CDC 4c051 Volume 1 Pre-test

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  • 1/90 Questions

    Which area is not a basic ethical foundation of trust you must exercise as a mental health technician?

    • Respect
    • Autonomy
    • Beneficence
    • Nonmaleficence
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

CDC 4C051
Mental Health Journeyman
Volume 1. Common Mental Health Journeyman Experiences

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  • 2. 

    Which ethical behavior is closely related to respecting the patient's dignity?

    • Professional relationships

    • Individual care

    • Role modeling

    • Competence

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual care
    Explanation
    Individual care is closely related to respecting the patient's dignity because it involves providing personalized and attentive care to meet the unique needs and preferences of each patient. This approach recognizes and values the autonomy, privacy, and individuality of the patient, promoting their dignity and well-being. By considering the patient's values, beliefs, and cultural background, individual care ensures that the patient is treated with respect, compassion, and empathy, fostering a trusting and respectful professional relationship between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 3. 

    Which aspect of doing all of your duty is considered extremely important?

    • Sensitivity

    • Observant

    • Reliability

    • Confidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Reliability
    Explanation
    Reliability is considered extremely important when it comes to doing all of your duty. Being reliable means that you can be trusted to consistently complete tasks and fulfill responsibilities. It involves being dependable, punctual, and accountable for your actions. Reliability is crucial in maintaining trust and building strong relationships, both in personal and professional settings. By being reliable, you demonstrate your commitment and dedication to fulfilling your duties, which ultimately contributes to your overall effectiveness and success.

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  • 4. 

    Who is held accountable if a journeyman engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient?

    • Patient

    • Technician

    • Licensed provider

    • Noncommissioned officer in charge

    Correct Answer
    A. Technician
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Technician. In healthcare settings, it is the responsibility of the technician to maintain professional boundaries and avoid engaging in inappropriate relationships with patients. Technicians are expected to adhere to ethical guidelines and codes of conduct to ensure patient safety and trust. If a journeyman technician engages in an inappropriate relationship with a patient, they can be held accountable for their actions.

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  • 5. 

    If you touch a patient unnecessarily you are violating?

    • Physical privacy

    • Personal privacy

    • The Hippocratic oath

    • The mental health technician code of ethics

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical privacy
    Explanation
    Touching a patient unnecessarily violates their physical privacy. Physical privacy refers to an individual's right to control who can touch or access their body. It is important for healthcare professionals to respect this right and only touch patients when it is necessary for their care or with their consent. Unnecessary touching can be invasive and make patients feel uncomfortable or violated.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not an example of effective communication?

    • Being conscious of nonverbal signs

    • Looking people in their eyes

    • Being sympathetic

    • Being empathetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Being sympathetic
    Explanation
    Being sympathetic is not an example of effective communication because sympathy alone does not necessarily involve clear and meaningful exchange of information. Effective communication requires more than just feeling sorry for someone; it involves actively listening, understanding, and responding appropriately to the needs and emotions of others. While sympathy can be a component of effective communication, it is not sufficient on its own.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not an example of retaliation towards a patient?

    • Reducing the patient to a diagnosis

    • Laughing at a patient's fears.

    • Withholding medication

    • Avoiding patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Withholding medication
    Explanation
    Withholding medication is not an example of retaliation towards a patient because it is a violation of ethical standards and can potentially harm the patient's health. Retaliation involves intentionally causing harm or seeking revenge, whereas withholding medication is a form of neglect or medical malpractice. It is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate and timely treatment to patients, and withholding medication goes against this principle.

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  • 8. 

    Which attribute allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior?

    • Attitude

    • Acceptance

    • Consistency

    • Show interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Consistency
    Explanation
    Consistency allows the patient to gain a feeling of security by being able to predict your behavior. When healthcare providers consistently act in a reliable and predictable manner, it helps patients feel more secure and builds trust. Consistency in communication, treatment plans, and follow-up care can help patients understand what to expect and reduce anxiety. By maintaining consistency, healthcare providers can create a sense of stability and reliability, which can ultimately enhance the patient's overall experience and satisfaction.

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  • 9. 

    Which legal liability is considered non-punitive?

    • Administrative

    • Criminal

    • Civil tort

    • General

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative
    Explanation
    Administrative liability is considered non-punitive because it focuses on correcting behavior and ensuring compliance with regulations rather than punishing individuals. It involves imposing fines, penalties, or other administrative measures to address violations or misconduct in areas such as business, finance, or government regulations. Unlike criminal or civil tort liability, which aim to punish wrongdoers and provide compensation to victims, administrative liability aims to promote adherence to rules and regulations in a non-punitive manner. Therefore, the correct answer is administrative.

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  • 10. 

    Which liability protects the accountability of the patient and the Air Force?

    • Legal

    • Criminal

    • Administrative

    • Civil tort

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative
    Explanation
    Administrative liability refers to the legal responsibility of individuals or organizations for their actions or decisions within an administrative framework. In the context of the given question, administrative liability would protect the accountability of both the patient and the Air Force, ensuring that they are held responsible for any administrative violations or misconduct. This liability could involve disciplinary actions, penalties, or other administrative measures to ensure compliance with rules and regulations.

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  • 11. 

    Which of these is not considered an intentional tort?

    • False imprisonment

    • Misrepresentation

    • Negligence

    • Assault

    Correct Answer
    A. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence is not considered an intentional tort because it involves the failure to exercise reasonable care, rather than deliberately causing harm or intending to cause harm to another person. Intentional torts, on the other hand, involve actions that are done with the intent to harm or cause injury to someone else. False imprisonment, misrepresentation, and assault are all examples of intentional torts as they involve intentional acts that cause harm or infringe upon someone's rights. Negligence, on the other hand, refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care, which can result in unintentional harm or injury to another person.

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  • 12. 

    A constitutional tort is a violation of?

    • A spouse's civil rights by her husband

    • A patient's civil rights by a civilian provider

    • An employee's civil rights by his or her employer

    • A patient's civil rights by a government employee

    Correct Answer
    A. A patient's civil rights by a government employee
    Explanation
    A constitutional tort refers to a violation of an individual's civil rights by a government employee. This can occur when a government employee, such as a law enforcement officer or public official, infringes upon a person's constitutional rights, such as freedom of speech, freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures, or equal protection under the law. In this case, the correct answer is "a patient's civil rights by a government employee," indicating that the violation of civil rights occurs in the context of a patient's interaction with a government employee, such as a healthcare provider or a public hospital employee.

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  • 13. 

    What type of patient admission reduces unfavorable reactions and is the most desirable?

    • Voluntary

    • Emergency

    • Involuntary

    • Temporary involuntary

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntary
    Explanation
    Voluntary patient admission reduces unfavorable reactions and is the most desirable because it implies that the patient has willingly sought medical help and is actively participating in their treatment. This type of admission allows for better communication and cooperation between the patient and healthcare providers, leading to more effective and personalized care. It also respects the patient's autonomy and decision-making power, promoting a sense of empowerment and involvement in their own healthcare journey.

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  • 14. 

    What act passed by Congress in 1980 created a Mental Health Bill of Rights?

    • Mental Health Systems Act

    • Mental Health Privacy Act

    • Mental Health Services Act

    • Mental Health Confidentiality Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental Health Systems Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Mental Health Systems Act. This act, passed by Congress in 1980, created a Mental Health Bill of Rights. It aimed to improve and expand mental health services and protect the rights of individuals receiving mental health treatment. The act focused on community-based mental health care and emphasized prevention, early intervention, and comprehensive services for individuals with mental illnesses. However, the act was later repealed in 1981 due to concerns about its cost and potential for federal control over mental health services.

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  • 15. 

    What organization has very specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilianmedical or treatment facilites must adhere to?

    • Occupational, Safety and Health Administration

    • American Psychological Association

    • Health Services Inspection

    • Joint Commission

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Commission
    Explanation
    The Joint Commission is an organization that has very specific patient's rights guidelines that all military and civilian medical or treatment facilities must adhere to. The Joint Commission is a non-profit organization that accredits and certifies healthcare organizations in the United States. They set standards for patient care and safety, including guidelines for patient's rights. These guidelines ensure that patients receive high-quality care and are treated with respect and dignity.

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  • 16. 

    Accreditation findings that raise specific issues are reviewed by the?

    • Joint commission's accreditation committee

    • Joint commission's board of commissioners

    • Joint commission's board of accreditation

    • Hospital commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint commission's accreditation committee
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Joint Commission's accreditation committee. This committee is responsible for reviewing accreditation findings that raise specific issues. They assess the findings and determine the appropriate actions to be taken. The committee plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare organizations meet the standards set by the Joint Commission for quality and safety. They work closely with the board of commissioners and the board of accreditation to ensure that the accreditation process is thorough and effective. The hospital commander is not directly involved in the accreditation review process.

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  • 17. 

    Who conducts Health Services Inspections?

    • Emergency Evaluation Team

    • Air Force Inspection Agency

    • Hospital Services Inspection Team

    • Air Force directives and policy

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Inspection Agency
    Explanation
    The Air Force Inspection Agency conducts Health Services Inspections. This agency is responsible for conducting inspections and evaluations of various aspects of the Air Force, including health services. They ensure that the health services provided by the Air Force meet the required standards and regulations.

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  • 18. 

    Which of these is not used to prepare for health services inspections?

    • Joint commission manual

    • Health services questionnaire

    • Documents from previous inspections

    • Air Force directives and policy letters

    Correct Answer
    A. Health services questionnaire
    Explanation
    The health services questionnaire is not used to prepare for health services inspections. This is because a questionnaire is typically used to gather information or collect data, rather than to prepare for an inspection. In contrast, the Joint Commission manual, documents from previous inspections, and Air Force directives and policy letters are commonly used to prepare for health services inspections as they provide guidelines, standards, and information necessary for the inspection process.

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  • 19. 

    Which Centers for Disease Control (CDC) germ-spreading preventative measure is used universally throughout the Air Force?

    • Universal precautions

    • Standard precautions

    • Body substance isolation

    • General substance isolation

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard precautions
    Explanation
    Standard precautions are a set of infection control practices that are used to prevent the spread of germs and diseases in healthcare settings. These precautions are recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and are used universally throughout the Air Force. Standard precautions include practices such as hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of sharps and other potentially infectious materials. By following standard precautions, healthcare workers and military personnel can reduce the risk of transmitting infections to themselves and others.

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  • 20. 

    How many years can the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) remain dormant before symptoms develop?

    • 5

    • 8

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can remain dormant for approximately 10 years before symptoms start to develop. During this period, the virus slowly weakens the immune system, leading to a gradual decline in overall health. This asymptomatic phase is known as the clinical latency stage. It is important to note that the duration of this stage can vary from person to person, and some individuals may progress to symptomatic HIV infection sooner or later than the average 10-year period. Regular testing and early detection are crucial in managing HIV and preventing its transmission.

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  • 21. 

    Which organization must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF)?

    • Occupational, Safety and health Administration (OSHA)

    • American Psychological Association (APA)

    • Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

    • Joint Commission

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
    Explanation
    The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) must approve all disinfectants used in the medical treatment facility (MTF). The EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants and other chemicals used in various settings, including healthcare facilities. They establish guidelines and standards for disinfectant products to protect public health and the environment. Therefore, it is crucial for the EPA to approve the disinfectants used in MTFs to ensure they are safe and effective in preventing the spread of infections.

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  • 22. 

    The somatic nervous system's motor responses are?

    • Automatic

    • Voluntary

    • Involuntary

    • Delayed

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntary
    Explanation
    The somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary motor responses, meaning that it controls movements that are under conscious control. This includes actions like walking, talking, and writing. Automatic responses, on the other hand, are controlled by the autonomic nervous system and do not require conscious effort, such as breathing or digestion. Involuntary responses are also controlled by the autonomic nervous system, but they are not under conscious control, such as reflexes. Delayed responses do not accurately describe the motor responses of the somatic nervous system.

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  • 23. 

    What slows down the body and helps prepare for more relaxed state, ready for digestion and sleep?

    • Flight or flight response

    • Peripheral nervous system

    • Sympathetic nervous system

    • Parasympathetic nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. Parasympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for slowing down the body and preparing it for a more relaxed state, which is essential for digestion and sleep. This system works in opposition to the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the fight or flight response. When the parasympathetic system is activated, it promotes rest and digest activities, such as decreasing heart rate, constricting pupils, and increasing digestion. This allows the body to conserve energy and focus on essential functions like digestion and restorative sleep.

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  • 24. 

    In order to ensure that personnel are safe from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses, the Air Force complies with what organization's guidelines?

    • Joint Commission

    • Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

    • American Psychological Association (APA)

    • Occupational, Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational, Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
    Explanation
    The Air Force complies with the guidelines of the Occupational, Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to ensure the safety of its personnel from work-related deaths, injuries, and illnesses. OSHA is a government agency that sets and enforces standards for workplace safety and health. By following OSHA guidelines, the Air Force aims to create a safe and healthy working environment for its personnel.

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  • 25. 

    According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of all of the following except?

    • Redress

    • Reprisal

    • Coercion

    • Discrimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Redress
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Prevention Health (AFOSH) Program, civilian employees have the right to request assistance without fear of reprisal, coercion, or discrimination. "Redress" refers to the process of seeking a remedy or resolution for a grievance or complaint. Therefore, the correct answer is redress, as it is not mentioned as one of the rights that employees have when requesting assistance.

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  • 26. 

    When lifting or moving a bedridden patient, what part of your body should endure most of the strain?

    • Arms

    • Legs

    • Back

    • Feet

    Correct Answer
    A. Legs
    Explanation
    When lifting or moving a bedridden patient, the legs should endure most of the strain. This is because the muscles in the legs, particularly the quadriceps and glutes, are larger and stronger compared to the muscles in the arms, back, and feet. By using the legs to lift and support the weight, it helps distribute the load more evenly and reduces the risk of back injuries or strains. Additionally, the legs provide a stable base and better leverage for lifting, making it safer and more efficient to move the patient.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not an element of combustion?

    • Fuel

    • Heat

    • Oxygen

    • Ignition

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignition
    Explanation
    Ignition is not an element of combustion. Combustion is a chemical reaction that occurs between fuel, heat, and oxygen. Fuel provides the material to burn, heat is the energy required to initiate and sustain the reaction, and oxygen acts as the oxidizing agent. Ignition, on the other hand, refers to the process of starting the combustion reaction by providing an initial source of heat. It is not a fundamental element of the combustion process itself, but rather a step that precedes it.

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  • 28. 

    When a staff member is involved in or discovers an accident, who initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement?

    • Only the safety officer

    • Only the safety supervisor

    • The staff member

    • Any nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. The staff member
    Explanation
    The staff member initiates the AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement when they are involved in or discover an accident. This form is used to document and report any incidents that occur within a medical treatment facility. It is the responsibility of the staff member to fill out this form and provide all necessary details about the accident. The form helps in investigating the incident, identifying any potential safety hazards, and implementing corrective measures to prevent future accidents.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of crisis is often predicted?

    • Situational

    • Transitional

    • Disorganized

    • Developmental

    Correct Answer
    A. Developmental
    Explanation
    Developmental crises are often predicted because they are a normal and expected part of the human life cycle. These crises occur during significant life transitions such as adolescence, marriage, parenthood, and retirement. They are characterized by a period of adjustment and adaptation to new roles, responsibilities, and identities. Developmental crises are anticipated and can be prepared for, making them more predictable compared to other types of crises.

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  • 30. 

    During which crisis stage does the individual try to use previously used coping mechanisms on his or her current crisis?

    • Disorganization

    • Local reorganization

    • General reorganization

    • Attempts to reorganize

    Correct Answer
    A. Attempts to reorganize
    Explanation
    During the crisis stage of "attempts to reorganize," the individual is trying to use coping mechanisms that have worked for them in the past to deal with their current crisis. This suggests that they are in a state of actively trying to find a solution or a way to regain control over their situation. They are making efforts to reorganize their thoughts, emotions, and actions in order to cope with the crisis at hand.

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  • 31. 

    During which crisis stage does the individual realize tthat attempts to escapte the problem fail and move into this stage?

    • Disorganization

    • Local reorganization

    • General reorganization

    • Attempts to reorganize

    Correct Answer
    A. Local reorganization
    Explanation
    In the given question, the individual realizes that attempts to escape the problem fail and moves into the stage of local reorganization. This stage is characterized by the recognition that the previous strategies or solutions are not working, and the individual starts to focus on finding new ways to address the problem. It is a transitional stage where the individual begins to reevaluate their approach and make necessary adjustments to overcome the crisis.

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  • 32. 

    Which is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior?

    • Withdrawal

    • Hypoactivity

    • Sleep disturbance

    • Changes in voice level

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoactivity
    Explanation
    Hypoactivity is not considered a pre-aggressive behavior because it refers to a decreased level of activity or movement, which is generally associated with a lack of aggression. Pre-aggressive behaviors are typically characterized by actions or signs that precede an aggressive act, such as withdrawal, sleep disturbance, or changes in voice level. However, hypoactivity does not display any signs of aggression and is therefore not considered a pre-aggressive behavior.

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  • 33. 

    What approach should you use when area restriction fails?

    • Talk to patient

    • Room restriction

    • Manual restraints

    • Mechanical restraints

    Correct Answer
    A. Room restriction
    Explanation
    When area restriction fails, the next approach that should be used is room restriction. This means that the patient should be confined to a specific room or area to ensure their safety and prevent them from causing harm to themselves or others. Room restriction provides a controlled environment where the patient can be closely monitored and supervised, reducing the risk of any potential harm or danger.

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  • 34. 

    Which is not considered a secluse mease?

    • Restraining a patient in a bed in a locked room

    • Limiting interactions between the patient and peers

    • Locking a patient in a room with only a mattress on the floor

    • Allwoing the patient privacy in his or her room without locking the door.

    Correct Answer
    A. Limiting interactions between the patient and peers
    Explanation
    Limiting interactions between the patient and peers is not considered a seclusion measure because it does not involve physically restraining or confining the patient. Seclusion measures typically involve physically restricting the patient's movement or isolating them from others. In this case, limiting interactions with peers may be a form of social isolation or a therapeutic intervention, but it does not involve physical restraint or confinement.

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  • 35. 

    What is the first phase of the active phases in the  assaultive cycle?

    • Crisis

    • Trigger

    • Escalation

    • Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Trigger
    Explanation
    The first phase of the active phases in the assaultive cycle is the trigger. This refers to the initial event or stimulus that sets off or provokes the aggressive behavior. It acts as a catalyst for the escalation of aggression and violence.

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  • 36. 

    The patient is most likely to assault someone during which phase of the active phases?

    • Crisis

    • Trigger

    • Escalation

    • Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Trigger
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "trigger." During the trigger phase of the active phases, the patient is most likely to assault someone. This phase is characterized by a specific event or situation that sets off the patient's aggressive behavior. It acts as a catalyst for their aggression and can lead to an escalation if not managed properly.

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  • 37. 

    Which phase of the active phases offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff?

    • Crisis

    • Trigger

    • Escalation

    • Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    The recovery phase offers the opportunity for therapeutic growth for the patient and staff. This is because during this phase, the patient is stabilizing and regaining control over their emotions and behaviors. It is a time of healing and rebuilding, where the patient can work on developing coping strategies and skills to prevent future crises. Additionally, the staff can provide support, guidance, and interventions to assist the patient in their recovery journey.

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  • 38. 

    The minimum number of staff required to physically restrain a patient is?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    In order to physically restrain a patient safely and effectively, it is recommended to have a minimum of four staff members. This is because restraining a patient can be a challenging and potentially dangerous task, requiring multiple individuals to ensure the patient's safety as well as the safety of the staff involved. With four staff members, they can distribute the workload and coordinate their efforts to minimize the risk of injury to the patient and themselves.

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  • 39. 

    When physically restraing a patient, who sets the rules for the takedown?

    • Highest raking

    • Team leader

    • Provider

    • Nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. Team leader
    Explanation
    The team leader is responsible for setting the rules for the takedown when physically restraining a patient. As the leader of the team, they have the authority to establish guidelines and protocols for the restraint process. This ensures that the restraint is conducted safely and effectively, minimizing the risk of harm to both the patient and the healthcare providers involved. The team leader's role is crucial in coordinating the efforts of the team and making decisions that prioritize the well-being of everyone involved.

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  • 40. 

    Before proceeding with chemical restraints, all of the following questions should be asked except?

    • Is the patient diabetic?

    • Is the patient intoxicated?

    • How much has the patient eaten today?

    • Has the patient recently undergone medical treatment?

    Correct Answer
    A. How much has the patient eaten today?
    Explanation
    Chemical restraints are medications used to control or sedate a patient's behavior in emergency situations. When considering the use of chemical restraints, it is important to assess various factors to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. The questions listed in the options are all relevant in this assessment, except for "how much has the patient eaten today?" This question is not directly related to the decision of using chemical restraints and does not provide any information that would impact the administration of such medications.

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  • 41. 

    What is defined as "to make clear distiction; distingues; differentiate or to act on the basis of prejudice?"

    • Racism

    • Culture

    • Ethnicity

    • Discrimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Discrimination
    Explanation
    Discrimination is defined as the act of making clear distinctions, distinguishing, differentiating, or acting on the basis of prejudice. It involves treating individuals or groups unfairly or unfavorably based on characteristics such as race, ethnicity, gender, or religion. Discrimination can manifest in various forms, such as unequal treatment, exclusion, or denial of rights and opportunities. It is a harmful practice that perpetuates inequality and undermines social cohesion.

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  • 42. 

    Which is not considered a hasty generalization?

    • Second-hand information

    • Out-dated information

    • Unjustified inferences

    • Vividness

    Correct Answer
    A. Unjustified inferences
    Explanation
    Unjustified inferences are not considered a hasty generalization because they involve drawing conclusions without sufficient evidence or reasoning. Hasty generalizations occur when someone makes a broad generalization based on limited or biased information. In the case of second-hand information, it can still be reliable depending on the source and verification process. Out-dated information may not be accurate anymore, but it does not necessarily involve making unjustified inferences. Vividness, on the other hand, refers to the use of vivid or emotional examples to support a generalization, which can be a form of hasty generalization.

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  • 43. 

    What distance is considered the personal space in a comforst zone?

    • Contact to 18 inches

    • 18 inches to 4 feet

    • 4 feet to 12 feet

    • More than 12 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 inches to 4 feet
    Explanation
    The personal space in a comfort zone is typically considered to be between 18 inches and 4 feet. This distance allows individuals to feel comfortable and not invaded by others, while still being close enough for interaction if desired.

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  • 44. 

    Which ethnic group is more likely to use preventive care if it uses culturally appropriate methods, such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach?

    • Puerto Rican

    • Cuban American

    • African American

    • Mexican American

    Correct Answer
    A. African American
    Explanation
    African Americans are more likely to use preventive care if culturally appropriate methods, such as lay peer educators, family and community networks, and community outreach, are used. This suggests that African Americans value and respond positively to interventions that are tailored to their cultural background and community. By utilizing these methods, healthcare providers can effectively engage and educate African Americans about the importance of preventive care, leading to increased utilization and improved health outcomes within this population.

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  • 45. 

    In what ethnic group is it likely women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices are common?

    • American Samoan

    • Cuban American

    • American Indian

    • Alaska Native

    Correct Answer
    A. Alaska Native
    Explanation
    Alaska Native women may neglect their health in favor of their families and traditional healing practices due to various reasons such as cultural beliefs, lack of access to healthcare facilities, and historical trauma. Traditional healing practices are deeply ingrained in the Alaska Native culture, and women may prioritize these practices over seeking modern medical care. Additionally, the remote and rural nature of many Alaska Native communities can make it difficult for women to access healthcare services, leading to a neglect of their own health. These factors contribute to a higher likelihood of health neglect among Alaska Native women.

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  • 46. 

    Culturally skilled counselors employ strategies and knowledge for all of the following except?

    • Discrimination

    • Oppression

    • Stereotypes

    • Radicalism

    Correct Answer
    A. Radicalism
    Explanation
    Culturally skilled counselors employ strategies and knowledge to address discrimination, oppression, and stereotypes. However, they do not employ strategies related to "radicalism." The focus of culturally skilled counselors is on promoting understanding, empathy, and positive interactions among individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds while addressing and challenging discriminatory practices and stereotypes. Radicalism, in the context of counseling, typically does not align with the goal of promoting constructive and culturally sensitive interactions.

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  • 47. 

    A patient born in 1962 is considered a part of which generational group?

    • Veterants

    • Baby boomers

    • Generation x-ers

    • Generation nexters

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation x-ers
    Explanation
    The patient born in 1962 is considered a part of the generation X-ers. Generation X-ers are typically born between the years 1965 and 1980, so someone born in 1962 falls within this time frame. This generation is known for experiencing significant societal and technological changes during their formative years.

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  • 48. 

    Which generational group is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society?

    • Veterans

    • Baby boomers

    • Generation x-ers

    • Generation nexters

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation nexters
    Explanation
    Generation Nexters, also known as Generation Z, is considered computer savvy, intelligent, and eager to make a place for themselves in society. This generation grew up with technology and the internet, making them highly proficient in using computers and digital devices. They are known for their ability to adapt quickly to new technologies and their desire to succeed in a rapidly changing world.

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  • 49. 

    Studies have shown that women are typically over diagnosed with all of the following disorders except?

    • Anxiety

    • Bipolar

    • Dependent personality

    • Borderline personality

    Correct Answer
    A. Bipolar
    Explanation
    Research has consistently shown that women are more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders, dependent personality disorder, and borderline personality disorder compared to men. However, studies have not indicated a gender bias in the diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is bipolar.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 6, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 06, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Rubiom

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