Center For Research On Computation And Society (Crcs-I) Practice Test

Coordination of benefits is a process used to determine the order in which multiple health plans or insurance policies will pay for the same benefits. This is important to avoid overpayment or duplication of coverage. By coordinating benefits, the primary plan or policy is identified, which is responsible for paying first, while the secondary plan or policy pays any remaining costs. Therefore, the statement "Coordination of benefits involves determining which plan or insurance policy will pay first if two health plans or insurance policies cover the same benefits" is true.

Liability insurance sometimes includes "med-pay" or "no-fault" coverage. This type of insurance provides coverage for injuries or damages caused by the insured party to others. "Med-pay" coverage helps pay for medical expenses of the injured party, regardless of who is at fault. "No-fault" coverage pays for medical expenses and other damages regardless of fault, typically in states with no-fault insurance laws. Liability insurance is commonly associated with auto insurance, where these coverages can be included to provide additional protection.

The statement is false because payer contracts are not regulated at the state level. Payer contracts are typically negotiated between healthcare providers and insurance companies, and the terms and conditions can vary between different payers within the same state. The contracts are based on negotiations and agreements between the parties involved, rather than being standardized across all payers in a given state.

A Patient Care Partnership brochure is not an example of an advanced directive because it is a document that provides information about a patient's rights and responsibilities while receiving healthcare, rather than a legal document that outlines specific instructions for medical treatment or appoints a healthcare decision-maker. Advanced directives, such as a Living Will, Healthcare Power of Attorney, or DNR order, are legal documents that allow individuals to express their preferences for medical treatment or designate someone to make healthcare decisions on their behalf.

Medicare requires a person to have been a hospital inpatient for at least three consecutive days (not including the day of discharge) in order to qualify for SNF cover. This means that if a person has been admitted to a hospital and stays there for a minimum of three days, they meet the requirement for Medicare to cover their stay in a skilled nursing facility (SNF). It is important to note that the day of discharge is not considered as part of the three-day requirement. Therefore, the statement "True" is the correct answer.

The "birthday rule" dictates that when children are covered by both parents, the coverage of the parent with the first birthday in the calendar year is considered primary.

A non-definitive LCD/NCD provides potential coverage circumstances without specifying the exact diagnosis, signs, symptoms, or ICD-10 codes that will be covered or non-covered. This means that while it may outline the general circumstances under which coverage may be provided, it does not provide specific guidance on whether a particular diagnosis or condition will be covered or not. This type of LCD/NCD leaves room for interpretation and may require additional documentation or justification for coverage.

When timely-filing limits are not met, the consequence is that the claim is written off. This means that the healthcare provider is not allowed to bill the patient for the remaining balance.

A person's own coverage being primary to that of a spouse means that their insurance plan will be the first to pay for any medical expenses incurred. This means that if both the person and their spouse have insurance, the person's insurance will be used first before the spouse's insurance is tapped into. This is important to understand as it affects how medical bills are processed and paid for in case both individuals have insurance coverage.

An authorized person should draw a single line through the error, initial it, and continue the note.

The acronym NCD stands for National Coverage Determination. This refers to a decision made by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) regarding whether a particular item or service is covered by Medicare. NCDs are based on national medical necessity criteria and help to ensure consistency in coverage and payment policies across the country.

Late charges on a bill, which are posted after the due date or after a certain number of days have passed, can cause delays in resolving the account. This is because when late charges are added, the bill may need to be rebilled, which takes time and can prolong the process of resolving the account. Therefore, the statement "A bill with late charges will often have to be rebilled, causing delays in account resolution" is true.

An unintentional skip refers to someone who moves or changes residence without notifying their creditors, but still maintains a forwarding address. This suggests that the individual did not purposely intend to avoid their creditors, but rather failed to inform them of their new address.

Commercial insurance is the correct answer because it refers to health insurance coverage that is provided by private insurance companies to individuals, often as an employment benefit. This type of insurance is purchased by employers on behalf of their employees and offers a range of coverage options and benefits. It is different from self-insured plans where the employer assumes the financial risk of providing healthcare benefits to its employees. Liability insurance covers damages caused by the insured party to others, self-pay refers to individuals paying for their own healthcare expenses, and HSA (Health Savings Account) is a type of savings account that individuals can use to pay for qualified medical expenses.

The statement "Until 2010, Medicare was the primary payer for nearly all Medicare-covered services" is not true because even before 2010, Medicare was not the primary payer for all Medicare-covered services. Medicare has always had certain limitations and beneficiaries may have had other healthcare coverage that was primary to Medicare for certain services.

The steps to take when receiving notice that a patient is deceased include checking if a legitimate estate exists and filing an appropriate caveat to the estate, checking the register of wills for an estate, and writing off any self-pay balance remaining after insurance liability is paid if there is no estate and no one assumes financial responsibility. However, changing the mailing address to "The family of [patient name]" is not a step to take when receiving notice that a patient is deceased.

The exact order must be transcribed verbatim

The correct answer is CMS-1450 because the UB-04 is a standard claim form used by institutional healthcare providers to bill Medicare and Medicaid. It is also known as the CMS-1450 form, which is issued by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). The CMS-1500 form, on the other hand, is used by individual healthcare providers to bill for services rendered to patients. MSN stands for Medicare Summary Notice, which is a document that explains the services and supplies billed to Medicare beneficiaries. EOB stands for Explanation of Benefits, which is a statement from an insurance company that explains the services covered and the amount paid for by the insurance plan.

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Assignment of benefits refers to a policyholder's written authorization to have insurance benefits paid directly to the provider. This means that the policyholder allows the insurance company to pay the benefits directly to the healthcare provider or service provider, rather than receiving the payment themselves and then paying the provider. This can streamline the payment process and ensure that the provider receives the payment promptly and accurately.

In a Chapter 7 filing, a responsible party is required to list all debts, including hospital debts. If a hospital debt is not specifically listed, it will not be automatically included in the petition. Therefore, the statement that the debt is automatically included in the petition is false.

The statement that adult children of a deceased person are legally responsible for any debts related to the deceased person's medical bills is not true. In most cases, the responsibility for the debts of a deceased person falls on the deceased person's estate, not their adult children. The estate is responsible for paying off any outstanding debts using the assets left behind by the deceased person. If there are not enough assets to cover the debts, the remaining debts are typically forgiven.

The correct answer is Mini Miranda. The term "Mini Miranda" refers to a statement made by a debt collector when attempting to collect a debt. This statement is required by the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) and serves as a warning to the debtor that any information obtained during the collection process will be used solely for that purpose. The name "Mini Miranda" is derived from the similarity of this statement to the Miranda warning given by law enforcement officers to individuals being arrested.

Pre-employment background checks are not one of the OIG's seven elements of a compliance plan. The OIG's seven elements include written policies and procedures, effective training and education, conducting internal monitoring and auditing, responding to offenses and developing corrective action plans, establishing lines of communication, enforcing disciplinary standards, and conducting periodic evaluations. Pre-employment background checks are not specifically mentioned as one of these elements.

The hoped-for savings have not materialized for most providers for several reasons. Most payers have not standardized their information requirements. While many payers offer ERAs, patient accounting software firms can charge prohibitive fees for parsing the ERA for posting purposes.

If a patient changes their Medicare Advantage status during an inpatient stay, the liability for the cost of the stay is determined based on the patient's status at the time of admission or start of care. This means that if the patient was enrolled in Medicare Advantage at the time of admission, they would be responsible for the costs associated with their stay. Therefore, the statement is true.

Special consent forms are required for major/minor surgery, anesthesia, and other services such as psychiatric treatment, HIV positive testing, and experimental procedures.

The treating/attending physician is authorized to make entries in the patient's medical record as they are responsible for the overall care and treatment of the patient. A physician extender, such as a physician assistant or nurse practitioner, may also be authorized to make entries in the medical record under the supervision of the attending physician. A licensed, registered nurse may also be authorized to make entries in the medical record as they are involved in the direct care of the patient. A student from an accredited health profession program may be authorized to make entries in the medical record under the supervision of their clinic instructor to gain practical experience. A financial counselor, however, is not typically authorized to make entries in the medical record as their role is primarily focused on financial matters related to the patient's care.

Outpatient claims require HCPCS/CPT codes. HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) and CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes are used to identify specific medical procedures and services provided to patients in outpatient settings. These codes help in accurately documenting and billing for the services rendered, ensuring proper reimbursement and tracking of healthcare services. Inpatient claims, on the other hand, typically use diagnosis-related group (DRG) codes to classify and bill for hospital stays.

Courtesy discharge is a process where patients are allowed to leave the hospital without having to wait for all administrative procedures to be completed. The given answer states that courtesy discharge results in more billing errors because there is one less opportunity to validate information. This implies that when patients are discharged early, there is a higher chance of errors in billing as there is less time to verify and validate the information.

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A person who is intoxicated may not be able to fully understand the nature of the services being offered and the potential consequences of their consent. Similarly, a person who has been declared mentally incompetent by the courts may lack the mental capacity to give informed consent. In both situations, the person's ability to understand and make decisions about services is compromised, making them unable to give valid consent.

RUG (Resource Utilization Group) is the payment methodology used to determine payment for skilled nursing care. RUGs classify patients into different groups based on their care needs and resource utilization. Each group has a predetermined payment rate, which is used to calculate the reimbursement for skilled nursing services provided. This methodology ensures that payment is based on the level of care required by the patient, taking into account factors such as therapy needs, activities of daily living, and medical conditions.

A contractual requirement to hold a claim for a certain number of days is not a common stall or delay with third-party payers. This means that third-party payers do not typically require healthcare providers to wait a certain number of days before processing a claim. Other common stalls or delays with third-party payers include bills not being received by the payer, problems with coordination of benefits (COB) or Medicare Secondary Payer (MSP), and the need for medical records or charts for review.

Group health plans are not always secondary to Medicare. Coordination of benefits is a process used to determine the order in which multiple health insurance plans pay for a claim. In some cases, group health plans may be primary to Medicare, meaning they pay first before Medicare pays its portion. This can depend on factors such as the size of the employer and whether the individual is still actively working. Therefore, it is not true to say that group health plans are always secondary to Medicare.

The acronym RTP stands for "Returned to provider." This means that a certain item or document has been sent back to the original provider or sender.

Electronic billing does not facilitate the process of sending attachments. This means that electronic billing does not make it easier to include additional documents or files along with the billing information.

A discharged bankruptcy does not cover any patient accounts that occur within six months following the notification.

The correct answer is the 3-Day Payment Window Rule. This rule states that all diagnostic and clinically related non-diagnostic outpatient services provided within three days of an inpatient admission must be combined to the inpatient claim when provided by an entity wholly owned or operated by the inpatient hospital. This rule helps ensure that the costs of these services are properly accounted for and reimbursed under Medicare.

The three primary components used in selecting a level of E&M service are history, examination, and medical decision-making. These components are crucial in determining the complexity of a patient's condition and the level of care required. The history includes gathering information about the patient's symptoms, medical history, and any relevant factors. The examination involves physically assessing the patient and documenting any findings. Medical decision-making involves evaluating the patient's condition, determining a diagnosis, and formulating a treatment plan. These components help healthcare providers determine the appropriate level of service and ensure that patients receive the necessary care.

The correct answer is "Endorse checks immediately with 'Payable to [name of office] Only'". This is not a GAAP applying to the cashier role because endorsing checks in this way restricts the use of the funds to only the named office, which may not align with the organization's financial policies or objectives. GAAP typically requires cashiers to follow procedures that ensure transparency, accuracy, and security in handling cash and other valuables, such as issuing receipts, depositing cash payments promptly, storing payments and valuables in a secure location, maintaining a payment log, and segregating duties to prevent fraud or errors.

The revenue code 0450 is the correct answer for Emergency Room General. Revenue codes are used in healthcare settings to classify the type of services provided to patients. In this case, 0450 specifically represents the revenue code for Emergency Room General, indicating that the services provided in the emergency room fall under this category.

The inclusion in a published "watch" list of providers is not an example of an administrative sanction for inappropriate/fraudulent behavior on the part of a provider. Administrative sanctions typically involve actions such as denial or revocation of provider number applications, suspension of provider payments, and application of Civil Monetary Penalties (CMPs). However, being included in a "watch" list does not directly impose any punitive measures or consequences on the provider; it is more of a precautionary measure to alert others about potential risks associated with the provider.

The UB-04 form contains 81 data elements. This form is used for submitting medical claims for services provided in a hospital or other healthcare facility. The data elements on the form include information such as patient demographics, admission and discharge dates, diagnosis codes, procedure codes, and billing information. These data elements are necessary for accurately processing and reimbursing healthcare claims.

Occurrence codes in the UB-04 form consist of two digits and a date that provide additional information about a significant event or condition related to a claim. These codes help to clarify specific occurrences such as the date of admission, discharge, or transfer, or any other important events that may impact the claim.

Medicare is the primary payer in the situation where a patient is admitted to an acute care hospital with Medicare insurance and the coverage changes to a Medicare HMO in the middle of the stay. This means that Medicare will be responsible for paying for the majority of the patient's medical expenses during their hospital stay, even if their coverage changes to a Medicare HMO.

The correct answer is National Correct Coding Initiative. The National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) is a program developed by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) to promote correct coding methodologies and to prevent improper coding leading to inappropriate payment of Medicare claims. The NCCI edits are used to identify code pairs that should not be reported together, and they help ensure accurate and appropriate coding and billing practices.

Geographic indicator (GI) is not one of the RVUs used in determining the fee schedule payment. RVUs, or Relative Value Units, are used to measure the value of medical services based on factors such as the work required, practice expenses, and malpractice insurance expenses. However, the geographic indicator is not a factor used in this calculation. It is likely that the geographic indicator refers to the location or region where the medical service is provided, which may affect reimbursement rates but is not directly used in determining the fee schedule payment.

The given answer is incorrect. The correct answer is "The review should be done annually." The review of the chargemaster should be conducted annually, not every other year, to ensure accuracy and compliance with regulations. This is important because any incorrect coding can be seen as fraudulent and can have legal consequences. Additionally, the review should include checking for items to be added or deleted and involving department directors/managers to ensure a comprehensive evaluation.