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| By Spacemanjoe89
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Spacemanjoe89
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1. When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle

Explanation

When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft. This is important to ensure the safe and efficient refueling process. By remaining positioned and bonded, it helps prevent any accidental movement or disconnection of the refueling units, which could lead to fuel spills or other hazardous situations. Therefore, it is necessary for the vehicles to stay in place until all fuel flow is stopped on that side of the aircraft.

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About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in vehicle maintenance and operational procedures, focusing on tool accountability, composite tool kit management, and hydrant system maintenance. It is designed for professionals seeking CDC 2F071 Volume 1 certification, enhancing skills in equipment calibration, inventory updates, and system flushing.

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?

Explanation

The question is asking how odor test results should be annotated in block 2, column D of the AFTO Form 134 when documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart. The correct answer states that the odor test results should be annotated as either "FAIL" or "PASS" in column D. This means that if the odor test detects a failure, it should be noted as "FAIL" in column D, and if the odor test is successful, it should be noted as "PASS" in column D.

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3. During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

Explanation

If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is crucial to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can lead to contamination or damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation immediately helps prevent further complications and ensures the safety of the refueling process.

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4. While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation?

Explanation

If an expediter notices an unsafe fueling operation, the immediate action that must be taken is to terminate the operation. This is the most appropriate and responsible course of action to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. Allowing the operation to continue could lead to potential accidents or hazards, so it is crucial to stop it immediately. Notifying the fuels service center or reporting the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge can be done after ensuring that the unsafe operation has been terminated.

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5. How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit be drained?

Explanation

The sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily to ensure optimal performance and prevent any build-up of contaminants. Regular drainage helps to maintain the efficiency of the unit and prevent any potential damage or blockages. Neglecting to drain the sump tank daily may result in reduced filtration effectiveness and potential operational issues.

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6. How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

Explanation

Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This means that they need to renew their certification once every year. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest safety protocols and procedures involved in hot refueling operations. By undergoing certification annually, they can refresh their knowledge and skills, ensuring that they are competent and capable of carrying out hot refueling operations safely and effectively. This regular certification helps to maintain a high level of safety and proficiency among hot refueling personnel.

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7. Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly. Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems are high hazard systems that require regular flushing to ensure proper functioning and prevent any blockages or buildup of sediment. Flushing these systems monthly helps to maintain water quality, remove any stagnant water, and ensure that the hydrants are in good working condition. Quarterly, semiannual, or annual flushing may not be sufficient to prevent potential issues and maintain the overall integrity of the hydrant systems.

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8. When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed

Explanation

During a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to flush the loop with a minimum of twice the line volume. This means that the amount of water used for flushing should be at least double the volume of the water that normally flows through the line. This ensures that any sediment or debris that may have accumulated in the line is thoroughly flushed out, improving the water quality and preventing blockages or clogs. Flushing for a longer duration or using a specific amount of product is not mentioned as a requirement in this context.

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9. When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

Explanation

If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a discrepancy or malfunction with the tank. In this case, it is important not to fill the receiving tank with liquid nitrogen. Filling the tank could potentially worsen the existing issue or cause further damage. Therefore, the correct action to take is to not fill the receiving tank.

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10. When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?

Explanation

A rapid defuel operation is considered a hot defuel whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. This means that as long as there is any engine in operation on the aircraft, the defuel operation is considered to be hot. It does not matter if the engines are located on the same side as the refueling receptacle or if all engines are running, as long as there is at least one engine running, it is considered a hot defuel.

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11. What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

Explanation

If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action would be to inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC is responsible for managing and coordinating fuel operations, including the receipt and handling of LOX shipments. By notifying the FSC, they can take the necessary steps to address the issue and provide instructions on how to proceed with the shipment.

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12. Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit?

Explanation

A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge does not require the replacement of filter elements on the R-19 filter separator unit. The DP gauge measures the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet of the filter elements. A reading of 16 psid indicates that the filter elements are still effectively removing contaminants from the fluid, as the pressure difference is within an acceptable range. Therefore, there is no need to replace the filter elements in this condition.

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13. Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft?

Explanation

Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) refers to the ability to perform maintenance tasks while simultaneously generating sorties. The given question asks which aircraft is not authorized for CSO/SGO, and the correct answer is B–2. This means that the B–2 aircraft is not designed or authorized for concurrent servicing operations while generating sorties.

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14. What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield?

Explanation

The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield is to use the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that the fuel can be obtained directly from the existing infrastructure and storage facilities at the airfield, eliminating the need for additional transportation or logistical arrangements. This method is efficient and convenient, as it allows for a seamless integration with the host nation's fuel supply system.

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15. Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt?

Explanation

Before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt, the vent valve should be in the open position. This is because the vent valve allows for the release of excess pressure and prevents the cryotainer from becoming over-pressurized during the receipt process. By opening the vent valve, any built-up pressure can be safely released, ensuring the proper and safe receipt of liquid nitrogen.

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16. Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent. This individual is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures. They oversee the management and maintenance of the vehicle fleet, which includes ensuring that tools are properly accounted for and procedures are in place to track their usage and maintenance.

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17. Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?

Explanation

A fuels expediter is responsible for coordinating and managing the fueling process for aircraft. This includes ensuring that the correct type and amount of fuel is delivered to the aircraft in a timely manner. Therefore, the operation that requires a fuels expediter to be used is aircraft fueling.

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18. Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?

Explanation

If a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test, the next step should be to perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. This is important because if the cart failed the odor test, it suggests that there may be a problem with the oxygen supply from the storage tank. By conducting an odor test on the storage tank, it can help identify if there is any contamination or issue with the tank that may have caused the cart to fail the test. This step is crucial in ensuring the safety and quality of the oxygen supply.

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19. Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing?

Explanation

The Chief servicing supervisor is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations. This includes overseeing cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing. They are in charge of ensuring that all these operations are carried out efficiently and safely.

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20. What component of a unit type code (UTC) defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing?

Explanation

The component of a unit type code (UTC) that defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing is the Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement. This statement outlines the specific tasks and objectives that the UTC is designed to carry out. It provides a clear understanding of the capabilities and limitations of the unit, allowing for effective planning and allocation of resources. The MISCAP statement is crucial in determining the suitability of a UTC for a particular mission or operation.

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21. Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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22. Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?

Explanation

The correct answer is 200 ml. The size of the sample for an odor test should be approximately 200 ml. This quantity is likely sufficient to capture enough of the odorant molecules for accurate testing without being excessive. A larger sample size may not provide significantly more information, while a smaller sample size may not be representative enough to draw reliable conclusions.

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23. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4?

Explanation

In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the initials of the individual who filled the cart should be entered. This information is important for tracking and accountability purposes. By recording the initials, it allows for easy identification of the responsible person in case any issues or discrepancies arise with the cryogenic product.

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24. What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is necessary to maintain the integrity of the fueling system and prevent any potential surges or fluctuations in pressure. It ensures that the system is ready for operation and can handle the fueling process effectively when needed.

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25. When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?

Explanation

The vendor's invoice is obtained from the DD Form 250 when documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046.

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26. Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the military hierarchy and has the authority to make decisions and provide guidance for their respective command. In situations where hot refueling is necessary due to combat or emergency circumstances, the MAJCOM commander has the power to authorize these deviations to ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.

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27. Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)?

Explanation

The concurrent servicing supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG). This individual oversees and coordinates the various tasks and operations involved in servicing aircraft during combat missions. They ensure that all necessary servicing activities are carried out efficiently and effectively, while also maintaining safety standards. The concurrent servicing supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that aircraft are properly serviced and prepared for combat sorties.

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28. When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

Explanation

If a review of a receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This is because an improperly filled out form may indicate that there are unknown issues or discrepancies with the tank, and servicing it without proper documentation could lead to safety risks or operational problems. It is important to ensure that all necessary information is accurately recorded before proceeding with any actions involving the tank.

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29. How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because the question asks about the number of fillstand assemblies included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system. The question does not provide any additional information or context, so it is not possible to determine the exact number of fillstand assemblies. However, based on the options given, the correct answer is 2.

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30. What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?

Explanation

The correct answer is 75 psi. This is the proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit. Maintaining the correct tire pressure is important for the optimal performance and safety of the unit.

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31. During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

Explanation

During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come within a minimum of 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of both the personnel and the aircraft. Being too close to the fuel vent outlet can pose a risk of fire or explosion, as fuel vapors can be released from the outlet. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance to prevent any potential accidents or hazards.

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32. During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes?

Explanation

During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, it is important to limit the operation of fuel servicing vehicle engines to prevent the buildup of dangerous fumes. The correct answer of 20 minutes indicates that the engines should not be allowed to operate for more than 20 minutes to minimize the risk of fumes entering the sheltered area. Operating the engines for longer periods could increase the concentration of fumes and pose a safety hazard to personnel inside the shelter.

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33. When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks?

Explanation

When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, pressing the TANK key first is necessary when switching between tanks. This key is likely used to select the specific tank for which the quantity readings are required. The other options, ESC, NEXT, and ENTER, do not seem to be relevant in this context and do not provide a logical explanation for switching between tanks.

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34. Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "One month." This means that when the ATG TCU displays an alarm indicating that the nitrogen supply has dropped below 200 psi, it is estimated that the supply will last for approximately one month.

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35. When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All items preceded by an asterisk (*)." This means that when performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, you should complete all the items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 that are marked with an asterisk. The asterisk indicates that these items are specifically important and require attention during the inspection process. Completing all the items marked with an asterisk ensures a thorough and comprehensive inspection of the cryotainer.

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36. Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator

Explanation

The correct answer is "purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants." This is because before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, it is important to ensure that the transfer hose is purged to remove any potential contaminants. This step is crucial to maintain the purity and safety of the liquid oxygen during the receipt process.

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37. When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned?

Explanation

The Base tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned. This tab is specifically designed to gather and store details related to the base or location where the Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT) is being configured. By entering the necessary information in this tab, the system can accurately track and manage the fuels management flight associated with the APOSD UIT.

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38. When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first

Explanation

The high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first minute of fuel flow during rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles. This is important to ensure that the valve is functioning properly and can effectively shut off the fuel flow when the desired level is reached. Testing the valve early on allows for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of fuel spills or accidents.

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39. Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day?

Explanation

Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to a maximum of 4 operations per duty day. This limitation is important to ensure the safety of the crew members and the aircraft. Conducting in-shelter refueling with closed doors can lead to the accumulation of dangerous fumes and gases, which can pose a risk to the crew members. By limiting the number of operations, the exposure to these hazardous substances is minimized, reducing the potential for accidents or health issues.

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40. When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

Explanation

The correct answer is NO DEADMAN. This means that when performing off load operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should not be present or used. This suggests that there is no requirement for a deadman switch in this particular scenario, indicating that the off load operation can be carried out without the need for constant human interaction or monitoring.

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41. Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification?

Explanation

The Vehicle management flight materiel control section is responsible for ensuring that tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification. This section oversees the maintenance and control of all vehicle-related materials and equipment, including the CTK. They are responsible for ensuring that the tools and equipment are properly calibrated and certified to maintain accuracy and precision in vehicle maintenance and repair tasks. The other options, such as the vehicle maintenance superintendent, vehicle fleet manager, and technician assigned to CTK, may have related responsibilities but are not specifically responsible for calibration and certification of tools and equipment.

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42. What is the maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie?

Explanation

The maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie is 30,000. This means that the ABFDS is capable of carrying a large quantity of fuel in a single trip, allowing for efficient and effective fuel delivery.

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43. What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R–18 for transfer operations?

Explanation

A 6-inch hard hose should be used on the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations because it provides a larger diameter, allowing for a higher flow rate and minimizing pressure loss. The hard material of the hose ensures durability and resistance to damage, making it suitable for heavy-duty operations.

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44. Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

Explanation

The F-15 aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. This means that the brakes of the F-15 do not need to be inspected for excessive heat or wear before refueling while the engines are still running. This is likely due to the design and construction of the F-15's braking system, which allows it to withstand the heat generated during hot refueling without the need for additional checks.

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45. When reconstituting Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) equipment, all rolling stock (e.g., R–18s, R–19s, and R–20s) should be drained in accordance with

Explanation

The correct answer is local transportation guidelines. The question asks for the appropriate reference for draining rolling stock when reconstituting FORCE equipment. While AFPAM 23-221 and AFI 24-203 are related to fuels logistics planning and preparation and movement of Air Force cargo respectively, TO 37A9-3-5-61 specifically pertains to FORCE equipment. However, the most specific and relevant source for draining rolling stock in this context would be the local transportation guidelines, as they would provide the specific instructions and requirements for draining the equipment during reconstitution.

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46. What organization normally provides management of overland petroleum support, including inland waterways, to US land-based forces of all Department of Defense (DOD) components?

Explanation

The US Army is the organization that typically provides management of overland petroleum support, including inland waterways, to US land-based forces of all Department of Defense (DOD) components. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that the necessary petroleum resources are available and properly managed for the land-based forces.

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47. When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3° because when selecting a site for bladder operations, it is important to have a site with a slope of less than 3°. A steeper slope can make the operation more challenging and increase the risk of complications. A slope of 3° or less provides a more stable and level ground for the procedure, ensuring better surgical outcomes.

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48. What software database is used to identify a unit type code's (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement and identify shortages?

Explanation

The AEF reporting tool (ART) is used to identify a unit type code's (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement and identify shortages.

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49. What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

Explanation

If a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue, the symbol that should be entered on the AFTO Form 244/245 is a red dash. The red dash symbol indicates that the inspection was not performed within the required timeframe.

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50. At a minimum, how often should the R–18 pumping unit oil filter be changed?

Explanation

The R-18 pumping unit oil filter should be changed every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first. This ensures that the oil filter is regularly replaced to maintain the proper functioning of the pumping unit and prevent any potential damage or malfunction. Regular filter changes help to keep the oil clean and free from contaminants, ensuring optimal performance and longevity of the pumping unit.

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51. The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except

Explanation

The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all occurrences except quarterly. This means that the POC does not need to update and perform inventories on a quarterly basis. Instead, they are required to do so during the initial issue, semi-annually, and when a responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

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52. When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what revolution per minute (rpm) setting?

Explanation

When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to 2,250 revolutions per minute (rpm). This specific rpm setting is likely recommended for efficient and effective fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit.

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53. When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, what action should you take first?

Explanation

When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, the first action to take is to turn off the panel power switch. This is important to ensure that there is no power running through the panel while setting it up, which can prevent any potential accidents or damage. By turning off the power switch, you can safely proceed with the rest of the setup process without any risk.

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54. When preparing an R–18 for shipment, dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with

Explanation

The correct answer is "local and federal environmental regulations." When preparing an R–18 for shipment, it is important to dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with both local and federal environmental regulations. This ensures that the fuel is disposed of properly and does not cause harm to the environment. Local regulations may vary from one area to another, so it is necessary to comply with both local and federal regulations to ensure full compliance with environmental standards.

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55. When performing fuels mobility site planning, what organization should be your first source of information for infrastructure availability?

Explanation

The responsible major command (MAJCOM) should be the first source of information for infrastructure availability when performing fuels mobility site planning. MAJCOMs are responsible for managing and overseeing specific areas of operation within the Air Force, including infrastructure and logistics. They have the knowledge and authority to provide accurate and up-to-date information on the availability of fuel infrastructure at various locations. This makes them the most reliable and relevant source for obtaining information on infrastructure availability for fuels mobility site planning.

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56. To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing?

Explanation

The source tank pressure should be set within the range of 10-15 psi for cryogenic issuing. This range ensures that the pressure is sufficient to allow for the cryogenic substance to flow out of the tank, while also preventing excessive pressure that could cause leaks or other safety hazards.

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57. When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuel point configuration. When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), the fuel point configuration settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned. This screen allows you to specify details such as the fueling unit's identification, location, and other relevant information.

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58. When performing transfer operations with an R–18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly?

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 ± 10 psi. This is the reading that the oil pressure gauge should indicate when the R-18 pumping unit is operating properly during transfer operations. The range of 50 ± 10 psi allows for some variation in the oil pressure, ensuring that it falls within an acceptable range for the unit's proper functioning.

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59. The micronic filter elements on the R–20multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds

Explanation

The micronic filter elements on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds 15 psid. Differential pressure is a measure of the pressure difference across the filter elements, indicating the level of contamination buildup. When the DP reading exceeds 15 psid, it suggests that the filter elements are becoming clogged and are no longer effectively filtering the air. Therefore, it is necessary to replace the filter elements to maintain optimal performance and prevent damage to the equipment.

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60. What organization is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations?

Explanation

The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations. They ensure that the military has a reliable and efficient supply of fuel for their operations. The DLA-Energy works closely with other agencies and suppliers to coordinate the procurement and delivery of fuel to meet the needs of the military forces deployed in various locations.

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61. When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–20multi-aircraft servicing platform, in what position should the manual/remote control switch on the communications panel be placed?

Explanation

The manual/remote control switch on the communications panel should be placed in the REMOTE position when performing fuel servicing operations with an R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform. This indicates that the control of the platform's functions and movements is being done remotely, rather than manually.

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62. With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

Explanation

Jet B is the correct answer because it is known for its high volatility. Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to vaporize or evaporate quickly. Jet B has a low flash point, which means it can easily ignite at a relatively low temperature. Therefore, special precautions should be taken when handling and storing Jet B fuel to prevent accidents or fires. JP-5, JP-8, and Jet A-1 are also alternative fuels used in aviation, but they do not have the same level of volatility as Jet B.

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When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are...
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX)...
During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken...
While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you...
How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit...
How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot...
Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least
When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is...
When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any,...
When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?
What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator...
Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the...
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation...
What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when...
Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open...
Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to...
Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?
Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor...
Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent...
What component of a unit type code (UTC) defines the basic mission the...
Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how...
Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX)...
What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20...
When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046,...
Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or...
Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a...
When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any,...
How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational...
What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping...
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning...
During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel...
When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG)...
Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated...
When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed...
Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial...
When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user...
When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing...
Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry...
When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational...
Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to...
What is the maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery...
What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the...
Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the...
When reconstituting Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment...
What organization normally provides management of overland petroleum...
When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have...
What software database is used to identify a unit type code's (UTC)...
What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine...
At a minimum, how often should the R–18 pumping unit oil filter...
The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of...
When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–18 pumping...
When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, what action...
When preparing an R–18 for shipment, dispose of all drained fuel...
When performing fuels mobility site planning, what organization should...
To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for...
When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck...
When performing transfer operations with an R–18 pumping unit,...
The micronic filter elements on the R–20multi-aircraft servicing...
What organization is responsible for the procurement of fuel at...
When performing fuel servicing operations with an...
With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions...
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