectomy

    • D. 

      TURP

  • 36. 
    If an adult patient is illiterate, how is the consent form signed?
    • A. 

      Witness signs patient’s name

    • B. 

      Patient marks an X

    • C. 

      Guardian signs the consent

    • D. 

      Surgeon signs the consent

  • 37. 
    The ultimate responsibility of obtaining the general consent belongs to the:
    • A. 

      Circulator

    • B. 

      Surgical assistant

    • C. 

      Surgeon

    • D. 

      O.R. supervisor

  • 38. 
    The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What action should be taken?
    • A. 

      Transport patient to O.R.; inform surgeon

    • B. 

      Do not transport patient; inform surgeon

    • C. 

      Do not transport patient; inform anesthesia provider

    • D. 

      Transport patient to O.R.; inform O.R. supervisor

  • 39. 
    In which of the following situations will the patient NOT be allowed to sign the consent for surgery?
    • A. 

      Patient is legal age

    • B. 

      Patient received preoperative medications

    • C. 

      Patient explained alternative treatments

    • D. 

      Patient is emancipated minor

  • 40. 
    A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak English and does not fully understand what he/she signed. Surgery on the patient could constitute a liability case for:
    • A. 

      Assault and battery

    • B. 

      Improper documentation

    • C. 

      Invasion of privacy

    • D. 

      Negligence

  • 41. 
    A general consent form:
    • A. 

      Authorizes all routine treatments or procedures

    • B. 

      Authorizes treatment only for patient receiving general anesthesia

    • C. 

      Authorizes treatment for patients receiving experimental drugs

    • D. 

      Authorizes treatment for patients who are unconscious

  • 42. 
    A minor requires emergency surgery, but he parents or closest living relatives cannot be contacted. What procedure should be followed for securing a consent for surgery?
    • A. 

      Court order

    • B. 

      Two consulting physicians agree

    • C. 

      No consent is required

    • D. 

      Surgeon signs consent

  • 43. 
    Name this instrument that is used during rectal procedures.
    • A. 

      Pratt rectal speculum

    • B. 

      Smith (Buie) anal retractor

    • C. 

      Hill-Ferguson retractor

    • D. 

      Hirschmann anoscope

  • 44. 
    Name the above instrument that is used during an open gallbladder procedure (rounded top/ball tip)
    • A. 

      Mayo common duct probe

    • B. 

      Desjardin gall stone scoop

    • C. 

      Ferguson gallstone scoop

    • D. 

      Mayo common duct scoop

  • 45. 
    The combining form of the word arteri/o means:
    • A. 

      Joint

    • B. 

      Artery

    • C. 

      Bronchus

    • D. 

      Gland

  • 46. 
    Anaerobic means:
    • A. 

      Without oxygen

    • B. 

      With oxygen

    • C. 

      Additional oxygen

    • D. 

      Small amount of oxygen

  • 47. 
    Dys- means:
    • A. 

      Difficult

    • B. 

      Skin

    • C. 

      Near

    • D. 

      Away from

  • 48. 
    QID refers to:
    • A. 

      1 time a day

    • B. 

      2 times a day

    • C. 

      3 times a day

    • D. 

      4 times a day

  • 49. 
    Chole refers to:
    • A. 

      Vagina

    • B. 

      Yellow

    • C. 

      Bile

    • D. 

      Cartilage

  • 50. 
    Mastectomy means:
    • A. 

      Excision of a breast

    • B. 

      Breast biopsy

    • C. 

      Incision into the chest

    • D. 

      Removal of a tumor

  • 51. 
    Os means:
    • A. 

      Ear

    • B. 

      Opening

    • C. 

      Bone

    • D. 

      Valve

  • 52. 
    Aseptic means:
    • A. 

      Without sepsis

    • B. 

      With sepsis

    • C. 

      Clean

    • D. 

      Decontaminated

  • 53. 
    Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy means removal of:
    • A. 

      One tube and ovary

    • B. 

      Both ovaries

    • C. 

      Both tubes and ovaries

    • D. 

      Both tubes

  • 54. 
    NPO means:
    • A. 

      No food after midnight

    • B. 

      Nothing by mouth

    • C. 

      Only liquids

    • D. 

      No liquids

  • 55. 
    Mentoplasy means reconstruction of the:
    • A. 

      Face

    • B. 

      Chin

    • C. 

      Eyelids

    • D. 

      Breast

  • 56. 
    -scopy means:
    • A. 

      Viewing

    • B. 

      Excision

    • C. 

      Recording

    • D. 

      Incision

  • 57. 
    Hepat refers to:
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Iron

    • D. 

      Bile

  • 58. 
    Tachycardia is a/an:
    • A. 

      Slow heart rate

    • B. 

      Fast heart rate

    • C. 

      Normal heart rate

    • D. 

      Irregular heart rate

  • 59. 
    -tomy means:
    • A. 

      Incision

    • B. 

      Fusion

    • C. 

      Excision

    • D. 

      Inflammation

  • 60. 
    Ectomy means:
    • A. 

      Incision

    • B. 

      Opening

    • C. 

      Excision

    • D. 

      Anastomoses

  • 61. 
    Inter- means:
    • A. 

      Between

    • B. 

      Within

    • C. 

      Below

    • D. 

      Above

  • 62. 
    Oophor refers to:
    • A. 

      Tubes

    • B. 

      Ovary

    • C. 

      Vagina

    • D. 

      Uterus

  • 63. 
    Cephalgia refers to:
    • A. 

      Abnormally large head

    • B. 

      Headache

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the brain

    • D. 

      Chronic pain

  • 64. 
    Under what circumstances can the patient’s hospital identification bracelet be removed?
    • A. 

      Insert IV catheter

    • B. 

      Never removed

    • C. 

      Discharged from PACU

    • D. 

      Surgeon’s orders

  • 65. 
    How many times is the patient identification confirmed before transporting from the ward room to the surgery department?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 66. 
    If a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient on the hospital ward, what action should be taken?
    • A. 

      Transport to O.R. and inform dept. supervisor

    • B. 

      Transport to O.R. and inform surgeon

    • C. 

      Do not transport to O.R. and inform anesthesia provider

    • D. 

      Do not transport to O.R. and inform O.R. personnel

  • 67. 
    When transporting a patient to the O.R. in what direction should the gurney be situated?
    • A. 

      Feet first

    • B. 

      Follow the surgeon’s orders

    • C. 

      Head First

    • D. 

      Patient’s choice

  • 68. 
    When transporting a patient to the O.R. in a gurney, where should the safety strap be placed?
    • A. 

      Below the knees

    • B. 

      Across the waist

    • C. 

      Over the thighs

    • D. 

      Across the abdomen

  • 69. 
    When transporting a patient to the O.B. in a gurney, how should the patient be transported when using an elevator?
    • A. 

      Place gurney sideways in elevator

    • B. 

      Enter head first, exit feet first

    • C. 

      Follow surgeon’s orders

    • D. 

      Enter feet first, exit head first

  • 70. 
    The recommended number of air exchanges per hour within an operating room is:
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 71. 
    The relative humidity in an operating room should be maintained at:
    • A. 

      20% to 30%

    • B. 

      30% to 40%

    • C. 

      40% to 50%

    • D. 

      50% to 60%

  • 72. 
    A ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a unidirectional flow is called:
    • A. 

      Conventional air flow

    • B. 

      Filtered air system

    • C. 

      Laminar air flow

    • D. 

      Positive pressure air supply

  • 73. 
    Which filter is preferred for use in the O.R. for air exchanges?
    • A. 

      High efficiency particulate air filters

    • B. 

      Positive pressure air filters

    • C. 

      Positive laminar air flow

    • D. 

      High air pressure filter

  • 74. 
    What three safety factors should be remembered concerning the safety of the surgical technologist and ionizing radiation?
    • A. 

      Time, type of procedure, distance

    • B. 

      Type of procedure, shielding, distance

    • C. 

      Time, shielding, distance

    • D. 

      Distance, radiation dose, frequency

  • 75. 
    When using an arm board on the O.R. table, the most important measure to take is to:
    • A. 

      Avoid hyper-extension of the arm

    • B. 

      Support the IV site

    • C. 

      Avoid wrist drop

    • D. 

      Strap the arm in place

  • 76. 
    Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient in the lateral position:
    • A. 

      Suprapubic prostateectomy

    • B. 

      Vaginal hysterectomy

    • C. 

      Nephrectomy

    • D. 

      Tonsillectomy

  • 77. 
    When performing the patient skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted from the:
    • A. 

      Incision site to the periphery using circular motion

    • B. 

      Periphery to incision site using circular motion

    • C. 

      Incision site to periphery using back and forth motion

    • D. 

      Periphery to incision site using back and forth motion

  • 78. 
    The position most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia is:
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Lateral

    • D. 

      Fowler’s

  • 79. 
    An anesthetized patient is moved slowly to prevent:
    • A. 

      Falls

    • B. 

      Hyper-extension

    • C. 

      Cardiovascular complications

    • D. 

      Dislodging of tubes and catheters

  • 80. 
    When performing an abdominal prep the umbilicus is
    • A. 

      Included in overall prep

    • B. 

      Not included in prep

    • C. 

      Prepped last or separately

    • D. 

      Only painted

  • 81. 
    In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the O.R. table to prevent:
    • A. 

      Respiratory complications

    • B. 

      Circulatory complications

    • C. 

      Nerve damage

    • D. 

      Pressure areas

  • 82. 
    Ulnar nerve damage could result from:
    • A. 

      Poor placement of legs in stirrups

    • B. 

      Hyper-extension of the arm

    • C. 

      Use of unpadded arm board

    • D. 

      Poor positioning

  • 83. 
    Stirrups that are not padded or improperly placed on the O.R. table can cause pressure on the:
    • A. 

      Sciatic nerve

    • B. 

      Peroneal nerve

    • C. 

      Tibial nerve

    • D. 

      Gluteal nerve

  • 84. 
    If the patient is in the supine position, the circulating surgical technologist must always:
    • A. 

      Place a pillow between the knees

    • B. 

      Place a pillow under the knees

    • C. 

      Confirm the ankles and legs are not crossed

    • D. 

      Confirm neck area is padded

  • 85. 
    All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      The hips are placed over break in the table

    • B. 

      A pillow is placed under lower legs and ankles

    • C. 

      A padded safety strap is placed 2” above the knees

    • D. 

      The arms are tucked at the sides of the patient

  • 86. 
    When moving a patient from the lithotomy position:
    • A. 

      Lower stirrups, then remove legs

    • B. 

      Lower legs together

    • C. 

      Lower each leg separately

    • D. 

      Raise stirrups, then remove legs

  • 87. 
    Which of the following is NOT a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?
    • A. 

      Safety belt is placed below the knees

    • B. 

      Arms on arm boards or raised above the head

    • C. 

      Head turned to the side

    • D. 

      Bolsters placed under axillae

  • 88. 
    The femoral nerve can be damaged if:
    • A. 

      Patient is not padded properly in lithotomy position

    • B. 

      Retractors are improperly placed during pelvic surgery

    • C. 

      Safety strap is placed Too tightly

    • D. 

      Mayo stand presses on patient’s feet

  • 89. 
    To avoid foot drop:
    • A. 

      Place pillows under the knees for support

    • B. 

      Place the safety strap 2” above the knees

    • C. 

      Place legs in stirrups

    • D. 

      Pad heels to prevent pressure from O.R. table

  • 90. 
    The best surgical position for visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis is:
    • A. 

      Fowler’s

    • B. 

      Reverse Trendelenburg

    • C. 

      Trendelenburg

    • D. 

      Kraske

  • 91. 
    The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is:
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Fowler’s

    • C. 

      Reverse Trendilenburg

    • D. 

      Lateral Kidney

  • 92. 
    When positioning an anesthetized patient, supporting the head and neck is the responsibility of the:
    • A. 

      Circulating person

    • B. 

      Surgical assistant

    • C. 

      Anesthesia provider

    • D. 

      Surgeon

  • 93. 
    A reverse Trendelenburg position requires the added table attachment of a/an:.
    • A. 

      Stirrup

    • B. 

      Wilson frame

    • C. 

      Kidney braces

    • D. 

      Footboard

  • 94. 
    What position is the best approach to the retroperitoneal area of the flank?
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Lateral

    • C. 

      Trendelenburg

    • D. 

      Prone

  • 95. 
    Which of the following positions is used for a cesarean section?
    • A. 

      Supine bolster under left side

    • B. 

      Supine with bolster under right side

    • C. 

      Lithotomy with bolster under left side

    • D. 

      Trendelenburg with bolster under right side

  • 96. 
    When turning the gown, what is the proper procedure?
    • A. 

      Hand tag to circulator; scrub person turns

    • B. 

      Scrub person holds tag and turns self

    • C. 

      Hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown

    • D. 

      Hand tag to circulator; scrub person and circulator turn

  • 97. 
    When performing a preoperative patient shave prep, all of the following apply except:
    • A. 

      Shave against the direction of hair growth

    • B. 

      Shave hair as close to surgery as possible

    • C. 

      Clippers are preferred over razors

    • D. 

      Shave wet and soap lathered area

  • 98. 
    If used as part of the skin prep, _______ solution should be allowed to dry before electrosurgery is used.
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Hexachlorophene

    • C. 

      Iodophors

    • D. 

      Chlorhexidine

  • 99. 
    Which of the following agents is commonly used when performing a patient skin prep of the eye?
    • A. 

      Triclosan

    • B. 

      Alcohol

    • C. 

      Chlorhexidine gluconate

    • D. 

      Iodophor

  • 100. 
    When performing a patient skin prep of the vagina, which area is prepped last?
    • A. 

      Anus

    • B. 

      Vulva

    • C. 

      Vagina

    • D. 

      Perineum