CDC 4c051 Volume 1 Pre-test

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1. What type of patient admission reduces unfavorable reactions and is the most desirable?

Explanation

Voluntary patient admission reduces unfavorable reactions and is the most desirable because it implies that the patient has willingly sought medical help and is actively participating in their treatment. This type of admission allows for better communication and cooperation between the patient and healthcare providers, leading to more effective and personalized care. It also respects the patient's autonomy and decision-making power, promoting a sense of empowerment and involvement in their own healthcare journey.

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 4C051
Mental Health Journeyman
Volume 1. Common Mental Health Journeyman Experiences

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2. When physically restraing a patient, who sets the rules for the takedown?

Explanation

The team leader is responsible for setting the rules for the takedown when physically restraining a patient. As the leader of the team, they have the authority to establish guidelines and protocols for the restraint process. This ensures that the restraint is conducted safely and effectively, minimizing the risk of harm to both the patient and the healthcare providers involved. The team leader's role is crucial in coordinating the efforts of the team and making decisions that prioritize the well-being of everyone involved.

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3. Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is Technician. In healthcare settings, it is the responsibility of the technician to maintain professional boundaries and avoid engaging in inappropriate relationships with patients. Technicians are expected to adhere to ethical guidelines and codes of conduct to ensure patient safety and trust. If a journeyman technician engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient, they can be held accountable for their actions.

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4. When lifting or moving a bedridden patient, what part of your body should endure most of the strain?

Explanation

When lifting or moving a bedridden patient, the legs should endure most of the strain. This is because the muscles in the legs, particularly the quadriceps and glutes, are larger and stronger compared to the muscles in the arms, back, and feet. By using the legs to lift and support the weight, it helps distribute the load more evenly and reduces the risk of back injuries or strains. Additionally, the legs provide a stable base and better leverage for lifting, making it safer and more efficient to move the patient.

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5. Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff?

Explanation

The recovery phase offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff. This is because during this phase, the patient is stabilizing and regaining control over their emotions and behaviors. It is a time of healing and rebuilding, where the patient can work on developing coping strategies and skills to prevent future crises. Additionally, the staff can provide support, guidance, and interventions to assist the patient in their recovery journey.

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6. What system is used to ensure mental health records are proctected from securty violations?

Explanation

The system of "double lock" is used to ensure that mental health records are protected from security violations. This involves implementing multiple layers of security measures, such as encryption, access controls, and authentication methods, to safeguard the confidentiality and integrity of the records. By having two or more security mechanisms in place, the risk of unauthorized access or breaches is minimized, providing a higher level of protection for mental health records.

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7. What Post Traumatic Stress Disorder subtye is defined as symptoms persisting for more than  1 month, but less than 3 months?

Explanation

Acute Post Traumatic Stress Disorder subtype is defined as symptoms persisting for more than 1 month, but less than 3 months. This means that individuals experiencing this subtype of PTSD have symptoms that last for a relatively short period of time, between 1 and 3 months. It is important to note that while the symptoms are present for a shorter duration compared to other subtypes, they can still significantly impact the individual's daily functioning and well-being.

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8. Which subtype of Post-Traumatic Stress disorder (PTSD) persists beyond 3 months?

Explanation

Chronic subtype of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) persists beyond 3 months. This subtype is characterized by symptoms that last for an extended period of time, typically more than 3 months, after the traumatic event. It is different from the acute subtype, which refers to symptoms that last for less than 3 months. The chronic subtype indicates a more long-lasting and persistent form of PTSD. The subtype "with delayed onset" refers to PTSD symptoms that emerge at least 6 months after the traumatic event.

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9. Which aspect of doing all of your duty is considered extremely important?

Explanation

Reliability is considered extremely important when it comes to doing all of your duty. Being reliable means that you can be trusted to consistently complete tasks and fulfill responsibilities. It involves being dependable, punctual, and accountable for your actions. Reliability is crucial in maintaining trust and building strong relationships, both in personal and professional settings. By being reliable, you demonstrate your commitment and dedication to fulfilling your duties, which ultimately contributes to your overall effectiveness and success.

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10. Which attribute allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior?

Explanation

Consistency allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior. When healthcare providers consistently act in a reliable and predictable manner, it helps patients feel more secure and builds trust. Consistency in communication, treatment plans, and follow-up care can help patients understand what to expect and reduce anxiety. By maintaining consistency, healthcare providers can create a sense of stability and reliability, which can ultimately enhance the patient's overall experience and satisfaction.

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11. In order to ensure that personnel are safe from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses, the Air Force complies with what organization's guidelines?

Explanation

The Air Force complies with the guidelines of the Occupational, Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to ensure the safety of its personnel from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses. OSHA is a government agency that sets and enforces standards for workplace safety and health. By following OSHA guidelines, the Air Force aims to create a safe and healthy working environment for its personnel.

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12. Which briefing is considered one-sided with noverbal participation by the audicence?

Explanation

A formal briefing is considered one-sided with no verbal participation by the audience. In a formal briefing, the speaker typically presents information or instructions to the audience in a structured and professional manner. The audience is expected to listen and absorb the information without actively participating or providing feedback. This is in contrast to an informal briefing, where there is often more interaction and discussion between the speaker and the audience.

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13. Which of the following is not an example of effective communication?

Explanation

Being sympathetic is not an example of effective communication because sympathy alone does not necessarily involve clear and meaningful exchange of information. Effective communication requires more than just feeling sorry for someone; it involves actively listening, understanding, and responding appropriately to the needs and emotions of others. While sympathy can be a component of effective communication, it is not sufficient on its own.

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14. What approach should you use when area restriction fails?

Explanation

When area restriction fails, the next approach that should be used is room restriction. This means that the patient should be confined to a specific room or area to ensure their safety and prevent them from causing harm to themselves or others. Room restriction provides a controlled environment where the patient can be closely monitored and supervised, reducing the risk of any potential harm or danger.

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15. The body has depleted itself of body energy and immunity during which General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) stage?

Explanation

The body has depleted itself of body energy and immunity during the stage of exhaustion. This stage occurs after the alarm reaction and the stage of resistance. In the stage of exhaustion, the body's resources have been used up and the body is no longer able to cope with the stressor. This can lead to physical and mental exhaustion, decreased immune function, and an increased risk of illness and disease.

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16. How many years can the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) remain dormant before symptoms develop?

Explanation

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can remain dormant for approximately 10 years before symptoms start to develop. During this period, the virus slowly weakens the immune system, leading to a gradual decline in overall health. This asymptomatic phase is known as the clinical latency stage. It is important to note that the duration of this stage can vary from person to person, and some individuals may progress to symptomatic HIV infection sooner or later than the average 10-year period. Regular testing and early detection are crucial in managing HIV and preventing its transmission.

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17. What is defined as "to make clear distiction; distingues; differentiate or to act on the basis of prejudice?"

Explanation

Discrimination is defined as the act of making clear distinctions, distinguishing, differentiating, or acting on the basis of prejudice. It involves treating individuals or groups unfairly or unfavorably based on characteristics such as race, ethnicity, gender, or religion. Discrimination can manifest in various forms, such as unequal treatment, exclusion, or denial of rights and opportunities. It is a harmful practice that perpetuates inequality and undermines social cohesion.

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18. Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society?

Explanation

Generation Nexters, also known as Generation Z, is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society. This generation grew up with technology and the internet, making them highly proficient in using computers and digital devices. They are known for their ability to adapt quickly to new technologies and their desire to succeed in a rapidly changing world.

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19. The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application has been touted as consistently encompassing all of the following elements except?

Explanation

The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) is a system that is known for being secure, powerful, and knowledgeable. However, it is not typically associated with being latitudinal. Latitudinal refers to the measurement of distance north or south of the equator, which is not applicable in the context of a health technology application. Therefore, latitudinal is the element that is not encompassed by AHLTA.

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20. Which legal liability is considered non-punitive?

Explanation

Administrative liability is considered non-punitive because it focuses on correcting behavior and ensuring compliance with regulations rather than punishing individuals. It involves imposing fines, penalties, or other administrative measures to address violations or misconduct in areas such as business, finance, or government regulations. Unlike criminal or civil tort liability, which aim to punish wrongdoers and provide compensation to victims, administrative liability aims to promote adherence to rules and regulations in a non-punitive manner. Therefore, the correct answer is administrative.

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21. When a staff member is involved in or discovers an accident, who initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement?

Explanation

The staff member initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement when they are involved in or discover an accident. This form is used to document and report any incidents that occur within a medical treatment facility. It is the responsibility of the staff member to fill out this form and provide all necessary details about the accident. The form helps in investigating the incident, identifying any potential safety hazards, and implementing corrective measures to prevent future accidents.

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22. What is the first phase of the active phases in the  assaultive cycle?

Explanation

The first phase of the active phases in the assaultive cycle is the trigger. This refers to the initial event or stimulus that sets off or provokes the aggressive behavior. It acts as a catalyst for the escalation of aggression and violence.

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23. Which budget covers acquisition of land and buildings?

Explanation

The budget that covers the acquisition of land and buildings is the capital budget. This budget is specifically allocated for long-term investments and assets, such as purchasing land and buildings. The capital budget is separate from the operating budget, which covers day-to-day expenses, and the personal budget, which covers individual expenses. The draft option is not relevant to the acquisition of land and buildings.

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24. Which of the following is not a genreal guideline for using BICEPS?

Explanation

The BICEPS acronym stands for Behavior, Intensity, Complexity, Effort, Pace, and Space. These are general guidelines for effective communication. The options "wear of the uniform," "maintain military discipline," and "maintain customs and courtesies" all align with the BICEPS guidelines as they pertain to behavior and professionalism. However, allowing an injured member to be a "patient" for a few days does not directly relate to any of the BICEPS guidelines. It is not a general guideline for effective communication, hence it is the correct answer.

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25. Which form must be filled out by the physican within 24 hours of a patient's admission?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 506, Clinical Record-Physical Examination. This form must be filled out by the physician within 24 hours of a patient's admission. It is used to document the physical examination findings of the patient and is an important part of the patient's medical record. It helps to provide a baseline assessment of the patient's health status upon admission and can be used for future reference and comparison.

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26. Which mental health readiness team used to be considered the primary deployable team?

Explanation

The Mental Health Rapid Response team used to be considered the primary deployable team.

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27. If you touch a patient unnecessarily you are violating?

Explanation

Touching a patient unnecessarily violates their physical privacy. Physical privacy refers to an individual's right to control who can touch or access their body. It is important for healthcare professionals to respect this right and only touch patients when it is necessary for their care or with their consent. Unnecessary touching can be invasive and make patients feel uncomfortable or violated.

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28. A constitutional tort is a violation of?

Explanation

A constitutional tort refers to a violation of an individual's civil rights by a government employee. This can occur when a government employee, such as a law enforcement officer or public official, infringes upon a person's constitutional rights, such as freedom of speech, freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures, or equal protection under the law. In this case, the correct answer is "a patient's civil rights by a government employee," indicating that the violation of civil rights occurs in the context of a patient's interaction with a government employee, such as a healthcare provider or a public hospital employee.

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29. Which of these is not used to prepare for health services inspections?

Explanation

The health services questionnaire is not used to prepare for health services inspections. This is because a questionnaire is typically used to gather information or collect data, rather than to prepare for an inspection. In contrast, the Joint Commission manual, documents from previous inspections, and Air Force directives and policy letters are commonly used to prepare for health services inspections as they provide guidelines, standards, and information necessary for the inspection process.

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30. Which of the following is not an element of combustion?

Explanation

Ignition is not an element of combustion. Combustion is a chemical reaction that occurs between fuel, heat, and oxygen. Fuel provides the material to burn, heat is the energy required to initiate and sustain the reaction, and oxygen acts as the oxidizing agent. Ignition, on the other hand, refers to the process of starting the combustion reaction by providing an initial source of heat. It is not a fundamental element of the combustion process itself, but rather a step that precedes it.

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31. Using a joke or taking about an incident related to the topic before a briefing is called?

Explanation

The correct answer is attention. Before a briefing, using a joke or talking about an incident related to the topic can help grab the audience's attention and make them more engaged. By starting with something attention-grabbing, the speaker can create a sense of curiosity and interest, making the audience more receptive to the information that will be presented in the briefing. This technique is often used to ensure that the audience is focused and actively listening to the speaker.

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32. How long are mental helath records maintained after the last date of treatment?

Explanation

Mental health records are typically maintained for a certain period of time after the last date of treatment for various reasons. This allows healthcare providers to refer back to the records if necessary and ensures continuity of care. In this case, the correct answer is 2 years, which means that mental health records are kept for a period of 2 years after the last date of treatment. This timeframe is likely determined by legal and regulatory requirements, as well as the healthcare provider's policies.

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33. Which of the following is not an example of retaliation towards a patient?

Explanation

Withholding medication is not an example of retaliation towards a patient because it is a violation of ethical standards and can potentially harm the patient's health. Retaliation involves intentionally causing harm or seeking revenge, whereas withholding medication is a form of neglect or medical malpractice. It is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate and timely treatment to patients, and withholding medication goes against this principle.

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34. Before proceeding with chemical restraints, all of the following questions should be asked except?

Explanation

Chemical restraints are medications used to control or sedate a patient's behavior in emergency situations. When considering the use of chemical restraints, it is important to assess various factors to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. The questions listed in the options are all relevant in this assessment, except for "how much has the patient eaten today?" This question is not directly related to the decision of using chemical restraints and does not provide any information that would impact the administration of such medications.

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35. Mental health records are prepared for retiremrnt shipment in what order?

Explanation

Mental health records are prepared for retirement shipment in alphabetical order. This means that the records are organized according to the individuals' last names, from A to Z. This method allows for easy retrieval and identification of specific records, as they are arranged in a logical and systematic manner. It ensures that the records can be accessed efficiently and effectively when needed.

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36. Which of the following statements regarding amputation from a battlefield injury is true?

Explanation

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37. Which area is not a basic ethical foundation of trust you must exercise as a mental health technician?

Explanation

Respect is not a basic ethical foundation of trust that a mental health technician must exercise. While respect is an important value in any profession, in the context of mental health, autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence are considered the fundamental ethical principles. Autonomy refers to respecting the client's right to make their own decisions, beneficence involves acting in the best interest of the client, and nonmaleficence focuses on avoiding harm to the client. These three principles are crucial in providing ethical and effective care in the field of mental health.

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38. Which ethnic group is more likely to use preventive care if it uses culturally appropriate methods, such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach?

Explanation

African Americans are more likely to use preventive care if culturally appropriate methods, such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach, are used. This suggests that African Americans value and respond positively to interventions that are tailored to their cultural background and community. By utilizing these methods, healthcare providers can effectively engage and educate African Americans about the importance of preventive care, leading to increased utilization and improved health outcomes within this population.

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39. In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common?

Explanation

Alaska Native women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices due to various reasons such as cultural beliefs, lack of access to healthcare facilities, and historical trauma. Traditional healing practices are deeply ingrained in the Alaska Native culture, and women may prioritize these practices over seeking modern medical care. Additionally, the remote and rural nature of many Alaska Native communities can make it difficult for women to access healthcare services, leading to a neglect of their own health. These factors contribute to a higher likelihood of health neglect among Alaska Native women.

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40. What emphasizes the primacy of trust in the relationship between a patient and physican?

Explanation

The Hippocratic Oath emphasizes the primacy of trust in the relationship between a patient and physician. This oath, taken by physicians, includes a commitment to maintain patient confidentiality, act in the best interest of the patient, and prioritize patient care over personal gain. By taking this oath, physicians demonstrate their dedication to ethical conduct and the establishment of trust with their patients, which is essential for effective healthcare delivery.

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41. Which of these is not considered an intentional tort?

Explanation

Negligence is not considered an intentional tort because it involves the failure to exercise reasonable care, rather than deliberately causing harm or intending to cause harm to another person. Intentional torts, on the other hand, involve actions that are done with the intent to harm or cause injury to someone else. False imprisonment, misrepresentation, and assault are all examples of intentional torts as they involve intentional acts that cause harm or infringe upon someone's rights. Negligence, on the other hand, refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care, which can result in unintentional harm or injury to another person.

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42. What slows down the body and helps prepare for more relaxed state, ready for digestion and sleep?

Explanation

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for slowing down the body and preparing it for a more relaxed state, which is essential for digestion and sleep. This system works in opposition to the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the fight or flight response. When the parasympathetic system is activated, it promotes rest and digest activities, such as decreasing heart rate, constricting pupils, and increasing digestion. This allows the body to conserve energy and focus on essential functions like digestion and restorative sleep.

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43. Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patient's dignity?

Explanation

Individual care is closely related to respecting the patient's dignity because it involves providing personalized and attentive care to meet the unique needs and preferences of each patient. This approach recognizes and values the autonomy, privacy, and individuality of the patient, promoting their dignity and well-being. By considering the patient's values, beliefs, and cultural background, individual care ensures that the patient is treated with respect, compassion, and empathy, fostering a trusting and respectful professional relationship between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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44. Accreditation findings that raise specific issues are reviewed by the?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Joint Commission's accreditation committee. This committee is responsible for reviewing accreditation findings that raise specific issues. They assess the findings and determine the appropriate actions to be taken. The committee plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare organizations meet the standards set by the Joint Commission for quality and safety. They work closely with the board of commissioners and the board of accreditation to ensure that the accreditation process is thorough and effective. The hospital commander is not directly involved in the accreditation review process.

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45. Who conducts Health Services Inspections?

Explanation

The Air Force Inspection Agency conducts Health Services Inspections. This agency is responsible for conducting inspections and evaluations of various aspects of the Air Force, including health services. They ensure that the health services provided by the Air Force meet the required standards and regulations.

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46. The minimum number of staff required to physically restrain a patient is?

Explanation

In order to physically restrain a patient safely and effectively, it is recommended to have a minimum of four staff members. This is because restraining a patient can be a challenging and potentially dangerous task, requiring multiple individuals to ensure the patient's safety as well as the safety of the staff involved. With four staff members, they can distribute the workload and coordinate their efforts to minimize the risk of injury to the patient and themselves.

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47. What distance is considered the personal space in a comforst zone?

Explanation

The personal space in a comfort zone is typically considered to be between 18 inches and 4 feet. This distance allows individuals to feel comfortable and not invaded by others, while still being close enough for interaction if desired.

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48. Which form is used when a physician wants to request services located outside the unit's normal activities for a patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 513, Medical Record-Consultation Sheet. This form is used when a physician wants to request services located outside the unit's normal activities for a patient. The consultation sheet is used to document the physician's request for a consultation with another healthcare provider or specialist. It includes information about the patient's condition, the reason for the consultation, and any specific questions or concerns the physician may have. This form helps to facilitate communication and coordination of care between different healthcare providers involved in the patient's treatment.

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49. The entire budget process for the medical treatment acility (MTF) is compiled by the?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Resource Management Office (RMO). The RMO is responsible for compiling the entire budget process for the Medical Treatment Facility (MTF). They oversee the allocation and management of resources, including financial resources, within the MTF. This includes creating the budget, monitoring expenses, and ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately to support the medical treatment facility's operations. The RMO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the MTF has the necessary resources to provide quality medical care to its patients.

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50. In which discussion on mental health implications for traumatic injuries, the survival of many troops who previously would have died is attributed to?

Explanation

The survival of many troops who previously would have died in traumatic injuries is attributed to body armor improvements. This suggests that the advancements in protective gear have played a significant role in preventing fatal injuries and increasing the chances of survival for soldiers.

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51. What act passed by Congress in 1980 created a Mental Health Bill of Rights?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress in 1980, created a Mental Health Bill of Rights. It aimed to improve and expand mental health services and protect the rights of individuals receiving mental health treatment. The act focused on community-based mental health care and emphasized prevention, early intervention, and comprehensive services for individuals with mental illnesses. However, the act was later repealed in 1981 due to concerns about its cost and potential for federal control over mental health services.

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52. Which Centers for Disease Control (CDC) germ-spreading preventative measure is used universally throughout the Air Force?

Explanation

Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices that are used to prevent the spread of germs and diseases in healthcare settings. These precautions are recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and are used universally throughout the Air Force. Standard precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of sharps and other potentially infectious materials. By following standard precautions, healthcare workers and military personnel can reduce the risk of transmitting infections to themselves and others.

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53. According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of all of the following except?

Explanation

According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of reprisal, coercion, or discrimination. "Redress" refers to the process of seeking a remedy or resolution for a grievance or complaint. Therefore, the correct answer is redress, as it is not mentioned as one of the rights that employees have when requesting assistance.

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54. Which type of crisis is often predicted?

Explanation

Developmental crises are often predicted because they are a normal and expected part of the human life cycle. These crises occur during significant life transitions such as adolescence, marriage, parenthood, and retirement. They are characterized by a period of adjustment and adaptation to new roles, responsibilities, and identities. Developmental crises are anticipated and can be prepared for, making them more predictable compared to other types of crises.

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55. What is the maximum period after a permanent change of station (PCS) that an E-3 has to participate in the required Newcomers Orientation?

Explanation

The maximum period after a permanent change of station (PCS) that an E-3 has to participate in the required Newcomers Orientation is 60 days. This means that E-3 personnel have up to 60 days from the date of their PCS to attend the orientation. Attending the orientation is important as it provides valuable information and resources to help them adjust to their new duty station.

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56. In which battle fatigue classification does themember stay in the unit to rest and then be restored to full duty?

Explanation

In the battle fatigue classification of mild reactions, the member stays in the unit to rest and then is restored to full duty. This implies that the member's fatigue or stress levels are not severe enough to require removal from the unit or extended periods of recovery. Instead, they are able to recuperate within the unit and return to their regular duties once they have rested.

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57. Cases that need replenishment in a nonmedical support unit are placed in what triage catergory?

Explanation

Rest is the correct answer because in a nonmedical support unit, cases that need replenishment are placed in the rest triage category. This means that these cases require a period of rest or recovery before they can resume their duties or tasks. Rest triage category is used for individuals who are fatigued, exhausted, or in need of a break to restore their energy levels. Placing these cases in the rest category ensures that they receive the necessary time and support to recuperate before returning to their duties.

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58. Studies have shown that women are typically over diagnosed with all of the following disorders except?

Explanation

Research has consistently shown that women are more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders, dependent personality disorder, and borderline personality disorder compared to men. However, studies have not indicated a gender bias in the diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is bipolar.

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59. Which combat treatment principle concept states that battle fatigue casualties shiould be treated in one location?

Explanation

The concept of centrality states that battle fatigue casualties should be treated in one location. This means that instead of dispersing the casualties to multiple locations, they should be brought together in a central location for treatment. This allows for better coordination and efficiency in providing care to the casualties, as resources and medical personnel can be concentrated in one place. Treating the casualties in one location also facilitates communication and support among the patients, creating a sense of camaraderie and understanding among them.

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60. What organization has very specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilianmedical or treatment facilites must adhere to?

Explanation

The Joint Commission is an organization that has very specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilian medical or treatment facilities must adhere to. The Joint Commission is a non-profit organization that accredits and certifies healthcare organizations in the United States. They set standards for patient care and safety, including guidelines for patient's rights. These guidelines ensure that patients receive high-quality care and are treated with respect and dignity.

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61. Which is  not considered a disadvantage of a guided discussion?

Explanation

Guided discussions are beneficial because they allow for student participation. This means that students can actively engage in the learning process, share their thoughts and ideas, and learn from each other. Student participation fosters critical thinking, collaboration, and communication skills. Therefore, student participation is not considered a disadvantage of guided discussions, but rather a valuable aspect that enhances the learning experience.

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62. Which briefing encourages leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explains the referral and treatment process?

Explanation

A key personnel briefing is likely to encourage leadership to seek early intervention of suspected substance abusers and explain the referral and treatment process. This type of briefing is specifically designed for key personnel, who are responsible for managing and leading others within an organization. It is important for leaders to be aware of the signs of substance abuse and understand how to handle such situations effectively. Therefore, a key personnel briefing would be the most appropriate choice for addressing this issue.

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63. Which is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior?

Explanation

Hypoactivity is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior because it refers to a decreased level of activity or movement, which is generally associated with a lack of aggression. Pre-aggressive behaviors are typically characterized by actions or signs that precede an aggressive act, such as withdrawal, sleep disturbance, or changes in voice level. However, hypoactivity does not display any signs of aggression and is therefore not considered a pre-aggressive behavior.

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64. Which organization must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF)?

Explanation

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF). The EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants and other chemicals used in various settings, including healthcare facilities. They establish guidelines and standards for disinfectant products to protect public health and the environment. Therefore, it is crucial for the EPA to approve the disinfectants used in MTFs to ensure they are safe and effective in preventing the spread of infections.

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65. Which combat treament princeples concept impress upon the individual that he or she will return to the unit in a short time?

Explanation

The concept of expectancy in combat treatment principles impresses upon the individual that they will return to the unit in a short time. This principle focuses on instilling a sense of hope and belief in the individual that their treatment will be effective and they will be able to rejoin their unit quickly. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining a positive mindset and outlook during the treatment process.

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66. Which liability protects the accountability of the patient and the Air Force?

Explanation

Administrative liability refers to the legal responsibility of individuals or organizations for their actions or decisions within an administrative framework. In the context of the given question, administrative liability would protect the accountability of both the patient and the Air Force, ensuring that they are held responsible for any administrative violations or misconduct. This liability could involve disciplinary actions, penalties, or other administrative measures to ensure compliance with rules and regulations.

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67. Which is not considered an advantage of a guided discussion?

Explanation

A guided discussion is a teaching method that encourages student participation, stimulates reflective thinking, and corrects misconceptions. However, a nonthreatening environment is not considered an advantage of a guided discussion. This means that a guided discussion may not necessarily create an environment where students feel completely safe and comfortable expressing their opinions or ideas.

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68. What section fo the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record is used for Supportive Documentation?

Explanation

The correct answer is D. In the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record, section D is used for Supportive Documentation. This section is specifically designated to include any additional documents or evidence that support the information provided in the FAP record. It serves as a repository for any relevant documentation that may be required for further assessment, evaluation, or decision-making processes related to the FAP case.

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69. Cases that do not have severe combat operational stress reactrion (CORS) or behavioral health (BH) disorders are placed in what triage catergory?

Explanation

Cases that do not have severe combat operational stress reaction (CORS) or behavioral health (BH) disorders are placed in the "help in place" triage category. This means that these individuals do not require immediate medical or psychiatric intervention and can be provided with support and assistance in their current location. They may benefit from counseling, guidance, and resources to cope with their stress or behavioral health issues, but they do not require immediate transfer or referral to another facility.

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70. During which crisis stage does the individual try to use previously used coping mechanisms on his or her current crisis?

Explanation

During the crisis stage of "attempts to reorganize," the individual is trying to use coping mechanisms that have worked for them in the past to deal with their current crisis. This suggests that they are in a state of actively trying to find a solution or a way to regain control over their situation. They are making efforts to reorganize their thoughts, emotions, and actions in order to cope with the crisis at hand.

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71. Which is not considered a secluse mease?

Explanation

Limiting interactions between the patient and peers is not considered a seclusion measure because it does not involve physically restraining or confining the patient. Seclusion measures typically involve physically restricting the patient's movement or isolating them from others. In this case, limiting interactions with peers may be a form of social isolation or a therapeutic intervention, but it does not involve physical restraint or confinement.

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72. A patient born in 1962 is considered a part of which generational group?

Explanation

The patient born in 1962 is considered a part of the generation X-ers. Generation X-ers are typically born between the years 1965 and 1980, so someone born in 1962 falls within this time frame. This generation is known for experiencing significant societal and technological changes during their formative years.

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73. The correct number of personnel for a Medial Behavioral Health Rapid Response Team-Psychologist is?

Explanation

The correct number of personnel for a Medical Behavioral Health Rapid Response Team-Psychologist is one psychologist and one 7-level MHT. This combination ensures that there is a qualified psychologist to provide mental health support and a 7-level MHT to assist with any medical or logistical needs. Having both professionals on the team allows for a comprehensive approach to addressing the behavioral health needs of patients.

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74. In general, a behavioral health team supports a bed-down population of?

Explanation

A behavioral health team typically supports a bed-down population of 2,000. This means that the team is responsible for providing mental health services and support to a group of 2,000 individuals. This could include counseling, therapy, medication management, and other interventions to address mental health issues and promote overall well-being. The larger the bed-down population, the greater the need for a robust behavioral health team to ensure that everyone receives the necessary care and support.

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75. The somatic nervous system's motor responses are?

Explanation

The somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary motor responses, meaning that it controls movements that are under conscious control. This includes actions like walking, talking, and writing. Automatic responses, on the other hand, are controlled by the autonomic nervous system and do not require conscious effort, such as breathing or digestion. Involuntary responses are also controlled by the autonomic nervous system, but they are not under conscious control, such as reflexes. Delayed responses do not accurately describe the motor responses of the somatic nervous system.

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76. The correct number of personnel for a Medical Behavioral Health Rapid Response Team-Nurse is?

Explanation

The correct number of personnel for a Medical Behavioral Health Rapid Response Team-Nurse is two MH nurses. This means that there should be two mental health nurses present in the team.

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77. What provides personnel and equipment necessary for 24-hour staging operations for patients transiting the worldwild Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) system?

Explanation

Contingency aeromedical staging facilities provide personnel and equipment necessary for 24-hour staging operations for patients transiting the worldwide Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) system. These facilities are specifically designed to support the movement of patients and ensure their care and comfort during the staging process. They play a crucial role in facilitating the smooth and efficient transfer of patients within the AE system.

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78. Which aeromedical evacuation movement phases provides airlift for patients between proints within the battlefiled, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and to subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone?

Explanation

The correct answer is "forward." In aeromedical evacuation, the forward movement phase involves transporting patients between points within the battlefield, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and to subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone. This phase is crucial in providing timely medical care to injured personnel in the midst of conflict.

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79. Which organization is responsible for coordinating all patient transfer once the mission arrives at the Continetal United States (CONUS) reception aerial port?

Explanation

The Global Patient Movement Requirements Center (GPMRC) is responsible for coordinating all patient transfer once the mission arrives at the Continental United States (CONUS) reception aerial port. This organization ensures that patients are transferred efficiently and effectively to the appropriate medical facilities for further treatment and care. They coordinate with various agencies and stakeholders to ensure a smooth and seamless patient transfer process.

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80. The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in what section of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record?

Explanation

The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in section b of the Family Advocacy Program (FAP) record.

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81. Which category of stress is difficult for people to cope with and leads to self-devaluation?

Explanation

Frustrations are a category of stress that can be difficult for people to cope with and often lead to self-devaluation. When individuals experience frustrations, such as being unable to achieve their goals or feeling stuck in a difficult situation, they may start to doubt their abilities and worth. This self-devaluation can further exacerbate the stress and make it even more challenging to cope with.

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82. During which crisis stage does the individual realize tthat attempts to escapte the problem fail and move into this stage?

Explanation

In the given question, the individual realizes that attempts to escape the problem fail and moves into the stage of local reorganization. This stage is characterized by the recognition that the previous strategies or solutions are not working, and the individual starts to focus on finding new ways to address the problem. It is a transitional stage where the individual begins to reevaluate their approach and make necessary adjustments to overcome the crisis.

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83. How many major classifications are there in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

Explanation

The correct answer is six because there are six major classifications in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system. This suggests that there are six distinct categories or types within the AE system that are used for classifying different situations or conditions related to medical evacuations.

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84. What ambulatory inpatient aeromedical evacuation class is ued for drug or alcohol abuse patients going for treatment?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3C. Class 3C is used for ambulatory inpatient aeromedical evacuation of drug or alcohol abuse patients going for treatment. This class specifically caters to patients who require medical supervision during the evacuation process.

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85. Which is not considered a hasty generalization?

Explanation

Unjustified inferences are not considered a hasty generalization because they involve drawing conclusions without sufficient evidence or reasoning. Hasty generalizations occur when someone makes a broad generalization based on limited or biased information. In the case of second-hand information, it can still be reliable depending on the source and verification process. Out-dated information may not be accurate anymore, but it does not necessarily involve making unjustified inferences. Vividness, on the other hand, refers to the use of vivid or emotional examples to support a generalization, which can be a form of hasty generalization.

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86. What organization's mission is to receive, shelter, process, and provide medical and nursing care to patients who enter, travel in, or leave the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Aeromedical Staging Facility (ASF). The ASF's mission is to receive, shelter, process, and provide medical and nursing care to patients who enter, travel in, or leave the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system. This organization plays a crucial role in the aeromedical evacuation process by ensuring that patients receive the necessary care and support during their journey.

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87. Who is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered based upon documentaion in the health record?

Explanation

The Health Records committee is responsible for appraising the quality of care rendered based upon documentation in the health record. They review the documentation to ensure that it is accurate, complete, and meets the required standards of care. This committee plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and quality of the health records, and their assessment helps in improving the overall quality of care provided to patients.

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88. During which history might we ask whether or not a person has had an Article 15?

Explanation

In the legal history, it is common to inquire whether or not a person has had an Article 15. Article 15 is a provision in the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) that allows commanders to impose non-judicial punishment for minor offenses committed by military personnel. This disciplinary action can result in various penalties such as loss of pay, extra duties, or even reduction in rank. Therefore, in a legal context, it is relevant to ask about an individual's history with Article 15 to determine their disciplinary record.

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89. Culturally skilled counselors employ strategies and knowledge for all of the following except?

Explanation

Culturally skilled counselors employ strategies and knowledge to address discrimination, oppression, and stereotypes. However, they do not employ strategies related to "radicalism." The focus of culturally skilled counselors is on promoting understanding, empathy, and positive interactions among individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds while addressing and challenging discriminatory practices and stereotypes. Radicalism, in the context of counseling, typically does not align with the goal of promoting constructive and culturally sensitive interactions.

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90. The patient is most likely to assault someone during which phase of the active phases?

Explanation

The correct answer is "trigger." During the trigger phase of the active phases, the patient is most likely to assault someone. This phase is characterized by a specific event or situation that sets off the patient's aggressive behavior. It acts as a catalyst for their aggression and can lead to an escalation if not managed properly.

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During which crisis stage does the individual try to use previously...
Which is not considered a secluse mease?
A patient born in 1962 is considered a part of which generational...
The correct number of personnel for a Medial Behavioral Health Rapid...
In general, a behavioral health team supports a bed-down population...
The somatic nervous system's motor responses are?
The correct number of personnel for a Medical Behavioral Health Rapid...
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Which aeromedical evacuation movement phases provides airlift for...
Which organization is responsible for coordinating all patient...
The FASOR 2486, Child/Spouse Incident Report, is maintained in what...
Which category of stress is difficult for people to cope with and...
During which crisis stage does the individual realize tthat attempts...
How many major classifications are there in the aeromedical evacuation...
What ambulatory inpatient aeromedical evacuation class is ued for drug...
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What organization's mission is to receive, shelter, process, and...
Who is responsible for the appraisal of the quality of care rendered...
During which history might we ask whether or not a person has had an...
Culturally skilled counselors employ strategies and knowledge for all...
The patient is most likely to assault someone during which phase of...
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