CDC 2EX5X Communications-electronics Journeyman Part 2

1. What are the three main functions of grounding?

Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction

Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emission security

Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction

Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection

2. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Sag

Spike

Noise

Blackout

3. What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneoud or dramatic increase in voltage?

Sag

Spike

Noise

Blackout

4. Who registers and approves UTC postured in the AEF library and AFWUS?

The appropriate MAJCOM authority

The appropriate NAF authority

The appropriate Wing authority

The appropriate Group authority

5. What guideline is encouragedby APWA to adopt to mark underground facilities?

Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard

Utility and Public Right-of-Way

Underwriters Laboratories

Information Assurance

6. What color is used to mark water, irrigation and slurry lines?

Red

Yellow

Orange

Blue

7. What is the establisment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

Bonding

Shielding

Annealing

Grounding

8. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

Sag

Spike

Noise

Blackout

9. How long is a standard deployment rotation within the 20 month AEF cycle?

Two months

Three months

Four months

Five months

10. What should you ensure before disconnecting an equipment ground?

Equipment power is off

Electrical charges are neutralized

Ground connection is complete and tightly fastened

Lockout tagout procedures are implemented

11. Within what area are you required to maintain compromising emanations?

Within the profile

Within the equipment

Within the inspectable space

Within the classified transmission

12. Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

Prevent eavesdropping

To aid in troubleshooting

Reduce transmission loss

Minimize potential damage

13. What deployment phase involves the actual movement of troops, cargo, weapons systmes, or a combination of these elements?

Readiness

Predeployment

Deployment

Employment

14. Which push-button(s) would you select to get 125 ohm impedance on the time domain reflectometer?

None

75 ohm only

125 ohm only

50 ohm and 75 ohm

15. In the first phase of the bare base electrical system installation, what provides electric power to critical functions?

Mobile electric power

Facility distribution panel

Primary distribution center

Uninterruptible power supply

16. What is the deployment response time of 85 EIS of personnel and resources when tasked?

24 hrs

48 hrs

72 hrs

96 hrs

17. What AOC communications support team support may include Transmission Systems; Power Production; Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning; Transportation?

AOC Weapons Systems Help Desk

Communications Focal Point

AOC Area Support

Data Links

18. What SATCOM system does sensor imagery disseminated from the Predator ground control station?

Trojan Spirit II

Milstar Terminal

Dark Star Tier II Minus

Flyaway Triband Satellite Terminal

19. How is the signal loss represented in an optical time domain reflectometer display?

Watts

Power

Candles

Decibels

20. Which feature of the HP 436A is for receiving commands from a computer?

Recorder output

Interface connector

Calibrator output

Radio frequency blanking output

21. Grounding resistance should be no higher than what value for a military C-E facility?

10 ohms

15 ohms

20 ohms

25 ohms

22. At what distance should the rods be spaced in a multi-rod grounding configuration?

0.5 to 2 times the length of the longest rod in the system

1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the system

2.5 to 4 times the length of the longest rod in the system

3.5 to 5 times the length of the longest rod in the system

Submit

24. What model of the MEP-PU-810 is designed for road use and meets Department of Transportation requirements?

A model

B model

C model

D model

25. Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when the Air Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled?

Steady State

Surge/ Crisis

Transition

Redeployment

26. A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the

Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard

Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard

Actual power level expressed in milliwatts

Actual power level expressed in megawatts

27. While using a time domain reflectometer (TDR), what cable fault causes delays in pulses of propagation velocity making accurate measurements difficult?

Short

Open

Grounded

Moisture in cables

28. How much more power is available at 6dBm than at 3 dBm?

None

1/2 less power

Twice as much

4 times as much

29. At what frequency does PMEL provide the TMDE Master ID Listing?

Every month

Every three months

Every six months

Every year

30. What UPS topology has been tradionally referred to as "offline"?

Passive Standby

Line Interactive

Double Conversion

Ferro resonant Standby

31. Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the "on call" pair?

Steady State

Surge/ Crisis

Transition

Redeployment

32. What agencies does each BCS-F site communicate with utilizing Forward Tell?

Cheyenne Mountain Operations Center and Continental United States North American

85th Engineering & Installation Squadron and Air Combat Command Communications Group

552nd Air Control Wing and Air Force Communications Agency

55th Wing and Air Force Pentagon Communications Agency

33. What do we call the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer?

Reflection

Backscatter

Scatter coefficient

Reflection coefficient

34. What's the most commonly used industry standard power reference level?

1 microwatt

1 milliwatt

10 microwatt

10 milliwatt

35. What does every 3 dB increase in gain do to the power level?

Nothing

Doubles power

Reduces power by 1/4

Cuts power in half

36. Why is it important to mark underground facilities, when the earth's surface is moved, removed, or displaced?

To minimize damage

To have a uniform color code

To maximize conservation of resources

To enforce American Public Works Association guidelines

37. What color is used to mark sewer and drain lines?

Blue

White

Green

Purple

38. What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

The earth electrode subsystem

The fault protection subsystem

The signal reference subsystem

The lightning protection subsystem

39. For transportable equipment, how deep should a grounding rod be driven when attaching a splice connection for lightning protection?

1 foot

3 feet

5 feet

7 feet

40. For wireless communications requirements, who must be consulted when assessing impact?

Base frequency manager

Land mobile radio manager

MAJCOM program manager

Systems controls facility manager

41. How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

Single-phase power

Double-phase power

Three-phase power

Four-phase power

42. What ICAP module can connect up to eight of its kind to form a large voice switch and segment a local area network?

Crypto Module

Red Data Module

Basic Access Module

Radio Frequency Module

43. Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?

Verifying transmitter frequencies

Troubleshooting receivers

Checking antenna systems

Aligning galvanometers

44. What is the threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL?

Over $1,000

Over $1,500

Over $2,000

Over $2,500

45. What types of modulated signals are possible with the radio frequency generator?

Sine Wave

Square wave

Triangle +/- Ramps

All of the Above

46. What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

The earth electrode subsystem

The fault protection subsystem

The signal reference subsystem

The lightning protection subsystem

47. What type of bond is not allowed for the lighting protection and fault protection subsystem?

Mechanical

Welding

Soft solder

None of the Above

48. Who primarily uses AFMQCCs?

Quality Assurance

Chief of Maintenance

Informatin Assurance

Inspector General team

49. What lead planning document provides specific instructions to include call signs, targets, sorties, controlling agencies, etc., as well as general instructions?

Operational Plan

Air Tasking Order

Air Order of Battle

AEF Reporting Tool

50. What is the smallest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding gride?

#2 AWG

#4 AWG

#6 AWG

#8 AWG

51. What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

None

Brazing

Welding

Mechanical

52. What type of UTC is identified as a standard UTC?

Associate

Deployable

War/ Crisis

Steady State

53. What deployment phase involves communications equipment being put in-place and commisssioned into service?

Readiness

Predeployment

Deployment

Employment

Submit

55. What color is used to mark communications, cable television, alarm or signal lines, cables or conduit systems?

Orange

Blue

Green

White

56. How are cables labeled?

Submit

58. What ICAP module provides wireless line-of-site microwave for extending modules more than 10 kilometers from the main mode?

Red Data Module

Basic Access Module

Radio Frequency Module

Promina Multiplexer Module

59. What are the two recommended configuration for a deployed master station ground?

Delta and Bus

Star and Tree

Delta and Star

Bus and Tree

60. What equipment should be designated as RED?

Equipment processing encrypted, classified information

Equipment processing clear-text, classified information

Equipment processing unecrypted, unclassified information

Equipment processing clear-text, unclassified information

61. What prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to perform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions?

Table of Allowance 417

Document Register D04

Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment listings

Communications-Computer Systems Installation Records

62. What type of UPS offers the highest level of protection?

Passive Standby

Line Interactive

Double Conversion

Ferro resonant Standby

63. What secondary cell battery is known for its light weight, high power capacity, no memory effect and long shelf life?

Lithium

Alkaline

Lead-acid

Nickel cadmium

64. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (db)?

1 dB

3dB

6 dB

10 dB

65. What tye of deflection return on the TDR CRT would indicate a cable "short?'

No "pip"

Smear "pip"

Upward deflections "pip"

Downward deflections "pip"

66. What color is used to mark the route of proposed subsurface line or location of proposed excavation?

Blue

White

Green

Purple

67. What associated sensor system allows the Predator UAV to image targets through clouds, camouflage netting, and other non-metallic coverings?

Infrared

Electro-Optical

Rotating radar dome

Synthetic aperture radar

68. What is the variable voltage range of signals output from the HP 3325B synthesizer/function generator?

1 mV to 10 V peak-to-peak

1 mV to 10V peak

1 V to 10V peak-to-peak

1V to 10V peak

69. The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter are determined by the

Digital display

Power sensor

Power meter

Interface

70. Who authorizes the use of local MQCCs?

Quality Assurance

Chief of Maintenance

Information Assurance

Inspector General team

71. What is the senior element of the Theater Air Control System?

Air & Space Operations Center

Air Support Operations Center

Control and Reporting Center

Tactical Air Control Party

72. The HAE CGS is able to control up to

Two HAE UAV systems at a time.

Three HAE UAV systems at a time

Four HAE UAV systems at a time

Five HAE UAV systems at a time

73. The output of the HP 3325B function generator may generate only DC voltages, to a maximum of

+/- 1V

+/- 4.5V

+/- 5V

+/- 10V

74. Which measurements do you make with a spectrum analyzer?

Subcarrier oscillator outputs

Transducer output voltage

Time between two events

Pulse width

75. With the signal generator, what do you use to match impedance of a ciruit under test?

Balun

N-type connector

Attenuator

BNC connector

76. What ICAP module provides a secure interface for computer workstations and local network devices using IP to exchange classified data between nodes of the network?

Red Data Module

Basic Access Module

Radio Frequency Module

Promina Multiplexer Module

77. What MAJCOM does the 85 EIS fall under?

AETC

ACC

PACAF

AFMC

78. Which feature of the HP 436A provides hands free operation?

Auxiliary meter

Power sensor

Autorange

Auto zero

79. Which feature of the HP 436A can be used to print graphs?

Autorange

Auto zero

Recorder output

Interface connector

80. What color is used to mark temporary construction project site survey markings or to make surve monumnts temporarily more visible?

Green

White

Purple

Flourescent pink

81. What type of UPS utilizes a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

Passive Standby

Line Interactive

Double Conversion

Ferro resonant Standby

82. What major system of DATCALS has a TPN-24 Airport Surveillance Radar systme?

TRN-26 TACAN

MSN-7 Mobile Tower

TPN-19 Air Traffic Control

TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar

83. What ground station is the primary system that provides mission preparation and rapid post mission data analysis for Rivet Joint?

Ground Data Processing Station

Intermediate Collection Module

Ground Theater Air Control System

Data Exploitation, Mission Planning and Communications

84. What is the output impedance available at the HP 3325B's front and rear panel output jacks?

25 ohms

50 ohms

100 ohms

150 ohms

85. Who maintains a central repository of CSIR information for the Air Force?

Air Force Communications Agency

Air Force Institute of Technology

Engineering Data Service Center

Technology Repair Center

86. What form is used to purchase equipment directly from a manufacturer or distributor?

AF IMT 9, Request for Purchase

AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request

AF IMT 3064, Contract Progress Schedule

AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document

87. What portion of today's AEF deployments are performed by the Air National Gurad and Air Reserve Component?

15 percent

20 percent

30 percent

40 percent

88. A radio frequency generator is used to

Monitor odd harmonics

Align telemetry receivers

Modulate subcarrier oscillators

Check galvanometer frequency response

89. What color is used to mark gas, oil, steam, petroleum, gaseous, or dangerous materials?

Red

Yellow

Orange

Blue

90. What color is used to mark reclaimed water?

Green

White

Purple

Fluorescent pink

91. What security discipline is used to deny access to classified and, in som instances, unclassified information and contain compromising emanations within an inspectable space?

COMPUSEC

TEMPEST

COMSEC

EMSEC

92. What form is frequently used to initiate the need for a new communications service?

AF IMT 9. Request for Purchase

AF IMT 2005, Issue/ Turn-In Request

AF IMT 3064, Contract Progress Schedule

AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Documents

93. What is the radar range of AWACS?

Less than 150 miles

More than 150 miles

Less than 200 miles

More than 200 miles

94. During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?

While in WATT mode operation

While in REMOTE mode operation

During the automatice zeroing operation

During calibration adjustment operation

95. What identiefies maintenance, software, hardware, security requirments, technical data, circuits, supplies, and required follow on support (i.e. maintenance)?

Site Survey

Technical Solution

Certificate of Operation

Project Support Agreement

96. What primary battery cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volts, a very low internal resistance, and a high service capacity?

Lithium

Alkaline

Lead-acid

Nickel-cadmium

97. What is the process of UTC posturing?

Outlines each measured unit's capabilities

A methodology to reduce the number of TDYs or deployments

Identifying and making available a unit's trained and ready capable UTCs

Enables commanders to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its MISCAP

98. What system initially handles Air and Space Operations Center duties?

Rivet Joint

Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

Airborne Warning and Control Sytem

Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

99. What AOC communications support team ensures servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software is on-line and available to the user?

C2 Systems

AOC Networks

Communications Focal Points

AOC Weapon System Help Desk

100. Which electronic counter measurement counts the number of bits in a pulse train?

Period

Scaling

Totalize

Time interval

101. A power ratio of 10000:1 can be represented by how many bels?

1 bels

2 bels

3 bels

4 bels

102. What major system of DATCALS provides radio navigation infromation (bearing, indentication, and distance)?

TRN-26 TACAN

MSN-7 Mobile Tower

TPN-19 Air Traffic Control

TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar

103. What aircraft provides all-weather surveillance, command, control and communications needed by commanders of US, NATO and other allied air defense forces?

Rivet Joint

Airborne Warning and Control System

Global Hawk Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

104. What is teh frequency range of an audio signal generator?

10Hz to 10kHz

20Hz to 20kHz

10kHz to 10GHz

20kHz to 35MHz

105. Which measurements is not made with a spectrum analyzer?

Frequency stability

Peak-peak voltage

Amplitude modulation

Subcarrier oscillator output

106. What element of a resistance-capacitance oscillator in a commercial signal generator is used as a variable element?

Induction

Capacitance

Sampling

Power

107. What color is used to mark electric power lines, cables, and conduit systems and lighting cables?

Red

Yellow

Orange

Blue

108. At what value should bonds in the earth electrode subsystem not exceed for resistance?

1 nano ohm

1 micro ohm

1 milliohm

1 megaohm

109. What is known as a set of standards for limiting electric or electromagnetic radiation?

COMPUSEC

TEMPEST

COMSEC

EMSEC

110. What ICAP module provides data security for Internet Protocol backbone and local network devices using the IP to exchange data from nodes of a larger network and external military?

Crypto Module

Crypto Interface Module

Radio Frequency Module

Promina Multiplexer Module

111. What are the two types of intepolation?

Real-time and linear

Real-time and sine

Sine and Linear

Sine and Repetitive

112. What internally generated modulating signals can the HP 3325B use to amplitude-modulate the main signal?

2kHz square wave and10kHz triangle wave

2kHz sine wave and 10kHz traingle wave

2kHz triangle and 10kHz square wave

2kHz square wave and 10kHz sine wave

113. The AOC normally passes scramble and control authority to whom for allocated sorties and establishes coordinated procedures to facilitate authorized diversion of preplanned missions?

Communications Focal Point

Air Support Operations Center

Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center

Frequency Manager in Combat Plans Division

114. What aircraft supports theater and national level consumers with near real time on-scene intelligence collection, analysis and dissemination capabilities?

Rivet Joint

Airborne Warning and Control System

Global Hawk Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

115. Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?

Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters

Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters

Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters

Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters

116. What ICAP module provides encryption/decryption capability for aggregate data channels that interface to legacy communicatiions terminals and FTSAT?

Crypto Module

Crypto Interface Module

Radio Frequency Module

Promina Multiplexer Module

117. In using the phase modulation controls of the HP3325B function generator, an input of a +/- 5 V peak would result in what approximate phase deviation?

+/- 42.5 degrees per volt for sine wave

+/- 42.5 degrees per volt for square wave

+/- 425 degrees per volt for sine wave

+/- 425 degrees per volt for square wave

118. Within how much of a radius can 50-100 people be supported by the 6KTEB UTC?

50 meters

100 meters

500 meters

1000 meters

119. Which feature of the 436A provides a stable 1.00mW, 50 MHz output

Recorder output

Interface connector

Calibrator output

Radio frequency blanking output

120. What is considered black equipment?

Equipment processing encrypted, classified information

Equipment processing clear-text, classified information

Equipment processing encrypted, unclassified information

Equipment processing clear-text, unclassified information

121. Which of the following is NOT a main ennvironment that the AEF operates in?

Steady State

Surge/Crisis

Transition

Redeployment

122. What is the range of the TPN-24 for air traffic controllers to identify and locate aircraft?

25 miles

40 miles

50 miles

60 miles

123. What AOC communications support team contains personnel with specific working knowledge of the AOC mission, oversee site operations, and provide direct C4I system and communications support to the AOC?

C2 System

AOC Networks

Communications Focal Points

AOC Weapon Systems Help Desk

124. Which feature of the HP 436A determines power measurement range and frequency range?

Auxiliary meter

Power sensor

Autorange

Auto zero

125. What aircraft has a primary mission to provide theater ground and air commanders with ground surveillance?

Rivet Joint

Airborne Warning and Control System

Global Hawk Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

126. What is the effective range of the TRN-26?

33 nautical miles at 1000 feet above unobstructed terrain and a reception range of 100 nautical miles

33 nautical miles at 1500 feet above unobstructed terrain and a reception range of 100 nautical miles

66 nautical miles at 1000 feet above unobstructed terrain and a reception range of 100 nautical miles

66 nautical miles at 1500 feet above unobstructed terrain and a reception range of 100 nautical miles

127. Which is not a type of acquisition mode on the digital storage oscilloscope?

Sample Mode

Repetitive Mode

Peak Detection Mode

Averaging Mode

128. How many nodes are available to expand BII with the 6KTEC UTC

Two

Three

Four

Five

129. How many display indicators present information to the air traffic controllers from ASR and PAR?

Three

Four

Five

Six

130. What is the frequency range of range of the HP 8640B radio frequency signal generator?

500kHz to 512MHz

512HZ to 500kHz

500Hz to 512kHz

512kHz to 500MHz

131. How many people accompany the 6KTED UTC?

Three

Four

Five

Six

132. Which electronic counter measurement do you make with a spectrum analyzer?

Period

Scaling

Frequency

Time interval

133. What range of frequencies does the radio frequency signal generator provide?

10Hz to 10 MHz

10kHz to 10Mz

10Hz to 10GHz

10kHz to 10GHz

134. What are the two sampling techniques of a digital storage oscilloscope?

Real-time and repetitive sampling

Real-time and averaging sampling

Repetitive and averaging sampling

Linear and averaging sampling

135. What is the key point about AEF?

Management of the personnel force by bringing predictability and stability to our Airmen during steady state

It is how we organize, train, and equip our Air Force to deploy and employ Airmen to meet today's challenges

A methodology to reduce the number of TDYs or deployments

136. Which feature of the HP436A is ideal for monitorying peaking power?

Auxiliary meter

Power Sensor

Autorange

Auto zero

Submit

138. How much clearance is needed in front of the radiator end of a MEP-012A?

12.5 feet

25 feet

50 feet

100 feet

139. Which feature of the HP 436A can be used to stabilize the power source?

Autorange

Auto zero

Recorder output

Interface connector

140. What is used to provide the means to issue optional or temporary modifications on C-E equipment?

Preventive Maintenance Inspection

Local Maintenance Quality Control Checksheets

Air Force Maintenance Quality Control Checksheets

Air Force Communications-Electronics Maintenance Instruction

Submit

CDC 2EX5X Communications-electronics Journeyman Part 2

1. What are the three main functions of grounding?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

3. What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneoud or dramatic increase in voltage?

4. Who registers and approves UTC postured in the AEF library and AFWUS?

5. What guideline is encouragedby APWA to adopt to mark underground facilities?

6. What color is used to mark water, irrigation and slurry lines?

7. What is the establisment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

8. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

9. How long is a standard deployment rotation within the 20 month AEF cycle?

10. What should you ensure before disconnecting an equipment ground?

11. Within what area are you required to maintain compromising emanations?

12. Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

13. What deployment phase involves the actual movement of troops, cargo, weapons systmes, or a combination of these elements?

14. Which push-button(s) would you select to get 125 ohm impedance on the time domain reflectometer?

15. In the first phase of the bare base electrical system installation, what provides electric power to critical functions?

16. What is the deployment response time of 85 EIS of personnel and resources when tasked?

17. What AOC communications support team support may include Transmission Systems; Power Production; Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning; Transportation?

18. What SATCOM system does sensor imagery disseminated from the Predator ground control station?

19. How is the signal loss represented in an optical time domain reflectometer display?

20. Which feature of the HP 436A is for receiving commands from a computer?

21. Grounding resistance should be no higher than what value for a military C-E facility?

22. At what distance should the rods be spaced in a multi-rod grounding configuration?

23. What part of the power generation process allows a smooth transition of electrical current between multiple sources and the load?

24. What model of the MEP-PU-810 is designed for road use and meets Department of Transportation requirements?

25. Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when the Air Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled?

26. A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the

27. While using a time domain reflectometer (TDR), what cable fault causes delays in pulses of propagation velocity making accurate measurements difficult?

28. How much more power is available at 6dBm than at 3 dBm?

29. At what frequency does PMEL provide the TMDE Master ID Listing?

30. What UPS topology has been tradionally referred to as "offline"?

31. Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the "on call" pair?

32. What agencies does each BCS-F site communicate with utilizing Forward Tell?

33. What do we call the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer?

34. What's the most commonly used industry standard power reference level?

35. What does every 3 dB increase in gain do to the power level?

36. Why is it important to mark underground facilities, when the earth's surface is moved, removed, or displaced?

37. What color is used to mark sewer and drain lines?

38. What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

39. For transportable equipment, how deep should a grounding rod be driven when attaching a splice connection for lightning protection?

40. For wireless communications requirements, who must be consulted when assessing impact?

41. How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

42. What ICAP module can connect up to eight of its kind to form a large voice switch and segment a local area network?

43. Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?

44. What is the threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL?

45. What types of modulated signals are possible with the radio frequency generator?

46. What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

47. What type of bond is not allowed for the lighting protection and fault protection subsystem?

48. Who primarily uses AFMQCCs?

49. What lead planning document provides specific instructions to include call signs, targets, sorties, controlling agencies, etc., as well as general instructions?

50. What is the smallest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding gride?

51. What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

52. What type of UTC is identified as a standard UTC?

53. What deployment phase involves communications equipment being put in-place and commisssioned into service?

54. What deployable communication system is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchanged secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite, or hard wired resources?

55. What color is used to mark communications, cable television, alarm or signal lines, cables or conduit systems?

56. How are cables labeled?

57. What secondary cell is prone to the "memory effect"?

58. What ICAP module provides wireless line-of-site microwave for extending modules more than 10 kilometers from the main mode?

59. What are the two recommended configuration for a deployed master station ground?

60. What equipment should be designated as RED?

61. What prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to perform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions?

62. What type of UPS offers the highest level of protection?

63. What secondary cell battery is known for its light weight, high power capacity, no memory effect and long shelf life?

64. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (db)?

65. What tye of deflection return on the TDR CRT would indicate a cable "short?'

66. What color is used to mark the route of proposed subsurface line or location of proposed excavation?

67. What associated sensor system allows the Predator UAV to image targets through clouds, camouflage netting, and other non-metallic coverings?

68. What is the variable voltage range of signals output from the HP 3325B synthesizer/function generator?

69. The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter are determined by the

70. Who authorizes the use of local MQCCs?

71. What is the senior element of the Theater Air Control System?

72. The HAE CGS is able to control up to

73. The output of the HP 3325B function generator may generate only DC voltages, to a maximum of

74. Which measurements do you make with a spectrum analyzer?

75. With the signal generator, what do you use to match impedance of a ciruit under test?

76. What ICAP module provides a secure interface for computer workstations and local network devices using IP to exchange classified data between nodes of the network?

77. What MAJCOM does the 85 EIS fall under?