CDC 4c051 Volume 3 Pre-test
CDC 4C051
mental health journeyman
volume 3. Mental health evaluation and psychometric fundamentals
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously project emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient?
- A.
Transference
- B.
Self-awareness
- C.
Verbal following
- D.
Counter-transference
Correct Answer
D. Counter-transferenceExplanation
Counter-transference occurs when the interviewer unconsciously projects emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient. This can happen when the interviewer's own unresolved issues or personal biases influence their perception and interactions with the patient. It is important for the interviewer to be aware of their counter-transference reactions in order to maintain objectivity and provide effective care.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not an attending behavior?
- A.
Display attentive posture
- B.
Use verbal following
- C.
Clarification
- D.
Make eye contact
Correct Answer
C. ClarificationExplanation
Clarification is not an attending behavior because it involves seeking further information or understanding, rather than actively listening and paying attention to the speaker. Attending behaviors typically include displaying an attentive posture, using verbal following to show understanding, and making eye contact to show engagement and interest in the conversation. Clarification, on the other hand, is a communication skill used to gain clarity and ensure comprehension. It is not directly related to attending behavior, which focuses on nonverbal and verbal cues that demonstrate active listening.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What interview process skill requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement?
- A.
Explanation
- B.
Clarification
- C.
Reflection
- D.
Transition
Correct Answer
B. ClarificationExplanation
The skill that requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement is clarification. This involves asking for further information or details to gain a clearer understanding of what is being communicated. It helps to ensure that both parties are on the same page and can effectively communicate with each other.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words?
- A.
Clarification
- B.
Paraphrase
- C.
Reflection
- D.
Transition
Correct Answer
B. ParaphraseExplanation
Paraphrase is the interview process skill that involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words. Paraphrasing helps the interviewer to restate or rephrase the patient's words in order to ensure accurate understanding and to show empathy. It allows the interviewer to summarize and clarify the patient's message, demonstrating active listening and promoting effective communication.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self-awareness?
- A.
Silence
- B.
Self-disclosure
- C.
Direction and control
- D.
Know your boundaries
Correct Answer
D. Know your boundariesExplanation
Knowing your boundaries is a sign of competence and self-awareness in an interview process. This skill demonstrates that the individual understands their limitations and is able to set appropriate boundaries in terms of what they are willing and able to discuss or disclose during the interview. It shows that they have a clear understanding of their strengths, weaknesses, and personal boundaries, which is essential for effective communication and maintaining professionalism in a professional setting.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint?
- A.
Recent or current medication usage
- B.
Previous psychiatric treatment
- C.
Information that has been removed by the patient
- D.
Emergency room visits
Correct Answer
A. Recent or current medication usageExplanation
When reviewing the patient's record, recent or current medication usage can contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint. This is because certain medications can cause side effects or symptoms that may be similar to the patient's complaint, making it difficult to determine the true cause of their symptoms. Additionally, medication usage can also provide valuable information about the patient's overall health and any potential interactions or contraindications that may be affecting their current condition.Rate this question:
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- 7.
As a mental health journeyman, you have access to all of the following records for the self-referred patients except
- A.
Outpatient medical records
- B.
Family advocacy records
- C.
Mental health records
- D.
Personnel records
Correct Answer
D. Personnel recordsExplanation
As a mental health journeyman, you have access to outpatient medical records, family advocacy records, and mental health records for self-referred patients. However, you do not have access to personnel records, which contain sensitive information related to an individual's employment and personal details that are not directly relevant to their mental health treatment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the commander-directed individual's
- A.
Commander
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Family
- D.
Peers
Correct Answer
C. FamilyExplanation
A CDE (Command Directed Evaluation) allows you to contact all individuals mentioned, such as the commander, supervisor, and peers, except for the family members of the commander-directed individual. The purpose of a CDE is to gather information and feedback from relevant individuals in order to assess the performance or behavior of the commander-directed individual. Since family members may have a personal bias or lack objectivity, they are not included in the list of individuals that can be contacted during a CDE.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which is not a key area of a patient's social history?
- A.
Social
- B.
Substance use
- C.
Home environment
- D.
Occupational/academic
Correct Answer
B. Substance useExplanation
The question asks for a key area of a patient's social history that is not included in the given options. The options provided are social, substance use, home environment, and occupational/academic. Among these options, substance use is the correct answer as it is not a key area of a patient's social history. Social history typically includes information about the patient's relationships, support system, cultural background, and social habits. While substance use may be a part of a patient's social history, it is not considered a key area on its own.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patient's capabilities?
- A.
Social
- B.
Substance use
- C.
Home environment
- D.
Occupational/academic
Correct Answer
D. Occupational/academicExplanation
To gain a complete grasp of a patient's capabilities, exploring the occupational/academic area of their social history is crucial. This involves understanding their educational background, employment history, and current occupation or academic pursuits. By delving into this aspect, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's cognitive abilities, problem-solving skills, and level of independence. It also provides insights into their daily routines, responsibilities, and potential stressors that may impact their overall well-being. Understanding the occupational/academic aspect helps healthcare providers tailor treatment plans and interventions that address the patient's specific needs and goals.Rate this question:
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- 11.
When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the following areas are you trying to determine if the patient has developed tolerance?
- A.
Frequency
- B.
Progression
- C.
Substances used
- D.
Severity/amount used
Correct Answer
B. ProgressionExplanation
When exploring a patient's substance use history, determining if the patient has developed tolerance is related to the concept of progression. Tolerance refers to the body's decreased response to a substance over time, which leads individuals to require higher doses to achieve the same effects. By assessing the progression of a patient's substance use, healthcare professionals can determine if tolerance has developed by identifying if the patient has been increasing their substance intake or using more potent substances.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When exploring a patient's substance use history in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage?
- A.
Frequency
- B.
Progression
- C.
Substances used
- D.
Severity/amount used
Correct Answer
D. Severity/amount usedExplanation
When exploring a patient's substance use history, identifying any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage can be done by assessing the severity/amount used. This involves determining the quantity and intensity of the substances used by the patient, as well as examining the negative effects or consequences that have resulted from their usage. By evaluating the severity/amount used, healthcare professionals can gain insight into the potential harm caused by the substances and develop appropriate interventions or treatment plans.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What should be the very limited in the MSE?
- A.
Documentation
- B.
Subjectivity
- C.
Objectivity
- D.
Wordiness
Correct Answer
B. SubjectivityExplanation
The correct answer is subjectivity. In the context of MSE (Mean Squared Error), it is important to minimize subjectivity. Subjectivity refers to personal opinions or biases that can affect the accuracy and reliability of the documentation. To ensure objectivity, the documentation should be based on factual information and avoid excessive wordiness. By limiting subjectivity, the documentation becomes more reliable and trustworthy.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the MSE?
- A.
Appearance and behavior
- B.
Physiological functioning
- C.
Cognitive functioning
- D.
Emotions
Correct Answer
B. Physiological functioningExplanation
The question asks about the primary assessment areas of the Mental Status Examination (MSE). The MSE is a clinical assessment tool used to evaluate a person's mental functioning. It typically includes assessing appearance and behavior, cognitive functioning, and emotions. Physiological functioning, on the other hand, refers to the assessment of physical health and bodily functions, which is not a primary focus of the MSE. Therefore, physiological functioning is not a primary assessment area of the MSE.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range or emotions?
- A.
Inappropriate
- B.
Blunted
- C.
Liable
- D.
Flat
Correct Answer
B. BluntedExplanation
Blunted affect refers to a primary type of affect where the patient's range of emotions is significantly reduced or diminished. This means that the patient displays a lack of emotional expression and appears to have a limited range of feelings. They may seem unresponsive or indifferent to emotional stimuli, and their emotional expressions may be muted or appear dull. This is different from inappropriate affect, which refers to emotions that are not congruent with the situation, liable affect, which refers to emotional instability, and flat affect, which refers to a complete absence of emotional expression.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What would you be assessing if you asked a client about something he or she said previously during the interview?
- A.
Immediate recall
- B.
Recent recall
- C.
Recent memory
- D.
Remote memory
Correct Answer
A. Immediate recallExplanation
If you asked a client about something he or she said previously during the interview, you would be assessing their immediate recall. Immediate recall refers to the ability to remember information that was recently presented or discussed. By asking the client to recall something they mentioned earlier, you can evaluate their ability to retrieve and remember information in the short term.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar?
- A.
Thought content
- B.
Thought process
- C.
Intelligence
- D.
Insight
Correct Answer
A. Thought contentExplanation
The correct answer is thought content. Thought content refers to the examination of the patient's thoughts to determine if they are considered odd or peculiar. This involves assessing the specific ideas, beliefs, and themes that the patient expresses, and evaluating whether they are within the normal range or if they indicate any abnormal or unusual thinking patterns.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as a misperception or misrepresentation of real external stimuli?
- A.
Vision
- B.
Illusion
- C.
Delusion
- D.
Hallucination
Correct Answer
B. IllusionExplanation
An illusion is a common perceptual disturbance that involves misperceiving or misrepresenting real external stimuli. It occurs when our brain interprets sensory information in a way that does not match reality. Illusions can occur in various senses, but in this case, the question specifically refers to visual illusions or optical illusions. These illusions can trick our eyes into seeing something that is not actually there or perceiving objects differently than they really are.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic inspiration to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence?
- A.
Collaboration
- B.
Autonomy
- C.
Evocation
- D.
Motivational interviewing
Correct Answer
D. Motivational interviewingExplanation
Motivational interviewing is a patient-centered, directive method that aims to enhance intrinsic motivation for change by exploring and resolving ambivalence. It involves collaborating with the patient, allowing them to have autonomy in their decision-making process, and evoking their own motivations and reasons for change. This approach helps to empower the patient and increase their commitment to making positive changes in their lives.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which element of MI validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience?
- A.
Express empathy
- B.
Roll with resistance
- C.
Develop discrepancy
- D.
Support self-efficacy
Correct Answer
A. Express empathyExplanation
Expressing empathy validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience. When a person feels understood and heard, it helps them feel accepted and acknowledged, even if they have conflicting feelings or resistance towards change. By expressing empathy, the MI practitioner creates a safe and non-judgmental space for the individual to explore their ambivalence and resistance, ultimately fostering a collaborative and effective therapeutic relationship.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In MI, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the
- A.
Treatment team
- B.
Commander
- C.
Counselor
- D.
Family
Correct Answer
C. CounselorExplanation
In the context of MI (Motivational Interviewing), resistance is not seen as a problem for the patient but rather as a skill issue for the counselor. This means that the resistance displayed by the patient is viewed as a normal response, and it is the counselor's responsibility to develop the necessary skills to effectively address and work through this resistance. The counselor plays a crucial role in understanding and empathizing with the patient's concerns, and using appropriate techniques to help them overcome their resistance and move towards positive change.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When should acute intoxication or signs of sever withdrawal be addressed?
- A.
24 hours
- B.
72 hours
- C.
One week
- D.
Immediately
Correct Answer
D. ImmediatelyExplanation
Acute intoxication or severe withdrawal symptoms should be addressed immediately. This is because these conditions can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can lead to complications and further harm to the individual. Therefore, it is crucial to address these symptoms as soon as they are observed to ensure the safety and well-being of the person affected.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse?
- A.
Detoxification
- B.
Readiness to change
- C.
Recovery environment
- D.
Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
A. DetoxificationExplanation
Detoxification is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse because it involves removing the toxic substances from the body. This process is essential in order to stabilize the individual physically and medically before moving on to further treatment. It helps to manage withdrawal symptoms and ensures the person is in a safe and stable condition to begin the recovery process.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic condition that may affect treatment?
- A.
Detoxification
- B.
Readiness to change
- C.
Recovery environment
- D.
Biomedical conditions and complications
Correct Answer
C. Recovery environmentExplanation
The recovery environment assessment dimension would be the most appropriate to identify any chronic condition that may affect treatment. This dimension focuses on the external factors that can influence an individual's recovery process, such as their living situation, support network, and access to resources. By assessing the recovery environment, healthcare professionals can identify any chronic conditions that may impact the individual's ability to adhere to treatment plans or engage in recovery activities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When discussing priority of care, under which beneficiary type group does the active duty service member fall into?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
Active duty service members fall under beneficiary type group 1 when discussing priority of care. This means that they have the highest priority for receiving care and are given preference over other beneficiary types. This is because active duty service members are actively serving and may require immediate medical attention or treatment for injuries or illnesses related to their service. Providing them with priority care ensures that they can quickly return to their duties and maintain operational readiness.Rate this question:
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- 26.
In which example would it be inappropriate to engage in a therapeutic relationship with a patient?
- A.
Evaluation for depression with credentialed staff and available appointment
- B.
Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointment
- C.
Evaluation for security clearance with credentialed staff and available appointments
- D.
Evaluation of dependent spouse with credentialed staff and limited appointment availability
Correct Answer
B. Evaluation of dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointmentExplanation
Engaging in a therapeutic relationship with a dependent child without credentialed staff and available appointment would be inappropriate because it is essential to have qualified professionals with the necessary credentials to provide appropriate care for children. Without the proper credentials, the staff may not have the required expertise or training to address the child's specific needs. Additionally, the availability of appointments is crucial to ensure timely and consistent care, which may not be possible in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which is not something you would place on a patient status board after admission?
- A.
Name of the physician
- B.
Patient's name
- C.
Bed number
- D.
Diagnosis
Correct Answer
D. DiagnosisExplanation
After a patient's admission, the diagnosis is not typically displayed on a patient status board. The purpose of a patient status board is to provide essential information about the patient's current status, such as their name, bed number, and the name of the physician overseeing their care. The diagnosis is a confidential medical information that is typically documented in the patient's medical records and shared only with the healthcare providers directly involved in their treatment. Displaying the diagnosis on a public board could compromise patient privacy and confidentiality.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When a patient is admitted to an MTF, items which are deemed a menace to safety or health are turned in to the
- A.
Security forces
- B.
Inpatient unit NCOIC
- C.
A&D office
- D.
MTF commander
Correct Answer
A. Security forcesExplanation
When a patient is admitted to an MTF (Medical Treatment Facility), items that are considered a threat to safety or health are handed over to the security forces. This is because security forces are responsible for maintaining the safety and security of the facility and its occupants. By turning in such items to the security forces, they can ensure that any potential risks are properly managed and mitigated. This helps to create a safe environment for both patients and staff within the MTF.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based upon all of the following except
- A.
Patient's values
- B.
Patient's beliefs
- C.
Provider's values
- D.
Provider's clinical knowledge
Correct Answer
C. Provider's valuesExplanation
The consent for treatment and participative decision making is based on the patient's values and beliefs, as well as the provider's clinical knowledge. However, the provider's personal values should not influence the decision-making process, as it should be focused on the best interest and preferences of the patient. Therefore, the answer is provider's values.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who owns the OPR?
- A.
Patient
- B.
Guardian
- C.
US Air Force
- D.
MTF commander
Correct Answer
C. US Air ForceExplanation
The correct answer is US Air Force because the OPR, which stands for Office of Primary Responsibility, is typically owned and operated by the military. In this case, it is specifically owned by the US Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What venue is not allowed access to medical records without the patient's consent?
- A.
OSI
- B.
Proper and legal need
- C.
Commander-directed
- D.
Public interest
Correct Answer
C. Commander-directed -
- 32.
Who is responsible for approving all requests for release of information?
- A.
MTF commander
- B.
Mental health services OIC
- C.
Outpatient medical records OIC
- D.
Mental health services NCOIC
Correct Answer
A. MTF commanderExplanation
The MTF commander is responsible for approving all requests for release of information. This individual holds a position of authority within the medical treatment facility and has the final say in granting access to medical records. They are responsible for ensuring that the release of information is done in accordance with applicable laws and regulations to protect patient privacy and confidentiality.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which is not one of the three primary areas of the FAP?
- A.
Prevention services
- B.
Child placement services
- C.
Maltreatment intervention
- D.
Special needs identification and assignment coordination process
Correct Answer
B. Child placement servicesExplanation
Child placement services refers to the process of finding suitable homes or care facilities for children who are in need of alternative living arrangements, such as foster care or adoption. This involves assessing the needs of the child, conducting background checks on potential caregivers, and facilitating the placement process. While prevention services, maltreatment intervention, and special needs identification and assignment coordination process are all primary areas of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP), child placement services is not directly related to the prevention or intervention of child maltreatment, but rather focuses on finding safe and stable homes for children who have already experienced maltreatment or are at risk of it.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with the
- A.
ABW
- B.
MAJCOM
- C.
MTF
- D.
AF SG
Correct Answer
C. MTFExplanation
MTF stands for Medical Treatment Facility. The given statement suggests that the mental health clinic's goals are usually in tandem with MTF. This means that the objectives and targets of the mental health clinic align with those of the overall medical treatment facility. The mental health clinic is likely a part of the MTF and works in coordination with it to provide comprehensive healthcare services, including mental health treatment.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which act, passed by congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients?
- A.
Mental health privacy act
- B.
Mental health systems act
- C.
Behavioral health systems act
- D.
Behavioral health privacy act
Correct Answer
B. Mental health systems actExplanation
The Mental Health Systems Act, passed by Congress, guarantees the rights of mental health patients. This act focuses on improving mental health services and providing comprehensive care for individuals with mental illnesses. It aims to protect the rights of patients, promote community-based services, and enhance prevention and treatment options. The act also emphasizes the importance of patient privacy and confidentiality in mental health treatment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What organization is at the forefront of tailoring specific rights and ensuring compliance nationwide?
- A.
IMRHA
- B.
CARF
- C.
NMHA
- D.
The joint commission
Correct Answer
D. The joint commissionExplanation
The Joint Commission is at the forefront of tailoring specific rights and ensuring compliance nationwide. It is an independent, non-profit organization that accredits and certifies healthcare organizations in the United States. The Joint Commission sets standards for quality and safety in healthcare and works towards improving patient outcomes. They focus on ensuring that healthcare organizations meet specific requirements and guidelines, promoting patient rights, and ensuring compliance with regulations. By accrediting and certifying healthcare organizations, the Joint Commission plays a crucial role in ensuring the delivery of high-quality and safe healthcare services across the country.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following is not an identifier for the disease model?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Chronic
- C.
Crucial
- D.
Fatal
Correct Answer
C. CrucialExplanation
The term "crucial" is not an identifier for the disease model because it does not describe the characteristics or nature of a disease. "Primary," "chronic," and "fatal" are all identifiers commonly used to describe different aspects of a disease, such as its primary cause, its duration, or its outcome. However, "crucial" does not provide any specific information about a disease and therefore cannot be considered an identifier for the disease model.Rate this question:
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- 38.
According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, what is the most primal of all defenses?
- A.
Denial
- B.
Projection
- C.
Rationalization
- D.
Conflict minimizaion
Correct Answer
A. DenialExplanation
Denial is considered the most primal defense mechanism according to the Jellinek Chart. Denial involves refusing to acknowledge or accept a painful reality or truth. It is a natural and automatic response that helps individuals avoid overwhelming emotions or situations. Denial can manifest in various ways, such as denying the existence of a problem or refusing to accept responsibility for one's actions. By denying the truth, individuals can temporarily protect themselves from the discomfort or distress associated with facing difficult realities.Rate this question:
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- 39.
According to the "Jellinek Chart" regarding progressive defenses, in which type of projection does the user attribute unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others?
- A.
Disowning
- B.
Assimilation
- C.
Rationalization
- D.
Obsessional focusing
Correct Answer
A. DisowningExplanation
According to the Jellinek Chart, disowning is a type of projection where the user attributes unwanted and unacceptable aspects of themselves to others. This defense mechanism allows individuals to distance themselves from their own negative qualities by assigning them to someone else. It is a way of avoiding responsibility and maintaining a positive self-image.Rate this question:
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- 40.
During which stage of alcoholism is there significant increase in frequency and amount of alcohol consumed?
- A.
Symptomatic
- B.
Prodormal
- C.
Chronic
- D.
Crucial
Correct Answer
B. ProdormalExplanation
During the prodormal stage of alcoholism, there is a significant increase in the frequency and amount of alcohol consumed. This stage is characterized by the early signs and symptoms of alcohol addiction, such as an increased tolerance to alcohol, cravings, and the need to drink larger quantities to achieve the desired effect. It is a crucial stage where individuals may start to experience negative consequences of their drinking behavior, but they may not yet fully recognize or acknowledge the problem.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When a patient "burns bridges" what obstacle to treatment have they likely lost?
- A.
Lack of multidisciplinary team investment
- B.
Lack of support from family
- C.
Cumbersome resources
- D.
Cumbersome process
Correct Answer
B. Lack of support from familyExplanation
When a patient "burns bridges" and loses support from their family, they are likely to face an obstacle to treatment. Family support plays a crucial role in a patient's journey towards recovery and well-being. It provides emotional, practical, and financial assistance, which can greatly impact the patient's motivation, adherence to treatment plans, and overall mental health. Without the support of their family, patients may feel isolated, unsupported, and may struggle to navigate the challenges of their treatment effectively. Thus, the lack of support from family can be a significant barrier to successful treatment outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 42.
It is considered unethical or illegal for mental health journeymen to provide counseling for all of the following except
- A.
Financial
- B.
Parental
- C.
Spiritual
- D.
Legal
Correct Answer
B. ParentalExplanation
Mental health journeymen are not qualified or licensed to provide counseling in legal matters, financial matters, or spiritual matters. However, they are typically allowed to provide counseling and support in parental matters, as it falls within their scope of expertise.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What area of the biospycholosocial essential features explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance use/abuse?
- A.
Psychological
- B.
Sociocultural
- C.
Biological
- D.
Spiritual
Correct Answer
A. PsychologicalExplanation
The area of the biospycholosocial essential features that explores the cognitive factors which may have precipitated substance use/abuse is psychological. This refers to the study of how thoughts, beliefs, attitudes, and cognitive processes influence an individual's behavior, including their decision to use or abuse substances. Psychological factors such as stress, coping mechanisms, and cognitive biases can play a significant role in the development and maintenance of substance use disorders.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The legal medical purpose for amphetamines includes treatment for all the following except
- A.
Obesity
- B.
Depression
- C.
Narcoleopsy
- D.
ADHD
Correct Answer
B. DepressionExplanation
Amphetamines are commonly used for treating conditions like obesity, narcolepsy, and ADHD due to their stimulant effects. However, they are not typically prescribed for depression. Depression is often treated with other medications, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or tricyclic antidepressants, which target specific neurotransmitters involved in mood regulation. While amphetamines may temporarily improve mood, they are not considered a primary treatment for depression.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What effects do inhalants have on the CNS?
- A.
Stimulant
- B.
Anesthetic
- C.
Depressant
- D.
Hallucinogen
Correct Answer
C. DepressantExplanation
Inhalants have a depressant effect on the central nervous system (CNS). When inhaled, these substances slow down brain activity and decrease the functioning of the CNS. This can lead to a range of effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Inhalants also have the potential to cause long-term damage to the CNS, including memory loss, cognitive impairment, and nerve damage. Therefore, the correct answer is depressant.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug?
- A.
MDMA
- B.
GHB
- C.
DXM
- D.
Katemine
Correct Answer
B. GHBExplanation
GHB, also known as gamma-hydroxybutyrate, is sometimes referred to as the "date rape" drug. It is a central nervous system depressant that can cause sedation, drowsiness, and memory loss. GHB is often used recreationally and has been associated with cases of drug-facilitated sexual assault due to its ability to impair judgment and inhibit the ability to give or withhold consent. It is important to note that the use of any substance without consent is illegal and unethical.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease?
- A.
Cirrhorsis
- B.
Fatty liver
- C.
Inflamed liver
- D.
Alcoholic hepatitis
Correct Answer
B. Fatty liverExplanation
Fatty liver is the most common form of alcohol-induced liver disease. It is characterized by the accumulation of fat in liver cells, leading to inflammation and potential liver damage. Excessive alcohol consumption can cause the liver to become unable to break down fats efficiently, resulting in the buildup of fat in the liver. This condition is reversible if alcohol consumption is stopped, but if left untreated, it can progress to more severe liver diseases such as cirrhosis or alcoholic hepatitis.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which chemically dependent family member's role is to maintain appropriate appearances to the outside world?
- A.
Hero
- B.
Caretaker
- C.
Scapegoat
- D.
Joker/mascot
Correct Answer
B. CaretakerExplanation
The chemically dependent family member's role as a caretaker involves maintaining appropriate appearances to the outside world. This means that they take on the responsibility of managing the family's image and ensuring that everything looks normal and functional despite the challenges caused by the chemical dependency. The caretaker may go to great lengths to hide the addiction and protect the family's reputation, often sacrificing their own needs and well-being in the process.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the common denominator in every chemically dependent family?
- A.
Guilt
- B.
Denial
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Strained relationships
Correct Answer
B. DenialExplanation
In chemically dependent families, denial is a common denominator because it is a defense mechanism that allows family members to avoid acknowledging or confronting the addiction. Denial can manifest in various ways, such as refusing to admit there is a problem, minimizing the severity of the addiction, or blaming others for the substance abuse. This denial often perpetuates the cycle of addiction and prevents the family from seeking help or addressing the underlying issues.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When a test does what it is designed to do, this is a measure of the test's
- A.
Validity
- B.
Reliability
- C.
Objectivity
- D.
Subjectivity
Correct Answer
A. ValidityExplanation
Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. In this context, when a test does what it is designed to do, it indicates that the test is valid. Validity ensures that the test accurately assesses the construct or trait it is meant to measure, providing meaningful and accurate results. Reliability, on the other hand, refers to the consistency and stability of the test scores over time and across different test takers. Objectivity and subjectivity are not directly related to the concept of a test doing what it is designed to do.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 19, 2010Quiz Created by
Rubiom
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