CDC Study Guide: Volume 4

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?

    • The United Nations.
    • The World Hunger League.
    • United Nations Children Fund.
    • The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

CDC Study Guide: Volume 4 assesses knowledge on military principles such as offensive strategies, security measures, and integrated defense operations. It focuses on key skills for Air Force training, emphasizing the application of tactical concepts in real-world scenarios.


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  • 2. 

    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is

    • Arson

    • Bombing

    • Highjacking

    • Kidnapping and hostage takin

    Correct Answer
    A. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as their tactic because it allows them to cause widespread destruction, casualties, and fear. Bombs can be placed in public spaces, transportation systems, or targeted at specific individuals or buildings. The use of explosives enables terrorists to inflict maximum damage and attract media attention, which helps them to spread their message and create a climate of fear among the population. Bombings are also relatively easy to execute, as materials for making bombs can be obtained or manufactured with relative ease.

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  • 3. 

    Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called

    • Marking

    • Stabbing

    • Flagging

    • Posting

    Correct Answer
    A. Flagging
    Explanation
    Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called "flagging." This term is commonly used in military and law enforcement contexts to refer to the practice of inadvertently exposing oneself to potential danger by letting the barrel or muzzle of a firearm stick out beyond the cover of a corner or wall. It is considered a dangerous and potentially fatal mistake, as it can give away one's position and provide an opportunity for an enemy to attack.

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  • 4. 

    Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?

    • Criminals or professionals

    • Emotanlly disturbed

    • Passive soldiers

    • Crusaders

    Correct Answer
    A. Crusaders
    Explanation
    Crusaders are individuals or groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are often driven by a strong belief in a particular cause or mission, and they are willing to take action and use various tactics to advance their agenda. This term is commonly used to refer to individuals or groups who are passionate and dedicated to a specific cause or belief.

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  • 5. 

    After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

    • Warn

    • Assess

    • Recovery

    • Anticipate

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of recovery is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves the process of regaining control and stability, repairing any damage or disruption caused by the threat, and returning to normal operations. Recovery focuses on restoring the operational capability of the friendly forces and ensuring their readiness for future missions.

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  • 6. 

    What may be the most dangerous type of improvised explosive device?

    • Static

    • Roadside

    • Vehicle-borne

    • Remote detonated

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle-borne
    Explanation
    A vehicle-borne improvised explosive device (VBIED) is considered the most dangerous type of explosive device. This is because it involves the use of a vehicle, such as a car or truck, to deliver and detonate the explosive. VBIEDs can cause significant damage and casualties due to their large size and the potential for a high amount of explosives to be used. Additionally, the use of a vehicle allows for greater mobility and the ability to target specific locations or crowds, making it a highly effective and dangerous weapon.

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  • 7. 

    What movement technique do you use when speed is required and you can’t use the rush technique?

    • Spider crawl

    • High crawl

    • Low crawl

    • Roll

    Correct Answer
    A. High crawl
    Explanation
    The high crawl is a movement technique used when speed is required and the rush technique cannot be used. It involves moving forward by keeping the body low to the ground and using the elbows and knees to crawl. This technique allows for quick movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing exposure to enemy fire. It is commonly used in military and tactical situations where stealth and speed are essential.

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  • 8. 

    Which DAGR mode uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous PVT solution?

    • Continuous

    • Standby

    • Average

    • Fix

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous
    Explanation
    The continuous mode in DAGR uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous Position, Velocity, and Time (PVT) solution. This mode constantly updates the PVT information by continuously tracking satellites, resulting in a more accurate and real-time position solution. However, due to its high power consumption, it may drain the battery faster compared to other modes.

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  • 9. 

    Where is the best position for a defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection?

    • A lone building

    • The side of a hill

    • In an open valley.

    • At a road junction

    Correct Answer
    A. The side of a hill
    Explanation
    A defensive fighting position is best located on the side of a hill because it provides natural cover and concealment. The hill offers a higher vantage point, allowing defenders to observe and engage the enemy more effectively. It also provides protection from direct fire and offers the opportunity to create obstacles and fortifications. Additionally, being on the side of a hill reduces the chances of being easily spotted by the enemy, enhancing the element of surprise and increasing the chances of successful defense.

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  • 10. 

    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as a part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

    • President only

    • Secretary of defense only

    • President or secretary of defense

    • Persident or defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    A. President or secretary of defense
    Explanation
    The president or secretary of defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as a part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. They have the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding military actions and deployments. This ensures that there is a clear chain of command and accountability in times of crisis.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • Standoff attack

    • Penetration attack

    • Information operation

    • Chemical, biological attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Penetration attack
    Explanation
    A penetration attack is a type of cyber attack where an unauthorized individual gains access to a computer system or network. This can involve exploiting vulnerabilities in the system or using social engineering tactics to trick insiders into providing access. An insider threat refers to a person within an organization who has authorized access to the system but misuses it for malicious purposes. Therefore, a penetration attack can involve an insider threat as the attacker may be someone with legitimate access to the system.

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  • 12. 

    Why does camouflage discipline become more important at night?

    • Noises seem amplified and revealing at night.

    • Darkness is a disadvantage to the enemy

    • Map reading during the darkness is easier

    • It’s not easy to detect troop movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Noises seem amplified and revealing at night.
    Explanation
    Camouflage discipline becomes more important at night because noises are amplified and revealing. In the darkness, sounds travel further and are more easily heard, making it crucial for troops to remain silent and undetected. This heightened sensitivity to noise increases the risk of being discovered by the enemy, making camouflage discipline essential for maintaining stealth and security during nighttime operations.

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  • 13. 

    When recovering the M49A1 trip flare, what is the first step using the pull pin method?

    • Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip

    • Loosen lower wing nut and remove bracket

    • Clean and dry flare and bracket.

    • Tighten the wing nut.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip
    Explanation
    The first step in recovering the M49A1 trip flare using the pull pin method is to remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip.

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  • 14. 

    When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does the squad leader position key weapons?

    • On high ground to avoid weapons fire

    • Along likely avenues of approach

    • Along resupply lines

    • Along rally points

    Correct Answer
    A. Along likely avenues of approach
    Explanation
    The squad leader positions key weapons along likely avenues of approach when using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks. This is because these areas are the most likely routes that the enemy will take to launch their attack. By positioning the key weapons along these routes, the squad leader can effectively engage and neutralize the enemy before they can reach the main defensive position. This strategy allows the squad to maintain control over the battlefield and prevent the enemy from gaining an advantage.

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  • 15. 

    What do contour lines show you when you look at a map

    • Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map

    • Location in relation to the water

    • Location anyplace on a map

    • Location on a ridge

    Correct Answer
    A. Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
    Explanation
    Contour lines on a map indicate the relief and elevation of the land. They show the shape and steepness of the terrain by connecting points of equal elevation. By closely examining the contour lines, one can determine the presence of hills, valleys, and slopes. This information is crucial for hikers, geologists, and other individuals who need to understand the topography of an area. Contour lines do not provide information about the location in relation to water or any specific point on a map, but they do help identify the location on a ridge or any other landform.

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  • 16. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 12

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be safely evacuated within a reasonable timeframe. Evacuating them within 24 hours ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.

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  • 17. 

    The Eltec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in

    • In snowy conditions.

    • Dense fog.

    • Rainy weather.

    • Bright sunlight

    Correct Answer
    A. Dense fog.
    Explanation
    The Eltec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors are designed to detect motion using infrared technology. However, dense fog can interfere with the sensors' ability to accurately detect motion. Fog consists of tiny water droplets suspended in the air, which can scatter and absorb infrared radiation. This scattering and absorption can cause the sensors to have difficulty distinguishing between actual motion and the scattered infrared signals. Therefore, the detection capability of the sensors can be degraded in dense fog conditions.

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  • 18. 

    What are the two types of ambushes?

    • Point and distant

    • Distant and near

    • Area and far

    • Near and far

    Correct Answer
    A. Near and far
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "near and far". In ambush tactics, there are two main types: near ambush and far ambush. A near ambush occurs when the attackers are in close proximity to the target, usually within a short range. On the other hand, a far ambush takes place when the attackers are positioned at a greater distance from the target, typically using long-range weapons. These two types of ambushes offer different advantages and strategies for the attackers to surprise and overwhelm their targets.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

    • Simplicity

    • Surprise

    • Security

    • Safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "security" because when commanders take measures to protect their forces, their main objective is to ensure the safety and well-being of their troops. This includes implementing strategies and protocols to minimize risks and threats, such as providing adequate training, equipment, and fortifications. By prioritizing security, commanders can create a secure environment for their forces, enabling them to focus on their mission and operate effectively.

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  • 20. 

    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaptation within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

    • 8

    • 5

    • 4

    • 2

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
  • 21. 

    The level of performance for the AN/PVS–14 depends upon the level of

    • Atmospheric pressure

    • Terrain.

    • Light.

    • AIR

    Correct Answer
    A. Light.
    Explanation
    The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device that relies on light to function effectively. The level of performance of this device is directly affected by the amount of available light in the environment. In low light conditions, the AN/PVS-14 can enhance the available light and provide clear visibility. Therefore, the correct answer is light.

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  • 22. 

    You use the bounding overwatch formation when

    • the heavy left formation cannot be used.

    • The wedge formation is not practical.

    • Enemy conact is not likely

    • Enemy contact is expected

    Correct Answer
    A. Enemy contact is expected
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "enemy contact is expected." The bounding overwatch formation is used when there is an expectation of enemy contact. In this formation, one element provides cover and suppressive fire while the other element moves forward, and they alternate in this manner to maintain security and advance. This allows for a more cautious and controlled approach in a potentially hostile environment. The other options listed do not specifically indicate an expectation of enemy contact, making them incorrect.

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  • 23. 

    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?

    • OSINT

    • COMINT

    • HUMINT

    • INFOMINT

    Correct Answer
    A. HUMINT
    Explanation
    HUMINT, or Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information in intelligence collection. This is because HUMINT involves gathering information through direct contact with individuals, such as through interviews, debriefings, or undercover operations. This type of intelligence collection allows for a deeper understanding of the human element involved in the intelligence target, providing valuable insights and context that may not be obtained through other means such as open source intelligence (OSINT) or communications intelligence (COMINT).

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  • 24. 

    To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgents operate?

    • Underground

    • In disguise

    • In small bands

    • During the hours of darkness

    Correct Answer
    A. In small bands
    Explanation
    Insurgents will operate in small bands to avoid detection by the government. By operating in small groups, they can minimize their visibility and reduce the chances of being detected by authorities. This strategy allows them to move swiftly and carry out their activities without drawing too much attention. Operating in small bands also enables them to maintain a higher level of secrecy and coordination among their members, making it more difficult for the government to track and dismantle their operations.

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  • 25. 

    An effective tool to control integrated defense operations is

    • Charts and forms.

    • Base sectorization.

    • Staff control tools.

    • Military symbology.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base sectorization.
    Explanation
    Base sectorization is the most effective tool to control integrated defense operations. This refers to dividing a military base or area into specific sectors, each with its own responsibilities and tasks. This allows for better organization and coordination of defense operations, ensuring that each sector is properly managed and monitored. By implementing base sectorization, commanders can effectively control and manage the various aspects of defense operations, leading to improved efficiency and effectiveness. Charts and forms, staff control tools, and military symbology may also be useful in supporting base sectorization, but base sectorization itself is the primary tool for controlling integrated defense operations.

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  • 26. 

    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

    • Keeping the prisoners silent is important.

    • To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters.

    • The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive.

    • CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear.

    Correct Answer
    A. The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive.
    Explanation
    The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive because it refers to the information and knowledge that the captive, detainee, or prisoner possesses and can provide. This information can be crucial for making time-sensitive decisions, such as preventing imminent threats, gathering intelligence on enemy activities, or planning rescue operations. Therefore, processing captives, detainees, and prisoners quickly is essential to extract this time-sensitive intelligence and take appropriate actions based on it.

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  • 27. 

    What is the proper method of firing from a window?

    • Kneeling and close to the window

    • Kneeling and far back from the window.

    • Standing and close to the window.

    • Standing and away from the window.

    Correct Answer
    A. Kneeling and far back from the window.
    Explanation
    The proper method of firing from a window is to kneel and be far back from the window. This position provides better stability and reduces the risk of being seen or hit by return fire. Being close to the window increases the chances of being exposed and makes it easier for the enemy to target the shooter. Kneeling also allows for better control and accuracy while firing.

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  • 28. 

    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?

    • Recovery

    • Peace

    • Peace enforcement

    • Noncombatant evacuation

    Correct Answer
    A. Noncombatant evacuation
    Explanation
    Noncombatant evacuation is the operation that is primarily conducted to evacuate US citizens. This operation is focused on the safe and efficient evacuation of civilians, including US citizens, from a potentially dangerous or hostile environment. It is aimed at protecting the lives and well-being of noncombatants during times of conflict or crisis.

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  • 29. 

    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS)

    • Remove the negative lead first.

    • Remove the positive lead first.

    • It doesn’t matter which lead you remove first.

    • Secure the positive lead first and then the negative.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the positive lead first.
    Explanation
    When disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS), it is recommended to remove the positive lead first. This is because the positive lead is typically connected directly to the vehicle's electrical system, while the negative lead is typically connected to the vehicle's chassis. By removing the positive lead first, you reduce the risk of accidentally causing a short circuit or electrical shock.

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  • 30. 

    How many way points can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN–11?

    • 99

    • 500

    • 999

    • 10000

    Correct Answer
    A. 999
    Explanation
    The AN/PSN-11 can enter and store a maximum of 999 waypoints. This means that the device has the capability to save and navigate to almost a thousand different locations.

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  • 31. 

    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large

    • 5-10

    • 10-15

    • 25-30

    • 35-40

    Correct Answer
    A. 25-30
    Explanation
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30 individuals. This size range allows for effective coordination and communication within the group, while also maintaining a level of secrecy and security. Larger cells may be more difficult to manage and keep hidden, while smaller cells may lack the necessary resources and manpower to carry out significant attacks. Therefore, the range of 25-30 individuals strikes a balance between these factors, making it an optimal size for active terrorist cells.

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  • 32. 

    Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

    • Multinational corporation.

    • Governmental organization.

    • Host nation security council.

    • Intergovernmental organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intergovernmental organization.
    Explanation
    An intergovernmental organization is created through a formal agreement between two or more governments. This type of organization is established to address and collaborate on issues of mutual concern or interest. It allows governments to work together and pool their resources to achieve common goals and objectives. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, World Health Organization, and World Trade Organization.

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  • 33. 

    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?

    • Bare base

    • Limited base

    • Main operating base

    • FOB

    Correct Answer
    A. Limited base
    Explanation
    A limited base is a base that is manned with minimal personnel but has the capability to expand into a full-scale air base operation. This means that although the base may initially have limited resources and personnel, it can quickly adapt and grow to accommodate larger operations if needed.

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  • 34. 

    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

    • Control the traffic flow plan.

    • Ensure all equipment is functioning properly.

    • Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly.

    • Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan.
    Explanation
    The DFC (Defense Force Commander) uses staff control tools during base defense operations to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. This involves communicating and coordinating with the staff members, ensuring that everyone is aware of their tasks and responsibilities, and overseeing the overall execution of the plan. The staff control tools help in maintaining effective command and control, ensuring that the operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.

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  • 35. 

    The head held thermal imager powers on in what mode?

    • Manual override

    • Manual

    • Auto

    • Sleep

    Correct Answer
    A. Auto
    Explanation
    The head-held thermal imager powers on in Auto mode, which means it automatically activates and starts functioning without any manual intervention. This mode allows the device to quickly and efficiently detect and capture thermal images without the need for the user to manually adjust any settings.

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  • 36. 

    The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and

    • Not moving 12 in away from the mall

    • Not being aware of basement windows

    • Not crouching while moving

    • Moving too slowly

    Correct Answer
    A. Not being aware of basement windows
    Explanation
    The correct answer is not being aware of basement windows. When moving past windows, it is important to be aware of all potential openings, including basement windows. Failing to do so can lead to overlooking possible points of entry for intruders or missing potential escape routes. Being aware of basement windows is crucial for ensuring overall safety and security during the movement.

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  • 37. 

    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

    • Hill

    • Saddle

    • Valley

    • Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Valley
    Explanation
    A valley is a stretched out groove in the land that is usually formed by streams and rivers. It is a low-lying area between hills or mountains, and it often has a river or stream running through it. Valleys are typically V-shaped and can be quite deep, with steep sides. They are important features in the landscape as they provide habitats for various plants and animals, as well as serving as routes for water drainage.

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  • 38. 

    Which method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is the best technique for this purpose?

    • One hand

    • Two hand

    • Center hold

    • Compass to cheek

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass to cheek
    Explanation
    The compass to cheek method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is considered the best technique for this purpose. This method involves placing the compass against the cheek and aligning it with the desired target. By doing so, the user can accurately determine the direction or bearing of the target. This method is widely preferred due to its simplicity and effectiveness in providing accurate results.

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  • 39. 

    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

    • Special forces

    • Sf

    • Joint forces

    • Air and space forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Sf
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sf" which stands for special forces. The special forces are the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations. They are responsible for coordinating and executing special operations missions, including counterterrorism, unconventional warfare, and direct action.

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  • 40. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • Department of state

    • Departiment of justice

    • Department of defense

    • Fbi

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of state
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. This is because the Department of State is responsible for the country's foreign policy and diplomatic relations, making it the primary agency to handle international incidents, including terrorism. The Department of State works closely with other agencies like the FBI and Department of Defense to coordinate efforts and gather intelligence, but ultimately takes the lead in addressing terrorist incidents that happen abroad.

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  • 41. 

    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?

    • Power

    • Ammunition

    • Comminication

    • Response freq

    Correct Answer
    A. Comminication
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "communication." Communication is the function that enables the transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators. It allows the sensors to send information to the annunciators, which then display or announce the data to the user. Without communication, the sensors and annunciators would not be able to exchange information, rendering them ineffective in their respective roles.

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  • 42. 

    On the AN/PVS–14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular?

    • Eye relief adjustment.

    • Diopter adjustment.

    • Gain control.

    • Optic knob.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eye relief adjustment.
    Explanation
    The AN/PVS-14 night vision device has an eye relief adjustment feature that allows the user to adjust the distance between their eye and the monocular. This adjustment is important to ensure that the user can comfortably view the image and maintain a clear focus. The eye relief adjustment helps to accommodate users with different eye positions and provides a comfortable viewing experience.

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  • 43. 

    What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?

    • Time

    • Money

    • Manning

    • Flexibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexibility
    Explanation
    Peacetime or contingency operations require flexibility when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC. This is because the nature of these operations can be unpredictable and may require the security forces to adapt and adjust their strategies and deployment based on the changing circumstances. Flexibility allows them to respond effectively to various scenarios and ensure the best use of their resources and capabilities.

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  • 44. 

    How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

    • Look 5 degrees above, below, or to either side rather than directly at it.

    • Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it.

    • Look 15 degrees above, below, rather than directly at it.

    • Look 20 degrees to either side only rather than directly at it.

    Correct Answer
    A. Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it.
    Explanation
    When viewing an object during limited visibility, the observer uses off center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it. This allows the observer to maximize their peripheral vision and detect any potential hazards or objects that may not be visible when looking directly at the object. By looking slightly off center, the observer can increase their field of view and improve their overall situational awareness.

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  • 45. 

    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?

    • Battery compartment.

    • Rubber eye cups

    • Glass lens

    • Sight lens.

    Correct Answer
    A. Glass lens
    Explanation
    The sacrificial window on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle is designed to protect the glass lens. The glass lens is a crucial component of the night vision goggle that allows for the transmission and amplification of light, enabling the user to see in low light or dark conditions. The sacrificial window acts as a protective barrier for the glass lens, shielding it from potential damage or scratches that could impair its functionality.

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  • 46. 

    The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use

    • Ruler

    • Compass

    • Protractor

    • Tick marks

    Correct Answer
    A. Ruler
    Explanation
    The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use a ruler. A ruler is a straight edge with marked units of length, making it ideal for measuring distances accurately. It provides a visual representation of the distance between two points and allows for precise measurements. A compass is used for drawing circles, a protractor is used for measuring angles, and tick marks are not typically used for measuring distances. Therefore, a ruler is the most appropriate tool for measuring distance in a straight line.

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  • 47. 

    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

    • Mass

    • Offensive

    • Maneuver

    • Economy of force

    Correct Answer
    A. Offensive
    Explanation
    The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, maintain freedom of action, and achieve decisive results is the offensive. This principle involves taking the initiative and actively attacking the enemy, rather than waiting for them to make a move. By being on the offensive, a military force can control the pace and direction of the battle, disrupt the enemy's plans, and maintain the element of surprise. This approach is often seen as the most proactive and aggressive way to achieve success in warfare.

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  • 48. 

    Selection of team movement techniques is based on

    • The ability of the team leader to control the team

    • Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

    • Patrol objectives.

    • The enemy threat

    Correct Answer
    A. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
    Explanation
    The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader will consider the probability of encountering the enemy and the urgency to move quickly. By assessing these factors, the team leader can determine the most appropriate movement techniques to employ during a patrol.

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  • 49. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons

    • Accident

    • Incident

    • Mistake

    • Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it implies an unintentional or unplanned event where the weapon or component is released or discarded. Accidents typically involve unforeseen circumstances or errors that lead to undesired outcomes, and in this case, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or component would be an unintended occurrence that could have serious consequences.

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  • Sep 17, 2012
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    Kayy0825
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