CDC 3DX5X Vol2 Ure3

46 Questions | Total Attempts: 30

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (218) This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network
    • A. 

      Global applications

    • B. 

      Warrior component

    • C. 

      Network operations

    • D. 

      Information management

  • 2. 
    (218) This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches
    • A. 

      Joint architecture

    • B. 

      Unity of command

    • C. 

      Information services

    • D. 

      Common policy and standards

  • 3. 
    (219) Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
    • A. 

      The service that owns the installation

    • B. 

      DISA

    • C. 

      Infrastructure tech

    • D. 

      Deployed warfighters

  • 4. 
    (219) Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
    • A. 

      Long-haul transport infrastructure.

    • B. 

      Deployed warfighter

    • C. 

      TBMCS terminal

    • D. 

      Sustaining base

  • 5. 
    (220) What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
    • A. 

      Operated and managed as a base communications asset.

    • B. 

      Considered one of the primary components of the Defense Information Systems Network.

    • C. 

      Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network

    • D. 

      Completely protected by encryption devices.

  • 6. 
    (221) How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
    • A. 

      Protocols cannot be sent across the SIPRNET.

    • B. 

      Transmitted from sender to user unchanged.

    • C. 

      Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

    • D. 

      Encrypted by a TACLANE before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

  • 7. 
    (221) Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?
    • A. 

      KG-84

    • B. 

      KG-194

    • C. 

      KIV-7

    • D. 

      KG-175

  • 8. 
    (222) What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
    • A. 

      DISN backbone

    • B. 

      JDISS terminal

    • C. 

      SIPRNET

    • D. 

      NIPRNET

  • 9. 
    (223) What concerns slowed the military’s adoption of wireless network technology?
    • A. 

      Speed and reliability

    • B. 

      Security and reliability

    • C. 

      Reliability maintenance

    • D. 

      Certification and interoperability

  • 10. 
    (223) What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Adding more traditional time division multiplexing voice switches to handle additional data traffic.

    • B. 

      Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.

    • C. 

      Complete replacement of TDM switches with VoIP technology.

    • D. 

      Managing TDM switches in the same way we manage data networks.

  • 11. 
    (223) Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
    • A. 

      Establishing a Network Operation and Security Center at each base.

    • B. 

      Creating a security baseline across all MAJCOM areas of responsibility.

    • C. 

      Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers to establish a baseline security model.

    • D. 

      Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs.

  • 12. 
    (224) Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?
    • A. 

      Defense Logistics Agency.

    • B. 

      Communications Squadron

    • C. 

      Air Force Communications Agency

    • D. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency

  • 13. 
    (224) How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?
    • A. 

      End offices are multiple-homed

    • B. 

      End offices do not interoperate with allied networks

    • C. 

      The DSN offers precedence access thresholding

    • D. 

      The DSN offers single level precedence and preemption

  • 14. 
    (224) What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?
    • A. 

      Flash

    • B. 

      Priority

    • C. 

      Intermediate

    • D. 

      Flash Override

  • 15. 
    (225) What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
    • A. 

      9.6 Kbps

    • B. 

      14.4 Kbps

    • C. 

      19.2 Kbps

    • D. 

      28.8 Kbps

  • 16. 
    (225) While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
    • A. 

      Recorded voice message

    • B. 

      Punched computer cards

    • C. 

      Liquid crystal display

    • D. 

      Punched paper tape

  • 17. 
    (226) What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
    • A. 

      To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.

    • B. 

      To lessen the amount of traffic transmitted through the gateway terminals.

    • C. 

      To provide one-way communication access for deployed locations.

    • D. 

      To replace the old tactical satellite communications system.

  • 18. 
    (227) The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?
    • A. 

      2 microseconds

    • B. 

      2 seconds

    • C. 

      1 microsecond

    • D. 

      1 second

  • 19. 
    (228) Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?
    • A. 

      OPSEC

    • B. 

      EMSEC

    • C. 

      COMSEC

    • D. 

      COMPUSEC

  • 20. 
    (228) Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
    • A. 

      OPSEC

    • B. 

      EMSEC

    • C. 

      COMSEC

    • D. 

      COMPUSEC

  • 21. 
    (229) Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Authority

    • C. 

      Disclosure

    • D. 

      Routine Use

  • 22. 
    (229) What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2327

    • B. 

      AF Form 3217

    • C. 

      AF Form 3227

    • D. 

      AF Form 3327

  • 23. 
    (229) Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in
    • A. 

      AFI 33-119

    • B. 

      AFI 33-129

    • C. 

      AFI 33-219

    • D. 

      AFI 33-329

  • 24. 
    (229) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in?
    • A. 

      AFI 31-301

    • B. 

      AFI 31-401

    • C. 

      AFI 31-501

    • D. 

      AFI 31-601

  • 25. 
    (229) Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as?
    • A. 

      Secret

    • B. 

      Confidential

    • C. 

      FOUO

    • D. 

      Sensitive but classified

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