CDC 4c051 Volume 3 Pre-test

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1. What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words?

Explanation

Paraphrase is the interview process skill that involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words. Paraphrasing helps the interviewer to restate or rephrase the patient's words in order to ensure accurate understanding and to show empathy. It allows the interviewer to summarize and clarify the patient's message, demonstrating active listening and promoting effective communication.

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 4C051

mental health journeyman

volume 3. Mental health evaluation and psychometric fundamentals

2. As a mental health journeyman, you have access to all of the following records for the self-referred patients except

Explanation

As a mental health journeyman, you have access to outpatient medical records, family advocacy records, and mental health records for self-referred patients. However, you do not have access to personnel records, which contain sensitive information related to an individual's employment and personal details that are not directly relevant to their mental health treatment.

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3. In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient?

Explanation

Engaging in a therapeutic relationship with a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointment would be inappropriate because it is essential to have qualified professionals with the necessary credentials to provide appropriate care for children. Without the proper credentials, the staff may not have the required expertise or training to address the child's specific needs. Additionally, the availability of appointments is crucial to ensure timely and consistent care, which may not be possible in this scenario.

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4. Which is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission?

Explanation

After a patient's admission, the diagnosis is not typically displayed on a patient status board. The purpose of a patient status board is to provide essential information about the patient's current status, such as their name, bed number, and the name of the physician overseeing their care. The diagnosis is a confidential medical information that is typically documented in the patient's medical records and shared only with the healthcare providers directly involved in their treatment. Displaying the diagnosis on a public board could compromise patient privacy and confidentiality.

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5. What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specific rights and ensuring compliance nationwide?

Explanation

The Joint Commission is at the forefront of tailoring specific rights and ensuring compliance nationwide. It is an independent, non-profit organization that accredits and certifies healthcare organizations in the United States. The Joint Commission sets standards for quality and safety in healthcare and works towards improving patient outcomes. They focus on ensuring that healthcare organizations meet specific requirements and guidelines, promoting patient rights, and ensuring compliance with regulations. By accrediting and certifying healthcare organizations, the Joint Commission plays a crucial role in ensuring the delivery of high-quality and safe healthcare services across the country.

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6. When a patient "burns bridges" what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost?

Explanation

When a patient "burns bridges" and loses support from their family, they are likely to face an obstacle to treatment. Family support plays a crucial role in a patient's journey towards recovery and well-being. It provides emotional, practical, and financial assistance, which can greatly impact the patient's motivation, adherence to treatment plans, and overall mental health. Without the support of their family, patients may feel isolated, unsupported, and may struggle to navigate the challenges of their treatment effectively. Thus, the lack of support from family can be a significant barrier to successful treatment outcomes.

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7. Who is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and proving supervision of psychological tests?

Explanation

A psychologist is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in selecting, interpreting, and providing supervision of psychological tests. This is because psychologists undergo extensive education and training in the field of psychology, which includes specialized coursework in psychological testing and assessment. They are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to administer and interpret various psychological tests, such as personality assessments, intelligence tests, and diagnostic assessments. Other healthcare providers, such as physicians, psychiatrists, and social workers, may have some knowledge of psychological testing, but psychologists are the primary experts in this area.

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8. When discussing priority of care, under which beneficiary type group does the active duty service member fall into?

Explanation

Active duty service members fall under beneficiary type group 1 when discussing priority of care. This means that they have the highest priority for receiving care and are given preference over other beneficiary types. This is because active duty service members are actively serving and may require immediate medical attention or treatment for injuries or illnesses related to their service. Providing them with priority care ensures that they can quickly return to their duties and maintain operational readiness.

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9. According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses?

Explanation

Denial is considered the most primal defense mechanism according to the Jellinek Chart. Denial involves refusing to acknowledge or accept a painful reality or truth. It is a natural and automatic response that helps individuals avoid overwhelming emotions or situations. Denial can manifest in various ways, such as denying the existence of a problem or refusing to accept responsibility for one's actions. By denying the truth, individuals can temporarily protect themselves from the discomfort or distress associated with facing difficult realities.

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10. What interview process skill requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement?

Explanation

The skill that requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement is clarification. This involves asking for further information or details to gain a clearer understanding of what is being communicated. It helps to ensure that both parties are on the same page and can effectively communicate with each other.

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11. What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patient's capabilities?

Explanation

To gain a complete grasp of a patient's capabilities, exploring the occupational/academic area of their social history is crucial. This involves understanding their educational background, employment history, and current occupation or academic pursuits. By delving into this aspect, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's cognitive abilities, problem-solving skills, and level of independence. It also provides insights into their daily routines, responsibilities, and potential stressors that may impact their overall well-being. Understanding the occupational/academic aspect helps healthcare providers tailor treatment plans and interventions that address the patient's specific needs and goals.

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12. In MI, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the

Explanation

In the context of MI (Motivational Interviewing), resistance is not seen as a problem for the patient but rather as a skill issue for the counselor. This means that the resistance displayed by the patient is viewed as a normal response, and it is the counselor's responsibility to develop the necessary skills to effectively address and work through this resistance. The counselor plays a crucial role in understanding and empathizing with the patient's concerns, and using appropriate techniques to help them overcome their resistance and move towards positive change.

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13. When should acute intoxication or signs of sever withdrawal be addressed?

Explanation

Acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms should be addressed immediately. This is because these conditions can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can lead to complications and further harm to the individual. Therefore, it is crucial to address these symptoms as soon as they are observed to ensure the safety and well-being of the person affected.

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14. What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously project emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient?

Explanation

Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's own unresolved issues or personal biases influence their perception and interactions with the patient. It is important for the interviewer to be aware of their counter-transference reactions in order to maintain objectivity and provide effective care.

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15. What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug?

Explanation

GHB, also known as gamma-hydroxybutyrate, is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug. It is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, drowsiness, and memory loss. GHB is often used recreationally and has been associated with cases of drug-facilitated sexual assault due to its ability to impair judgment and inhibit the ability to give or withhold consent. It is important to note that the use of any substance without consent is illegal and unethical.

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16. When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's

Explanation

Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. In this context, when a test does what it is designed to do, it indicates that the test is valid. Validity ensures that the test accurately assesses the construct or trait it is meant to measure, providing meaningful and accurate results. Reliability, on the other hand, refers to the consistency and stability of the test scores over time and across different test takers. Objectivity and subjectivity are not directly related to the concept of a test doing what it is designed to do.

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17. What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar?

Explanation

The correct answer is thought content. Thought content refers to the examination of the patient's thoughts to determine if they are considered odd or peculiar. This involves assessing the specific ideas, beliefs, and themes that the patient expresses, and evaluating whether they are within the normal range or if they indicate any abnormal or unusual thinking patterns.

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18. The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except

Explanation

The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on the patient's values and beliefs, as well as the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's personal values should not influence the decision-making process, as it should be focused on the best interest and preferences of the patient. Therefore, the answer is provider's values.

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19. What is the common denominator in every chemically dependent family?

Explanation

In chemically dependent families, denial is a common denominator because it is a defense mechanism that allows family members to avoid acknowledging or confronting the addiction. Denial can manifest in various ways, such as refusing to admit there is a problem, minimizing the severity of the addiction, or blaming others for the substance abuse. This denial often perpetuates the cycle of addiction and prevents the family from seeking help or addressing the underlying issues.

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20. When exploring a patient's substance use history in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage?

Explanation

When exploring a patient's substance use history, identifying any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage can be done by assessing the severity/amount used. This involves determining the quantity and intensity of the substances used by the patient, as well as examining the negative effects or consequences that have resulted from their usage. By evaluating the severity/amount used, healthcare professionals can gain insight into the potential harm caused by the substances and develop appropriate interventions or treatment plans.

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21. A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the commander-directed individual's

Explanation

A CDE (Command Directed Evaluation) allows you to contact all individuals mentioned, such as the commander, supervisor, and peers, except for the family members of the commander-directed individual. The purpose of a CDE is to gather information and feedback from relevant individuals in order to assess the performance or behavior of the commander-directed individual. Since family members may have a personal bias or lack objectivity, they are not included in the list of individuals that can be contacted during a CDE.

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22. What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse?

Explanation

Detoxification is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse because it involves removing the toxic substances from the body. This process is essential in order to stabilize the individual physically and medically before moving on to further treatment. It helps to manage withdrawal symptoms and ensures the person is in a safe and stable condition to begin the recovery process.

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23. Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients?

Explanation

The Mental Health Systems Act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients. This act focuses on improving mental health services and providing comprehensive care for individuals with mental illnesses. It aims to protect the rights of patients, promote community-based services, and enhance prevention and treatment options. The act also emphasizes the importance of patient privacy and confidentiality in mental health treatment.

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24. Which WAIS III subtest asks the patient to solve a series of math problems mentally and respond orally?

Explanation

The correct answer is arithmetic because this subtest of the WAIS III asks the patient to solve a series of math problems mentally and respond orally. The other options, digit span, addition/subtraction, and digit symbol-coding, do not involve solving math problems mentally or responding orally.

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25. Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic inspiration to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence?

Explanation

Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered, directive method that aims to enhance intrinsic motivation for change by exploring and resolving ambivalence. It involves collaborating with the patient, allowing them to have autonomy in their decision-making process, and evoking their own motivations and reasons for change. This approach helps to empower the patient and increase their commitment to making positive changes in their lives.

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26. When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned in to the

Explanation

When a patient is admitted to an MTF (Medical Treatment Facility), items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the security forces. This is because security forces are responsible for maintaining the safety and security of the facility and its occupants. By turning in such items to the security forces, they can ensure that any potential risks are properly managed and mitigated. This helps to create a safe environment for both patients and staff within the MTF.

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27. Who owns the OPR?

Explanation

The correct answer is US Air Force because the OPR, which stands for Office of Primary Responsibility, is typically owned and operated by the military. In this case, it is specifically owned by the US Air Force.

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28. Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP?

Explanation

Child placement services refers to the process of finding suitable homes or care facilities for children who are in need of alternative living arrangements, such as foster care or adoption. This involves assessing the needs of the child, conducting background checks on potential caregivers, and facilitating the placement process. While prevention services, maltreatment intervention, and special needs identification and assignment coordination process are all primary areas of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP), child placement services is not directly related to the prevention or intervention of child maltreatment, but rather focuses on finding safe and stable homes for children who have already experienced maltreatment or are at risk of it.

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29. Which behavior occurs in response to a specific test question?

Explanation

The behavior that occurs in response to a specific test question is "elicited." Elicited behavior refers to a reaction or response that is brought about by a specific stimulus or question. In this context, it suggests that the behavior is not impulsive or spontaneous, but rather intentionally triggered by the test question. The term "responsive" also aligns with this idea, as it implies that the behavior is a direct response to the question asked.

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30. The MCMI III is suitable for patients over the age of

Explanation

The MCMI III is a psychological assessment tool that measures personality traits and psychopathology. It is designed for adults and is not suitable for individuals under the age of 18. This is because personality traits and psychopathology can vary significantly during adolescence, and the MCMI III may not accurately capture these changes in younger individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is 18.

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31. Which of the following is not an attending behavior?

Explanation

Clarification is not an attending behavior because it involves seeking further information or understanding, rather than actively listening and paying attention to the speaker. Attending behaviors typically include displaying an attentive posture, using verbal following to show understanding, and making eye contact to show engagement and interest in the conversation. Clarification, on the other hand, is a communication skill used to gain clarity and ensure comprehension. It is not directly related to attending behavior, which focuses on nonverbal and verbal cues that demonstrate active listening.

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32. When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint?

Explanation

When reviewing the patient's record, recent or current medication usage can contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint. This is because certain medications can cause side effects or symptoms that may be similar to the patient's complaint, making it difficult to determine the true cause of their symptoms. Additionally, medication usage can also provide valuable information about the patient's overall health and any potential interactions or contraindications that may be affecting their current condition.

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33. Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range or emotions?

Explanation

Blunted affect refers to a primary type of affect where the patient's range of emotions is significantly reduced or diminished. This means that the patient displays a lack of emotional expression and appears to have a limited range of feelings. They may seem unresponsive or indifferent to emotional stimuli, and their emotional expressions may be muted or appear dull. This is different from inappropriate affect, which refers to emotions that are not congruent with the situation, liable affect, which refers to emotional instability, and flat affect, which refers to a complete absence of emotional expression.

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34. Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information?

Explanation

The MTF commander is responsible for approving all requests for release of information. This individual holds a position of authority within the medical treatment facility and has the final say in granting access to medical records. They are responsible for ensuring that the release of information is done in accordance with applicable laws and regulations to protect patient privacy and confidentiality.

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35. What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self-awareness?

Explanation

Knowing your boundaries is a sign of competence and self-awareness in an interview process. This skill demonstrates that the individual understands their limitations and is able to set appropriate boundaries in terms of what they are willing and able to discuss or disclose during the interview. It shows that they have a clear understanding of their strengths, weaknesses, and personal boundaries, which is essential for effective communication and maintaining professionalism in a professional setting.

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36. What should be the very limited in the MSE?

Explanation

The correct answer is subjectivity. In the context of MSE (Mean Squared Error), it is important to minimize subjectivity. Subjectivity refers to personal opinions or biases that can affect the accuracy and reliability of the documentation. To ensure objectivity, the documentation should be based on factual information and avoid excessive wordiness. By limiting subjectivity, the documentation becomes more reliable and trustworthy.

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37. It is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeymen to provide counseling for all of the following except

Explanation

Mental health journeymen are not qualified or licensed to provide counseling in legal matters, financial matters, or spiritual matters. However, they are typically allowed to provide counseling and support in parental matters, as it falls within their scope of expertise.

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38. What is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease?

Explanation

Fatty liver is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease. It is characterized by the accumulation of fat in liver cells, leading to inflammation and potential liver damage. Excessive alcohol consumption can cause the liver to become unable to break down fats efficiently, resulting in the buildup of fat in the liver. This condition is reversible if alcohol consumption is stopped, but if left untreated, it can progress to more severe liver diseases such as cirrhosis or alcoholic hepatitis.

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39. Which chemically dependent family member's role is to maintain appropriate appearances to the outside world?

Explanation

The chemically dependent family member's role as a caretaker involves maintaining appropriate appearances to the outside world. This means that they take on the responsibility of managing the family's image and ensuring that everything looks normal and functional despite the challenges caused by the chemical dependency. The caretaker may go to great lengths to hide the addiction and protect the family's reputation, often sacrificing their own needs and well-being in the process.

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40. High scores on which MCMI III scale are indicative of a patient who is incapable of functioning in the daily routine of day-to-day activities

Explanation

High scores on the major depression scale of the MCMI III indicate that a patient is experiencing severe symptoms of depression. Depression can significantly impair a person's ability to function in their daily routine and carry out day-to-day activities. Symptoms such as low energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite and sleep patterns, and feelings of hopelessness can make it challenging for individuals with major depression to engage in normal activities. Therefore, high scores on the major depression scale are indicative of a patient who is incapable of functioning in their daily routine.

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41. According to the cannot say (?) validity scale, how many omissions in the MMPI II will make the inventory highly suspect or even invalid?

Explanation

According to the cannot say (?) validity scale, if there are over 30 omissions in the MMPI II inventory, it will make the inventory highly suspect or even invalid.

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42. Which is not a key area of a patient's social history?

Explanation

The question asks for a key area of a patient's social history that is not included in the given options. The options provided are social, substance use, home environment, and occupational/academic. Among these options, substance use is the correct answer as it is not a key area of a patient's social history. Social history typically includes information about the patient's relationships, support system, cultural background, and social habits. While substance use may be a part of a patient's social history, it is not considered a key area on its own.

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43. What is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test session?

Explanation

The simplest format used for reporting a psychological test session is temporal. This format focuses on the sequence of events and the timing of the test session. It involves documenting the order in which the tests were administered, the duration of each test, and any breaks or interruptions that occurred during the session. This format allows for a clear and organized report of the test session, providing valuable information for further analysis and interpretation of the results.

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44. What would you be assessing if you asked a client about something he or she said previously during the interview?

Explanation

If you asked a client about something he or she said previously during the interview, you would be assessing their immediate recall. Immediate recall refers to the ability to remember information that was recently presented or discussed. By asking the client to recall something they mentioned earlier, you can evaluate their ability to retrieve and remember information in the short term.

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45. What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as a misperception or misrepresentation of real external stimuli?

Explanation

An illusion is a common perceptual disturbance that involves misperceiving or misrepresenting real external stimuli. It occurs when our brain interprets sensory information in a way that does not match reality. Illusions can occur in various senses, but in this case, the question specifically refers to visual illusions or optical illusions. These illusions can trick our eyes into seeing something that is not actually there or perceiving objects differently than they really are.

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46. How many minutes are allotted for each subtest on the SILS?

Explanation

Each subtest on the SILS is allotted 10 minutes.

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47. The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the

Explanation

MTF stands for Medical Treatment Facility. The given statement suggests that the mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with MTF. This means that the objectives and targets of the mental health clinic align with those of the overall medical treatment facility. The mental health clinic is likely a part of the MTF and works in coordination with it to provide comprehensive healthcare services, including mental health treatment.

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48. Patients responses on the BDI II should reflect what period of time?

Explanation

The BDI II is a widely used assessment tool for measuring depression. It asks patients to rate the severity of their depressive symptoms over a specific period of time. In this case, the correct answer is "past two weeks." This means that patients should consider their experiences and symptoms of depression over the past two weeks when responding to the questionnaire. This time frame allows for a more comprehensive assessment of depressive symptoms and provides a more accurate picture of the patient's mental health status.

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49. Who manages the SUAT information?

Explanation

AFMOA stands for Air Force Medical Operations Agency. They are responsible for managing the SUAT information. SUAT refers to the Standardized Unit Aeromedical Evacuation Training program, which is a training program for medical personnel in the Air Force. AFMOA oversees the administration and coordination of this program, ensuring that the information is properly managed and disseminated to the relevant personnel.

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50. Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the MSE?

Explanation

The question asks about the primary assessment areas of the Mental Status Examination (MSE). The MSE is a clinical assessment tool used to evaluate a person's mental functioning. It typically includes assessing appearance and behavior, cognitive functioning, and emotions. Physiological functioning, on the other hand, refers to the assessment of physical health and bodily functions, which is not a primary focus of the MSE. Therefore, physiological functioning is not a primary assessment area of the MSE.

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51. Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model?

Explanation

The term "crucial" is not an identifier for the disease model because it does not describe the characteristics or nature of a disease. "Primary," "chronic," and "fatal" are all identifiers commonly used to describe different aspects of a disease, such as its primary cause, its duration, or its outcome. However, "crucial" does not provide any specific information about a disease and therefore cannot be considered an identifier for the disease model.

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52. According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, in which type of projection does the user attribute unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others?

Explanation

According to the Jellinek Chart, disowning is a type of projection where the user attributes unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others. This defense mechanism allows individuals to distance themselves from their own negative qualities by assigning them to someone else. It is a way of avoiding responsibility and maintaining a positive self-image.

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53. Patient responses on the BAI should reflect what period of time?

Explanation

The patient responses on the BAI should reflect the past week. This means that the questionnaire is designed to capture the patient's level of anxiety over the course of the previous week. It allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's anxiety symptoms and determine the appropriate course of treatment or intervention.

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54. The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all the following except

Explanation

Amphetamines are commonly used for treating conditions like obesity, narcolepsy, and ADHD due to their stimulant effects. However, they are not typically prescribed for depression. Depression is often treated with other medications, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or tricyclic antidepressants, which target specific neurotransmitters involved in mood regulation. While amphetamines may temporarily improve mood, they are not considered a primary treatment for depression.

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55. What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?

Explanation

Inhalants have a depressant effect on the central nervous system (CNS). When inhaled, these substances slow down brain activity and decrease the functioning of the CNS. This can lead to a range of effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Inhalants also have the potential to cause long-term damage to the CNS, including memory loss, cognitive impairment, and nerve damage. Therefore, the correct answer is depressant.

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56. What format for reporting a psychological test session is the lease convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores?

Explanation

The correct answer is temporal. In a psychological test session, the temporal format for reporting would be the least convenient for the provider interpreting the test scores. This format typically focuses on the chronological order of events and may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the test results. It may be more challenging for the provider to identify patterns or make meaningful interpretations without a more organized and structured format.

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57. The BDI II is suitable for patients over the age of

Explanation

The BDI II is suitable for patients over the age of 13. This implies that the assessment tool is designed to be used with individuals who are at least 13 years old. It may not be appropriate or reliable for younger individuals, as their cognitive and emotional development may not align with the assessment's intended purpose and criteria.

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58. The WAIS III is suitable for patients over the age of

Explanation

The correct answer is 16. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) III is a cognitive ability test designed for individuals aged 16 and above. This test assesses various aspects of intelligence, including verbal comprehension, perceptual organization, working memory, and processing speed. It is considered suitable for adults and older adolescents, as it provides a comprehensive evaluation of cognitive functioning in individuals within this age range.

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59. What area of the biospycholosocial essential features explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance use/abuse?

Explanation

The area of the biospycholosocial essential features that explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance use/abuse is psychological. This refers to the study of how thoughts, beliefs, attitudes, and cognitive processes influence an individual's behavior, including their decision to use or abuse substances. Psychological factors such as stress, coping mechanisms, and cognitive biases can play a significant role in the development and maintenance of substance use disorders.

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60. What does the CQ estimate on the SILS?

Explanation

The CQ estimate on the SILS refers to the estimation of an individual's mental age. This means that the assessment is evaluating the individual's cognitive abilities and intellectual functioning in comparison to their chronological age. The mental age estimate provides insight into the individual's level of cognitive development and can be used to assess their intellectual potential and abilities.

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61. All of the following are elements to consider when interpreting the OQ-45.2 except the

Explanation

The OQ-45.2 is a measure used to assess psychological distress and functioning in patients. When interpreting the results of the OQ-45.2, various elements need to be considered. These include the total score, subscale scores, and the patient's answers to certain critical items. However, the patient's substance use is not directly related to the interpretation of the OQ-45.2 scores. Therefore, it is not an element to consider when interpreting the OQ-45.2.

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62. Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the

Explanation

DISA stands for Defense Information Systems Agency, which is an agency of the United States Department of Defense. It is responsible for providing information technology and communications support to the military and other government organizations. Since the question mentions that each SUAT (presumably referring to a data transmission) is transmitted via the internet, it is likely that DISA is the correct answer as it is responsible for managing and operating the Department of Defense's global enterprise information infrastructure, including the internet.

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63. How long is the administration time for the BAI?

Explanation

The administration time for the BAI is 5 to 10 minutes. This means that it takes between 5 to 10 minutes to complete the BAI assessment.

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64. What venue is not allowed access to medical records without the patient's consent?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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65. During which stage of alcoholism is there significant increase in frequency and amount of alcohol consumed?

Explanation

During the prodormal stage of alcoholism, there is a significant increase in the frequency and amount of alcohol consumed. This stage is characterized by the early signs and symptoms of alcohol addiction, such as an increased tolerance to alcohol, cravings, and the need to drink larger quantities to achieve the desired effect. It is a crucial stage where individuals may start to experience negative consequences of their drinking behavior, but they may not yet fully recognize or acknowledge the problem.

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66. Which element of MI validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience?

Explanation

Expressing empathy validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience. When a person feels understood and heard, it helps them feel accepted and acknowledged, even if they have conflicting feelings or resistance towards change. By expressing empathy, the MI practitioner creates a safe and non-judgmental space for the individual to explore their ambivalence and resistance, ultimately fostering a collaborative and effective therapeutic relationship.

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67. When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the following areas are you trying to determine if the patient has developed tolerance?

Explanation

When exploring a patient's substance use history, determining if the patient has developed tolerance is related to the concept of progression. Tolerance refers to the body's decreased response to a substance over time, which leads individuals to require higher doses to achieve the same effects. By assessing the progression of a patient's substance use, healthcare professionals can determine if tolerance has developed by identifying if the patient has been increasing their substance intake or using more potent substances.

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68. Which MCMI III scale is designed to measure responses which appear unusually self-disclosing?

Explanation

The MCMI III scale is designed to measure responses that appear unusually self-disclosing. Debasement refers to a tendency to present oneself in a negative light, often exaggerating weaknesses or faults. This response style can be seen as a form of self-disclosure, as individuals may reveal personal information that portrays them in a negative or self-deprecating manner. Therefore, debasement is the correct answer as it aligns with the concept of measuring unusually self-disclosing responses.

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69. In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic condition that may affect treatment?

Explanation

The recovery environment assessment dimension would be the most appropriate to identify any chronic condition that may affect treatment. This dimension focuses on the external factors that can influence an individual's recovery process, such as their living situation, support network, and access to resources. By assessing the recovery environment, healthcare professionals can identify any chronic conditions that may impact the individual's ability to adhere to treatment plans or engage in recovery activities effectively.

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What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the...
As a mental health journeyman, you have access to all of the following...
In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic...
Which is not something you would place on a patient status board after...
What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specific rights and...
When a patient "burns bridges" what obstacle to treatment have they...
Who is the only clinical care provider specifically trained in...
When discussing priority of care, under which beneficiary type group...
According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, what...
What interview process skill requires the patient to elaborate on a...
What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a...
In MI, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but...
When should acute intoxication or signs of sever withdrawal be...
What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously project emotions,...
What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug?
When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the...
What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are...
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based...
What is the common denominator in every chemically dependent family?
When exploring a patient's substance use history in which area do you...
A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the...
What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse?
Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health...
Which WAIS III subtest asks the patient to solve a series of math...
Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic...
When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace...
Who owns the OPR?
Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP?
Which behavior occurs in response to a specific test question?
The MCMI III is suitable for patients over the age of
Which of the following is not an attending behavior?
When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask...
Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly...
Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of...
What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence...
What should be the very limited in the MSE?
It is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeymen to...
What is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease?
Which chemically dependent family member's role is to maintain...
High scores on which MCMI III scale are indicative of a patient who is...
According to the cannot say (?) validity scale, how many omissions in...
Which is not a key area of a patient's social history?
What is the simplest format used for reporting a psychological test...
What would you be assessing if you asked a client about something he...
What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as a misperception...
How many minutes are allotted for each subtest on the SILS?
The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the
Patients responses on the BDI II should reflect what period of time?
Who manages the SUAT information?
Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the MSE?
Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model?
According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, in...
Patient responses on the BAI should reflect what period of time?
The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all...
What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?
What format for reporting a psychological test session is the lease...
The BDI II is suitable for patients over the age of
The WAIS III is suitable for patients over the age of
What area of the biospycholosocial essential features explores the...
What does the CQ estimate on the SILS?
All of the following are elements to consider when interpreting the...
Each SUAT is transmitted via the internet to the
How long is the administration time for the BAI?
What venue is not allowed access to medical records without the...
During which stage of alcoholism is there significant increase in...
Which element of MI validates ambivalence and resistance as being a...
When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the...
Which MCMI III scale is designed to measure responses which appear...
In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic condition...
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