CDC Study Guide: Volume 4
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
- A.
Mass
- B.
Offensive
- C.
Maneuver
- D.
Economy of force
Correct Answer
B. OffensiveExplanation
The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, maintain freedom of action, and achieve decisive results is the offensive. This principle involves taking the initiative and actively attacking the enemy, rather than waiting for them to make a move. By being on the offensive, a military force can control the pace and direction of the battle, disrupt the enemy's plans, and maintain the element of surprise. This approach is often seen as the most proactive and aggressive way to achieve success in warfare.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
- A.
Simplicity
- B.
Surprise
- C.
Security
- D.
Safety
Correct Answer
C. SecurityExplanation
The correct answer is "security" because when commanders take measures to protect their forces, their main objective is to ensure the safety and well-being of their troops. This includes implementing strategies and protocols to minimize risks and threats, such as providing adequate training, equipment, and fortifications. By prioritizing security, commanders can create a secure environment for their forces, enabling them to focus on their mission and operate effectively.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
- A.
Key terrain
- B.
Defense in depth
- C.
All around defense
- D.
Aggressive defense
Correct Answer
D. Aggressive defenseExplanation
The balanced employment of firepower and patrolling achieves aggressive defense. This means that by combining the use of strong firepower and regular patrolling, a defensive strategy is implemented that actively seeks to engage and repel any potential threats. This approach aims to maintain a proactive stance, deter enemy forces, and protect key areas by actively seeking out and neutralizing any potential threats before they can cause harm.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing
- A.
Key terrains
- B.
High grounds
- C.
Avenues of approach
- D.
Pockets of resistance
Correct Answer
A. Key terrainsExplanation
Key terrains refer to strategic locations or areas that provide a significant advantage in warfare. By capturing key terrains, a force can establish control over important positions that can influence the outcome of a battle or campaign. These locations may include elevated grounds that offer better visibility and defensive positions, avenues of approach that allow for effective movement and maneuver, and pockets of resistance that can be neutralized or exploited. By dominating key terrains, a force can effectively exert its influence and place direct or indirect fire on critical resources, thereby gaining a tactical advantage.Rate this question:
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- 5.
After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?
- A.
Warn
- B.
Assess
- C.
Recovery
- D.
Anticipate
Correct Answer
C. RecoveryExplanation
After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of recovery is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves the process of regaining control and stability, repairing any damage or disruption caused by the threat, and returning to normal operations. Recovery focuses on restoring the operational capability of the friendly forces and ensuring their readiness for future missions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
- A.
Special forces
- B.
Sf
- C.
Joint forces
- D.
Air and space forces
Correct Answer
B. SfExplanation
The correct answer is "sf" which stands for special forces. The special forces are the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations. They are responsible for coordinating and executing special operations missions, including counterterrorism, unconventional warfare, and direct action.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through?
- A.
Site security control
- B.
Sf
- C.
Higher headquarters
- D.
Installation command post
Correct Answer
D. Installation command postExplanation
The base defense operations center will report COVERED WAGON incidents through the installation command post. The installation command post is responsible for coordinating and managing all activities related to the defense and security of the base. They serve as the central hub for communication and coordination between different agencies and units on the base. Therefore, it is logical for the base defense operations center to report any incidents through the installation command post.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons
- A.
Accident
- B.
Incident
- C.
Mistake
- D.
Mishap
Correct Answer
A. AccidentExplanation
The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it implies an unintentional or unplanned event where the weapon or component is released or discarded. Accidents typically involve unforeseen circumstances or errors that lead to undesired outcomes, and in this case, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or component would be an unintended occurrence that could have serious consequences.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
12
- D.
24
Correct Answer
D. 24Explanation
Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be safely evacuated within a reasonable timeframe. Evacuating them within 24 hours ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What may be the most dangerous type of improvised explosive device?
- A.
Static
- B.
Roadside
- C.
Vehicle-borne
- D.
Remote detonated
Correct Answer
C. Vehicle-borneExplanation
A vehicle-borne improvised explosive device (VBIED) is considered the most dangerous type of explosive device. This is because it involves the use of a vehicle, such as a car or truck, to deliver and detonate the explosive. VBIEDs can cause significant damage and casualties due to their large size and the potential for a high amount of explosives to be used. Additionally, the use of a vehicle allows for greater mobility and the ability to target specific locations or crowds, making it a highly effective and dangerous weapon.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as a part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
- A.
President only
- B.
Secretary of defense only
- C.
President or secretary of defense
- D.
Persident or defense force commander
Correct Answer
C. President or secretary of defenseExplanation
The president or secretary of defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as a part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. They have the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding military actions and deployments. This ensures that there is a clear chain of command and accountability in times of crisis.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?
- A.
Recovery
- B.
Peace
- C.
Peace enforcement
- D.
Noncombatant evacuation
Correct Answer
D. Noncombatant evacuationExplanation
Noncombatant evacuation is the operation that is primarily conducted to evacuate US citizens. This operation is focused on the safe and efficient evacuation of civilians, including US citizens, from a potentially dangerous or hostile environment. It is aimed at protecting the lives and well-being of noncombatants during times of conflict or crisis.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which operation may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
- A.
Foreign humanitarian assistance.
- B.
Consequence management.
- C.
Homeland defense
- D.
Recovery
Correct Answer
D. RecoveryExplanation
Recovery operation may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive. This means that the nature of the recovery operation can vary based on the conditions of the environment in which it is conducted. In a hostile environment, the recovery operation may need to be clandestine or covert to avoid detection and ensure the safety of personnel involved. In an uncertain environment, the operation may be conducted overtly to establish a visible presence and provide reassurance. In a permissive environment, the operation may be openly conducted without any need for secrecy.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?
- A.
OSINT
- B.
COMINT
- C.
HUMINT
- D.
INFOMINT
Correct Answer
C. HUMINTExplanation
HUMINT, or Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information in intelligence collection. This is because HUMINT involves gathering information through direct contact with individuals, such as through interviews, debriefings, or undercover operations. This type of intelligence collection allows for a deeper understanding of the human element involved in the intelligence target, providing valuable insights and context that may not be obtained through other means such as open source intelligence (OSINT) or communications intelligence (COMINT).Rate this question:
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- 15.
Force protection measures will be planned according with
- A.
Determination of the force
- B.
The risks to the force
- C.
Location of the force
- D.
Size of the force
Correct Answer
B. The risks to the forceExplanation
Force protection measures are planned based on the risks to the force. This means that the level of protection and specific measures taken will depend on the potential threats and vulnerabilities that the force may face. By identifying and assessing the risks, appropriate measures can be implemented to mitigate them and ensure the safety and security of the force. The determination of the force, location, and size are important factors to consider in the planning process, but ultimately, it is the risks to the force that drive the decision-making for force protection measures.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
- A.
Standoff attack
- B.
Penetration attack
- C.
Information operation
- D.
Chemical, biological attack
Correct Answer
B. Penetration attackExplanation
A penetration attack is a type of cyber attack where an unauthorized individual gains access to a computer system or network. This can involve exploiting vulnerabilities in the system or using social engineering tactics to trick insiders into providing access. An insider threat refers to a person within an organization who has authorized access to the system but misuses it for malicious purposes. Therefore, a penetration attack can involve an insider threat as the attacker may be someone with legitimate access to the system.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
- A.
Department of state
- B.
Departiment of justice
- C.
Department of defense
- D.
Fbi
Correct Answer
A. Department of stateExplanation
The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. This is because the Department of State is responsible for the country's foreign policy and diplomatic relations, making it the primary agency to handle international incidents, including terrorism. The Department of State works closely with other agencies like the FBI and Department of Defense to coordinate efforts and gather intelligence, but ultimately takes the lead in addressing terrorist incidents that happen abroad.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is
- A.
Arson
- B.
Bombing
- C.
Highjacking
- D.
Kidnapping and hostage takin
Correct Answer
B. BombingExplanation
Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as their tactic because it allows them to cause widespread destruction, casualties, and fear. Bombs can be placed in public spaces, transportation systems, or targeted at specific individuals or buildings. The use of explosives enables terrorists to inflict maximum damage and attract media attention, which helps them to spread their message and create a climate of fear among the population. Bombings are also relatively easy to execute, as materials for making bombs can be obtained or manufactured with relative ease.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large
- A.
5-10
- B.
10-15
- C.
25-30
- D.
35-40
Correct Answer
C. 25-30Explanation
Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30 individuals. This size range allows for effective coordination and communication within the group, while also maintaining a level of secrecy and security. Larger cells may be more difficult to manage and keep hidden, while smaller cells may lack the necessary resources and manpower to carry out significant attacks. Therefore, the range of 25-30 individuals strikes a balance between these factors, making it an optimal size for active terrorist cells.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?
- A.
Criminals or professionals
- B.
Emotanlly disturbed
- C.
Passive soldiers
- D.
Crusaders
Correct Answer
D. CrusadersExplanation
Crusaders are individuals or groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are often driven by a strong belief in a particular cause or mission, and they are willing to take action and use various tactics to advance their agenda. This term is commonly used to refer to individuals or groups who are passionate and dedicated to a specific cause or belief.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
- A.
Moderate
- B.
Significant
- C.
High
- D.
Low
Correct Answer
C. HighExplanation
The threat level assessment indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. This suggests that they pose a significant risk and are likely to carry out major attacks that result in high casualties.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use
- A.
Violence to achieve political goals.
- B.
Violence to achieve religious goals.
- C.
Non-violence to achieve political goals.
- D.
Use violence to achieve ideological goals.
Correct Answer
A. Violence to achieve political goals.Explanation
Insurgency is characterized by the use of violence as a means to achieve political goals. This sets it apart from other types of movements, such as religious or ideological movements, which may have different objectives or employ non-violent methods. Insurgencies typically involve armed conflict and resistance against an established authority or government, with the aim of overthrowing or changing the existing political system. The decision to use violence distinguishes insurgencies from other types of movements that may pursue their goals through peaceful means or have different motives altogether.Rate this question:
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- 23.
COIN operations require leaders to exhibit
- A.
Fairness, firmness and fight.
- B.
Logic, loyalty and leadership.
- C.
Patience, persistence, and presence.
- D.
Cooperation, cohesiveness and confidence.
Correct Answer
C. Patience, persistence, and presence.Explanation
The correct answer is "patience, persistence, and presence." In COIN operations, leaders need to have patience to deal with the challenges and uncertainties that arise. They also need persistence to continue their efforts despite setbacks and obstacles. Additionally, leaders must have presence, meaning they need to be physically and mentally present in the situation, actively involved and engaged. These qualities are crucial for successful leadership in COIN operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgents operate?
- A.
Underground
- B.
In disguise
- C.
In small bands
- D.
During the hours of darkness
Correct Answer
C. In small bandsExplanation
Insurgents will operate in small bands to avoid detection by the government. By operating in small groups, they can minimize their visibility and reduce the chances of being detected by authorities. This strategy allows them to move swiftly and carry out their activities without drawing too much attention. Operating in small bands also enables them to maintain a higher level of secrecy and coordination among their members, making it more difficult for the government to track and dismantle their operations.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
- A.
Multinational corporation.
- B.
Governmental organization.
- C.
Host nation security council.
- D.
Intergovernmental organization.
Correct Answer
D. Intergovernmental organization.Explanation
An intergovernmental organization is created through a formal agreement between two or more governments. This type of organization is established to address and collaborate on issues of mutual concern or interest. It allows governments to work together and pool their resources to achieve common goals and objectives. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, World Health Organization, and World Trade Organization.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?
- A.
The United Nations.
- B.
The World Hunger League.
- C.
United Nations Children Fund.
- D.
The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations
Correct Answer
A. The United Nations.Explanation
The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it is a global organization that brings together member states to promote peace, security, and cooperation among nations. It addresses a wide range of global issues such as human rights, sustainable development, and international conflicts. The United Nations has a significant impact on the international stage and plays a crucial role in shaping global policies and initiatives.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
- A.
Terrain issues
- B.
Logistical issues
- C.
Sovereignty issues
- D.
Transportation issues
Correct Answer
C. Sovereignty issuesExplanation
Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of sovereignty issues because they involve the control and authority of a country over its own territory and borders. These locations are points of entry and exit for goods, people, and military forces, and the sovereignty of a nation determines who has the right to regulate and control these areas.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?
- A.
Bare base
- B.
Limited base
- C.
Main operating base
- D.
FOB
Correct Answer
B. Limited baseExplanation
A limited base is a base that is manned with minimal personnel but has the capability to expand into a full-scale air base operation. This means that although the base may initially have limited resources and personnel, it can quickly adapt and grow to accommodate larger operations if needed.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
- A.
Time
- B.
Money
- C.
Manning
- D.
Flexibility
Correct Answer
D. FlexibilityExplanation
Peacetime or contingency operations require flexibility when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC. This is because the nature of these operations can be unpredictable and may require the security forces to adapt and adjust their strategies and deployment based on the changing circumstances. Flexibility allows them to respond effectively to various scenarios and ensure the best use of their resources and capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 30.
During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
- A.
Control the traffic flow plan.
- B.
Ensure all equipment is functioning properly.
- C.
Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly.
- D.
Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan.
Correct Answer
D. Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan.Explanation
The DFC (Defense Force Commander) uses staff control tools during base defense operations to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. This involves communicating and coordinating with the staff members, ensuring that everyone is aware of their tasks and responsibilities, and overseeing the overall execution of the plan. The staff control tools help in maintaining effective command and control, ensuring that the operations are carried out efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 31.
An effective tool to control integrated defense operations is
- A.
Charts and forms.
- B.
Base sectorization.
- C.
Staff control tools.
- D.
Military symbology.
Correct Answer
B. Base sectorization.Explanation
Base sectorization is the most effective tool to control integrated defense operations. This refers to dividing a military base or area into specific sectors, each with its own responsibilities and tasks. This allows for better organization and coordination of defense operations, ensuring that each sector is properly managed and monitored. By implementing base sectorization, commanders can effectively control and manage the various aspects of defense operations, leading to improved efficiency and effectiveness. Charts and forms, staff control tools, and military symbology may also be useful in supporting base sectorization, but base sectorization itself is the primary tool for controlling integrated defense operations.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What should a flight sector sketch show?
- A.
Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them.
- B.
Flight and squadron identification.
- C.
Squad leader positions.
- D.
True south.
Correct Answer
B. Flight and squadron identification.Explanation
A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identification. This is important for identifying and tracking the different flights and squadrons operating in the sector. It helps in maintaining situational awareness and coordination among the different units involved.Rate this question:
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- 33.
In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
- A.
1955
- B.
1956
- C.
1957
- D.
1958
Correct Answer
B. 1956Explanation
The Geneva Conventions became effective in 1956. These conventions are a set of international treaties that establish the humanitarian laws and rules for the treatment of victims of armed conflicts. They were adopted in 1949 and came into force in 1950. The conventions aim to protect those who are not taking part in the hostilities, such as civilians and medical personnel, and to regulate the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
- A.
Keeping the prisoners silent is important.
- B.
To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters.
- C.
The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive.
- D.
CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear.
Correct Answer
C. The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive.Explanation
The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive because it refers to the information and knowledge that the captive, detainee, or prisoner possesses and can provide. This information can be crucial for making time-sensitive decisions, such as preventing imminent threats, gathering intelligence on enemy activities, or planning rescue operations. Therefore, processing captives, detainees, and prisoners quickly is essential to extract this time-sensitive intelligence and take appropriate actions based on it.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is
- A.
20 m
- B.
30 m
- C.
40 m
- D.
50 m
Correct Answer
D. 50 mExplanation
The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is 50 m. This distance is necessary to ensure that the radio frequency signals do not interfere with the refueling process, which could potentially cause accidents or damage to equipment. By maintaining a distance of 50 m, it allows for a safe and secure refueling environment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS)
- A.
Remove the negative lead first.
- B.
Remove the positive lead first.
- C.
It doesn’t matter which lead you remove first.
- D.
Secure the positive lead first and then the negative.
Correct Answer
B. Remove the positive lead first.Explanation
When disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS), it is recommended to remove the positive lead first. This is because the positive lead is typically connected directly to the vehicle's electrical system, while the negative lead is typically connected to the vehicle's chassis. By removing the positive lead first, you reduce the risk of accidentally causing a short circuit or electrical shock.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?
- A.
Power
- B.
Ammunition
- C.
Comminication
- D.
Response freq
Correct Answer
C. ComminicationExplanation
The correct answer is "communication." Communication is the function that enables the transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators. It allows the sensors to send information to the annunciators, which then display or announce the data to the user. Without communication, the sensors and annunciators would not be able to exchange information, rendering them ineffective in their respective roles.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor?
- A.
Miles
- B.
Tms
- C.
Ess
- D.
Biss
Correct Answer
B. TmsExplanation
The security system that consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor is called TMS.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately
- A.
90 seconds
- B.
60 seconds
- C.
45 seconds
- D.
30 seconds
Correct Answer
D. 30 secondsExplanation
The self preservation method of search is a scanning method that aims to minimize the risk of being detected or compromised. This method involves quickly scanning the environment for potential threats or dangers and then moving on to a new location. The emphasis is on speed and efficiency to reduce the time spent in one area and decrease the chances of being discovered. Therefore, the self preservation method of search lasts approximately 30 seconds, allowing for swift and effective scanning without lingering in one place for too long.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
- A.
Spacing
- B.
Aiming point
- C.
Reference point
- D.
Range determination
Correct Answer
B. Aiming pointExplanation
The more effective means of delivering accurate fire is the aiming point. This is because the aiming point is the specific spot or target that the shooter focuses on when aiming their weapon. By aiming at a specific point, the shooter can ensure that their shots are directed accurately towards the intended target. This helps to increase the chances of hitting the target and achieving the desired outcome.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination?
- A.
Observer proficiency requires constant practice.
- B.
SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct.
- C.
Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance
- D.
Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observer.
Correct Answer
D. Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observer.Explanation
The greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination is that accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer. This means that if the observer has a limited view of the terrain, it will be more difficult to accurately determine the range using this method.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?
- A.
Look 5 degrees above, below, or to either side rather than directly at it.
- B.
Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it.
- C.
Look 15 degrees above, below, rather than directly at it.
- D.
Look 20 degrees to either side only rather than directly at it.
Correct Answer
B. Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it.Explanation
When viewing an object during limited visibility, the observer uses off center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it. This allows the observer to maximize their peripheral vision and detect any potential hazards or objects that may not be visible when looking directly at the object. By looking slightly off center, the observer can increase their field of view and improve their overall situational awareness.Rate this question:
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- 43.
If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaptation within how many minutes after removing the goggles?
- A.
8
- B.
5
- C.
4
- D.
2
Correct Answer
D. 2 -
- 44.
When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?
- A.
2-4 in
- B.
4-6 in
- C.
6-8 in
- D.
8-10 in
Correct Answer
C. 6-8 inExplanation
The TMS magnetic sensor head should be buried 6-8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. This depth allows the sensor to accurately detect and measure the magnetic field of passing vehicles without being affected by surface disturbances or variations. It ensures reliable and consistent readings for traffic monitoring and data collection purposes.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are
- A.
An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.
- B.
A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.
- C.
Transformer head, infrared sensor head, and transmitter.
- D.
An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.
Correct Answer
A. An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter.Explanation
The correct answer is "an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter." This answer accurately describes the components of the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor. The emitter head is responsible for emitting infrared signals, the battery case provides power to the sensor, the sensor head detects the infrared signals, and the transmitter sends the detected signals to a receiving device.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The Eltec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in
- A.
In snowy conditions.
- B.
Dense fog.
- C.
Rainy weather.
- D.
Bright sunlight
Correct Answer
B. Dense fog.Explanation
The Eltec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors are designed to detect motion using infrared technology. However, dense fog can interfere with the sensors' ability to accurately detect motion. Fog consists of tiny water droplets suspended in the air, which can scatter and absorb infrared radiation. This scattering and absorption can cause the sensors to have difficulty distinguishing between actual motion and the scattered infrared signals. Therefore, the detection capability of the sensors can be degraded in dense fog conditions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the WSTI used for?
- A.
Alarm annunciation and visual inspection.
- B.
Sensor identification and recognition.
- C.
To assess the alarms of a sensor activation.
- D.
Boundary protection.
Correct Answer
C. To assess the alarms of a sensor activation.Explanation
The WSTI (Wireless Sensor Test Instrument) is used to assess the alarms of a sensor activation. This means that it is used to evaluate and analyze the alarms triggered by a sensor when it detects a specific event or condition. The WSTI allows for the testing and evaluation of the sensor's alarm system, ensuring that it is functioning properly and accurately detecting and reporting events.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How many people are required to set up the wide-area surveillance thermal imager tripod?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Two people are required to set up the wide-area surveillance thermal imager tripod. This suggests that the setup process is not too complex or physically demanding, as only two individuals are needed. Having two people ensures that one can handle the tripod while the other adjusts and positions the thermal imager correctly. It also allows for better coordination and safety during the setup process.Rate this question:
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- 49.
From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?
- A.
Dcu
- B.
DCS
- C.
JCU
- D.
BDOC
Correct Answer
C. JCUExplanation
The operational command and controls are performed from the Joint Command Unit (JCU).Rate this question:
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- 50.
The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to
- A.
Provide full color imagery and video.
- B.
Provide communication and data to the base defense operations center.
- C.
Allow you to view the enemy from long distances.
- D.
Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system.
Correct Answer
D. Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system.Explanation
The correct answer is "assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system." The LRTI-CCTV is used to evaluate or analyze the alarms that are being signaled by the TASS (Target Acquisition Surveillance System) system. It is not primarily used for providing full color imagery, communication, or long-distance enemy viewing.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 17, 2012Quiz Created by
Kayy0825
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