CDC 4c051 Volume 3 Pre-test

69 Questions | Total Attempts: 768

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CDC 4C051mental health journeymanvolume 3. Mental health evaluation and psychometric fundamentals


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What occurs when the interviewer unconsciously project emotions, thoughts, and expectations from past life experiences onto the patient?
    • A. 

      Transference

    • B. 

      Self-awareness

    • C. 

      Verbal following

    • D. 

      Counter-transference

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is not an attending behavior?
    • A. 

      Display attentive posture

    • B. 

      Use verbal following

    • C. 

      Clarification

    • D. 

      Make eye contact

  • 3. 
    What interview process skill requires the patient to elaborate on a vague, ambiguous, or implied statement?
    • A. 

      Explanation

    • B. 

      Clarification

    • C. 

      Reflection

    • D. 

      Transition

  • 4. 
    What interview process skill involves selective attention given to the cognitive parts of the patient's message that are translated in the interviewer's own words?
    • A. 

      Clarification

    • B. 

      Paraphrase

    • C. 

      Reflection

    • D. 

      Transition

  • 5. 
    What interview process skill, when employed, is a sign of competence and self-awareness?
    • A. 

      Silence

    • B. 

      Self-disclosure

    • C. 

      Direction and control

    • D. 

      Know your boundaries

  • 6. 
    When reviewing the patient record what can you contribute to or mask the patient's present complaint?
    • A. 

      Recent or current medication usage

    • B. 

      Previous psychiatric treatment

    • C. 

      Information that has been removed by the patient

    • D. 

      Emergency room visits

  • 7. 
    As a mental health journeyman, you have access to all of the following records for the self-referred patients except
    • A. 

      Outpatient medical records

    • B. 

      Family advocacy records

    • C. 

      Mental health records

    • D. 

      Personnel records

  • 8. 
    A CDE allows you to contact all of the following except the commander-directed individual's
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Family

    • D. 

      Peers

  • 9. 
    Which is not a key area of a patient's social history?
    • A. 

      Social

    • B. 

      Substance use

    • C. 

      Home environment

    • D. 

      Occupational/academic

  • 10. 
    What area of the social history is explored in depth to gain a complete grasp of your patient's capabilities?
    • A. 

      Social

    • B. 

      Substance use

    • C. 

      Home environment

    • D. 

      Occupational/academic

  • 11. 
    When exploring a patient's substance use history, in which of the following areas are you trying to determine if the patient has developed tolerance?
    • A. 

      Frequency

    • B. 

      Progression

    • C. 

      Substances used

    • D. 

      Severity/amount used

  • 12. 
    When exploring a patient's substance use history in which area do you identify any adverse consequences experienced from substance usage?
    • A. 

      Frequency

    • B. 

      Progression

    • C. 

      Substances used

    • D. 

      Severity/amount used

  • 13. 
    What should be the very limited in the MSE?
    • A. 

      Documentation

    • B. 

      Subjectivity

    • C. 

      Objectivity

    • D. 

      Wordiness

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is not a primary assessment area of the MSE?
    • A. 

      Appearance and behavior

    • B. 

      Physiological functioning

    • C. 

      Cognitive functioning

    • D. 

      Emotions

  • 15. 
    Which primary type of affect refers to the patient who is grossly diminished in his or her range or emotions?
    • A. 

      Inappropriate

    • B. 

      Blunted

    • C. 

      Liable

    • D. 

      Flat

  • 16. 
    What would you be assessing if you asked a client about something he or she said previously during the interview?
    • A. 

      Immediate recall

    • B. 

      Recent recall

    • C. 

      Recent memory

    • D. 

      Remote memory

  • 17. 
    What area of the MSE examines whether the patient's thoughts are considered odd or peculiar?
    • A. 

      Thought content

    • B. 

      Thought process

    • C. 

      Intelligence

    • D. 

      Insight

  • 18. 
    What common perceptual disturbance is categorized as a misperception or misrepresentation of real external stimuli?
    • A. 

      Vision

    • B. 

      Illusion

    • C. 

      Delusion

    • D. 

      Hallucination

  • 19. 
    Which is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic inspiration to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence?
    • A. 

      Collaboration

    • B. 

      Autonomy

    • C. 

      Evocation

    • D. 

      Motivational interviewing

  • 20. 
    Which element of MI validates ambivalence and resistance as being a normal part of the human experience?
    • A. 

      Express empathy

    • B. 

      Roll with resistance

    • C. 

      Develop discrepancy

    • D. 

      Support self-efficacy

  • 21. 
    In MI, resistance is not viewed as a problem for the patient, but rather it is a skill issue for the
    • A. 

      Treatment team

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Counselor

    • D. 

      Family

  • 22. 
    When should acute intoxication or signs of sever withdrawal be addressed?
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      72 hours

    • C. 

      One week

    • D. 

      Immediately

  • 23. 
    What is the first dimension of assessment for substance abuse?
    • A. 

      Detoxification

    • B. 

      Readiness to change

    • C. 

      Recovery environment

    • D. 

      Biomedical conditions and complications

  • 24. 
    In which assessment dimension would you identify any chronic condition that may affect treatment?
    • A. 

      Detoxification

    • B. 

      Readiness to change

    • C. 

      Recovery environment

    • D. 

      Biomedical conditions and complications

  • 25. 
    When discussing priority of care, under which beneficiary type group does the active duty service member fall into?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

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