Test Your Knowledge About HIPAA Security And Privacy Rule! Trivia Quiz

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Clementejose12
C
Clementejose12
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 2,372
Questions: 29 | Attempts: 2,372

SettingsSettingsSettings
Test Your Knowledge About HIPAA Security And Privacy Rule! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Test Your Knowledge about HIPAA Security and Privacy Rule by taking this trivia quiz. The act was put in place to protect a patient’s information and records no matter what position one holds in at the hospital. Take up this quiz and get to see if you understand all the requirements of the ACT and what it means to those in the health sector.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Latent or “silent errors” in HIT are those that:

    • A.

      A. Obvious to designers of Health IT

    • B.

      B. Related to a mismatch of the function of the HIT and what the user really does with it

    • C.

      C. Are discovered most often after the system is installed and being used

    • D.

      D. Are discovered most often during the programming phase as the HIT is being built

    • E.

      E. B & D

    • F.

      F. B & C

    Correct Answer
    F. F. B & C
    Explanation
    Latent or "silent errors" in HIT are those that are related to a mismatch of the function of the HIT and what the user really does with it, and are discovered most often after the system is installed and being used.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    How could HIT help to “unstick” those who are stuck in thinking?

    • A.

      A. Offer (but do not force) an alternative, but equally effective and less expensive medication when a clinician orders a drug.

    • B.

      B. Provide a link to the institution’s practice guidelines

    • C.

      C. Offer a “tip” or a “shortcut” on log in – such as “would you like to see how to use the system to quickly discharge a patient today?”

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options mentioned can help to "unstick" those who are stuck in thinking. Option a offers an alternative medication that is equally effective and less expensive, providing a different perspective and potentially breaking the cycle of stuck thinking. Option b provides access to practice guidelines, which can offer new ideas and approaches to problem-solving. Option c offers a tip or shortcut, which can help individuals think differently and find new solutions. Therefore, all of these options can contribute to helping individuals get "unstuck" in their thinking.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    In the assigned reading by Ash, Berg, & Coeira (2004) when a “U.K. hospital supplanted the telephoning of results by laboratory staff with installation of a results-reporting system in an emergency department and on the medical admissions ward, the results were devastating: ‘‘The results from 1,443/3,228 (45%) of urgent requests from accident and emergency and 529/ 1836 (29%) from the admissions ward were never accessed via the ward terminal. . . . In up to 43/1,443 (3%) of the accident and emergency test results that were never looked at, the findings might have led to an immediate change in patient management.” Why did this happen?

    • A.

      A. The doctors were not skilled enough to use the computer

    • B.

      B. The providers believed that they had sufficient levels of expertise to not bother with the lab results

    • C.

      C. The nurses did it for them

    • D.

      D. The designers of the system did not understand the normal workflow and did not sufficiently plan for the change that doctors had to retrieve their own results from the system

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The designers of the system did not understand the normal workflow and did not sufficiently plan for the change that doctors had to retrieve their own results from the system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. The designers of the system did not understand the normal workflow and did not sufficiently plan for the change that doctors had to retrieve their own results from the system. This is evident from the fact that a significant number of urgent requests from accident and emergency and admissions ward were never accessed via the ward terminal. The findings of these unaccessed test results could have potentially led to immediate changes in patient management, indicating a lack of proper planning and understanding of the workflow by the system designers.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    A computer, used in healthcare can

    • A.

      A. Result in undue trust and belief in what the computer suggests or displays

    • B.

      B. Replace or augment human decision-making

    • C.

      C. Augment decision-making by the human but never replace it

    • D.

      D. A & B

    • E.

      E. C & A

    Correct Answer
    E. E. C & A
    Explanation
    A computer used in healthcare can result in undue trust and belief in what the computer suggests or displays, as well as replace or augment human decision-making. This means that people may rely too heavily on the computer's suggestions or outputs without questioning or verifying them, leading to potential errors or mistakes. Additionally, the computer can also assist and enhance human decision-making, but it should not completely replace the decision-making process.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an advantage of electronic health records compared to paper records?

    • A.

      A. Electronic records can be transported over networks as long as encryption is not used during transport.

    • B.

      B. With electronic records, it is not necessary to prepare for potential disasters, such as fires and natural catastrophes, which affect paper records.

    • C.

      C. Electronic records allow for fine-tuned control of access permissions, potentially putting patients in control of their health information.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Electronic records allow for fine-tuned control of access permissions, potentially putting patients in control of their health information.
    Explanation
    Electronic health records (EHRs) offer the advantage of allowing for fine-tuned control of access permissions, potentially putting patients in control of their health information. This means that patients have the ability to determine who can access their medical records and what information they can see. This level of control enhances patient privacy and confidentiality. In contrast, paper records do not offer the same level of control, as they can be easily accessed by anyone who has physical access to them. With EHRs, patients have the power to manage their own health information and ensure that it remains secure and confidential.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Which of the following terms describes the practices a provider employs to protect patients’ privacy rights?

    • A.

      A. privacy

    • B.

      B. confidentiality

    • C.

      C. security

    • D.

      D. integrity

    Correct Answer
    B. B. confidentiality
    Explanation
    Confidentiality is the term that describes the practices a provider employs to protect patients' privacy rights. This involves keeping patients' personal and medical information private and secure, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to this information. Confidentiality is essential in maintaining trust between patients and healthcare providers and is a fundamental principle in healthcare ethics.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the specific safeguards or controls that are put in place to ensure the confidentiality of patient data?

    • A.

      A. privacy

    • B.

      B. confidentiality

    • C.

      C. security

    • D.

      D. Integrity

    Correct Answer
    C. C. security
    Explanation
    The term "security" refers to the specific safeguards or controls that are put in place to ensure the confidentiality of patient data. While privacy and confidentiality are related concepts, privacy refers to the right of individuals to keep their personal information private, while confidentiality specifically pertains to the protection of sensitive information, such as patient data, from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity, on the other hand, refers to the accuracy and consistency of data. Therefore, the correct answer is c. security.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Which of the following security management system standards is specific to the health care sector?

    • A.

      A. HIPAA Security Rule

    • B.

      B. ISO 27001

    • C.

      C. NIST 800-53

    • D.

      D. PCI DSS

    Correct Answer
    A. A. HIPAA Security Rule
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. HIPAA Security Rule. HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a regulation in the United States that sets the standard for protecting sensitive patient data in the healthcare sector. The HIPAA Security Rule specifically addresses the security requirements for electronic protected health information (ePHI), including administrative, physical, and technical safeguards. ISO 27001 is a general information security management system standard, NIST 800-53 is a framework for federal information systems, and PCI DSS is a standard for securing payment card data. None of these standards are specific to the healthcare sector like the HIPAA Security Rule.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    EPHI is a common acronym in health care, which stands for:

    • A.

      A. Employer protected health inquiry

    • B.

      B. Employer processed health information

    • C.

      C. Electronic processed health information

    • D.

      D. Electronic protected health information

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Electronic protected health information
    Explanation
    EPHI stands for Electronic Protected Health Information. In the context of healthcare, protected health information refers to any individually identifiable health information that is transmitted or stored electronically. This can include a person's medical records, health insurance information, and any other information that relates to their health or healthcare. The use of electronic systems to store and transmit this information allows for greater efficiency and accessibility, but also requires strict security measures to protect patient privacy and comply with HIPAA regulations. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Electronic protected health information.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Which of the following is NOT typically used to categorize types of security safeguards?

    • A.

      A. Administrative safeguards

    • B.

      B. Complacent safeguards

    • C.

      C. Physical safeguards

    • D.

      D. Technical safeguards

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Complacent safeguards
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Complacent safeguards. This is because complacent safeguards are not a recognized category of security safeguards. Administrative safeguards, physical safeguards, and technical safeguards are commonly used to categorize types of security safeguards.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the Security Management Process?

    • A.

      A. Risk analysis

    • B.

      B. Risk management

    • C.

      C. Risk prevention

    • D.

      D. System activity review

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Risk prevention
    Explanation
    The Security Management Process involves various steps to ensure the security of an organization's assets and information. Risk analysis is the process of identifying potential risks and vulnerabilities. Risk management involves implementing strategies to mitigate and control those risks. System activity review is the process of monitoring and analyzing system logs and activities for any signs of unauthorized access or suspicious behavior. However, risk prevention is not explicitly mentioned as part of the Security Management Process, making it the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an example of a workstation as defined in the HIPAA Security Rule?

    • A.

      A. Desktop computer

    • B.

      B. Laptop

    • C.

      C. USB drive

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. All of the above. This is because a workstation, as defined in the HIPAA Security Rule, can refer to any device that can access electronic protected health information (ePHI). This includes desktop computers, laptops, and USB drives, as they all have the capability to access and store ePHI. Therefore, all the options listed in the question are examples of workstations according to the HIPAA Security Rule.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Before sending unneeded computer equipment containing EPHI away for surplus or resale, you should:

    • A.

      A. Delete files containing EPHI from the computer simply using the delete function of the operating system.

    • B.

      B. Change the passwords of all users accessing the system, preventing access to all EPHI.

    • C.

      C. Either remove the hard drives from the computer equipment for destruction, or perform a secure deletion of all data using special methods that ensures data on magnetic media is completely unreadable.

    • D.

      D. Make sure that whoever acquires the computer equipment agrees not to hold you liable for any EPHI contained on the equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Either remove the hard drives from the computer equipment for destruction, or perform a secure deletion of all data using special methods that ensures data on magnetic media is completely unreadable.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c because deleting files using the delete function of the operating system does not guarantee complete removal of EPHI. Changing passwords only prevents unauthorized access but does not remove the data. Option c suggests either physically destroying the hard drives or using special methods to ensure complete and secure deletion of data, which is the recommended approach to protect EPHI. Option d is not a valid solution as it does not address the proper handling and disposal of EPHI.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?

    • A.

      A. Requiring a user to provide a password along with a smart card to access an EHR.

    • B.

      B. A physician having access to more patient information in an EHR than an administrative user.

    • C.

      C. Enforcing complexity requirements when changing a password.

    • D.

      D. Biometric authentication.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Requiring a user to provide a password along with a smart card to access an EHR.
    Explanation
    An example of two-factor authentication is requiring a user to provide a password along with a smart card to access an EHR. Two-factor authentication adds an extra layer of security by requiring two different types of credentials to verify the user's identity. In this case, the password serves as the first factor and the smart card serves as the second factor. This combination ensures that even if one factor is compromised, the system is still protected.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    A small single provider health care clinic is more likely to implement a custom-built HIT system than to acquire an off-the-shelf product to meet a particular health care need.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A small single provider health care clinic is less likely to implement a custom-built HIT system than to acquire an off-the-shelf product to meet a particular health care need. Custom-built systems are usually expensive and time-consuming to develop, which may not be feasible for a small clinic with limited resources. On the other hand, off-the-shelf products are readily available and can be easily implemented, making them a more practical choice for small clinics.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    1.Name the four general processes that make up the software development lifecycle. Answers: Planning and Analysis, Design, Implementation, Support/Evaluation

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The software development lifecycle consists of four general processes: planning and analysis, design, implementation, and support/evaluation. These processes are essential for the successful development and maintenance of software. Planning and analysis involve identifying requirements and creating a roadmap for the project. Design focuses on creating a high-level architecture and detailed specifications. Implementation involves coding and testing the software. Finally, support/evaluation includes deployment, maintenance, and gathering feedback to improve the software. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct as it accurately identifies the four processes in the software development lifecycle.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    3. Which of the following activities highlighted in this unit is likely to be a part of 2 or more phases of the systems development process?

    • A.

      A. Strategic Planning

    • B.

      B. User Needs Analysis

    • C.

      C. Training

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Training
    Explanation
    Training is likely to be a part of 2 or more phases of the systems development process because it is necessary during the implementation phase to train users on how to use the new system effectively. Additionally, training may also be required during the maintenance phase if there are any updates or changes to the system that users need to be trained on. Therefore, training is a recurring activity that spans multiple phases of the systems development process.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    4.Why is it important to have a vision for how a proposed HIT system will impact and be used within a health care organization? Answer: A vision for an HIT system should support the goals and mission of the organization, ensuring that the HIT system implementation helps the organization achieve its goals.  The vision also feeds the analysis of HIT systems and determination of required features, ensuring that the needs of the organization, rather than the features of proposed solutions, drives the choice and implementation of a solution.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Having a vision for how a proposed HIT system will impact and be used within a health care organization is important because it ensures that the implementation of the HIT system aligns with the organization's goals and mission. This alignment is crucial in order for the organization to achieve its objectives effectively. Additionally, having a vision helps in analyzing different HIT systems and determining the required features that will best meet the organization's needs. This approach ensures that the organization's needs drive the choice and implementation of a solution, rather than being influenced solely by the features of proposed solutions.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    5What is another term used to describe “business process modeling?” Answer: user needs analysis

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    "User needs analysis" is another term used to describe "business process modeling". Business process modeling involves understanding and analyzing the needs of the users or stakeholders involved in a business process. By conducting user needs analysis, organizations can identify the requirements, expectations, and preferences of the users, which can then be used to develop and improve the business process model. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct as it accurately reflects the relationship between business process modeling and user needs analysis.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of business process analysis?

    • A.

      A .Observation of current workflow

    • B.

      B .Implementation of software to solve a workflow challenge

    • C.

      C .Interviewing employees involved in a business process

    • D.

      D. Sharing analysis with those interviewed

    Correct Answer
    B. B .Implementation of software to solve a workflow challenge
    Explanation
    The implementation of software to solve a workflow challenge is not part of business process analysis. Business process analysis involves observing the current workflow, interviewing employees involved in the process, and sharing analysis with those interviewed. However, implementing software to solve a workflow challenge is more related to process improvement or solution implementation, rather than the analysis phase.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    List three (3) potential improvements to health care that a HIT system implementation could generally be expected to enable, over existing paper-based processes. Possible answers: a. Simplify existing workflows (improving efficiency) b. Improving the accessibility of health care information to patients c. Improving the safety of cared. Enabling improved documentation, and more comprehensive documentation of care e. Allow for the delegation of tasks to make the most efficient use of provider and staff time.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A HIT system implementation could generally be expected to enable the following improvements over existing paper-based processes: simplifying existing workflows to improve efficiency, improving the accessibility of health care information to patients, improving the safety of care by enabling improved and more comprehensive documentation, and allowing for the delegation of tasks to make the most efficient use of provider and staff time.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Why is it important to include a “practice” version of a new HIT system during the implementation phase? Answer: A “practice” version of the system can be used as part of the training plan for the organization, allowing for a safe environment for staff of the organization to learn how to use the new system without negatively impacting the functioning of the production system.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Including a "practice" version of a new HIT system during the implementation phase is important because it allows staff members to train and familiarize themselves with the new system in a safe environment. This helps prevent any negative impact on the functioning of the production system as staff members can make mistakes and learn from them without affecting the actual operations of the organization. It also allows for a smoother transition to the new system as staff members become more proficient in using it before it is fully implemented.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Which is NOT an important step in creating a testing strategy?

    • A.

      A. Identify testing environment.

    • B.

      B. Create test scenarios and scripts.

    • C.

      C. Identify participants.

    • D.

      D. Identify required equipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Create test scenarios and scripts.
  • 24. 

    The procedure for sign-off for testing activities identifies the person who will manage defects in the project

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The procedure for sign-off for testing activities does not specifically identify the person who will manage defects in the project. Sign-off is typically done to indicate that a particular phase or activity has been completed and meets the specified requirements. While defect management is an important part of testing, it is not directly associated with the sign-off procedure. Therefore, the statement is false.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    End user testing is best suited for less-experienced staff and should represent a cross-section of the end-user environment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    End user testing is best suited for less-experienced staff because they are the ones who will be using the product or system on a regular basis. Their feedback and input during the testing phase can provide valuable insights into any usability issues or difficulties they may encounter. Additionally, it is important to have a cross-section of the end-user environment represented in the testing process to ensure that all different types of users and their needs are taken into consideration. This helps to create a more user-friendly and effective final product.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    The user acceptance testing phase of a project usually occurs immediately before:

    • A.

      A. Rollout.

    • B.

      B. Project description.

    • C.

      C. System backup.

    • D.

      D. Project sign-off.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Rollout.
    Explanation
    The user acceptance testing phase is the final phase before the project is rolled out to the end-users. During this phase, the users test the system to ensure that it meets their requirements and works as expected. Once the testing is completed and any necessary changes are made, the project is ready to be rolled out and implemented. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Rollout.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    1. Designing the test scenarios is best performed by:

    • A.

      A. Less-experienced staff.

    • B.

      B. Program experts.

    • C.

      C. Workflow experts.

    • D.

      D. B and C.

    • E.

      E. All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. B and C.
    Explanation
    Designing test scenarios requires a deep understanding of the program and its workflow. Program experts possess the technical knowledge to identify potential issues and design effective test scenarios. Workflow experts, on the other hand, have a comprehensive understanding of the system's processes and can identify scenarios that mimic real-world usage. By combining the expertise of both program and workflow experts, the test scenarios can be designed to cover a wide range of potential issues and accurately reflect the system's behavior in different scenarios. Therefore, the correct answer is d. B and C.

    Rate this question:

Related Topics

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.