Practice Exam II

100 Questions | Attempts: 581
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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

A collection of questions of the STST chapters - 100 questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    “Strike through” is used aseptically to describe:

    • A.

      Perforation of sharp object through sterile wrapper

    • B.

      Rupture of heat seal during sterilization

    • C.

      Use of biologic indicator for sterilization

    • D.

      Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers

    Correct Answer
    D. Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers
    Explanation
    When moisture soaks through a drape, gown or package, “strike-through” occurs. The item is considered contaminated. (STST 132)

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  • 2. 

    The most common nosocomial infections are:

    • A.

      Respiratory

    • B.

      Surgical wound infection

    • C.

      Urinary infections with catheter use

    • D.

      Gastrointestinal

    Correct Answer
    C. Urinary infections with catheter use
    Explanation
    The most common nosocomial infections are urinary infections associated with the used of the urinary catheters. (STST 200)

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  • 3. 

    A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of a :

    • A.

      Community acquired infection

    • B.

      Nosocomial infection

    • C.

      Recurrent infection

    • D.

      Laten infection

    Correct Answer
    B. Nosocomial infection
    Explanation
    Nosocomial infections are acquired by patient’s during hospitalization. (STST 200)

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  • 4. 

    What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and water droplets are on the inside?

    • A.

      Discard the pitcher, it is contaminated

    • B.

      Use the pitcher, droplets ae sterile

    • C.

      Use it, but dry out with a sterile towel

    • D.

      Let container air dry before use

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard the pitcher, it is contaminated
    Explanation
    A pitcher containing water droplets on the inside, found while evaluating wet packs, is considered contaminated and should be discarded. (stst 139)

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the level of honesty and integrity that every surgical technologist must uphold in the delivery of quality patient care?

    • A.

      Respondeat superior

    • B.

      Standard precautions

    • C.

      Aseptic technique

    • D.

      Surgical conscience

    Correct Answer
    D. Surgical conscience
    Explanation
    Surgical conscience is the basis for the practice of strict adherence to aseptic technique and the ability to recognize and correct breaks in technique whether committed in the presence of others or alone. (STST 137, 140, 141)

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  • 6. 

    For aseptic purposes, covering a sterile table for later use is:

    • A.

      Permissible for up to one hour before the procedure

    • B.

      Permissible in instances of an emergency

    • C.

      Not permissible for up to two hours before the procedure

    • D.

      Not permissible in any circumstance

    Correct Answer
    D. Not permissible in any circumstance
    Explanation
    Covering a sterile table for later use is not permitted. It is nearly impossible to uncover a table of sterile contents without contamination. (STST138)

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  • 7. 

    The purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to:

    • A.

      Reduce the number of microorganisms

    • B.

      Sterilize the hands and arms

    • C.

      Prevent wearing gown and gloves

    • D.

      Allow touching nonsterile items

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the number of microorganisms
    Explanation
    The specific purpose of the surgical hand scrub is to reduce the number of microorganisms to an irreducible number. (STST 335)

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  • 8. 

    What action would NOT be taken following a needle stick?

    • A.

      Prevent bleeding

    • B.

      Cleanse area

    • C.

      Remove glove immediately

    • D.

      Report incident

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent bleeding
    Explanation
    When a needle stick occurs, the person should squeeze the wound to promote bleeding and the possible removal of some of the invading microbes. (STST 93)

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following statements is correct?

    • A.

      Once sterile drapes have been positioned, they should not be moved

    • B.

      An item that extends below the table edge is considered sterile

    • C.

      Inside of sterile wrappers is considered sterile up to a 3-inch perimeter

    • D.

      When opening a sterile package, top flap is opened toward the body

    Correct Answer
    A. Once sterile drapes have been positioned, they should not be moved
    Explanation
    Sterile drapes once positioned should not be moved, once the portion that falls below the table edge is considered contaminated. (STST 139)

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  • 10. 

    A perforating towel clip is used on the sterile field to keep a drape in place but is moved by the surgeon. How should the surgical technologist handle the towel clip?

    • A.

      Placed on sterile back table

    • B.

      Handed off the field to the circulator

    • C.

      Handed to circulator for removal from O.R.

    • D.

      Placed back on drape in another area

    Correct Answer
    B. Handed off the field to the circulator
    Explanation
    The tips of the towel clip are considered contaminated, since they probably punctured the draping material, and should not be reused. They should be handed off the field to the first scrub surgical technologist to the circulator without touching the tips. (STST 139)

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  • 11. 

    What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arms?

    • A.

      Telecommunications

    • B.

      Telesurgery

    • C.

      Artificial Intelligence

    • D.

      Autonomous Surgery

    Correct Answer
    B. Telesurgery
    Explanation
    Performing a surgical procedure in a real time at a distance is referred to as telesurgery.

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  • 12. 

    What is the technical term for robotic arms?

    • A.

      Telechirs

    • B.

      Articulates

    • C.

      Resolutions

    • D.

      Manipulators

    Correct Answer
    D. Manipulators
    Explanation
    The technical or proper term used to refer to the robotic arm(s) is manipulators.

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  • 13. 

    The robotic arm’s clockwise and counterclockwise movements around on axis are referred to as:

    • A.

      Arm Movements

    • B.

      Degrees of rotation

    • C.

      Articulated geometry

    • D.

      Degrees of freedom

    Correct Answer
    B. Degrees of rotation
    Explanation
    Degrees of rotation relate to the manipulator’s clockwise and counterclockwise movements around an axis.

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  • 14. 

    A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called:

    • A.

      Pitch

    • B.

      Roll

    • C.

      Yaw

    • D.

      Rotation

    Correct Answer
    C. Yaw
    Explanation
    Right and left movements of the manipulator or manipulator jaw(s) are called yaw

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  • 15. 

    What term refers to the robot’s ability to differentiate between two objects?

    • A.

      Binocular machine vision

    • B.

      Stereo vision

    • C.

      Resolution

    • D.

      Sensitivity

    Correct Answer
    B. Stereo vision
    Explanation
    Resolution is the ability to differentiate between two objects. The level of resolution can vary the higher the resolution, the better the vision

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  • 16. 

    What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?

    • A.

      Telepresence

    • B.

      Manipulator

    • C.

      Voice-activated

    • D.

      Telechir

    Correct Answer
    D. Telechir
    Explanation
    The term telechir refers to remotely controlled robots.

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  • 17. 

    What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic arm?

    • A.

      Pitch

    • B.

      Yaw

    • C.

      Roll

    • D.

      Degree

    Correct Answer
    C. Roll
    Explanation
    A rotating movement of the instrument shaft is referred to as a roll.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?

    • A.

      Uterus

    • B.

      Renal calculi

    • C.

      Tonsils

    • D.

      Colon

    Correct Answer
    B. Renal calculi
    Explanation
    Any type of stones, renal or gallbladder, should be sent dry to pathology. Preservative solutions destroy the stones, making it impossible for pathological examination. (B&K 719)

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is a commonly used preservative solution for tissue specimens?

    • A.

      Ethyl alcohol

    • B.

      Formalin

    • C.

      Distilled water

    • D.

      Povidene iodine

    Correct Answer
    B. Formalin
    Explanation
    10% formalin and saline are the two most common preservative solutions that tissue specimens are placed. (B&K 458)

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  • 20. 

    All of the following statements are true for the handling of specimens EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Hemostatic clamp is not placed on the specimen

    • B.

      Bilateral specimens are placed in the same container

    • C.

      Anaerobic cultures should be refrigerated

    • D.

      Specimens are not handed off on a surgical sponge

    Correct Answer
    B. Bilateral specimens are placed in the same container
    Explanation
    If the anaerobic culture cannot be immediately taken to the pathology department it should be placed in a refrigerator to preserve the specimen. A clamp is not placed on a tissue specimen since it can crush the tissue and cells making it difficult for the pathologist to make a diiagnosis. Bilateral (right and left) specimens must be kept separate. Specimens are never handed off on a counted surgical sponge. (B&K 458)

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  • 21. 

    All of the following statements are true for the handling of bullets as a specimen EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Bullet is placed in a dry container

    • B.

      Bullet is handed off with forceps

    • C.

      Bullet is handed off on a towel

    • D.

      Bullet has legal significance

    Correct Answer
    B. Bullet is handed off with forceps
    Explanation
    A clamp or forceps is not used to handle the bullet since it will scratch the surface. Each bullet has unique markings that match with the barrel of the gun and the clamp could alter these markings. (B&K 383)

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  • 22. 

    A tissue specimen indicated for frozen section is sent to the pathology department in a specimen container with:

    • A.

      No preservative

    • B.

      Distilled water

    • C.

      Formalin

    • D.

      Saline

    Correct Answer
    A. No preservative
    Explanation
    Formalin or normal saline will alter the tissue that is indicated for frozen section. Therefore, the tissue must be sent in a container with no preservatives. (B&K 382)

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT routinely required for all patients preoperatively?

    • A.

      Medical history and physical

    • B.

      Surgical consent

    • C.

      Chest X-ray

    • D.

      Preoperative hygiene

    Correct Answer
    C. Chest X-ray
    Explanation
    A preoperative chest X-ray is not routinely required of all surgical patients. Patient who exhibit signs of pulmonary or cardiac complications or disease will be required to have an X-ray. (B & K 365)

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  • 24. 

    Why should nail polish be removed?

    • A.

      Prevent surgical wound infection

    • B.

      Allow temperature to be recorded

    • C.

      Monitor blood pressure

    • D.

      Allow use of pulse oximeter

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow use of pulse oximeter
    Explanation
    The pulse oximeter cannot properly function with nail polish present. /the light beam from the pulse oximeter is focused to travel through the nail and skin of the finger and nail polish changes the color of the light beam causing it to malfunction. (STST 176)

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  • 25. 

    What report is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the O.R. that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?

    • A.

      Operative report

    • B.

      Incident report

    • C.

      Medical record

    • D.

      Advance directive

    Correct Answer
    B. Incident report
    Explanation
    In an event/incident report is completed by the members of the surgical team that are witness to any unusual or adverse event that affected the care provided to the surgical patient. (STST 30)

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  • 26. 

    What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative records that record the perioperative care given to all surgical patients?

    • A.

      JCAHO

    • B.

      OSHA

    • C.

      NIOSH

    • D.

      CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. JCAHO
    Explanation
    JACHO is an independent, nonprofit organization that develops standards and performance criteria for health care organizations, including the standard that detailed perioperative records must be maintained by the hospital/surgery department. STST 20)

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  • 27. 

    When handling drapes to the surgeon, where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand in relation to the surgeon?

    • A.

      Opposite side of the O.R. table

    • B.

      Same side of the O.R. table

    • C.

      Foot of the table

    • D.

      Head of the table

    Correct Answer
    B. Same side of the O.R. table
    Explanation
    When handling drapes to the surgeon, the scrub person should stand on the same side of the O.R. table as the surgeon to avoid reaching over the non-sterile patient and O.R. table. (STST 348)

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  • 28. 

    What type of drape would be used for an abdominoperineal resection performed with the patient in the lithotomy position?

    • A.

      Laparotomy drape

    • B.

      Split sheet

    • C.

      Combined drape

    • D.

      Transverse drape

    Correct Answer
    C. Combined drape
    Explanation
    A combined drape sheet is a combination of a laparotomy drape and perineal drape that is best used for an abdominoperineal resection with the patient in the lithotomy position. (B&K 472)

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  • 29. 

    What type of drape would be used for a vaginal or rectal procedure?

    • A.

      Laparotomy drape

    • B.

      Split sheet

    • C.

      Transverse drape

    • D.

      Perineal drape

    Correct Answer
    D. Perineal drape
    Explanation
    A perineal drape is used when draping for either vaginal or rectal surgery. It is large enough to establish a sterile field for patients in the lithotomy position and accommodate the legs that are in stirrups. The drape has a fenestration that can be placed over the vaginal or anal opening. (STST 281)

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  • 30. 

    What type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?

    • A.

      Transverse drape

    • B.

      Extremity drape

    • C.

      Split sheet

    • D.

      Perineal drape

    Correct Answer
    A. Transverse drape
    Explanation
    A transverse drape is used when performing kidney procedures due to the transverse shaped fenestration that provides maximal exposure of the flank. (STST 281)

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  • 31. 

    Which technique is not acceptable when draping?

    • A.

      Hold the drapes 12” above patient until over draping site

    • B.

      Protect gloved hands by cuffing end of drape over it

    • C.

      Unfold drape before bringing up to the O.R. table

    • D.

      Place drapes on dry area when setting up back table

    Correct Answer
    C. Unfold drape before bringing up to the O.R. table
    Explanation
    Drapes are to be carried to the O.R. table in folded condition If allowed to unfold it could drag on the floor contaminating the drape. The drapes are too large to place on the patient in an unfolded manner without contaminating. (STST 348)

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  • 32. 

    Lack of control over urination is called:

    • A.

      Elimination

    • B.

      Retention

    • C.

      Micturition

    • D.

      Incontinence

    Correct Answer
    D. Incontinence
    Explanation
    Lack of control over urination is called incontinence. (stst 771)

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  • 33. 

    A nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is called:

    • A.

      Prostatitis

    • B.

      PBH

    • C.

      Balanitis

    • D.

      Impotence

    Correct Answer
    B. PBH
    Explanation
    Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate and the preoperative diagnosis for TURP. (B&K)

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  • 34. 

    The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is a/an:

    • A.

      Orchiectomy

    • B.

      Orchiotomy

    • C.

      Orchiopexy

    • D.

      Testicular Biopsy

    Correct Answer
    C. Orchiopexy
    Explanation
    Orchiopexy is the surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum. (stst 778)

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  • 35. 

    An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following procedures?

    • A.

      Ureterolithotomy

    • B.

      Total cystectomy

    • C.

      Prostateectomy

    • D.

      TURP

    Correct Answer
    B. Total cystectomy
    Explanation
    When the entire bladder is removed a urinary diversion procedure is required. Ileal conduit is the standard procedure performed after cystectomy.

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  • 36. 

    If an adult patient is illiterate, how is the consent form signed?

    • A.

      Witness signs patient’s name

    • B.

      Patient marks an X

    • C.

      Guardian signs the consent

    • D.

      Surgeon signs the consent

    Correct Answer
    B. Patient marks an X
    Explanation
    If an adult patient is illiterate, he/she may sign the general consent form by marking with an “X”. A witness will write “patient’s mark” next to the “X”. (STST 29)

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  • 37. 

    The ultimate responsibility of obtaining the general consent belongs to the:

    • A.

      Circulator

    • B.

      Surgical assistant

    • C.

      Surgeon

    • D.

      O.R. supervisor

    Correct Answer
    C. Surgeon
    Explanation
    The surgeon is ultimately responsible for obtaining a consent from the patient. (STST 28)

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  • 38. 

    The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What action should be taken?

    • A.

      Transport patient to O.R.; inform surgeon

    • B.

      Do not transport patient; inform surgeon

    • C.

      Do not transport patient; inform anesthesia provider

    • D.

      Transport patient to O.R.; inform O.R. supervisor

    Correct Answer
    B. Do not transport patient; inform surgeon
    Explanation
    If a patient withdraws his/her written consent before surgery, the surgeon is notified, and the patient is not taken to the operating room. (STST 29)

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  • 39. 

    In which of the following situations will the patient NOT be allowed to sign the consent for surgery?

    • A.

      Patient is legal age

    • B.

      Patient received preoperative medications

    • C.

      Patient explained alternative treatments

    • D.

      Patient is emancipated minor

    Correct Answer
    B. Patient received preoperative medications
    Explanation
    A patient who has received preoperative medications and has not yet signed the consent for surgery will not be allowed to sign the document. The preoperative medications cause drowsiness and do not allow the paitent to clearly think in order tomake an informed decision. (STST 29)

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  • 40. 

    A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak English and does not fully understand what he/she signed. Surgery on the patient could constitute a liability case for:

    • A.

      Assault and battery

    • B.

      Improper documentation

    • C.

      Invasion of privacy

    • D.

      Negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault and battery
    Explanation
    A patient must fully understand the consent for surgery both written and information on the document and what is verbally explained by the surgeon. If a patient does not understand the document, it constitutes assault and battery when the surgery is performed. (STST 25)

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  • 41. 

    A general consent form:

    • A.

      Authorizes all routine treatments or procedures

    • B.

      Authorizes treatment only for patient receiving general anesthesia

    • C.

      Authorizes treatment for patients receiving experimental drugs

    • D.

      Authorizes treatment for patients who are unconscious

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorizes all routine treatments or procedures
    Explanation
    A general consent form authorizes all routine services, general diagnostic procedures, medical treatment, and other normal and routine health care. (STST 28)

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  • 42. 

    A minor requires emergency surgery, but he parents or closest living relatives cannot be contacted. What procedure should be followed for securing a consent for surgery?

    • A.

      Court order

    • B.

      Two consulting physicians agree

    • C.

      No consent is required

    • D.

      Surgeon signs consent

    Correct Answer
    B. Two consulting physicians agree
    Explanation
    When the parents, closest living relatives, or legal guardians cannot be contacted, two consulting physicians review the information and must agree on the treatment of the patient. Neither of the two physicans be the oeprating surgeon. (STST 29)

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  • 43. 

    Name this instrument that is used during rectal procedures.

    • A.

      Pratt rectal speculum

    • B.

      Smith (Buie) anal retractor

    • C.

      Hill-Ferguson retractor

    • D.

      Hirschmann anoscope

    Correct Answer
    C. Hill-Ferguson retractor
    Explanation
    The Hill-Ferguson retractor is inserted through the anus for use during rectal procedures. Due to the groove in the retractor, the surgeon can view the rectal canal and insert instruments. (o.r. instr. 104)

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  • 44. 

    Name the above instrument that is used during an open gallbladder procedure (rounded top/ball tip)

    • A.

      Mayo common duct probe

    • B.

      Desjardin gall stone scoop

    • C.

      Ferguson gallstone scoop

    • D.

      Mayo common duct scoop

    Correct Answer
    A. Mayo common duct probe
    Explanation
    The Mayo common duct probe . The instrument can be inserted into the cystic duct to remove stones. (o.r. instr. 42)

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  • 45. 

    The combining form of the word arteri/o means:

    • A.

      Joint

    • B.

      Artery

    • C.

      Bronchus

    • D.

      Gland

    Correct Answer
    B. Artery
    Explanation
    Arterio is a combining form inferring relationship to an artery or arteries.

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  • 46. 

    Anaerobic means:

    • A.

      Without oxygen

    • B.

      With oxygen

    • C.

      Additional oxygen

    • D.

      Small amount of oxygen

    Correct Answer
    A. Without oxygen
    Explanation
    Anaerobic means without oxygen.

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  • 47. 

    Dys- means:

    • A.

      Difficult

    • B.

      Skin

    • C.

      Near

    • D.

      Away from

    Correct Answer
    A. Difficult
    Explanation
    Dys- is a prefix meaning difficult.

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  • 48. 

    QID refers to:

    • A.

      1 time a day

    • B.

      2 times a day

    • C.

      3 times a day

    • D.

      4 times a day

    Correct Answer
    D. 4 times a day
    Explanation
    QID is an abbreviation meaning 4 times a day.

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  • 49. 

    Chole refers to:

    • A.

      Vagina

    • B.

      Yellow

    • C.

      Bile

    • D.

      Cartilage

    Correct Answer
    C. Bile
    Explanation
    Chole is a combining form denoting bile.

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  • 50. 

    Mastectomy means:

    • A.

      Excision of a breast

    • B.

      Breast biopsy

    • C.

      Incision into the chest

    • D.

      Removal of a tumor

    Correct Answer
    A. Excision of a breast
    Explanation
    Mastectomy means removal of the breast.

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  • Dec 13, 2012
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