CDC 4c051 Volume 2 Pre-test

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 4C051

Mental Health Service Journeyman

Volume 2. Mental Health Fundamentals


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which term is not a factor that determines one's ersonality?

    • A.

      Hereditary

    • B.

      Maturation

    • C.

      Environmnetal

    • D.

      Developmental

    Correct Answer
    B. Maturation
    Explanation
    Maturation refers to the natural process of growth and development that occurs over time. It is not a factor that determines one's personality because personality is primarily influenced by hereditary traits and environmental factors. While maturation can affect certain aspects of behavior and cognition, it does not directly determine one's personality traits and characteristics.

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  • 2. 

    Which type of genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child conducts himself or herself in a manner which solicts positve responses from others?

    • A.

      Active

    • B.

      Present

    • C.

      Passive

    • D.

      Evocative

    Correct Answer
    D. Evocative
    Explanation
    Evocative genetic environmental correlation occurs when a child's genetic traits elicit certain responses from their environment. In this case, the child's behavior solicits positive responses from others. This means that the child's genetic predisposition influences how they interact with their environment, causing others to respond positively to their behavior.

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  • 3. 

    Which term is considered a prenatal influence which can cause damage to a fetus?

    • A.

      Accident

    • B.

      Teratogens

    • C.

      Poisoning

    • D.

      Anoxia

    Correct Answer
    B. Teratogens
    Explanation
    Teratogens are substances or factors that can cause harm or abnormalities to a developing fetus during pregnancy. They can include drugs, alcohol, certain infections, radiation, and environmental pollutants. These substances can interfere with the normal development of the fetus, leading to physical or cognitive impairments. Therefore, teratogens are considered a prenatal influence that can cause damage to a fetus.

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  • 4. 

    At what month is the palmer grasp reflex lost?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    C. 12
    Explanation
    The Palmer Grasp Reflex is a primitive reflex that occurs in infants. It is characterized by the baby's automatic response to grasp objects placed in their hand. This reflex is typically present from birth and starts to diminish around 3-4 months of age. By around 6 months, the reflex is usually fully integrated. Therefore, the correct answer is 12, as by this age, the Palmer Grasp Reflex is expected to be lost.

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  • 5. 

    By the end of the second year a chil's vocabulary consists of how many words?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    B. 50
    Explanation
    By the end of the second year, a child's vocabulary consists of 50 words. This is because by this age, children have been exposed to a variety of words and have started to develop their language skills. They have learned basic words related to their daily routine, objects, and people around them. While the number of words may vary from child to child, 50 is a reasonable estimate for the average vocabulary size at this stage of development.

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  • 6. 

    By the time a child reaches 5 years of age their vocabulary consists of how many words?

    • A.

      1000

    • B.

      1500

    • C.

      2000

    • D.

      2500

    Correct Answer
    D. 2500
    Explanation
    By the time a child reaches 5 years of age, their vocabulary consists of approximately 2500 words. This is because children's language skills develop rapidly during their early years, and by the age of 5, they have been exposed to a wide range of words and have acquired a significant vocabulary. This milestone in vocabulary development is important for their communication and cognitive development.

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  • 7. 

    Around what age do boys experience a growth spurt?

    • A.

      10-11

    • B.

      11-12

    • C.

      12-13

    • D.

      13-14

    Correct Answer
    D. 13-14
    Explanation
    Boys typically experience a growth spurt around the age of 13-14. During this time, they undergo a rapid increase in height and weight as their bodies go through puberty. This growth spurt is caused by hormonal changes, particularly an increase in testosterone levels. It is common for boys to grow several inches taller during this period.

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  • 8. 

    During what stage of development do children begin to question perental rules?

    • A.

      Infancy

    • B.

      Late childhood

    • C.

      Early childhood

    • D.

      Middle childhood

    Correct Answer
    B. Late childhood
    Explanation
    During late childhood, children begin to question parental rules as they start to develop their own sense of autonomy and independence. At this stage, they are more capable of reasoning, have a better understanding of cause and effect, and are able to think critically. They may challenge rules and seek explanations from their parents, as they strive to assert their own opinions and make sense of the world around them. This questioning behavior is a normal part of their cognitive and emotional development during late childhood.

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  • 9. 

    The majority of physical and cognitive development is completed by what developmental stage?

    • A.

      Adulthood

    • B.

      Middle age

    • C.

      Late adulthood

    • D.

      Young adulthood

    Correct Answer
    D. Young adulthood
    Explanation
    During young adulthood, individuals experience significant physical and cognitive development. This stage is characterized by the peak of physical strength, endurance, and overall health. Cognitive abilities, such as problem-solving, decision-making, and abstract thinking, also reach their highest levels during this period. Therefore, it can be concluded that the majority of physical and cognitive development is completed by young adulthood.

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  • 10. 

    What is considerd the healthiest developmental stage of life?

    • A.

      Adulthood

    • B.

      Middle age

    • C.

      Late adulthood

    • D.

      Young adulthood

    Correct Answer
    D. Young adulthood
    Explanation
    Young adulthood is considered the healthiest developmental stage of life because during this period, individuals typically have the highest level of physical fitness, energy, and resilience. They are less prone to chronic illnesses and have a lower risk of developing age-related diseases compared to other stages of life. Additionally, young adults often engage in healthy behaviors such as regular exercise, balanced diet, and good sleep patterns, which further contribute to their overall health and well-being.

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  • 11. 

    What developmental stage is considered a very productive time for work and family?

    • A.

      Adulthood

    • B.

      Middle age

    • C.

      Late adulthood

    • D.

      Young adulthood

    Correct Answer
    A. Adulthood
    Explanation
    Adulthood is considered a very productive time for work and family because individuals in this stage of life typically have more stability, maturity, and experience. They have completed their education, established their careers, and have the financial means to support a family. Additionally, they have gained valuable life skills and are better equipped to handle the responsibilities and challenges that come with balancing work and family life.

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  • 12. 

    At what age does menopause typically occur in women?

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      65

    Correct Answer
    B. 50
    Explanation
    Menopause typically occurs in women around the age of 50. During menopause, a woman's reproductive system gradually stops producing eggs, leading to the end of menstruation. This stage marks the end of a woman's fertility and is accompanied by various symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and changes in menstrual patterns. While the exact age of menopause can vary from person to person, the average age is around 50.

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  • 13. 

    During which dimension of self-concept is sense of purpose to the self gained?

    • A.

      Self-esteem

    • B.

      Self-recognition

    • C.

      Personal competence

    • D.

      Aspirations and goals

    Correct Answer
    D. Aspirations and goals
    Explanation
    The sense of purpose to the self is gained during the dimension of self-concept known as aspirations and goals. This dimension refers to the individual's desires, ambitions, and objectives in life. It encompasses the personal aspirations and goals that shape a person's sense of purpose and direction.

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  • 14. 

    Who shapes a child's attitudes and beliefs about himself and herself and the world?

    • A.

      Family

    • B.

      School

    • C.

      Religion

    • D.

      Parents/teachers

    Correct Answer
    D. Parents/teachers
    Explanation
    Parents and teachers play a crucial role in shaping a child's attitudes and beliefs about themselves and the world. They are the primary influencers in a child's life, providing guidance, support, and education. Parents are the first teachers a child encounters, and they have the responsibility to instill values, morals, and self-esteem. Teachers, on the other hand, have a significant impact on a child's social and intellectual development, as they provide formal education and help shape their worldview. Together, parents and teachers create a nurturing environment that molds a child's attitudes and beliefs.

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  • 15. 

    A person with which attribute is also sensitive and aware of the real self?

    • A.

      Self-ideal

    • B.

      Changing self

    • C.

      Positive self-image

    • D.

      Negative self-image

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive self-image
    Explanation
    A person with a positive self-image is likely to be sensitive and aware of their real self. Having a positive self-image means having a healthy and confident perception of oneself. Such individuals tend to have a realistic understanding of their strengths and weaknesses, which makes them more sensitive to their own emotions and behaviors. They are also likely to be more self-aware and in tune with their true identity, as they have a positive and accepting view of themselves.

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  • 16. 

    Using Johari's window and the four panes of self, how much are we aware of in ourselves?

    • A.

      All panes

    • B.

      One-half

    • C.

      One-fourth

    • D.

      Three-quarters

    Correct Answer
    B. One-half
    Explanation
    According to Johari's window, there are four panes of self: open, blind, hidden, and unknown. The open pane represents the aspects of ourselves that are known to us and others. The blind pane represents the aspects that are known to others but unknown to us. The hidden pane represents the aspects that are known to us but unknown to others. Lastly, the unknown pane represents the aspects that are unknown to both ourselves and others. The correct answer, "one-half," suggests that we are aware of only half of ourselves, as the other half consists of the blind, hidden, and unknown aspects that we are not aware of.

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  • 17. 

    Who is considered the father of modern psychology?

    • A.

      Sigmud Freud

    • B.

      Harry Sullivan

    • C.

      Erik Erikson

    • D.

      Jean Piaget

    Correct Answer
    A. Sigmud Freud
    Explanation
    Sigmund Freud is considered the father of modern psychology because of his significant contributions to the field. He developed psychoanalysis, a theory of the unconscious mind and the role of childhood experiences in shaping adult behavior. Freud's ideas revolutionized the understanding of human psychology and had a profound impact on fields such as psychiatry and psychotherapy. His theories on the structure of the mind, defense mechanisms, and the interpretation of dreams continue to be influential in psychology today.

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  • 18. 

    What part of the mind is the source of our emotional pain?

    • A.

      Conscious mind

    • B.

      Subsoncious mind

    • C.

      Preconscious mind

    • D.

      Unconscious mind

    Correct Answer
    D. Unconscious mind
    Explanation
    The unconscious mind is the source of our emotional pain because it contains thoughts, memories, and desires that are not consciously accessible. These repressed or forgotten experiences can manifest as emotional pain, such as unresolved trauma or unprocessed emotions. The unconscious mind influences our thoughts, behaviors, and emotions without our awareness, making it a powerful source of emotional distress.

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  • 19. 

    According to Freud's theory of personality development, which psychological force is the source of instictual drives that are sexual and aggressive?

    • A.

      Id

    • B.

      Ego

    • C.

      Ultraego

    • D.

      Superego

    Correct Answer
    A. Id
    Explanation
    According to Freud's theory of personality development, the id is the psychological force that is the source of instinctual drives that are sexual and aggressive. The id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of its desires without considering the consequences or societal norms. It is the most primitive part of the personality and is present from birth. The id is driven by basic needs and desires, such as hunger, thirst, and sexual urges. It operates unconsciously and seeks to fulfill these desires through the pleasure principle.

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  • 20. 

    Which defense mechanism is used when emotions are aroused in a situation where it would be dangerous to express them?

    • A.

      Projection

    • B.

      Displacement

    • C.

      Sublimination

    • D.

      Rationalization

    Correct Answer
    B. Displacement
    Explanation
    Displacement is a defense mechanism that is used when emotions are aroused in a situation where it would be dangerous to express them. This defense mechanism involves redirecting one's emotions or impulses towards a substitute target that is less threatening or safer to express them towards. For example, if someone is angry at their boss but cannot express their anger directly, they may instead take out their frustration on a coworker or a family member. Displacement allows individuals to release their emotions in a safer way, avoiding potential harm or conflict.

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  • 21. 

    During which of freud's psychosecual stage does the oedipus conflict and electra complex occur?

    • A.

      Oral

    • B.

      Anal

    • C.

      Phallic

    • D.

      Latency

    Correct Answer
    C. Phallic
    Explanation
    The Oedipus conflict and Electra complex occur during Freud's phallic psychosexual stage. This stage typically occurs between the ages of 3 and 6, where children experience sexual feelings towards their opposite-sex parent and may feel rivalry or jealousy towards the same-sex parent. The Oedipus conflict refers specifically to a boy's feelings towards his mother and rivalry with his father, while the Electra complex refers to a girl's feelings towards her father and rivalry with her mother. This stage is crucial for the development of a child's gender identity and the resolution of these conflicts is important for healthy psychosexual development.

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  • 22. 

    Unsuccessful completion of which stage of psychosocial development leaves the individual withdrawn and estranged?

    • A.

      Stage I - infancy

    • B.

      Stage II - early childhood

    • C.

      Stage VII - middle adulthood

    • D.

      Stage VIII - old age

    Correct Answer
    A. Stage I - infancy
    Explanation
    During the stage of infancy, individuals develop trust or mistrust towards their caregivers. If this stage is not successfully completed, the individual may become withdrawn and estranged. This could be due to a lack of a secure attachment with their caregivers, leading to difficulties in forming relationships and trusting others later in life.

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  • 23. 

    Unsuccessful completion of which stage of psychosocial development leads to compulsive self-restraint or compliance, defiance and willfulness?

    • A.

      Stage I - infancy

    • B.

      Stage II - early childhood

    • C.

      Stage VII - middle adulthood

    • D.

      Stage VIII - old age

    Correct Answer
    B. Stage II - early childhood
    Explanation
    During stage II of early childhood, children develop autonomy and a sense of independence. If this stage is not successfully completed, it can lead to feelings of shame and doubt, which may result in compulsive self-restraint or compliance, defiance, and willfulness. This can manifest as a constant need for approval and validation from others or a tendency to rebel against authority figures. It is during this stage that children begin to assert their own will and test boundaries, so a lack of successful completion can have long-term effects on their behavior and self-confidence.

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  • 24. 

    Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that language was a major distriction of which stage of development?

    • A.

      Early childhood

    • B.

      Later childhood

    • C.

      Preadolescence

    • D.

      Juvenile era

    Correct Answer
    B. Later childhood
    Explanation
    Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that language was a major distraction in later childhood. This suggests that during this stage of development, language becomes a significant factor that can potentially divert attention and hinder the individual's overall growth and progress.

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  • 25. 

    During which of Sullivan's personality developmental stages do adolescents begin tp experience sexual urges?

    • A.

      Preadolescence

    • B.

      Early adolescence

    • C.

      Late adolescence

    • D.

      Post adolescence

    Correct Answer
    B. Early adolescence
    Explanation
    During early adolescence, individuals typically begin to experience sexual urges as a part of their personality development. This stage is characterized by physical changes, such as the onset of puberty, which leads to the development of sexual feelings and desires. It is a period of exploration and discovery of one's own sexuality, as well as the formation of romantic and sexual relationships with others. This stage marks the transition from childhood to adulthood, and the emergence of sexual urges is a natural and normal part of this developmental process.

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  • 26. 

    Sullivan's personality developmental stages concluded that intimacy and sexual urges was the distiction of which stage of development?

    • A.

      Early childhood

    • B.

      Later childhood

    • C.

      Preadolescence

    • D.

      Late adolescence

    Correct Answer
    D. Late adolescence
    Explanation
    Sullivan's personality developmental stages propose that late adolescence is the stage where individuals experience intimacy and sexual urges. This stage is characterized by the development of romantic relationships, exploration of one's own sexuality, and the formation of a sense of identity. During late adolescence, individuals strive to establish intimate connections with others and navigate the complexities of romantic relationships, marking a significant milestone in their psychological and emotional growth.

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  • 27. 

    Who was the first modern theorist to emphasize that infants are actively exploring and tying to master their surroundings from their first breath of life?

    • A.

      Sigmund Freud

    • B.

      Harry Sullivan

    • C.

      Erik Erikson

    • D.

      Jean Piaget

    Correct Answer
    D. Jean Piaget
    Explanation
    Jean Piaget was the first modern theorist to emphasize that infants are actively exploring and trying to master their surroundings from their first breath of life. Piaget's theory of cognitive development proposed that infants actively engage with their environment, using their senses and motor skills to learn and adapt. He believed that infants go through different stages of development, each characterized by specific cognitive abilities and ways of understanding the world. Piaget's emphasis on the active role of infants in their own development revolutionized the field of child psychology and greatly influenced our understanding of early childhood development.

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  • 28. 

    According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, in which stage does the individual have the avility to reason using abstract concepts?

    • A.

      Preoperational thought

    • B.

      Concrete operations

    • C.

      Formal operations

    • D.

      Sensorimotor

    Correct Answer
    C. Formal operations
    Explanation
    According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the stage in which an individual has the ability to reason using abstract concepts is the formal operations stage. In this stage, which typically begins around adolescence, individuals can think logically and systematically about abstract ideas and hypothetical situations. They can understand complex concepts, use deductive reasoning, and think critically about various possibilities and outcomes. This stage represents a significant advancement in cognitive abilities compared to the previous stages of sensorimotor, preoperational thought, and concrete operations.

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  • 29. 

    According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, in which stage does the child have the avility to reason like an adult in every way except for reasoning and bastract concepts?

    • A.

      Preoperational thought

    • B.

      Concrete operations

    • C.

      Formal operations

    • D.

      Sensorimotor

    Correct Answer
    B. Concrete operations
    Explanation
    According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the correct answer is concrete operations. In this stage, which typically occurs between the ages of 7 and 11, children gain the ability to think logically and solve problems in a more organized and systematic way. They can understand concrete concepts and perform mental operations on objects, but they still struggle with abstract and hypothetical reasoning. Therefore, although they can reason like adults in many ways, their limitations in abstract thinking differentiate them from fully reasoning like adults.

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  • 30. 

    Who is credited as being the first to work using the behavioristic approach?

    • A.

      Harry Sullivan

    • B.

      Erik Erikson

    • C.

      Ivan Pavlov

    • D.

      Jean Piaget

    Correct Answer
    C. Ivan Pavlov
    Explanation
    Ivan Pavlov is credited as being the first to work using the behavioristic approach. He conducted experiments on dogs, observing their behavior and studying the process of conditioning. Pavlov's famous experiment involved ringing a bell before presenting food to the dogs, eventually leading to the dogs salivating at the sound of the bell alone. This experiment demonstrated the concept of classical conditioning and laid the foundation for behaviorism as a psychological approach.

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  • 31. 

    Which behaviorist stated the most important determinants of behavior are in the environment and not the individual?

    • A.

      E.L. Thorndike

    • B.

      J.B. Watson

    • C.

      Ivan Pavlov

    • D.

      B.F. Skinner

    Correct Answer
    D. B.F. Skinner
    Explanation
    B.F. Skinner is the correct answer because he was a behaviorist who believed that the environment played a crucial role in determining behavior. He emphasized the concept of operant conditioning, which suggests that behavior is shaped by the consequences that follow it. According to Skinner, positive reinforcement and punishment can influence behavior, and individuals learn through reinforcement and punishment in their environment. Skinner's ideas were influential in the field of psychology and continue to be relevant in understanding human behavior.

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  • 32. 

    Who are considered  extremely important models for children as they are often imitated?

    • A.

      Peers

    • B.

      Parents

    • C.

      Teachers

    • D.

      Siblings

    Correct Answer
    B. Parents
    Explanation
    Parents are considered extremely important models for children as they are often imitated. Children tend to look up to their parents and observe their behavior, actions, and attitudes. Parents play a crucial role in shaping a child's values, beliefs, and behaviors through their own actions and interactions. Children often imitate their parents' behaviors and try to emulate them in various aspects of their lives. Parents serve as role models for children and have a significant influence on their development and socialization process.

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  • 33. 

    Which theory of personality development is focused on people's conscious experiences and perceptions and on freeing them from disabling assumptions?

    • A.

      Existential

    • B.

      Humanistic

    • C.

      Psychoanalytic

    • D.

      Cognitive-behavioral

    Correct Answer
    B. Humanistic
    Explanation
    The humanistic theory of personality development is focused on people's conscious experiences and perceptions. It emphasizes the importance of personal growth, self-actualization, and the freedom to make choices. This theory aims to help individuals become aware of their true potential and to overcome any disabling assumptions or beliefs that may be holding them back. It emphasizes the importance of personal responsibility and self-determination in shaping one's own life.

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  • 34. 

    Who developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment?

    • A.

      Maslow

    • B.

      Watson

    • C.

      Buhler

    • D.

      Piaget

    Correct Answer
    C. Buhler
    Explanation
    Buhler developed the five phases of goal setting and goal attainment.

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  • 35. 

    Who developed the Hierarchy of Needs pyramid

    • A.

      Maslow

    • B.

      Watson

    • C.

      Buhler

    • D.

      Piaget

    Correct Answer
    A. Maslow
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maslow because Abraham Maslow, an American psychologist, developed the Hierarchy of Needs pyramid. This theory suggests that individuals have different needs that must be met in a specific order, starting from basic physiological needs to higher-level needs such as self-actualization. Maslow's theory has had a significant impact on the field of psychology and is widely studied and applied in various disciplines.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not a basic theme of the existential concept?

    • A.

      Values

    • B.

      Grow as a person

    • C.

      Adopt vacillating opinions regarding self

    • D.

      Build a meaningful and socially constructive life

    Correct Answer
    C. Adopt vacillating opinions regarding self
    Explanation
    The concept of existentialism focuses on individual freedom, responsibility, and the search for meaning in life. It emphasizes the importance of personal choice and authenticity. The themes mentioned in the options are all related to existentialism except for "adopt vacillating opinions regarding self." This option suggests a lack of consistency and stability in one's self-perception, which is not a core theme of existentialism. Existentialism encourages individuals to develop a clear understanding of themselves and their values.

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  • 37. 

    How mnay axes are in the DSM-IV-TR multiaxial classification?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    C. 5
    Explanation
    The DSM-IV-TR multiaxial classification system consists of five axes. Each axis represents a different aspect of an individual's mental health and provides a comprehensive assessment. Axis I includes clinical disorders, Axis II includes personality disorders and mental retardation, Axis III includes general medical conditions, Axis IV includes psychosocial and environmental problems, and Axis V includes the Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) scale.

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  • 38. 

    Which axis will not have more than one diagnosis?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    D. IV
    Explanation
    Axis IV will not have more than one diagnosis.

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  • 39. 

    Axis I will always be assumed to be the principal diagnosis unless which axis is identified as such?

    • A.

      II

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      IV

    • D.

      V

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    In the DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th Edition, Text Revision), Axis I refers to clinical disorders and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention. Axis II, on the other hand, includes personality disorders and mental retardation. The question is asking about the axis that needs to be identified as the principal diagnosis in order for Axis I to not be assumed as the principal diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is II.

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  • 40. 

    Which symptom is not one of the general criteria used to assess the presence of a mental disorder?

    • A.

      Abnormal behavior

    • B.

      Ineffiency

    • C.

      Discomfort

    • D.

      Irritability

    Correct Answer
    D. Irritability
    Explanation
    Irritability is not one of the general criteria used to assess the presence of a mental disorder. While abnormal behavior, inefficiency, and discomfort can be signs of a mental disorder, irritability is not considered a specific symptom in diagnostic criteria. Mental disorders are typically characterized by a range of symptoms that affect thoughts, emotions, and behavior, but irritability alone is not sufficient to diagnose a mental disorder.

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  • 41. 

    An indication of emotinal discomfort consists of depression, anxiety, and

    • A.

      Mania

    • B.

      Anoxia

    • C.

      Physical symptoms

    • D.

      Body dysmophic disorders

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical symptoms
    Explanation
    The correct answer is physical symptoms. An indication of emotional discomfort can manifest in physical symptoms such as headaches, stomachaches, muscle tension, and fatigue. These physical symptoms are often a result of the body's response to stress and emotional distress. They can be a way for the body to communicate that something is wrong and may require attention and intervention.

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  • 42. 

    What is defined as a feeling of sgrong apprehension or uneasiness, while the source is large unknown or unrecongnized by the individual?

    • A.

      Mania

    • B.

      Anxiety

    • C.

      Depression

    • D.

      Abnormal behavior

    Correct Answer
    B. Anxiety
    Explanation
    Anxiety is defined as a feeling of strong apprehension or uneasiness. It is characterized by a sense of worry or fear, often accompanied by physical symptoms such as rapid heartbeat, sweating, and trembling. The source of anxiety may be large, unknown, or unrecognized by the individual, which can contribute to the intensity of the feeling. Mania, depression, and abnormal behavior do not specifically encompass the definition of anxiety, making anxiety the correct answer.

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  • 43. 

    Dual disorders is a term used to describe the presence of both a mental disorder and

    • A.

      Sustance abuse

    • B.

      Schizophrenia

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Mood

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustance abuse
    Explanation
    Dual disorders is a term used to describe the presence of both a mental disorder and substance abuse. This means that an individual is dealing with both a mental health condition and a substance use problem simultaneously. Substance abuse refers to the excessive and harmful use of drugs or alcohol. When someone has a dual disorder, it can complicate their treatment and recovery process, as both the mental health condition and substance abuse need to be addressed simultaneously for effective treatment outcomes.

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  • 44. 

    What is essential in determining the extent of a patients's sustance usage?

    • A.

      Supervisor input

    • B.

      Commander input

    • C.

      Diagnostic materials

    • D.

      One-on-one interaction

    Correct Answer
    D. One-on-one interaction
    Explanation
    One-on-one interaction is essential in determining the extent of a patient's substance usage because it allows for a personal and confidential conversation between the patient and the healthcare provider. This direct interaction provides an opportunity for the patient to openly discuss their substance usage, habits, and any related concerns or issues. It also allows the healthcare provider to ask specific questions, gather detailed information, and assess the patient's overall condition, which can aid in determining the extent of their substance usage.

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  • 45. 

    Mental retardation is characterized by an intelligence quotient (IQ) below

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      70

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    C. 70
    Explanation
    Mental retardation is a condition that is characterized by an intelligence quotient (IQ) below a certain threshold. In this case, the correct answer is 70. An IQ score below 70 is generally considered as an indication of mental retardation.

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  • 46. 

    Which term is not a behavior associated with oppositional defiant disorder?

    • A.

      Hostile

    • B.

      Defiant

    • C.

      Assertive

    • D.

      Negativistic

    Correct Answer
    C. Assertive
    Explanation
    Oppositional defiant disorder is characterized by a pattern of angry and irritable mood, argumentative and defiant behavior, and vindictiveness. The term "assertive" does not fit within this pattern as it refers to expressing one's needs and opinions confidently and respectfully, which is not typically associated with oppositional defiant disorder.

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  • 47. 

    What disorder is characterized by the persistent ingestion of non-nutritional substances after the age of 18 months?

    • A.

      Rumination

    • B.

      Encorpresis

    • C.

      Enuresis

    • D.

      Pica

    Correct Answer
    D. Pica
    Explanation
    Pica is a disorder characterized by the persistent ingestion of non-nutritional substances after the age of 18 months. This can include eating items such as dirt, paper, hair, or paint chips. It is commonly seen in individuals with developmental disabilities or mental health disorders. Pica can be dangerous as it can lead to health complications such as intestinal blockages or poisoning. Treatment for pica typically involves a multidisciplinary approach, including behavioral interventions and addressing any underlying medical or psychiatric conditions.

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  • 48. 

    A language disturbance is the primary charcteristic of which memory impairment?

    • A.

      Aphasia

    • B.

      Apraxia

    • C.

      Agnosia

    • D.

      Disturbance in executinve functioning

    Correct Answer
    A. Aphasia
    Explanation
    Aphasia is a language disturbance that affects a person's ability to comprehend and/or produce language. It is a primary characteristic of memory impairment because individuals with aphasia may struggle to remember words, have difficulty forming sentences, or have trouble understanding spoken or written language. This impairment can occur due to brain damage, such as from a stroke or head injury, and can significantly impact a person's communication abilities.

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  • 49. 

    What memory impairments primary charcteistic is a failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory funciton?

    • A.

      Aphasia

    • B.

      Apraxia

    • C.

      Agnosia

    • D.

      Disturbance in executive functioning

    Correct Answer
    C. Agnosia
    Explanation
    Agnosia is a memory impairment characterized by a failure to recognize or identify objects, even though sensory function remains intact. This means that individuals with agnosia may have no trouble perceiving objects through their senses, but they are unable to understand or make sense of what they are perceiving. This can manifest in different ways, such as difficulty recognizing familiar faces or objects, or being unable to identify common items like a pen or a key.

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  • 50. 

    How many separate personility patterns are seen in patients with personality change due to a general medical condition?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 8
    Explanation
    Patients with personality change due to a general medical condition can exhibit a variety of distinct personality patterns. These patterns may include changes in behavior, mood, cognition, and interpersonal relationships. The presence of eight separate personality patterns suggests that there is a significant range of variations in how these patients present and adapt to their medical condition. This highlights the complexity and diversity of personality changes that can occur in such cases.

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