Center For Research On Computation And Society (Crcs-I) Practice Test
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The CRCS was founded to generate fresh ideas and technologies designed to address some of society's problems. Take this quiz and learn about it. Do you know about the Patient's Bill of Rights? Do you know about protected health information? Do you know what HIPPA stands for? How does a patient qualify for SNF cover? This quiz is very involved and comprehensive. Those who love to learn will appreciate it.
- 1.Which of the following is true of Patient Care Partnership? (Select all that apply.)
- A.
It replaces the "Patient's Bill of Rights.'
- B.
It was adopted by the AHA
- C.
It outlines what a provider can expect from a patient.
- D.
It is a plain-language brochure.
- E.
It addresses patient expectations from admission to dismissal only.
- 2.Which of the following is true of protected health information (PHI)? (Select all that apply.)
- A.
It refers only to any single piece of data that could directly match patients with their medical information.
- B.
It can be shared without explicit consent for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations (TPO).
- C.
It cannot be shared for marketing purposes without explicit consent.
- D.
It cannot be shared with law enforcement agencies without consent or proper notification to the patient, expect under court order.
- 3.The savings results from HIPAA's administrative simplification rules have exceeded initial projections.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 4.Which of the following is not an example of an advanced directive? (Select one.)
- A.
Living Will
- B.
Patient Care Partnership brochure
- C.
Healthcare Power of Attorney or Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare.
- D.
DNR order
- 5.Which of the following is not an example of an administrative sanction for inappropriate/fraudulent behavior on the part of a provider?
- A.
Denial or revocation of the provider number applications.
- B.
Suspension of provider payments.
- C.
Application of CMPs.
- D.
Inclusion in a published "watch" list of providers.
- 6.Which of the following is true of TJC? (Select one.)
- A.
All hospitals must be accredited by TJC.
- B.
TJC will conduct an audit of a hospital every 39 months.
- C.
TJC will conduct an audit of a laboratory every 36 months.
- D.
TJC can audit a healthcare facility without advance notice as early as 6 months after its initial audit.
- 7.To qualify for SNF cover, Medicare requires a person to have been a hospital inpatient for at least three consecutive days (not including the day of discharge.)
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 8.A single general consent document is signed to cover all procedures and services being performed in any 24-hour period.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 9.What is the name for a policyholder's written authorization to have insurance benefits paid directly to the provider?
- A.
Conditional payments
- B.
Provisional benefits
- C.
Assignment of benefits
- D.
Authorization of payments
- 10.In the ER, failure of a patient, who is aware of what is happening, to object to treatment is implied consent - in fact.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 11.In what situation is a person prevented from consenting to services? (Select all that apply.)
- A.
The person is an emancipated minor.
- B.
The person is uninsured.
- C.
The person is intoxicated.
- D.
The person is declared mentally incompetent by the courts.
- 12.Should a correction be required to a medical record, an authorized person should use correction fluid to neatly obscure the error and continue the note.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 13.Which of the following is authorized to make entries in the patient's medical record? (Select all that apply.)
- A.
Treating/attending physician
- B.
A physician extender
- C.
A licensed, registered nurse
- D.
A financial counselor
- E.
A student from an accredited health profession program (under the supervision of his or her clinic instructor.
- 14.Telephone orders from a referring physician may be edited for clarity by an individual authorized to received verbal orders.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 15.What does the acronym NCD stand for? (Select one.)
- A.
National Coverage Determination
- B.
National Coverage Department
- C.
New Coverage Determination
- D.
New Coverage Direction
- 16.Which type of LCD/NCD provides potential coverage circumstances, but most likely does not provide specific diagnosis, signs, symptoms, or ICD-10 codes that will be covered or non-covered? (Select one.)
- A.
Definitive LCD/NCD
- B.
Non-definitive LCD/NCD
- 17.Which of the following is not true of MSP laws? (Select one.)
- A.
Until 2010, Medicare was the primary payer for nearly will Medicare-covered services.
- B.
Before becoming entitled to Medicare, beneficiaries receive an IEQ that asks about any other healthcare coverage that might be primary to Medicare.
- C.
Medicare considers it a fraudulent or abusive practice to regularly submit claims that are the responsibility of another insurer under the MSP provision.
- D.
The CWF is a CMS file that contains Medicare patient eligibility and utilization data from the IEQ and ongoing MSPQs.
- 18.Which of the following is true of financial policies in Patient Access/Front Desk? (Select all that apply.)
- A.
They should describe the provider's policies in general terms only to allow for flexible legal interpretation
- B.
They should clearly state when charges are due and payble; provide discount information; define acceptable methods of payment; outline charity guidelines and application procedures; and explain how accounts may be sent to a collection agency.
- C.
Patient Access/Front Desk staff should not discuss these policies with patients; instead, they should refer patients to a designated Billing staff member.
- D.
An effective policy for collecting at the time of service will improve cash flow and will reduce AR days, the cost of patient statements, bad debt, and follow-up time.
- 19.Which of the following is true of the Medicare Part A spell of an illness? (Select all that apply)
- A.
It is also known as the benefit period
- B.
It is also known as the deductible period
- C.
It begins when a beneficiary enters the hospital and ends 30 days after discharge from the hospital or from a SNF
- D.
It begins when a beneficiary enters the hospital and ends 60 days after discharge from the hospital or from a SNF
- 20.Which of the following is not covered by Medicare for qualified beneficiaries? (Select all that apply.)
- A.
Cosmetic surgery
- B.
Chiropractic services (limited)
- C.
Routine eye care and most eyeglasses in the absence of disease
- D.
Kidney dialysis and kidney transplants
- E.
Hearing aids and exams
- 21.Which of the following is not a registration element shared by HMOs and PPOs? (Select one.)
- A.
Use of program practitioners
- B.
Use of specific healthcare facilities
- C.
Precertification/preauthorization requirements
- D.
State-mandated coverage limits
- 22.If a patient changes Medicare Advantage status during an inpatient stay for an inpatient institution, the patient's status at admission or start of care determines liability.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 23.Which of the following is not true of MACs? (Select one.)
- A.
They are the private firms that process Medicare claims
- B.
They were formerly known as fiscal intermediaries or carriers
- C.
They enroll providers in the Medicare program, provide education on Medicare billing requirements, and answer both provider and patient inquiries
- D.
There is one MAC in each of the 50 states
- 24.Beginning April 1, 2019, providers must include only the new MBI number, not the old HICN number, on claims.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 25.What is the term for health insurance that covers individuals, often as an employment benefit? (Select one.)
- A.
Self-insured
- B.
Commercial insurance
- C.
Liability insurance
- D.
Self-pay
- E.
HSA
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