CDC 2r051 Vol. 1 Functions Of Mx & Data Mgmt

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (001) Air Force policy on air and space equipment maintenance expects maintenance to be performed at the

    • Lowest level
    • Highest level
    • Depot facility
    • Contractor facility
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force maintenance policies and management, focusing on the lowest level maintenance, mission capability rates, and preventive maintenance. It is designed for personnel involved in maintenance planning and efficiency improvements in air and space equipment.

CDC 2r051 Vol. 1 Functions Of Mx & Data Mgmt - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (001) What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

    • Abort

    • Break

    • Cannibalization

    • Mission Capability

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission Capability
    Explanation
    Mission Capability is the correct answer because it is a rate used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance. This metric assesses the ability of an aircraft or space system to perform its intended mission, taking into account factors such as availability, reliability, and maintainability. It provides a measure of the overall readiness and effectiveness of the maintenance program in ensuring that the aircraft or space system is capable of meeting mission requirements.

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  • 3. 

    (001) What provides the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment?

    • Maintenance organization

    • Maintenance planning

    • Increased manning

    • Increased funding

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance planning
    Explanation
    Maintenance planning is the correct answer because it involves strategically scheduling and coordinating maintenance activities to ensure the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment. By planning maintenance tasks in advance, organizations can optimize resources, minimize downtime, and prevent costly breakdowns. This includes scheduling routine maintenance, prioritizing tasks, and coordinating with other departments to ensure smooth operations. Maintenance planning helps organizations streamline their maintenance processes and allocate resources in a way that maximizes productivity and minimizes costs.

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  • 4. 

    (001) The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on

    • Preventive maintenance

    • Corrective maintenance

    • Backshop maintenance

    • Depot maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive maintenance
    Explanation
    The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on preventive maintenance. This means that the main emphasis should be on taking proactive measures to prevent equipment or system failures before they occur. By regularly inspecting, servicing, and replacing parts as needed, preventive maintenance can help to avoid costly breakdowns and unplanned downtime. This approach is generally more cost-effective and efficient compared to corrective maintenance, which involves fixing issues after they have already occurred. Backshop maintenance and depot maintenance may also be important, but they are typically secondary to preventive maintenance in terms of priority.

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  • 5. 

    (002) When a maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information systems and procedures that enhance productivity, it is accomplished by

    • Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency.

    • Continuously evaluating resources to meet mission changes and contingencies.

    • Command channel communications, documentation, and reporting communications with support commands and agencies.

    • Effectively scheduling aircraft, support equipment, facilities, and personnel to meet maintenance requirements and flying schedules.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency. This answer aligns with the statement in the question that the maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information systems and procedures that enhance productivity. By eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks, the unit can free up time and resources to focus on more important tasks, ultimately improving efficiency.

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  • 6. 

    (002) Unit–level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on size, similar wartime mission, and

    • Training

    • Budgetary constraints

    • Geographical location

    • Assigned weapon systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Assigned weapon systems
    Explanation
    Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on assigned weapon systems. This means that the structure and composition of maintenance units are determined by the specific types of weapons systems they are responsible for maintaining. This ensures that the units have the necessary expertise, training, and equipment to effectively support and repair their assigned weapon systems. By aligning maintenance organizations with assigned weapon systems, the military can optimize maintenance capabilities and ensure efficient and effective maintenance operations.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Which squadron is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staffrelated functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?

    • Maintenance

    • Aircraft maintenance

    • Maintenance operations

    • Helicopter maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations
    Explanation
    The squadron responsible for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG is the Maintenance Operations squadron. This squadron is specifically dedicated to overseeing and managing the various operations and activities related to aircraft maintenance, ensuring that all necessary staff and resources are in place for the smooth functioning of maintenance tasks within the MXG.

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  • 8. 

    (003) What is the title for the senior maintenance manager responsible for communicationselectronics (C-E) maintenance?

    • Officer-in-Charge (OIC).

    • Chief of Maintenance (COM).

    • C-E Maintenance Officer.

    • Deputy Commander for C-E Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief of Maintenance (COM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Chief of Maintenance (COM). This title is given to the senior maintenance manager responsible for communication electronics (C-E) maintenance. The COM is in charge of overseeing and managing all maintenance activities related to C-E equipment. They are responsible for ensuring that the equipment is properly maintained and functioning effectively.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Any personnel, other than 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, performing maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment, whether assigned to a communications unit or not, is referred to as

    • Non-traditional technicians.

    • Outsourced technicians.

    • Irregular technicians.

    • Contract technicians.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-traditional technicians.
    Explanation
    The term "non-traditional technicians" is used to refer to any personnel, other than those with the 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, who perform maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment. This includes individuals who may be assigned to a communications unit or not. The term "non-traditional" suggests that these technicians do not fit the traditional or standard role of personnel with the 2EXXX Air Force specialty code.

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  • 10. 

    (003) What kind of communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance unit provides specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance (O&M) units?

    • Special maintenance teams (SMT).

    • Consolidated repair activity (CRA).

    • Deployable elements of fixed units.

    • Functionally supported maintenance activity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special maintenance teams (SMT).
    Explanation
    Special maintenance teams (SMT) are a type of communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance unit that offers specialized maintenance and training capabilities beyond what is typically provided by operations and maintenance (O&M) units. These teams are specifically designed to handle complex and advanced maintenance tasks and provide additional training to enhance the skills of other maintenance units. They are a specialized unit that offers a higher level of expertise and support in C-E maintenance.

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  • 11. 

    (004) For what program does the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) hold squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible?

    • Nuclear Surety.

    • Weight and Balance.

    • Vehicle Management.

    • Dedicated Crew Chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle Management.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander holds squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible for the Vehicle Management program. This means that they are accountable for ensuring the proper management and maintenance of the vehicles within their squadrons. This includes tasks such as vehicle inspections, repairs, and ensuring compliance with regulations and safety standards.

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  • 12. 

    (004) Who is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program?

    • Maintenance flight commander.

    • Maintenance squadron commander.

    • Maintenance group commander.

    • Base commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The Maintenance group commander is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program. This individual oversees the maintenance operations and is in charge of ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the aircraft. Developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program falls under their jurisdiction as they are responsible for creating and implementing policies and procedures related to maintenance and aircraft operations.

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  • 13. 

    (004) Which commander (CC) does the maintenance group CC coordinate with concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program?

    • Wing.

    • Operations group.

    • Operations squadron.

    • Transportation squadron.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations group.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group CC coordinates with the Operations group concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program. This indicates that the maintenance group CC works closely with the Operations group in order to carry out the necessary tasks and procedures related to the program. The Operations group likely plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the execution of the High-Speed Taxi Check program, making it the correct answer.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Who is responsible for directing cannibalization (CANN) on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?

    • Technician.

    • Flight chief.

    • Flightline expiditer.

    • Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Production supervisor.
    Explanation
    The production supervisor is responsible for directing cannibalization on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply. This role involves making decisions on which parts can be cannibalized from one aircraft to another in order to maintain the overall operational readiness of the fleet. The production supervisor ensures that the necessary parts are available and that the cannibalization process is carried out efficiently and effectively.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Who selects qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwards names to maintenance supervision for approval?

    • Squadron commander.

    • Production supervisor

    • Section chief.

    • Flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight chief.
    Explanation
    The Flight chief is responsible for selecting qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwards their names to maintenance supervision for approval. The squadron commander is in charge of the overall operations of the squadron, the production supervisor oversees the production process, and the section chief manages a specific section within the squadron. However, it is the flight chief who specifically handles the selection and approval of personnel for production inspections.

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  • 16. 

    (005) On what does the section chief perform spot checks for authorized levels?

    • Bench stock.

    • Tool storage.

    • Reparable parts.

    • Cannibalization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bench stock.
    Explanation
    The section chief performs spot checks for authorized levels on bench stock. Bench stock refers to the inventory of commonly used supplies and materials that are kept readily available at a workstation or workbench. Spot checks are conducted to ensure that the correct quantity of bench stock items is maintained and that they are in good condition. This helps to ensure that the section has an adequate supply of necessary items for efficient work operations.

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  • 17. 

    (005) Who manages the Bad Actor Program?

    • Flight chief.

    • Section chief.

    • Flightline expediter.

    • Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section chief.
    Explanation
    The Section Chief manages the Bad Actor Program.

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  • 18. 

    (005) Who updates status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft?

    • Flight chief.

    • Section chief.

    • Flightline expediter.

    • Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flightline expediter.
    Explanation
    The Flightline expediter is responsible for updating the status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft. This role involves coordinating and tracking the progress of CANN actions, ensuring that the necessary parts are obtained and installed in a timely manner to maintain the aircraft's operational readiness. The Flightline expediter works closely with other personnel, such as technicians and supply personnel, to ensure that the CANN actions are properly documented and completed.

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  • 19. 

    (005) Who reviews aircraft forms before exceptional release?

    • Flight chief.

    • Flightline expediter.

    • Dedicated crew chief.

    • Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flightline expediter.
    Explanation
    The flightline expediter is responsible for reviewing aircraft forms before exceptional release. They ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation are in order and that the aircraft is safe and ready for flight. This role requires attention to detail and knowledge of aircraft maintenance procedures. The flight chief, dedicated crew chief, and production supervisor may have other responsibilities related to aircraft maintenance but are not specifically mentioned in the question as reviewing aircraft forms before exceptional release.

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  • 20. 

    (005) Who is responsible for on-aircraft –21 equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function?

    • Flight chief.

    • Flightline expediter.

    • Dedicated crew chief.

    • Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dedicated crew chief.
    Explanation
    The dedicated crew chief is responsible for on-aircraft equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function. This means that if no other specific role or individual is assigned to handle the inventories, it falls under the responsibility of the dedicated crew chief.

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  • 21. 

    (006) Who is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?

    • Systems monitor.

    • Database manager.

    • Database designer.

    • Database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Database manager.
    Explanation
    The database manager is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user. As the person in charge of managing the database, they have the necessary skills and knowledge to troubleshoot and resolve any issues that may arise. They are responsible for ensuring the smooth operation of the database and addressing any technical problems that may occur.

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  • 22. 

    (007) Which of the following provides information and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the united states?

    • Database management (DBM).

    • Base Network Control Center (BNCC).

    • Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).

    • Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).
    Explanation
    The Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC) provides information and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the United States. This center is specifically designed to support the computing needs of these organizations, ensuring secure and efficient communication and information management. The other options mentioned, such as Database Management (DBM), Base Network Control Center (BNCC), and Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center, do not specifically cater to the needs of military and government organizations in the same way that the DECC does.

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  • 23. 

    (008) The two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) are the...

    • Functional analysis and database administrator.

    • Database administrator and Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • Systems program office (SPO) adn Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • Interactive Customer Service Facility and database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Systems program office (SPO) adn Field Assistance Service (FAS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS). This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which states that the two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) are being asked for. The other options mentioned, such as Functional analysis and database administrator, Database administrator and Field Assistance Service (FAS), and Interactive Customer Service Facility and database administrator, are not mentioned as the main agencies within the group. Therefore, the correct answer is Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS).

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  • 24. 

    (008) Who is the initial point of contact (POC) at the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) when an Integrated Maintenance System (IMDS) database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level?

    • Host database manager (DBM).

    • Systems Program Office (SPO).

    • Database administrator. (DBA).

    • Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Field Assistance Service (FAS).
    Explanation
    The Field Assistance Service (FAS) is the initial point of contact at the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) when an Integrated Maintenance System (IMDS) database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level. The FAS provides on-site assistance and support for complex database issues that cannot be resolved by the base-level personnel. They have the expertise and resources to troubleshoot and resolve the problem effectively.

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  • 25. 

    (009) The Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center is operated by...

    • 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG).

    • Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • Database Manager (DBM).

    • Northrop Grumman.

    Correct Answer
    A. Northrop Grumman.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Northrop Grumman. Northrop Grumman operates the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center. This center is responsible for managing REMIS, which is a system used for collecting, analyzing, and reporting reliability and maintainability data for various systems and equipment. Northrop Grumman is a well-known aerospace and defense company that provides a range of technological solutions, including information systems management.

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  • 26. 

    (010) The local area network (LAN) component that provides services to the users on the network is known as the...

    • Server.

    • Protocols.

    • Workstation.

    • Server Network.

    Correct Answer
    A. Server.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Server. In a local area network (LAN), the server is responsible for providing services to the users on the network. It acts as a central hub that manages network resources, such as files, printers, and applications, and allows users to access and share these resources. The server also handles tasks like user authentication, data storage, and network security.

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  • 27. 

    (010) Operating rules used in local area network (LAN) applications are known as...

    • Protocols.

    • Networking.

    • Topologies.

    • Data Language.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protocols.
    Explanation
    Operating rules used in local area network (LAN) applications are known as protocols. Protocols define the guidelines and standards for communication between devices in a network. They specify how data is formatted, transmitted, received, and interpreted. By following these protocols, devices can effectively communicate and exchange information in a LAN environment. Networking refers to the overall concept of connecting devices and systems together, while topologies refer to the physical or logical layout of a network. Data Language is not a commonly used term in the context of LAN operating rules.

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  • 28. 

    (011) Which software is required to access Integrated Maintenance Data System graphical user interface (IMDS GUI)?

    • Photo editor.

    • Image reader.

    • Media player.

    • Internet browser.

    Correct Answer
    A. Internet browser.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internet browser. The Integrated Maintenance Data System graphical user interface (IMDS GUI) is a web-based system, which means it can be accessed through an internet browser. This allows users to navigate and interact with the system's graphical interface, accessing and managing maintenance data efficiently.

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  • 29. 

    (011) Which one of the following must the database manager (DBM) obtain from the base network control center (BNCC) to gain terminal access to Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • IMDS Password.

    • Security Clearance.

    • Server Address Setting.

    • Remote Identification (ID).

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote Identification (ID).
    Explanation
    The database manager (DBM) needs to obtain the Remote Identification (ID) from the base network control center (BNCC) in order to gain terminal access to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). This ID is necessary to authenticate and identify the remote user accessing the system. The DBM would use this ID to establish a secure connection and gain authorized access to the IMDS.

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  • 30. 

    (012) The transaction interface package (TIP) provides...

    • Access to multiple mainframes.

    • Users with fast-file control system.

    • For background scheduling of transactions.

    • Users with the capability to access application programs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Users with fast-file control system.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Users with fast-file control system." The transaction interface package (TIP) provides users with the capability to access application programs. The fast-file control system allows for efficient management and control of file operations, enabling users to quickly access and manipulate data within the application programs.

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  • 31. 

    (012) DEMAND processing is a...

    • Mode that directs the activity of the operating system.

    • Mode in which several runs are grouped before processing.

    • Method for maintaining historical data for laod, change, inquiry, and deletion.

    • Manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS).
    Explanation
    DEMAND processing is a manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS). This means that the user has the freedom to access and use different automated information systems as needed, without being limited to a specific system. This allows for flexibility and convenience in accessing and using information.

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  • 32. 

    (012) Which best describes on-line processing?

    • Programs are printed at Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).

    • Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe.

    • Programs are processed by the console operator.

    • Equipment must remain on at all times.

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe.
    Explanation
    On-line processing refers to a method of data processing where the equipment is directly controlled by the mainframe. This means that the mainframe has direct access and control over the equipment, allowing for real-time processing and immediate response to user requests. This type of processing is typically used in systems that require quick and continuous access to data, such as online banking or reservation systems. It ensures efficient and timely processing of data by eliminating the need for manual intervention or delays in communication between the mainframe and the equipment.

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  • 33. 

    (012) Online processing may be called...

    • Batch processing.

    • Real-time processing.

    • Pseudo remote processing.

    • Remote job entry terminal processing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Real-time processing.
    Explanation
    Online processing is a method of data processing where data is entered and processed immediately, without any delay. It allows for real-time interaction and immediate response to user inputs. Therefore, the correct answer is real-time processing, as it accurately describes the nature of online processing. Batch processing, on the other hand, involves collecting and processing data in groups or batches, while pseudo remote processing and remote job entry terminal processing refer to specific methods or technologies related to online processing.

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  • 34. 

    (012) What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?

    • Running the NFS0A0 program.

    • Creating the data file in demand mode.

    • Uploading required data before using a pseudo file.

    • Manually inputting data into a personal computer (PC) file then upload to pseudo file.

    Correct Answer
    A. Running the NFS0A0 program.
    Explanation
    Running the NFS0A0 program is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing. This program is specifically designed for creating data files and simplifies the process by automating it. Other options such as creating the data file in demand mode, uploading required data before using a pseudo file, or manually inputting data into a PC file and then uploading it to the pseudo file may require more steps and manual effort. Therefore, running the NFS0A0 program is the most straightforward and efficient method for creating a data file for pseudo processing.

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  • 35. 

    (013) In what mode do you run pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB)?

    • None.

    • DEMAND.

    • Windows.

    • Transaction interface package (TIP).

    Correct Answer
    A. DEMAND.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DEMAND. In the pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB), the DEMAND mode is used. This mode allows the user to run batch jobs on the remote processor as and when required, based on the demand. It provides flexibility and efficiency in running batch jobs by allowing them to be processed on the remote processor only when needed, rather than running them continuously. This helps in optimizing resource utilization and improving overall system performance.

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  • 36. 

    (013) What indicator tells you that a pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing?

    • A line on the monitor screen says, “PSURPB COMPLETE.”

    • The start of entry (SOE) character appears.

    • The monitor gives a beep to notify you.

    • You receive an E-mail notification.

    Correct Answer
    A. The start of entry (SOE) character appears.
    Explanation
    When the start of entry (SOE) character appears, it indicates that the pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing.

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  • 37. 

    (014) Which application program file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in transaction interface package (TIP)?

    • FS$$0000*00.

    • 0FS0*DBRUN$.

    • 0FS0*DBALIB$.

    • 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP. This file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in the transaction interface package (TIP).

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  • 38. 

    (014) Which application program file contains the element used to troubleshoot the database?

    • FS$$0000*00.

    • 0FS0*DBALIB$.

    • 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL.

    • 0FS00000*PABTAG054-AP.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL.
    Explanation
    The correct answer, 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL, is the application program file that contains the element used to troubleshoot the database.

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  • 39. 

    (014) Which support program file controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS)?

    • TIP FILE 611.

    • IRU processor.

    • VALTAB.

    • SUPUR processor.

    Correct Answer
    A. VALTAB.
    Explanation
    VALTAB is the support program file that controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS). This file contains the validation rules and tables that are used by the online programs to ensure data integrity and accuracy. The VALTAB file is essential for the proper functioning of the AIS and plays a crucial role in maintaining the reliability of the system.

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  • 40. 

    (014) Which support program file ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database?

    • TIP File 611.

    • 0FS0*DBRUN$.

    • VALTAB.

    • SUPUR processor.

    Correct Answer
    A. TIP File 611.
    Explanation
    TIP File 611 is the support program file that ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database.

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  • 41. 

    (015) The basic keyin console mode allows

    • A user to use unsolicited keyins.

    • A user to use all basic console keyins.

    • A user to request the status on a user’s run.

    • Database managers (DBM) to operate in full screen mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. A user to request the status on a user’s run.
    Explanation
    The basic keyin console mode allows a user to request the status on a user's run. This means that the user can use the console to check the progress or status of a particular process or task that they are running. It provides a way for the user to monitor their own activity and see if it is running successfully or if there are any errors or issues that need to be addressed.

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  • 42. 

    (015) What console mode command displays a list of active runs?

    • T,B.

    • T D.

    • @@RUN,A.

    • @@TM.

    Correct Answer
    A. T D.
    Explanation
    The console mode command "T D" displays a list of active runs.

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  • 43. 

    (016) What executive control language (ECL) command will provide you with the mainframe file transfer protocol (FTP) address?

    • @CAT.

    • @RUN.

    • @DATA.

    • @WHOAMI.

    Correct Answer
    A. @WHOAMI.
    Explanation
    The @WHOAMI command in ECL is used to display the FTP address of the mainframe file transfer protocol. It provides information about the current user's FTP address.

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  • 44. 

    (016) What do you call the filename you created on your personal computer (PC) when you do a file transfer?

    • PC file.

    • User file.

    • Local file.

    • Remote file.

    Correct Answer
    A. Local file.
    Explanation
    When you do a file transfer on your personal computer (PC), the filename you create is called a "local file". This term refers to a file that is stored and accessed on your own computer, as opposed to a file that is stored on a remote server or accessed by another user.

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  • 45. 

    (017) A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called

    • An element.

    • A program.

    • A granule.

    • A file.

    Correct Answer
    A. A program.
    Explanation
    A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called a program. Programs are sets of instructions that tell a computer what operations to perform in order to complete a specific task or achieve a desired outcome. They can be written in various programming languages and can range from simple scripts to complex software applications.

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  • 46. 

    (018) What executive control language (ECL) command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the system an option is to follow?

    • Splat (*).

    • Comma (,).

    • Semicolon (;).

    • Master Space (@).

    Correct Answer
    A. Comma (,).
    Explanation
    The comma (,) symbol in ECL command syntax is used to indicate that an option is to follow. This means that any command or parameter that comes after the comma will be considered as an option for the system to execute.

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  • 47. 

    (018) A /WRITE-KEY, when used, is presented

    • After the filename and before the @.

    • Before the filename and after the period.

    • After the filename and before the period.

    • Before the element name and after the comma.

    Correct Answer
    A. After the filename and before the period.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is after the filename and before the period. This is because the /WRITE-KEY is used to specify the key that will be used when writing data to a file. It is typically placed after the filename and before the file extension (which is represented by the period). This allows the system to identify the specific file and the key that should be used for writing.

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  • 48. 

    (018) What should be used when constructing an executive control language (ECL) file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?

    • Cycle.

    • /VERSION.

    • Qualifier.

    • Master Space (@).

    Correct Answer
    A. /VERSION.
    Explanation
    When constructing an ECL file, the /VERSION should be used to differentiate between two elements with identical names. This is because the /VERSION qualifier allows for the creation of multiple versions of an element, each with a unique identifier. By using different versions, it becomes possible to distinguish between elements that have the same name.

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  • 49. 

    (019) What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command?

    • 25 characters.

    • 45 characters.

    • 48 characters.

    • 50 characters.

    Correct Answer
    A. 48 characters.
    Explanation
    The maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command is 48 characters.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 26, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 26, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Chris7781

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