CDC 3DX5X Vol2 Ure3

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CDC 3DX5X Vol2 Ure3 - Quiz


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (218) This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network

    • A.

      Global applications

    • B.

      Warrior component

    • C.

      Network operations

    • D.

      Information management

    Correct Answer
    B. Warrior component
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Warrior component. The Warrior component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network. This component focuses on providing the necessary tools, equipment, and infrastructure to ensure that the warfighter has direct access to the global network and can effectively communicate and access information in real-time.

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  • 2. 

    (218) This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

    • A.

      Joint architecture

    • B.

      Unity of command

    • C.

      Information services

    • D.

      Common policy and standards

    Correct Answer
    D. Common policy and standards
    Explanation
    Common policy and standards refer to a set of rules and guidelines that are followed by all service branches in the Global Information Grid. By having a common policy and standards, it ensures that information can be seamlessly transmitted between different service branches. This means that regardless of the branch, everyone follows the same protocols and procedures, allowing for efficient and effective communication and information sharing.

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  • 3. 

    (219) Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

    • A.

      The service that owns the installation

    • B.

      DISA

    • C.

      Infrastructure tech

    • D.

      Deployed warfighters

    Correct Answer
    A. The service that owns the installation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the service that owns the installation. This means that the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the specific military service that owns the installation. They are accountable for ensuring the proper functioning and upkeep of the network within their jurisdiction.

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  • 4. 

    (219) Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?

    • A.

      Long-haul transport infrastructure.

    • B.

      Deployed warfighter

    • C.

      TBMCS terminal

    • D.

      Sustaining base

    Correct Answer
    B. Deployed warfighter
    Explanation
    A deployed warfighter refers to a person who is actively serving in a combat zone or area of responsibility. This can include individuals who are physically present in the deployed area or those who are stationed at a fixed location far away from the combat zone. In the context of the Defense Information System Network (DISN), the deployed warfighter segment would encompass the communication and information systems used by these individuals to support their operations and coordination with other military units.

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  • 5. 

    (220) What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?

    • A.

      Operated and managed as a base communications asset.

    • B.

      Considered one of the primary components of the Defense Information Systems Network.

    • C.

      Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network

    • D.

      Completely protected by encryption devices.

    Correct Answer
    C. Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network
  • 6. 

    (221) How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?

    • A.

      Protocols cannot be sent across the SIPRNET.

    • B.

      Transmitted from sender to user unchanged.

    • C.

      Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

    • D.

      Encrypted by a TACLANE before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

    Correct Answer
    C. Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.
  • 7. 

    (221) Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

    • A.

      KG-84

    • B.

      KG-194

    • C.

      KIV-7

    • D.

      KG-175

    Correct Answer
    A. KG-84
    Explanation
    The KG-84 is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to local area networks. It is designed to provide secure communication and protect sensitive data transmitted over the network.

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  • 8. 

    (222) What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?

    • A.

      DISN backbone

    • B.

      JDISS terminal

    • C.

      SIPRNET

    • D.

      NIPRNET

    Correct Answer
    A. DISN backbone
    Explanation
    The DISN backbone is the correct answer because it provides the conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System (JWICS) data transmission from one location to another. The DISN backbone is a high-speed, secure network that connects various military and government locations, allowing for the transmission of classified information. It is specifically designed to support the needs of the Department of Defense and other government agencies for secure and reliable communication.

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  • 9. 

    (223) What concerns slowed the military’s adoption of wireless network technology?

    • A.

      Speed and reliability

    • B.

      Security and reliability

    • C.

      Reliability maintenance

    • D.

      Certification and interoperability

    Correct Answer
    B. Security and reliability
    Explanation
    The military's adoption of wireless network technology was slowed down due to concerns regarding both security and reliability. Security is a major concern for the military as wireless networks are vulnerable to hacking and unauthorized access, which can compromise sensitive information and operations. Additionally, reliability is crucial for military operations, and any issues with the stability and consistency of wireless networks could hinder communication and coordination among military personnel. Therefore, the military prioritized addressing these concerns before fully adopting wireless network technology.

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  • 10. 

    (223) What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?

    • A.

      Adding more traditional time division multiplexing voice switches to handle additional data traffic.

    • B.

      Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.

    • C.

      Complete replacement of TDM switches with VoIP technology.

    • D.

      Managing TDM switches in the same way we manage data networks.

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.
    Explanation
    The first step in merging voice, data, and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force is to integrate traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems. This means combining the existing traditional time division multiplexing switches with voice over IP technology to enable the transmission of voice data over the internet protocol network. This integration allows for the convergence of voice, data, and video traffic onto a single network, improving efficiency and communication capabilities.

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  • 11. 

    (223) Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?

    • A.

      Establishing a Network Operation and Security Center at each base.

    • B.

      Creating a security baseline across all MAJCOM areas of responsibility.

    • C.

      Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers to establish a baseline security model.

    • D.

      Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers to establish a baseline security model.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers to establish a baseline security model." This initiative will help increase network security by providing standardized tools to all Network Operating Security Centers. These tools will establish a baseline security model, ensuring that all centers have the necessary resources and capabilities to effectively secure the network. This standardization will help improve coordination and collaboration among different centers, leading to a more secure network infrastructure.

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  • 12. 

    (224) Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?

    • A.

      Defense Logistics Agency.

    • B.

      Communications Squadron

    • C.

      Air Force Communications Agency

    • D.

      Defense Information Systems Agency

    Correct Answer
    D. Defense Information Systems Agency
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They oversee the Defense Switched Network, which is a secure voice and data network used by the military for communication purposes.

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  • 13. 

    (224) How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?

    • A.

      End offices are multiple-homed

    • B.

      End offices do not interoperate with allied networks

    • C.

      The DSN offers precedence access thresholding

    • D.

      The DSN offers single level precedence and preemption

    Correct Answer
    C. The DSN offers precedence access thresholding
    Explanation
    Responsiveness is provided in the Defense Switched Network (DSN) through the use of precedence access thresholding. This means that certain users or types of communication have priority access to the network based on their level of precedence. This ensures that critical communications are given priority and can be transmitted quickly and efficiently.

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  • 14. 

    (224) What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?

    • A.

      Flash

    • B.

      Priority

    • C.

      Intermediate

    • D.

      Flash Override

    Correct Answer
    D. Flash Override
    Explanation
    Flash Override is a type of Defense Switched Network (DSN) precedence call that cannot be preempted. This means that when a call with Flash Override precedence is initiated, it cannot be interrupted or overridden by any other call with a lower precedence level. Flash Override calls are reserved for critical and emergency situations that require immediate attention and cannot be delayed or interrupted.

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  • 15. 

    (225) What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?

    • A.

      9.6 Kbps

    • B.

      14.4 Kbps

    • C.

      19.2 Kbps

    • D.

      28.8 Kbps

    Correct Answer
    C. 19.2 Kbps
    Explanation
    The maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is 19.2 Kbps.

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  • 16. 

    (225) While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?

    • A.

      Recorded voice message

    • B.

      Punched computer cards

    • C.

      Liquid crystal display

    • D.

      Punched paper tape

    Correct Answer
    C. Liquid crystal display
    Explanation
    When using the Red Switch, the feature that lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security is the liquid crystal display. The liquid crystal display provides visual feedback by displaying information such as the dialed number, security level, or any other relevant information. This display ensures that the user can verify that they have dialed the correct number and are operating at the appropriate level of security.

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  • 17. 

    (226) What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?

    • A.

      To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.

    • B.

      To lessen the amount of traffic transmitted through the gateway terminals.

    • C.

      To provide one-way communication access for deployed locations.

    • D.

      To replace the old tactical satellite communications system.

    Correct Answer
    A. To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal is to provide a secure and reliable communication link between commanders in the field and the National Command Authority. This allows commanders to have real-time access to critical information and make informed decisions. The terminal serves as a direct communication channel, reducing the need for transmitting traffic through gateway terminals and ensuring efficient and effective communication in tactical operations.

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  • 18. 

    (227) The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?

    • A.

      2 microseconds

    • B.

      2 seconds

    • C.

      1 microsecond

    • D.

      1 second

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 microsecond
    Explanation
    The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within 1 microsecond of universal time code. This means that the GPS system is designed to ensure that the time displayed by GPS devices is accurate to within a very small fraction of a second compared to the universal time code.

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  • 19. 

    (228) Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?

    • A.

      OPSEC

    • B.

      EMSEC

    • C.

      COMSEC

    • D.

      COMPUSEC

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC
    Explanation
    AFI 10-701 refers to the Air Force Instruction that covers Operations Security (OPSEC). OPSEC is a systematic process that identifies, analyzes, and controls critical information to prevent adversaries from obtaining sensitive information that could be used against the Air Force. It focuses on protecting information related to military operations, plans, and activities. Therefore, OPSEC is the correct security program covered under AFI 10-701.

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  • 20. 

    (228) Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

    • A.

      OPSEC

    • B.

      EMSEC

    • C.

      COMSEC

    • D.

      COMPUSEC

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC
    Explanation
    OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions related to military operations and other activities. It focuses on protecting sensitive information and preventing unauthorized access or disclosure that could potentially compromise the success of military operations or endanger personnel. EMSEC (Emissions Security), COMSEC (Communications Security), and COMPUSEC (Computer Security) are also important security programs but do not specifically address the process of identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities.

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  • 21. 

    (229) Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

    • A.

      Purpose

    • B.

      Authority

    • C.

      Disclosure

    • D.

      Routine Use

    Correct Answer
    D. Routine Use
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Routine Use". A Privacy Act Statement is a document that informs individuals about how their personal information will be collected, used, and disclosed. One of the mandatory items in a Privacy Act Statement is the "Routine Use" section, which provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the Department of Defense (DOD). This section ensures transparency and allows individuals to understand how their information may be shared with other entities or agencies.

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  • 22. 

    (229) What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

    • A.

      AF Form 2327

    • B.

      AF Form 3217

    • C.

      AF Form 3227

    • D.

      AF Form 3327

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 3227
    Explanation
    AF Form 3227 is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material.

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  • 23. 

    (229) Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in

    • A.

      AFI 33-119

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 33-219

    • D.

      AFI 33-329

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 33-129
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 33-129. This Air Force Instruction provides guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites. It outlines the rules and regulations that individuals must follow when posting content on official Air Force websites to ensure compliance with security, privacy, and information management requirements.

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  • 24. 

    (229) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in?

    • A.

      AFI 31-301

    • B.

      AFI 31-401

    • C.

      AFI 31-501

    • D.

      AFI 31-601

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 31-401
    Explanation
    AFI 31-401 is the official guidance document that provides information on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information. It is the correct answer because it directly addresses the topic mentioned in the question.

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  • 25. 

    (229) Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as?

    • A.

      Secret

    • B.

      Confidential

    • C.

      FOUO

    • D.

      Sensitive but classified

    Correct Answer
    D. Sensitive but classified
    Explanation
    Sensitive but classified information refers to information that, if disclosed, could potentially harm national security by leading to loss, misuse, modification, or unauthorized access. This classification indicates that the information is not public but is still considered sensitive and requires protection. It is a higher level of classification than confidential or FOUO (For Official Use Only), indicating that it requires even more stringent safeguards.

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  • 26. 

    (230) What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

    • A.

      Relocate classified material to strengthen security

    • B.

      Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security

    • C.

      Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

    • D.

      Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

    Correct Answer
    D. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.
    Explanation
    The COMSEC program is designed to detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could potentially expose critical information. This means that the program focuses on identifying any vulnerabilities or flaws in the procedures related to the handling and protection of sensitive information. By doing so, it aims to prevent any unauthorized access or disclosure of critical information, ensuring the security and confidentiality of classified material.

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  • 27. 

    (230) What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

    • A.

      AFI 33-119

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 33-219

    • D.

      AFI 33-329

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-119
    Explanation
    AFI 33-119 is the correct reference for guidance on Air Force messaging. This document provides comprehensive guidelines and procedures for creating, formatting, and transmitting messages within the Air Force. It covers various aspects of messaging, including message types, message handling, message security, and message distribution. By referring to AFI 33-119, Air Force personnel can ensure that their messages are accurate, clear, and in compliance with established protocols and standards.

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  • 28. 

    (230) Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

    • A.

      SF 135

    • B.

      SF 153

    • C.

      SF 351

    • D.

      SF 531

    Correct Answer
    B. SF 153
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF 153. The SF 153 form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package. This form is specifically designed for the transfer of COMSEC material and provides information about the sender, recipient, and contents of the package. It helps to ensure accountability and proper handling of sensitive information.

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  • 29. 

    (230) Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

    • A.

      AF Form 1019

    • B.

      AF Form 1109

    • C.

      AF Form 1119

    • D.

      AF Form 1190

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 1109
    Explanation
    AF Form 1109 is the correct answer because it is the form used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information about visitors entering restricted areas is properly documented and recorded. It helps maintain security and accountability by keeping track of who enters and exits these areas, allowing for better control and monitoring.

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  • 30. 

    (231) An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC?

    • A.

      Insecurity

    • B.

      Deviation

    • C.

      Incident

    • D.

      Report

    Correct Answer
    C. Incident
    Explanation
    An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC incident.

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  • 31. 

    (231) Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?

    • A.

      Air Force Communications Agency

    • B.

      Air Force Office of Record

    • C.

      Central Office of Records

    • D.

      National Security Agency

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Communications Agency
    Explanation
    The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning communication security incident report case numbers.

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  • 32. 

    (231) Final reports of a communication security incident are due?

    • A.

      10 days after the initial report is dated

    • B.

      20 days after the initial report is dated

    • C.

      30 days after the initial report is dated

    • D.

      40 days after the initial report is dated

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 days after the initial report is dated
    Explanation
    The final reports of a communication security incident are due 30 days after the initial report is dated. This suggests that there is a process in place for investigating and resolving communication security incidents, and it takes approximately 30 days to complete this process and compile the final report.

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  • 33. 

    (232) The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in

    • A.

      AFI 33-100

    • B.

      AFI 33-200

    • C.

      AFI 33-300

    • D.

      AFI 33-400

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 33-200
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 33-200. This Air Force Instruction (AFI) outlines the details of the Air Force Information Assurance Program. It provides guidance and procedures for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and non-repudiation of Air Force information systems and networks. AFI 33-200 covers topics such as risk management, incident response, security training, and compliance requirements.

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  • 34. 

    (232) Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

    • A.

      OPSEC

    • B.

      EMSEC

    • C.

      COMSEC

    • D.

      COMPUSEC

    Correct Answer
    D. COMPUSEC
    Explanation
    COMPUSEC, short for computer security, is the applied discipline that applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction. It involves implementing various security measures such as encryption, access controls, firewalls, and intrusion detection systems to safeguard computer systems and their data from potential threats and attacks.

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  • 35. 

    (233) What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

    • A.

      Emulation

    • B.

      Emanation

    • C.

      Signature

    • D.

      Salutation

    Correct Answer
    B. Emanation
    Explanation
    Emanation best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment. Emanation refers to the unintentional release of electromagnetic signals or radiation from a device, which can potentially be intercepted and used to gather information or cause interference. This can occur due to poor shielding or design of the equipment, and can pose a security risk.

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  • 36. 

    (233) An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

    • A.

      Emission Security

    • B.

      Communication Security

    • C.

      Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating spurious Transmissions

    • D.

      Computer Security

    Correct Answer
    C. Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating spurious Transmissions
    Explanation
    The term "Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating spurious Transmissions" refers to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. It focuses on ensuring that electronic material used in telecommunications is protected from emitting any unintentional or unauthorized signals that could potentially compromise security. This term is specifically related to the security of electronic equipment and its emissions.

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  • 37. 

    (234) Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

    • A.

      INFOCON 2

    • B.

      INFOCON 3

    • C.

      INFOCON 4

    • D.

      INFOCON 5

    Correct Answer
    D. INFOCON 5
    Explanation
    INFOCON 5 is the correct answer because it indicates a situation where there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks. INFOCON is a system used by the military to assess and communicate the risk of cyber threats. INFOCON 5 represents the lowest level of threat, indicating that there is no current or imminent terrorist activity targeting computer networks.

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  • 38. 

    (234) Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

    • A.

      INFOCON 2

    • B.

      INFOCON 3

    • C.

      INFOCON 4

    • D.

      INFOCON 5

    Correct Answer
    C. INFOCON 4
    Explanation
    INFOCON 4 is the condition that requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present. INFOCON is a system used by the military to assess and communicate the risk of cyber threats. INFOCON 4 indicates a heightened risk level, where there is a significant possibility of an attack occurring. Therefore, increased monitoring is necessary to detect and prevent any potential attacks on the network system.

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  • 39. 

    (234) When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

    • A.

      INFOCON 2

    • B.

      INFOCON 3

    • C.

      INFOCON 4

    • D.

      INFOCON 5

    Correct Answer
    B. INFOCON 3
    Explanation
    When the risk of a network system attack has been identified and the INFOCON level is set to 3, it requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected. This is because INFOCON 3 signifies an increased risk level and heightened security measures need to be taken to protect the network system. Disconnecting unclassified dial-up connections helps prevent potential unauthorized access and further secure the network.

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  • 40. 

    (234) Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

    • A.

      INFOCON 2

    • B.

      INFOCON 3

    • C.

      INFOCON 4

    • D.

      INFOCON 5

    Correct Answer
    A. INFOCON 2
    Explanation
    INFOCON 2 is the correct answer because it indicates a condition where there is a significant risk of attack or compromise, which necessitates taking non-essential networks offline and using alternate communication methods. This level of readiness implies that there is a high level of threat and the need for increased security measures, including the substitution of communication methods to ensure the safety and integrity of essential networks.

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  • 41. 

    (235) At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

    • A.

      Tier 1

    • B.

      Tier 2

    • C.

      Tier 3

    • D.

      Tier 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Tier 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Tier 1. At this level, responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure is globally managed.

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  • 42. 

    (235) At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?

    • A.

      Tier 1

    • B.

      Tier 2

    • C.

      Tier 3

    • D.

      Tier 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Tier 2
    Explanation
    Regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) at Tier 2 level. Tier 2 is responsible for implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management to ensure operational and administrative control.

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  • 43. 

    (235) An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

    • A.

      A full accredidation

    • B.

      A type accredidation

    • C.

      A major accredidation

    • D.

      An interim accredidation

    Correct Answer
    A. A full accredidation
    Explanation
    A full accreditation is an accreditation decision that allows a system to operate in the environment it was originally intended for. This means that the system meets all the necessary requirements and standards to function effectively and securely in its intended environment. It signifies that the system has undergone a thorough evaluation and has been deemed suitable for its intended purpose, ensuring that it can operate efficiently and safely.

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  • 44. 

    (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. The explanation for this answer is not available.

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  • 45. 

    (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    C. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. In this context, when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts, the resources designated priority are provided. This means that certain resources or assets are given higher priority and allocated more resources in order to deter and prevent hostile acts. This could include increased security measures, enhanced surveillance, or additional personnel assigned to protect and secure these resources.

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  • 46. 

    (236) Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing “confidential” information?

    • A.

      SF 706

    • B.

      SF 707

    • C.

      SF 708

    • D.

      SF 710

    Correct Answer
    C. SF 708

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