Practice Exam II
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A collection of questions of the STST chapters - 100 questions
- 1.“Strike through” is used aseptically to describe:
- A.
Perforation of sharp object through sterile wrapper
- B.
Rupture of heat seal during sterilization
- C.
Use of biologic indicator for sterilization
- D.
Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers
- 2.The most common nosocomial infections are:
- A.
Respiratory
- B.
Surgical wound infection
- C.
Urinary infections with catheter use
- D.
Gastrointestinal
- 3.A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of a :
- A.
Community acquired infection
- B.
Nosocomial infection
- C.
Recurrent infection
- D.
Laten infection
- 4.What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and water droplets are on the inside?
- A.
Discard the pitcher, it is contaminated
- B.
Use the pitcher, droplets ae sterile
- C.
Use it, but dry out with a sterile towel
- D.
Let container air dry before use
- 5.Which of the following terms refers to the level of honesty and integrity that every surgical technologist must uphold in the delivery of quality patient care?
- A.
Respondeat superior
- B.
Standard precautions
- C.
Aseptic technique
- D.
Surgical conscience
- 6.For aseptic purposes, covering a sterile table for later use is:
- A.
Permissible for up to one hour before the procedure
- B.
Permissible in instances of an emergency
- C.
Not permissible for up to two hours before the procedure
- D.
Not permissible in any circumstance
- 7.
- A.
Reduce the number of microorganisms
- B.
Sterilize the hands and arms
- C.
Prevent wearing gown and gloves
- D.
Allow touching nonsterile items
- 8.What action would NOT be taken following a needle stick?
- A.
Prevent bleeding
- B.
Cleanse area
- C.
Remove glove immediately
- D.
Report incident
- 9.Which of the following statements is correct?
- A.
Once sterile drapes have been positioned, they should not be moved
- B.
An item that extends below the table edge is considered sterile
- C.
Inside of sterile wrappers is considered sterile up to a 3-inch perimeter
- D.
When opening a sterile package, top flap is opened toward the body
- 10.A perforating towel clip is used on the sterile field to keep a drape in place but is moved by the surgeon. How should the surgical technologist handle the towel clip?
- A.
Placed on sterile back table
- B.
Handed off the field to the circulator
- C.
Handed to circulator for removal from O.R.
- D.
Placed back on drape in another area
- 11.What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arms?
- A.
Telecommunications
- B.
Telesurgery
- C.
Artificial Intelligence
- D.
Autonomous Surgery
- 12.What is the technical term for robotic arms?
- A.
Telechirs
- B.
Articulates
- C.
Resolutions
- D.
Manipulators
- 13.The robotic arm’s clockwise and counterclockwise movements around on axis are referred to as:
- A.
Arm Movements
- B.
Degrees of rotation
- C.
Articulated geometry
- D.
Degrees of freedom
- 14.A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called:
- A.
Pitch
- B.
Roll
- C.
Yaw
- D.
Rotation
- 15.What term refers to the robot’s ability to differentiate between two objects?
- A.
Binocular machine vision
- B.
Stereo vision
- C.
Resolution
- D.
Sensitivity
- 16.What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?
- A.
Telepresence
- B.
Manipulator
- C.
Voice-activated
- D.
Telechir
- 17.What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic arm?
- A.
Pitch
- B.
Yaw
- C.
Roll
- D.
Degree
- 18.Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?
- A.
Uterus
- B.
Renal calculi
- C.
Tonsils
- D.
Colon
- 19.Which of the following is a commonly used preservative solution for tissue specimens?
- A.
Ethyl alcohol
- B.
Formalin
- C.
Distilled water
- D.
Povidene iodine
- 20.All of the following statements are true for the handling of specimens EXCEPT:
- A.
Hemostatic clamp is not placed on the specimen
- B.
Bilateral specimens are placed in the same container
- C.
Anaerobic cultures should be refrigerated
- D.
Specimens are not handed off on a surgical sponge
- 21.
- A.
Bullet is placed in a dry container
- B.
Bullet is handed off with forceps
- C.
Bullet is handed off on a towel
- D.
Bullet has legal significance
- 22.A tissue specimen indicated for frozen section is sent to the pathology department in a specimen container with:
- A.
No preservative
- B.
Distilled water
- C.
Formalin
- D.
Saline
- 23.Which of the following is NOT routinely required for all patients preoperatively?
- A.
Medical history and physical
- B.
Surgical consent
- C.
Chest X-ray
- D.
Preoperative hygiene
- 24.Why should nail polish be removed?
- A.
Prevent surgical wound infection
- B.
Allow temperature to be recorded
- C.
Monitor blood pressure
- D.
Allow use of pulse oximeter
- 25.What report is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the O.R. that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?
- A.
Operative report
- B.
Incident report
- C.
Medical record
- D.
Advance directive
- 26.What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative records that record the perioperative care given to all surgical patients?
- A.
JCAHO
- B.
OSHA
- C.
NIOSH
- D.
CDC
- 27.When handling drapes to the surgeon, where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand in relation to the surgeon?
- A.
Opposite side of the O.R. table
- B.
Same side of the O.R. table
- C.
Foot of the table
- D.
Head of the table
- 28.What type of drape would be used for an abdominoperineal resection performed with the patient in the lithotomy position?
- A.
Laparotomy drape
- B.
Split sheet
- C.
Combined drape
- D.
Transverse drape
- 29.What type of drape would be used for a vaginal or rectal procedure?
- A.
Laparotomy drape
- B.
Split sheet
- C.
Transverse drape
- D.
Perineal drape
- 30.What type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?
- A.
Transverse drape
- B.
Extremity drape
- C.
Split sheet
- D.
Perineal drape
- 31.Which technique is not acceptable when draping?
- A.
Hold the drapes 12” above patient until over draping site
- B.
Protect gloved hands by cuffing end of drape over it
- C.
Unfold drape before bringing up to the O.R. table
- D.
Place drapes on dry area when setting up back table
- 32.Lack of control over urination is called:
- A.
Elimination
- B.
Retention
- C.
Micturition
- D.
Incontinence
- 33.
- A.
Prostatitis
- B.
PBH
- C.
Balanitis
- D.
Impotence
- 34.The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is a/an:
- A.
Orchiectomy
- B.
Orchiotomy
- C.
Orchiopexy
- D.
Testicular Biopsy
- 35.An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following procedures?
- A.
Ureterolithotomy
- B.
Total cystectomy
- C.
Prostateectomy
- D.
TURP
- 36.If an adult patient is illiterate, how is the consent form signed?
- A.
Witness signs patient’s name
- B.
Patient marks an X
- C.
Guardian signs the consent
- D.
Surgeon signs the consent
- 37.The ultimate responsibility of obtaining the general consent belongs to the:
- A.
Circulator
- B.
Surgical assistant
- C.
Surgeon
- D.
O.R. supervisor
- 38.The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What action should be taken?
- A.
Transport patient to O.R.; inform surgeon
- B.
Do not transport patient; inform surgeon
- C.
Do not transport patient; inform anesthesia provider
- D.
Transport patient to O.R.; inform O.R. supervisor
- 39.In which of the following situations will the patient NOT be allowed to sign the consent for surgery?
- A.
Patient is legal age
- B.
Patient received preoperative medications
- C.
Patient explained alternative treatments
- D.
Patient is emancipated minor
- 40.A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak English and does not fully understand what he/she signed. Surgery on the patient could constitute a liability case for:
- A.
Assault and battery
- B.
Improper documentation
- C.
Invasion of privacy
- D.
Negligence
- 41.A general consent form:
- A.
Authorizes all routine treatments or procedures
- B.
Authorizes treatment only for patient receiving general anesthesia
- C.
Authorizes treatment for patients receiving experimental drugs
- D.
Authorizes treatment for patients who are unconscious
- 42.A minor requires emergency surgery, but he parents or closest living relatives cannot be contacted. What procedure should be followed for securing a consent for surgery?
- A.
Court order
- B.
Two consulting physicians agree
- C.
No consent is required
- D.
Surgeon signs consent
- 43.Name this instrument that is used during rectal procedures.
- A.
Pratt rectal speculum
- B.
Smith (Buie) anal retractor
- C.
Hill-Ferguson retractor
- D.
Hirschmann anoscope
- 44.Name the above instrument that is used during an open gallbladder procedure (rounded top/ball tip)
- A.
Mayo common duct probe
- B.
Desjardin gall stone scoop
- C.
Ferguson gallstone scoop
- D.
Mayo common duct scoop
- 45.The combining form of the word arteri/o means:
- A.
Joint
- B.
Artery
- C.
Bronchus
- D.
Gland
- 46.Anaerobic means:
- A.
Without oxygen
- B.
With oxygen
- C.
Additional oxygen
- D.
Small amount of oxygen
- 47.Dys- means:
- A.
Difficult
- B.
Skin
- C.
Near
- D.
Away from
- 48.QID refers to:
- A.
1 time a day
- B.
2 times a day
- C.
3 times a day
- D.
4 times a day
- 49.Chole refers to:
- A.
Vagina
- B.
Yellow
- C.
Bile
- D.
Cartilage
- 50.Mastectomy means:
- A.
Excision of a breast
- B.
Breast biopsy
- C.
Incision into the chest
- D.
Removal of a tumor
- 51.Os means:
- A.
Ear
- B.
Opening
- C.
Bone
- D.
Valve
- 52.Aseptic means:
- A.
Without sepsis
- B.
With sepsis
- C.
Clean
- D.
Decontaminated
- 53.Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy means removal of:
- A.
One tube and ovary
- B.
Both ovaries
- C.
Both tubes and ovaries
- D.
Both tubes
- 54.NPO means:
- A.
No food after midnight
- B.
Nothing by mouth
- C.
Only liquids
- D.
No liquids
- 55.Mentoplasy means reconstruction of the:
- A.
Face
- B.
Chin
- C.
Eyelids
- D.
Breast
- 56.-scopy means:
- A.
Viewing
- B.
Excision
- C.
Recording
- D.
Incision
- 57.Hepat refers to:
- A.
Liver
- B.
Blood
- C.
Iron
- D.
Bile
- 58.Tachycardia is a/an:
- A.
Slow heart rate
- B.
Fast heart rate
- C.
Normal heart rate
- D.
Irregular heart rate
- 59.-tomy means:
- A.
Incision
- B.
Fusion
- C.
Excision
- D.
Inflammation
- 60.Ectomy means:
- A.
Incision
- B.
Opening
- C.
Excision
- D.
Anastomoses
- 61.Inter- means:
- A.
Between
- B.
Within
- C.
Below
- D.
Above
- 62.Oophor refers to:
- A.
Tubes
- B.
Ovary
- C.
Vagina
- D.
Uterus
- 63.Cephalgia refers to:
- A.
Abnormally large head
- B.
Headache
- C.
Inflammation of the brain
- D.
Chronic pain
- 64.Under what circumstances can the patient’s hospital identification bracelet be removed?
- A.
Insert IV catheter
- B.
Never removed
- C.
Discharged from PACU
- D.
Surgeon’s orders
- 65.How many times is the patient identification confirmed before transporting from the ward room to the surgery department?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
- 66.If a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient on the hospital ward, what action should be taken?
- A.
Transport to O.R. and inform dept. supervisor
- B.
Transport to O.R. and inform surgeon
- C.
Do not transport to O.R. and inform anesthesia provider
- D.
Do not transport to O.R. and inform O.R. personnel
- 67.When transporting a patient to the O.R. in what direction should the gurney be situated?
- A.
Feet first
- B.
Follow the surgeon’s orders
- C.
Head First
- D.
Patient’s choice
- 68.When transporting a patient to the O.R. in a gurney, where should the safety strap be placed?
- A.
Below the knees
- B.
Across the waist
- C.
Over the thighs
- D.
Across the abdomen
- 69.When transporting a patient to the O.B. in a gurney, how should the patient be transported when using an elevator?
- A.
Place gurney sideways in elevator
- B.
Enter head first, exit feet first
- C.
Follow surgeon’s orders
- D.
Enter feet first, exit head first
- 70.The recommended number of air exchanges per hour within an operating room is:
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
- 71.The relative humidity in an operating room should be maintained at:
- A.
20% to 30%
- B.
30% to 40%
- C.
40% to 50%
- D.
50% to 60%
- 72.A ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a unidirectional flow is called:
- A.
Conventional air flow
- B.
Filtered air system
- C.
Laminar air flow
- D.
Positive pressure air supply
- 73.Which filter is preferred for use in the O.R. for air exchanges?
- A.
High efficiency particulate air filters
- B.
Positive pressure air filters
- C.
Positive laminar air flow
- D.
High air pressure filter
- 74.What three safety factors should be remembered concerning the safety of the surgical technologist and ionizing radiation?
- A.
Time, type of procedure, distance
- B.
Type of procedure, shielding, distance
- C.
Time, shielding, distance
- D.
Distance, radiation dose, frequency
- 75.When using an arm board on the O.R. table, the most important measure to take is to:
- A.
Avoid hyper-extension of the arm
- B.
Support the IV site
- C.
Avoid wrist drop
- D.
Strap the arm in place
- 76.Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient in the lateral position:
- A.
Suprapubic prostateectomy
- B.
Vaginal hysterectomy
- C.
Nephrectomy
- D.
Tonsillectomy
- 77.When performing the patient skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted from the:
- A.
Incision site to the periphery using circular motion
- B.
Periphery to incision site using circular motion
- C.
Incision site to periphery using back and forth motion
- D.
Periphery to incision site using back and forth motion
- 78.The position most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia is:
- A.
Supine
- B.
Prone
- C.
Lateral
- D.
Fowler’s
- 79.An anesthetized patient is moved slowly to prevent:
- A.
Falls
- B.
Hyper-extension
- C.
Cardiovascular complications
- D.
Dislodging of tubes and catheters
- 80.When performing an abdominal prep the umbilicus is
- A.
Included in overall prep
- B.
Not included in prep
- C.
Prepped last or separately
- D.
Only painted
- 81.In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the O.R. table to prevent:
- A.
Respiratory complications
- B.
Circulatory complications
- C.
Nerve damage
- D.
Pressure areas
- 82.Ulnar nerve damage could result from:
- A.
Poor placement of legs in stirrups
- B.
Hyper-extension of the arm
- C.
Use of unpadded arm board
- D.
Poor positioning
- 83.Stirrups that are not padded or improperly placed on the O.R. table can cause pressure on the:
- A.
Sciatic nerve
- B.
Peroneal nerve
- C.
Tibial nerve
- D.
Gluteal nerve
- 84.If the patient is in the supine position, the circulating surgical technologist must always:
- A.
Place a pillow between the knees
- B.
Place a pillow under the knees
- C.
Confirm the ankles and legs are not crossed
- D.
Confirm neck area is padded
- 85.All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT:
- A.
The hips are placed over break in the table
- B.
A pillow is placed under lower legs and ankles
- C.
A padded safety strap is placed 2” above the knees
- D.
The arms are tucked at the sides of the patient
- 86.When moving a patient from the lithotomy position:
- A.
Lower stirrups, then remove legs
- B.
Lower legs together
- C.
Lower each leg separately
- D.
Raise stirrups, then remove legs
- 87.Which of the following is NOT a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?
- A.
Safety belt is placed below the knees
- B.
Arms on arm boards or raised above the head
- C.
Head turned to the side
- D.
Bolsters placed under axillae
- 88.The femoral nerve can be damaged if:
- A.
Patient is not padded properly in lithotomy position
- B.
Retractors are improperly placed during pelvic surgery
- C.
Safety strap is placed Too tightly
- D.
Mayo stand presses on patient’s feet
- 89.To avoid foot drop:
- A.
Place pillows under the knees for support
- B.
Place the safety strap 2” above the knees
- C.
Place legs in stirrups
- D.
Pad heels to prevent pressure from O.R. table
- 90.The best surgical position for visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis is:
- A.
Fowler’s
- B.
Reverse Trendelenburg
- C.
Trendelenburg
- D.
Kraske
- 91.The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is:
- A.
Supine
- B.
Fowler’s
- C.
Reverse Trendilenburg
- D.
Lateral Kidney
- 92.When positioning an anesthetized patient, supporting the head and neck is the responsibility of the:
- A.
Circulating person
- B.
Surgical assistant
- C.
Anesthesia provider
- D.
Surgeon
- 93.A reverse Trendelenburg position requires the added table attachment of a/an:.
- A.
Stirrup
- B.
Wilson frame
- C.
Kidney braces
- D.
Footboard
- 94.What position is the best approach to the retroperitoneal area of the flank?
- A.
Supine
- B.
Lateral
- C.
Trendelenburg
- D.
Prone
- 95.Which of the following positions is used for a cesarean section?
- A.
Supine bolster under left side
- B.
Supine with bolster under right side
- C.
Lithotomy with bolster under left side
- D.
Trendelenburg with bolster under right side
- 96.When turning the gown, what is the proper procedure?
- A.
Hand tag to circulator; scrub person turns
- B.
Scrub person holds tag and turns self
- C.
Hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown
- D.
Hand tag to circulator; scrub person and circulator turn
- 97.When performing a preoperative patient shave prep, all of the following apply except:
- A.
Shave against the direction of hair growth
- B.
Shave hair as close to surgery as possible
- C.
Clippers are preferred over razors
- D.
Shave wet and soap lathered area
- 98.If used as part of the skin prep, _______ solution should be allowed to dry before electrosurgery is used.
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Hexachlorophene
- C.
Iodophors
- D.
Chlorhexidine
- 99.Which of the following agents is commonly used when performing a patient skin prep of the eye?
- A.
Triclosan
- B.
Alcohol
- C.
Chlorhexidine gluconate
- D.
Iodophor
- 100.When performing a patient skin prep of the vagina, which area is prepped last?
- A.
Anus
- B.
Vulva
- C.
Vagina
- D.
Perineum
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