Practice Exam II

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1. -scopy means:

Explanation

Scopy (oscopy) means viewing (Med term 74)

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

A collection of questions of the STST chapters - 100 questions

2.
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2. The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to:

Explanation

The specific purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to reduce the number of microorganisms to an irreducible number. (STST 335)

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3. What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and water droplets are on the inside?

Explanation

A pitcher containing water droplets on the inside, found while evaluating wet packs, is considered contaminated and should be discarded. (stst 139)

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4. Which of the following is a commonly used preservative solution for tissue specimens?

Explanation

10% formalin and saline are the two most common preservative solutions that tissue specimens are placed. (B&K 458)

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5. The combining form of the word arteri/o means:

Explanation

Arterio is a combining form inferring relationship to an artery or arteries.

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6. NPO means:

Explanation

NPO (nil per os) stands for nothing by mouth. (Med Term 839)

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7. What report is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the O.R. that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?

Explanation

In an event/incident report is completed by the members of the surgical team that are witness to any unusual or adverse event that affected the care provided to the surgical patient. (STST 30)

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8. Chole refers to:

Explanation

Chole is a combining form denoting bile.

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9. Which of the following terms refers to the level of honesty and integrity that every surgical technologist must uphold in the delivery of quality patient care?

Explanation

Surgical conscience is the basis for the practice of strict adherence to aseptic technique and the ability to recognize and correct breaks in technique whether committed in the presence of others or alone. (STST 137, 140, 141)

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10. Lack of control over urination is called:

Explanation

Lack of control over urination is called incontinence. (stst 771)

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11. A general consent form:

Explanation

A general consent form authorizes all routine services, general diagnostic procedures, medical treatment, and other normal and routine health care. (STST 28)

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12. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy means removal of:

Explanation

Unilateral salpingo oophorectomy is removal of a fallopian tube and all or part of the associated ovary. A bilateral salping-oophorectomy would mean removal of both tubes and ovaries. (Mosby’s 1532)

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13. When positioning an anesthetized patient, supporting the head and neck is the responsibility of the:

Explanation

The head and neck is supported by the anesthesia provider, when positioning the patient, tho prevent injuries and prevent the endotracheal tube from being dislodged. (B&K 475)

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14. A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of a :

Explanation

Nosocomial infections are acquired by patient’s during hospitalization. (STST 200)

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15. Which of the following statements is correct?

Explanation

Sterile drapes once positioned should not be moved, once the portion that falls below the table edge is considered contaminated. (STST 139)

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16. The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What action should be taken?

Explanation

If a patient withdraws his/her written consent before surgery, the surgeon is notified, and the patient is not taken to the operating room. (STST 29)

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17. Hepat refers to:

Explanation

Hepat refers to liver (Med Term 814)

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18. Ectomy means:

Explanation

The suffix -ectomy means excision. (Med Term 813)

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19. Anaerobic means:

Explanation

Anaerobic means without oxygen.

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20. Mastectomy means:

Explanation

Mastectomy means removal of the breast.

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21. When transporting a patient to the O.B. in a gurney, how should the patient be transported when using an elevator?

Explanation

The person transporting the patient in the gurney will enter an elevator with the patient’s head first and be able to exit feet first. (STST 178)

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22. The ultimate responsibility of obtaining the general consent belongs to the:

Explanation

The surgeon is ultimately responsible for obtaining a consent from the patient. (STST 28)

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23. Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient in the lateral position:

Explanation

For a nephrectomy, the patient is positioned in the lateral position, nonoperative site down.. (STST 189)

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24. When performing the patient skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted from the:

Explanation

When performing the patient skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted starting at the incision site using a circular motion. (STST 203)

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25. Why should nail polish be removed?

Explanation

The pulse oximeter cannot properly function with nail polish present. /the light beam from the pulse oximeter is focused to travel through the nail and skin of the finger and nail polish changes the color of the light beam causing it to malfunction. (STST 176)

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26. The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is a/an:

Explanation

Orchiopexy is the surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum. (stst 778)

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27. Oophor refers to:

Explanation

Oophor refers to the ovary (Mosby’s 1222)

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28. A minor requires emergency surgery, but he parents or closest living relatives cannot be contacted. What procedure should be followed for securing a consent for surgery?

Explanation

When the parents, closest living relatives, or legal guardians cannot be contacted, two consulting physicians review the information and must agree on the treatment of the patient. Neither of the two physicans be the oeprating surgeon. (STST 29)

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29. Tachycardia is a/an:

Explanation

tachycardia refers to a rapid resting heart or pulse rate.(Med Term 358)

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30. In which of the following situations will the patient NOT be allowed to sign the consent for surgery?

Explanation

A patient who has received preoperative medications and has not yet signed the consent for surgery will not be allowed to sign the document. The preoperative medications cause drowsiness and do not allow the paitent to clearly think in order tomake an informed decision. (STST 29)

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31. Which technique is not acceptable when draping?

Explanation

Drapes are to be carried to the O.R. table in folded condition If allowed to unfold it could drag on the floor contaminating the drape. The drapes are too large to place on the patient in an unfolded manner without contaminating. (STST 348)

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32. A reverse Trendelenburg position requires the added table attachment of a/an:
.

Explanation

A foot board is placed at the end of the O.R. table to aid in preventing the patient from slipping off the table. (STST 184)

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33. A perforating towel clip is used on the sterile field to keep a drape in place but is moved by the surgeon. How should the surgical technologist handle the towel clip?

Explanation

The tips of the towel clip are considered contaminated, since they probably punctured the draping material, and should not be reused. They should be handed off the field to the first scrub surgical technologist to the circulator without touching the tips. (STST 139)

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34. A tissue specimen indicated for frozen section is sent to the pathology department in a specimen container with:

Explanation

Formalin or normal saline will alter the tissue that is indicated for frozen section. Therefore, the tissue must be sent in a container with no preservatives. (B&K 382)

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35. Mentoplasy means reconstruction of the:

Explanation

Mentoplasty is reconstruction of the chin. (STST 715)

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36. If a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient on the hospital ward, what action should be taken?

Explanation

The patient should not be transported from the ward room to the O.R. The individual transporting the patient should inform the nursing unit, supervisor, and the O.R. personnel. Transporting the patient should not take place until the discrepancy is resolved and the patient properly identified. (STST 178)

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37. When using an arm board on the O.R. table, the most important measure to take is to:

Explanation

When positioning the patient’s arm on the arm board, it must be placed so as to avoid hyper-extension and possibly injuring the nerves. (STST 181)

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38. For aseptic purposes, covering a sterile table for later use is:

Explanation

Covering a sterile table for later use is not permitted. It is nearly impossible to uncover a table of sterile contents without contamination. (STST138)

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39. What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative records that record the perioperative care given to all surgical patients?

Explanation

JACHO is an independent, nonprofit organization that develops standards and performance criteria for health care organizations, including the standard that detailed perioperative records must be maintained by the hospital/surgery department. STST 20)

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40.
What type of drape would be used for a vaginal or rectal procedure?

Explanation

A perineal drape is used when draping for either vaginal or rectal surgery. It is large enough to establish a sterile field for patients in the lithotomy position and accommodate the legs that are in stirrups. The drape has a fenestration that can be placed over the vaginal or anal opening. (STST 281)

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41. If an adult patient is illiterate, how is the consent form signed?

Explanation

If an adult patient is illiterate, he/she may sign the general consent form by marking with an “X”. A witness will write “patient’s mark” next to the “X”. (STST 29)

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42. What action would NOT be taken following a needle stick?

Explanation

When a needle stick occurs, the person should squeeze the wound to promote bleeding and the possible removal of some of the invading microbes. (STST 93)

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43. Dys- means:

Explanation

Dys- is a prefix meaning difficult.

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44. Under what circumstances can the patient’s hospital identification bracelet be removed?

Explanation

The patient’s identification bracelet should be removed unnecessarily until the patient has been discharged from the hospital. (STST 177)

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45. In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the O.R. table to prevent:

Explanation

In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the O.R. table to prevent respiratory complications from occurring. (B&K 475)

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46. When moving a patient from the lithotomy position:

Explanation

When moving a patient out of the lithotomy position to avoid damage to the muscles and nerves of the lumbar region of the back; and avoid hypo-tension the legs must be lowered together slowly to the O.R. must be lowered together slowly to the O.R. table. (STST 186)

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47. The robotic arm’s clockwise and counterclockwise movements around on axis are referred to as:

Explanation

Degrees of rotation relate to the manipulator’s clockwise and counterclockwise movements around an axis.

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48. Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?

Explanation

Any type of stones, renal or gallbladder, should be sent dry to pathology. Preservative solutions destroy the stones, making it impossible for pathological examination. (B&K 719)

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49. When transporting a patient to the O.R. in what direction should the gurney be situated?

Explanation

Patients are always transported feet first when using a gurney. (STST 178)

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50. Which of the following is NOT routinely required for all patients preoperatively?

Explanation

A preoperative chest X-ray is not routinely required of all surgical patients. Patient who exhibit signs of pulmonary or cardiac complications or disease will be required to have an X-ray. (B & K 365)

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51. “Strike through” is used aseptically to describe:

Explanation

When moisture soaks through a drape, gown or package, “strike-through” occurs. The item is considered contaminated. (STST 132)

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52. What type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?

Explanation

A transverse drape is used when performing kidney procedures due to the transverse shaped fenestration that provides maximal exposure of the flank. (STST 281)

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53. QID refers to:

Explanation

QID is an abbreviation meaning 4 times a day.

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54. -tomy means:

Explanation

Otomy means incision. (Mosby’s 1250)

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55. If used as part of the skin prep, _______ solution should be allowed to dry before electrosurgery is used.

Explanation

When alcohol is used as part of the patient skin prep, it must be allowed to fully dry before the surgical procedure begins and electrocautery or a laser is used due to the high flammability of the solution. (B&K 43)

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56. When performing a patient skin prep of the vagina, which area is prepped last?

Explanation

The anus is prepped last to avoid transferring intestinal flora to the vagina. (STST 202)

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57. If the patient is in the supine position, the circulating surgical technologist must always:

Explanation

If a patient is placed in the supine position, the ankles and legs should not be crossed to avoid impairment of circulation and damage to the peroneal nerve. (STST 182)

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58. What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arms?

Explanation

Performing a surgical procedure in a real time at a distance is referred to as telesurgery.

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59. All of the following statements are true for the handling of specimens EXCEPT:

Explanation

If the anaerobic culture cannot be immediately taken to the pathology department it should be placed in a refrigerator to preserve the specimen. A clamp is not placed on a tissue specimen since it can crush the tissue and cells making it difficult for the pathologist to make a diiagnosis. Bilateral (right and left) specimens must be kept separate. Specimens are never handed off on a counted surgical sponge. (B&K 458)

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60. What three safety factors should be remembered concerning the safety of the surgical technologist and ionizing radiation?

Explanation

Time relates to the length of time the surgical technologist is exposed to the ionizing radiation, shielding means lead aprons and other lead shield devices for protection from the radiation, distance means standing as far away as possible out of the path of the direct beam of ionizing radiation. (STST 89)

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61. The best surgical position for visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis is:

Explanation

The Trendelenburg position allows the viscera to fall away or toward the head providing better exposure of the operative site when performing a lower abdominal or pelvic procedure. (STST 183)

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62. A ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a unidirectional flow is called:

Explanation

Laminar air flow is a high flow unidirectional, air-blowing ventilation system. (STST 83)

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63. The position most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia is:

Explanation

The position of choice for performing a tonsillectomy under local anesthesia is Fowler's. (STST184)

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64. The most common nosocomial infections are:

Explanation

The most common nosocomial infections are urinary infections associated with the used of the urinary catheters. (STST 200)

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65. A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak English and does not fully understand what he/she signed. Surgery on the patient could constitute a liability case for:

Explanation

A patient must fully understand the consent for surgery both written and information on the document and what is verbally explained by the surgeon. If a patient does not understand the document, it constitutes assault and battery when the surgery is performed. (STST 25)

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66. When transporting a patient to the O.R. in a gurney, where should the safety strap be placed?

Explanation

The safety strap should be placed 2” above knees, across the thighs. (STST 178)

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67. When performing an abdominal prep the umbilicus is

Explanation

The umbilicus is prepped last or separately, since it is considered a contaminated area. (STST 202)

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68. What position is the best approach to the retroperitoneal area of the flank?

Explanation

The lateral kidney position provides optimal exposure to the retro peritoneal area of the flank for a transverse incision. (STST 190)

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69. What is the technical term for robotic arms?

Explanation

The technical or proper term used to refer to the robotic arm(s) is manipulators.

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70. All of the following statements are true for the handling of bullets as a specimen EXCEPT:

Explanation

A clamp or forceps is not used to handle the bullet since it will scratch the surface. Each bullet has unique markings that match with the barrel of the gun and the clamp could alter these markings. (B&K 383)

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71. When handling drapes to the surgeon, where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand in relation to the surgeon?

Explanation

When handling drapes to the surgeon, the scrub person should stand on the same side of the O.R. table as the surgeon to avoid reaching over the non-sterile patient and O.R. table. (STST 348)

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72. The recommended number of air exchanges per hour within an operating room is:

Explanation

A minimum of 20 air exchanges per hour is recommended for the O.R. and 20% of the air change per hour should be fresh outside air. (STST 83)

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73. The relative humidity in an operating room should be maintained at:

Explanation

The relative humidity of an operating room should be maintained between 50% to 60%, and not less than 45%

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74. Aseptic means:

Explanation

Aseptic means without sepsis (Mosby’s 141)

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75. Cephalgia refers to:

Explanation

Cephalgia (or cephalalgia) is another term for headache. (Med Term 314)

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76. What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic arm?

Explanation

A rotating movement of the instrument shaft is referred to as a roll.

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77. Inter- means:

Explanation

Inter- means between. (Med Term 814)

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78. A nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is called:

Explanation

Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate and the preoperative diagnosis for TURP. (B&K)

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79. To avoid foot drop:

Explanation

When a patient is placed in the supine position, the feet must not be allowed to hang over the edge of the O.R. table or have undue pressure placed on the back of the ankle joint, which could result in temporary or permenant damage to the peroneal nerve. The heels should be padded or a table extension with padding placed on the O.R. table. (STST 184-185)

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80. Os means:


Explanation

An opening or mouth is an os.

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81. All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT:

Explanation

In the Kraske position, the patient’s arms are extended above the head on angled arm boards with elbows flexed and palms down; the patient is prone with hips over the break of the table; a padded knee strap is applied 2” above the knees; and a pillow is placed under the lower legs and ankles. (STST 188)

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82. Which of the following agents is commonly used when performing a patient skin prep of the eye?

Explanation

Triclosan is a blood spectrum antimicrobial agent that is nontoxic and safe for use around the eyes. (B&K 498

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83. When turning the gown, what is the proper procedure?

Explanation

The scrub person hands the tag to the circulator, who moves around to the left side to prevent the scrub person from spinning and possibly contaminating the gown. STST 339)

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84. What type of drape would be used for an abdominoperineal resection performed with the patient in the lithotomy position?

Explanation

A combined drape sheet is a combination of a laparotomy drape and perineal drape that is best used for an abdominoperineal resection with the patient in the lithotomy position. (B&K 472)

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85. An anesthetized patient is moved slowly to prevent:

Explanation

An anesthetized patient should be moved slowly to allow the cardiovascular system to adjust due to the preoperative and intra-operative drugs the patient has received that affect the system. (B&K 475)

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86. An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following procedures?

Explanation

When the entire bladder is removed a urinary diversion procedure is required. Ileal conduit is the standard procedure performed after cystectomy.

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87. What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?

Explanation

The term telechir refers to remotely controlled robots.

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88.
Name the above instrument that is used during an open gallbladder procedure (rounded top/ball tip)

Explanation

The Mayo common duct probe . The instrument can be inserted into the cystic duct to remove stones. (o.r. instr. 42)

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89. A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called:

Explanation

Right and left movements of the manipulator or manipulator jaw(s) are called yaw

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90. Which filter is preferred for use in the O.R. for air exchanges?

Explanation

HEPA filters are used in the O.R. due to the ability to remove bacteria as small as 0.5-5 mm. (STST 83)

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91. Ulnar nerve damage could result from:

Explanation

Due to the anatomical position of the ulnar nerve, placing the arm on a hard, unpadded arm board could result in temporary or permanent damage to the nerve. (B&G 476)

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92. Stirrups that are not padded or improperly placed on the O.R. table can cause pressure on the:

Explanation

The peroneal nerve innervates the lateral Surface of the lower leg and dorsal surface of the foot. The straps of the stirrups that hold the foot in place that are improperly placed or inadequately padded can cause undue pressure on the nerve causing temporary or permanent damage. (B&K 476)

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93. When performing a preoperative patient shave prep, all of the following apply except:

Explanation

In a preoperative shave, the hair is to be shaved in the direction of growth. (B&K 495)

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94. How many times is the patient identification confirmed before transporting from the ward room to the surgery department?

Explanation

The individual transporting the patient to the O.R. should ask the patient to verbally state their name, confirm the patient’s name with the identification bracelet, compare name with patient’s chart, confirm name on surgery schedule and confirm name on the patient’s chart label. (STST 177-178)

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95. The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is:

Explanation

Reverse Trenddelenburng position provides good exposure of the operative site for a thyroidectomy and allows the viscera to fall away or toward the feet to provide better exposure of the gallbladder. (STST 184)

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96. Which of the following is NOT a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?

Explanation

When placed in the prone position, the safety strap is placed 2” above the knees. (STST 187)

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97.

Name this instrument that is used during rectal procedures.

Explanation

The Hill-Ferguson retractor is inserted through the anus for use during rectal procedures. Due to the groove in the retractor, the surgeon can view the rectal canal and insert instruments. (o.r. instr. 104)

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98. The femoral nerve can be damaged if:

Explanation

The femoral nerve can be damaged temporarily or permanently if retractors are not properly positioned during a pelvic procedure. (Alex 169)

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99. Which of the following positions is used for a cesarean section?

Explanation

The supine position is used and a bolster is placed under the left side prior to draping the patient and beginning the cesarean section. The placement of the bolster prevents excessive pressure on the inferior vena cava. (STST 182)

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100. What term refers to the robot’s ability to differentiate between two objects?

Explanation

Resolution is the ability to differentiate between two objects. The level of resolution can vary the higher the resolution, the better the vision

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-scopy means:
The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to:
What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate...
Which of the following is a commonly used preservative solution for...
The combining form of the word arteri/o means:
NPO means:
What report is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place...
Chole refers to:
Which of the following terms refers to the level of honesty and...
Lack of control over urination is called:
A general consent form:
Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy means removal of:
When positioning an anesthetized patient, supporting the head and neck...
A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of a :
Which of the following statements is correct?
The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What...
Hepat refers to:
Ectomy means:
Anaerobic means:
Mastectomy means:
When transporting a patient to the O.B. in a gurney, how should the...
The ultimate responsibility of obtaining the general consent belongs...
Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient...
When performing the patient skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and...
Why should nail polish be removed?
The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is...
Oophor refers to:
A minor requires emergency surgery, but he parents or closest living...
Tachycardia is a/an:
In which of the following situations will the patient NOT be allowed...
Which technique is not acceptable when draping?
A reverse Trendelenburg position requires the added table attachment...
A perforating towel clip is used on the sterile field to keep a drape...
A tissue specimen indicated for frozen section is sent to the...
Mentoplasy means reconstruction of the:
If a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient on the...
When using an arm board on the O.R. table, the most important measure...
For aseptic purposes, covering a sterile table for later use is:
What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative...
What type of drape would be used for a vaginal or rectal procedure?
If an adult patient is illiterate, how is the consent form signed?
What action would NOT be taken following a needle stick?
Dys- means:
Under what circumstances can the patient’s hospital identification...
In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the O.R. table...
When moving a patient from the lithotomy position:
The robotic arm’s clockwise and counterclockwise movements around on...
Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a...
When transporting a patient to the O.R. in what direction should the...
Which of the following is NOT routinely required for all patients...
“Strike through” is used aseptically to describe:
What type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?
QID refers to:
-tomy means:
If used as part of the skin prep, _______ solution should be allowed...
When performing a patient skin prep of the vagina, which area is...
If the patient is in the supine position, the circulating surgical...
What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with...
All of the following statements are true for the handling of specimens...
What three safety factors should be remembered concerning the safety...
The best surgical position for visualization of the lower abdomen or...
A ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a...
The position most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under...
The most common nosocomial infections are:
A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak English and...
When transporting a patient to the O.R. in a gurney, where should the...
When performing an abdominal prep the umbilicus is
What position is the best approach to the retroperitoneal area of the...
What is the technical term for robotic arms?
All of the following statements are true for the handling of bullets...
When handling drapes to the surgeon, where should the first scrub...
The recommended number of air exchanges per hour within an operating...
The relative humidity in an operating room should be maintained at:
Aseptic means:
Cephalgia refers to:
What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic...
Inter- means:
A nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is called:
To avoid foot drop:
Os means:
All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT:
Which of the following agents is commonly used when performing a...
When turning the gown, what is the proper procedure?
What type of drape would be used for an abdominoperineal resection...
An anesthetized patient is moved slowly to prevent:
An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following...
What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?
Name the above instrument that is used during an open gallbladder...
A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called:
Which filter is preferred for use in the O.R. for air exchanges?
Ulnar nerve damage could result from:
Stirrups that are not padded or improperly placed on the O.R. table...
When performing a preoperative patient shave prep, all of the...
How many times is the patient identification confirmed before...
The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder...
Which of the following is NOT a requirement when a patient is placed...
Name this instrument that is used during rectal procedures.
The femoral nerve can be damaged if:
Which of the following positions is used for a cesarean section?
What term refers to the robot’s ability to differentiate between two...
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