CMA Exam 3

72 Questions

Settings
CMA Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following medications should be included on a crash cart?
    • A. 

      Fluocinonide (Lidex)

    • B. 

      Furosemide (Lasix)

    • C. 

      Pantoprazole (Protonix)

    • D. 

      Pravastatin (Pravachol)

    • E. 

      Promazine (Prozine)

  • 2. 
    After delivering a shock with the AED, the medical assistant should
    • A. 

      Check the patient’s pulse.

    • B. 

      Immediately resume chest compressions cycled with rescue breathing.

    • C. 

      Give 30 chest compressions and deliver another shock.

    • D. 

      Turn off the AED.

    • E. 

      Deliver a series of abdominal thrusts.

  • 3. 
    An AED is used to treat which of the following?
    • A. 

      CVA

    • B. 

      Diabetic coma

    • C. 

      Seizures

    • D. 

      Heart arrhythmias

    • E. 

      Stroke

  • 4. 
    The medical assistant is protected from liability during an emergency situation for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Reasonable care is given to the patient.

    • B. 

      The patient agrees to treatment.

    • C. 

      The medical assistant does not go beyond his or her skill level.

    • D. 

      He or she stays with the injured person until someone who has the same or more skill takes over.

    • E. 

      Acts in good faith.

  • 5. 
    The medical assistant is caring for a child with a painful, blistered burn on the arm from a hot liquid. The medical assistant should
    • A. 

      Cool it with cold water as quickly as possible and continue cooling until the pain is relieved.

    • B. 

      Quickly pop each blister, then apply cold water until the pain is relieved.

    • C. 

      Apply triple antibiotic ointment to the burn and cover it with an adhesive bandage.

    • D. 

      Apply ice directly to the burn and keep it there until the pain is relieved.

    • E. 

      Apply direct pressure with an absorbent pad.

  • 6. 
    According to basic cardiac life support procedures, which of the following describes appropriate rescue breathing for an adult patient?
    • A. 

      One breath every three seconds

    • B. 

      One breath every five seconds

    • C. 

      Two breaths every three seconds

    • D. 

      Two breaths every five seconds

    • E. 

      One breath every two seconds

  • 7. 
    To control bleeding or hemorrhaging, the medical assistant should initially
    • A. 

      Apply heat over the wound.

    • B. 

      Apply ice over the wound.

    • C. 

      Apply direct pressure.

    • D. 

      Apply a tourniquet above the injury.

    • E. 

      Immobilize the body part.

  • 8. 
    Which burn destroys the epidermis and dermis, including the nerve endings?
    • A. 

      Third-degree

    • B. 

      First-degree

    • C. 

      Second-degree

    • D. 

      Minor

    • E. 

      Acid burn

  • 9. 
    A strain is a
    • A. 

      Fracture.

    • B. 

      Ligament injury.

    • C. 

      Broken blood vessel.

    • D. 

      Muscle injury.

    • E. 

      Cartilage injury.

  • 10. 
    Which of the following should be assessed first when rendering first aid?
    • A. 

      Pulse

    • B. 

      Capillary action

    • C. 

      Pain or injury to limbs

    • D. 

      Emotional state

    • E. 

      Airway

  • 11. 
    All of the following are common causes of breathing emergencies EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Choking.

    • B. 

      Obstruction.

    • C. 

      Strains.

    • D. 

      Asthma.

    • E. 

      Allergic reaction.

  • 12. 
    According to the rule of nines, the amount of body surface represented by the head and neck is
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      4.5%.

    • C. 

      9%.

    • D. 

      18%.

    • E. 

      36%.

  • 13. 
    Shock is caused by
    • A. 

      A tear in a ligament.

    • B. 

      A lack of blood flow and oxygen to body tissues.

    • C. 

      A heart attack.

    • D. 

      A stroke.

    • E. 

      Epistaxis.

  • 14. 
    What is a seizure?
    • A. 

      A type of myocardial infarction

    • B. 

      A syncope

    • C. 

      An involuntary muscle contraction/ relaxation

    • D. 

      A hemorrhage

    • E. 

      An abrasion

  • 15. 
    Insulin shock causes
    • A. 

      Hyperkalemia.

    • B. 

      Severe hypoglycemia.

    • C. 

      Severe hyperglycemia.

    • D. 

      Hypokalemia.

    • E. 

      Syncope.

  • 16. 
    When using an autoclave, which of the following is the minimum temperature necessary to sterilize medical instruments?
    • A. 

      120° F (48.9° C)

    • B. 

      180° F (82.2° C)

    • C. 

      225° F (107.2° C)

    • D. 

      250° F (121.1° C)

    • E. 

      280° F (137.7° C)

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is one of the agencies that regulates the disposal of infectious waste outside the workplace?
    • A. 

      Association for Professionals in Infection Control

    • B. 

      Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

    • C. 

      Environmental Protection Agency

    • D. 

      Exposure Control Plan

    • E. 

      Department of Health and Human Services

  • 18. 
    Which of the following terms describes complete destruction of all microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Antiseptic

    • B. 

      Aseptic

    • C. 

      Disinfection

    • D. 

      Sanitization

    • E. 

      Sterilization

  • 19. 
    When a patient has taken a drug for an extended period of time, the desired effect may lessen or will not occur at all. This is called
    • A. 

      Toxic effect.

    • B. 

      Idiosyncratic effect.

    • C. 

      Tolerance.

    • D. 

      Vasoconstrictor.

    • E. 

      Potentiation.

  • 20. 
    Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substance Act?
    • A. 

      American Medical Association

    • B. 

      Drug Enforcement Administration

    • C. 

      Food and Drug Administration

    • D. 

      Federal Trade Commission

    • E. 

      Physician’s Desk Reference

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is a drug used to lessen or prevent the effects of a disease?
    • A. 

      Curative

    • B. 

      Prophylactic

    • C. 

      Replacement

    • D. 

      Therapeutic

    • E. 

      Supplemental

  • 22. 
    Which of the following food types is the best protein source?
    • A. 

      Meats

    • B. 

      Raw vegetables

    • C. 

      Citrus

    • D. 

      Oils

    • E. 

      Butter

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is the best source of calcium and vitamin D?
    • A. 

      Meats and nuts

    • B. 

      Raw vegetables

    • C. 

      Citrus fruits

    • D. 

      Dairy products

    • E. 

      Oils

  • 24. 
    Which type of pathogen survives in the absence of oxygen?
    • A. 

      Spores

    • B. 

      Aerobes

    • C. 

      Anaerobes

    • D. 

      Vectors

    • E. 

      Fomites

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is an effective disinfectant used in the medical office to destroy blood-borne pathogens?
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Bleach

    • C. 

      Chlorhexidine gluconate

    • D. 

      Formaldehyde

    • E. 

      Phenol

  • 26. 
    Which of the following is an example of a standard precaution for infection control?
    • A. 

      Disinfecting the examination table after each patient

    • B. 

      Emptying the garbage can weekly

    • C. 

      Recapping used needles with the two-hand method

    • D. 

      Wearing heavy gloves to remove instruments from the autoclave

    • E. 

      Wearing two sets of gloves when cleaning surgical instruments

  • 27. 
    Which of the following describes a drug that is not protected by a trademark but is registered by the Food and Drug Administration?
    • A. 

      Controlled

    • B. 

      Generic

    • C. 

      Research

    • D. 

      Over-the-counter

    • E. 

      Trademark

  • 28. 
    A physician prescribes amoxicillin 500 mg capsules po qid for 10 days. How many capsules should be dispensed?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

    • E. 

      50

  • 29. 
    A drug from which of the following classes is used for a heart condition?
    • A. 

      Antacids

    • B. 

      Antiarrhythmic

    • C. 

      Anesthetics

    • D. 

      Antibiotics

    • E. 

      Analgesics

  • 30. 
    The food guide pyramid suggests that patients plan a balanced diet by doing all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Eating more fruits.

    • B. 

      Eating nuts.

    • C. 

      Eating more carbohydrates.

    • D. 

      Eating whole grain foods.

    • E. 

      Eating more vegetables.

  • 31. 
    Which of the following is an example of a fatsoluble vitamin?
    • A. 

      Vitamin B

    • B. 

      Vitamin C

    • C. 

      Vitamin B6

    • D. 

      Vitamin E

    • E. 

      Vitamin B12

  • 32. 
    Which of the following terms means “all of the factors required for infectious disease to spread”?
    • A. 

      Chain of infection

    • B. 

      Droplet transmission

    • C. 

      Infection control

    • D. 

      Inflammatory response

    • E. 

      Nosocomal infection

  • 33. 
    Which of the following is the first line of defense in the practice of medical asepsis?
    • A. 

      Cleaning the examination table

    • B. 

      Sanitizing the patient’s skin

    • C. 

      Sterilizing instruments

    • D. 

      Washing hands

    • E. 

      Wearing gloves

  • 34. 
    The medical assistant is to obtain the history of a patient who is suspected to have active tuberculosis. For protection, which of the following articles is essential for the medical assistant to wear before entering the room?
    • A. 

      Gloves

    • B. 

      Goggles

    • C. 

      Gown

    • D. 

      Mask

    • E. 

      Laboratory coat

  • 35. 
    Substances that prevent or inhibit the growth of a fungus are known as
    • A. 

      Antiseptics.

    • B. 

      Disinfectants.

    • C. 

      Germicides.

    • D. 

      Fungicides.

    • E. 

      Analgesics.

  • 36. 
    A drug that is given sublingually is
    • A. 

      Injected into the deltoid muscle.

    • B. 

      Placed under the tongue.

    • C. 

      Administered buccally.

    • D. 

      Injected into the muscle.

    • E. 

      Injected under the intradermal layer of the skin.

  • 37. 
    High-protein diets are often used
    • A. 

      Before surgery.

    • B. 

      When an infection is present.

    • C. 

      With hypothermia.

    • D. 

      With hyperthermia.

    • E. 

      To treat hypertension, or high blood pressure.

  • 38. 
    The recommended amount of water to ingest daily is
    • A. 

      Two eight-ounce glasses.

    • B. 

      Eight eight-ounce glasses.

    • C. 

      Six eight-ounce glasses.

    • D. 

      Four eight-ounce glasses.

    • E. 

      Ten eight-ounce glasses.

  • 39. 
    Biohazardous waste must be collected in impermeable polyethylene bags that are which color?
    • A. 

      Black

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Red

    • E. 

      Yellow

  • 40. 
    Which of the following body parts is considered the lower limit of a sterile surgical field?
    • A. 

      Ankles

    • B. 

      Knees

    • C. 

      Shoulders

    • D. 

      Waist

    • E. 

      Neck

  • 41. 
    Gloves, gowns, and face shields or masks, are examples of
    • A. 

      Asepsis.

    • B. 

      Personal protective equipment.

    • C. 

      Engineering controls.

    • D. 

      Sterilization.

    • E. 

      Decontamination.

  • 42. 
    Which of the following types of infection has a quick onset and a short duration, similar to the common cold?
    • A. 

      Chronic infection

    • B. 

      Acute infection

    • C. 

      Latent infection

    • D. 

      Purulent infection

    • E. 

      Congenital infection

  • 43. 
    Which of the following are liquid at room temperature and may help reduce blood cholesterol?
    • A. 

      Saturated fats

    • B. 

      Lipids

    • C. 

      Unsaturated fats

    • D. 

      Fatty acids

    • E. 

      Amino acids

  • 44. 
    Where is the most common intramuscular injection site for infants less than seven months old?
    • A. 

      Deltoid

    • B. 

      Gluteus maximus

    • C. 

      Vastus lateralis

    • D. 

      Epidermis

    • E. 

      Dorsogluteal

  • 45. 
    What is the subscription part of a prescription?
    • A. 

      Directions for the patient

    • B. 

      Refill information

    • C. 

      Directions for the pharmacist

    • D. 

      Information that is included on the medication label

    • E. 

      The DEA number

  • 46. 
    A VIS is
    • A. 

      A form to request a DEA number.

    • B. 

      A form used to document vaccinations.

    • C. 

      A form that explains the safety and efficacy of the vaccine and adverse reactions caused by the vaccine.

    • D. 

      A form that tells the patient the immunization schedule.

    • E. 

      A form used to request controlled substances from the pharmacy.

  • 47. 
    In which of the following parts of the patient interview should the medical assistant ask the patient about drug allergies?
    • A. 

      Chief complaint

    • B. 

      Family history

    • C. 

      Past medical history

    • D. 

      Present illness

    • E. 

      Social history

  • 48. 
    Which of the following positions is more comfortable for a patient who has dyspnea?
    • A. 

      Dorsal recumbent

    • B. 

      Lithotomy

    • C. 

      Trendelenburg

    • D. 

      Semi-Fowler

    • E. 

      Supine

  • 49. 
    A newborn’s pulse is most accurately measured at which of the following sites?
    • A. 

      Behind the knee

    • B. 

      Inside the forearm

    • C. 

      Over the apex of the heart

    • D. 

      Side of the neck

    • E. 

      Side of the wrist

  • 50. 
    The dorsalis pedis pulse is detected in which of the following areas of the body?
    • A. 

      Back of the knee

    • B. 

      Inner aspect of the elbow

    • C. 

      Neck

    • D. 

      Thumb side of the wrist

    • E. 

      Top of the foot

  • 51. 
    If a mass is felt in a patient’s neck, the finding is classified as which of the following?
    • A. 

      Constitutional

    • B. 

      Diagnostic

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Objective

    • E. 

      Subjective

  • 52. 
    A patient who has orthostatic hypotension should be helped from the supine position to the sitting position to prevent which of the following?
    • A. 

      Defecation

    • B. 

      Incontinence

    • C. 

      Syncope

    • D. 

      Pyrexia

    • E. 

      Colic

  • 53. 
    The usual sequence of the general physical examination involves moving
    • A. 

      From the head toward the feet.

    • B. 

      From the center of the body.

    • C. 

      From the area where there is a complaint.

    • D. 

      From the trunk outward to the limb.

    • E. 

      From the feet toward the head.

  • 54. 
    Which of the following is an instrument used to inspect the inner structures of the eye?
    • A. 

      Audiometer

    • B. 

      Ophthalmoscope

    • C. 

      Otoscope

    • D. 

      Stethoscope

    • E. 

      Tympanometer

  • 55. 
    A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has difficulty breathing. What term indicates this condition?
    • A. 

      Bradypnea

    • B. 

      Tachypnea

    • C. 

      Eupnea

    • D. 

      Apnea

    • E. 

      Dyspnea

  • 56. 
    Which of the following would allow the medical assistant to document a firm, moveable abdominal mass?
    • A. 

      Auscultation

    • B. 

      Mensuration

    • C. 

      Palpation

    • D. 

      Manipulation

    • E. 

      Observation

  • 57. 
    Which of the following is the documentation that is gathered regarding a patient’s address and insurance information?
    • A. 

      Chief complaint

    • B. 

      Demographics

    • C. 

      Family history

    • D. 

      Medical history

    • E. 

      Medications

  • 58. 
    The physician orders the medical assistant to draw a blood sample for a hematology test and a chemistry test. What is the correct order of draw?
    • A. 

      Lavender, then gold-topped tubes

    • B. 

      Green, then lavender-topped tubes

    • C. 

      Gold, then lavender-topped tubes

    • D. 

      Light blue, then gold-topped tube

    • E. 

      Yellow, then gold-topped tubes

  • 59. 
    A positive result on a human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test in a 23-year-old woman most likely indicates which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Anemia

    • B. 

      Appendicitis

    • C. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • D. 

      Hepatitis

    • E. 

      Pregnancy

  • 60. 
    Which of the following refers to a combination of activities designed to ensure reliable and valid test results?
    • A. 

      Infection control

    • B. 

      Safety education

    • C. 

      Quality control

    • D. 

      Standard precautions

    • E. 

      Sensitivity training

  • 61. 
    Measurement of which of the following is the most effective method to monitor a patient who takes warfarin (Coumadin)?
    • A. 

      Bleeding time

    • B. 

      Clotting time

    • C. 

      Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

    • D. 

      Prothrombin time (PT)

    • E. 

      Lipid profile

  • 62. 
    Which of the following serum levels can be measured to assess a patient’s kidney function?
    • A. 

      Amylase

    • B. 

      Blood urea nitrogen

    • C. 

      Cholesterol

    • D. 

      Glucose

    • E. 

      Hemoglobin

  • 63. 
    Which of the following organisms causes yeast infection?
    • A. 

      Aspergillus

    • B. 

      Candida

    • C. 

      Escherichia

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus

    • E. 

      Streptococcus

  • 64. 
    The Mantoux test is used to determine the presence of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Mononucleosis

    • B. 

      Pregnancy

    • C. 

      Strep throat

    • D. 

      Blood in stool

    • E. 

      Tuberculosis

  • 65. 
    A stethoscope is required for a patient reporting which chief complaint?
    • A. 

      Constipation and abdominal pain

    • B. 

      Numbness and tingling in his or her right hand and fingers

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D. 

      A skin lesion that has increased in size in the last two months

    • E. 

      A sore throat

  • 66. 
    Which of the following procedures measures the amount of air moving into and out of the lungs?
    • A. 

      Bronchoscopy

    • B. 

      Intubation

    • C. 

      Spirometry

    • D. 

      Thoracentesis

    • E. 

      Nebulizer

  • 67. 
    To ensure proper ambulation, a walker should be level with the patient’s
    • A. 

      Elbows.

    • B. 

      Hips.

    • C. 

      Waist.

    • D. 

      Wrists.

    • E. 

      Axillary.

  • 68. 
    Spore test monitoring in an autoclave is used to determine
    • A. 

      Whether an autoclave has an air leak.

    • B. 

      Whether the instruments were cleaned properly before sterilization.

    • C. 

      Whether the instruments were wrapped properly.

    • D. 

      Whether the autoclave is sterilizing instruments properly.

    • E. 

      The sterility of the autoclave itself.

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is the name for the blood pressure value when the heart is contracting?
    • A. 

      Mean arterial pressure

    • B. 

      Systolic pressure

    • C. 

      Diastolic pressure

    • D. 

      Pulse pressure

    • E. 

      High heart tension

  • 70. 
    How often should medical assistants check the expiration dates on supplies stored in examination rooms?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Annually

    • E. 

      Bimonthly

  • 71. 
    Which of the following parts of a microscope holds the slide?
    • A. 

      Condenser

    • B. 

      Diaphragm

    • C. 

      Eyepiece

    • D. 

      Objective

    • E. 

      Stage

  • 72. 
    An infant with a rectal temperature of 103.6° F would have an oral temperature of
    • A. 

      100.6° F.

    • B. 

      105.6° F.

    • C. 

      101.6° F.

    • D. 

      102.6° F.

    • E. 

      98.6° F.