Interesting Quiz CCNP Route - Q31-q61

30 Questions | Total Attempts: 147

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CCNP Quizzes & Trivia

You worked your way through the first thirty questions and that’s no small feat! That said, the questions on the knowledge required to become a Cisco Certified Network Professional don’t stop there! Let’s see how many of the remaining questions you can answer correctly!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which two networks would match the following prefix list? (Choose two.) ip prefix-list MATCHTHIS seq 5 permit 10.1.0.0/16 ge 24 le 30
    • A. 

      10.0.0.0/16

    • B. 

      10.0.0.0/24

    • C. 

      10.1.0.0/16

    • D. 

      10.1.0.0/24

    • E. 

      10.1.1.0/30

  • 2. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions will be results of the distribute list that is shown? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      All /30 networks will be permitted

    • B. 

      All networks that do not match the prefix list statements 5 and 10 will be permitted.

    • C. 

      The 10.10.10.0/24 network will be denied

    • D. 

      The 10.10.10.0/25 network will be denied.

    • E. 

      The 10.10.10.0/30 network will be denied.

  • 3. 
    Which routing updates would be permitted when the distribute-list 1 in serial 0/0/0 router configuration command is configured?
    • A. 

      Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by ACL 1.

    • B. 

      Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by prefix-list 1.

    • C. 

      Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by route-map 1.

    • D. 

      Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by ACL 1.

    • E. 

      Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by prefix-list 1.

    • F. 

      Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by route-map 1.

  • 4. 
    Which set of commands correctly configures one-way route redistribution from OSPF into the EIGRP routing domain?
    • A. 

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 redistribute eigrp 10

    • B. 

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 redistribute ospf 1 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

    • C. 

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 redistribute ospf 1 metric 10000 10 200 5 1500 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

    • D. 

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 redistribute ospf 1 metric 10000 10 200 5 1500 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 redistribute eigrp 10 subnets metric 100

  • 5. 
    Which two statements are correct about redistribution? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Redistribution does not cause routing loops due to safeguards such as administrative distance and default metric values.

    • B. 

      The default-metric router configuration command takes precedence over the redistribute metric metric-value command.

    • C. 

      The redistribute command is configured in the routing process of the routing protocol being redistributed

    • D. 

      When redistributing into EIGRP, redistributed routes must be assigned a metric value.

    • E. 

      When redistributing into OSPF, the subnets keyword must be configured to redistribute subnetted routes.

  • 6. 
    Which statement best describes the route filtering process used by route maps?
    • A. 

      Once a route map is made, all possible further comparisons still occur.

    • B. 

      Once a route match is made, no further comparisons occur

    • C. 

      Once a route match is made, some further comparisons occur.

    • D. 

      Once a route match is made, the route is denied.

  • 7. 
    Which routes will retain existing metrics when redistributed into EIGRP?
    • A. 

      BGP

    • B. 

      OSPF

    • C. 

      RIPv2

    • D. 

      Static

  • 8. 
    Which two statements are true of policy-based routing (PBR) as a path control tool? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Configured route map entries will have a default sequence number increments of 5.

    • B. 

      It can be applied only to link-state routing protocols.

    • C. 

      It is applied only in the inbound direction.

    • D. 

      It provides a mechanism to mark packets with different types of service (ToS).

    • E. 

      Packets that do not match any match statements will be dropped.

  • 9. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The route map LOAD_BALANCE has been applied to the FastEthernet interfaces of R1,and all interfaces are up. R1 uses two default static routes to reach the Internet via ISP1 and ISP2. Which traffic will be sent to the null 0 interface by the route map on R1?
    • A. 

      Any packets that are sourced from the internet.

    • B. 

      Packets that are not sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network

    • C. 

      Packets that are not sourced from ISP1 or ISP2 routers.

    • D. 

      Packets that are sourced from 10.0.0.0 or 10.1.0.0 networks destined for 10.2.0.0

    • E. 

      Packets that are sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network and destined for the Internet

  • 10. 
    Which command would allow the filtering of routes for the 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 network through the 10.0.255.0255.255.255.0 network address space?
    • A. 

      Access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255

    • B. 

      Access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255

    • C. 

      Ip prefix-list FLIST1 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16

    • D. 

      Ip prefix-list FLIST1 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      R2 interface Fa0/0

    • B. 

      R2 interface Fa0/1

    • C. 

      RTA interface Fa0/0

    • D. 

      RTA interface Fa0/1

    • E. 

      RTB interface Fa0/0

    • F. 

      RTB interface Fa 1/0

  • 12. 
    What is the purpose of the Cisco IOS IP SLA feature?
    • A. 

      To control traffic as it enters a router interface.

    • B. 

      To determine the full path a packet takes across the network to its final destination.

    • C. 

      To determine the full path a packet takes across the network to its final destination.

    • D. 

      To generate and analyze traffic in order to measure performance between devices

  • 13. 
    Which three of the following packets cannot be CEF switched and must be processed in software?
    • A. 

      Packets that exceed the MTU of an output interface and must be fragmented

    • B. 

      Packets that need to be translated by NAT.

    • C. 

      Packets which are forwarded to a tunnel interface

    • D. 

      Packets whoes destination IP address is in the FIB table

    • E. 

      Packets with an expiring TTL counter

  • 14. 
    Which router interface command would enable a router to acquire an IP address configuration from an upstream DHCP server?
    • A. 

      IP address client

    • B. 

      IP address DHCP

    • C. 

      IP address dhcp client

    • D. 

      IP address negotiate

  • 15. 
    The IPv6 _____________________ interface ID is derived by splitting an interface's 48-bit MAC address in twoand inserting 0xFFFE in between the two parts.
  • 16. 
    Use this interface configuration command to enable the automatic configuration of an IPv6 address usingstateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC).
    • A. 

      Ipv6 address address/prefix-length link-local

    • B. 

      Ipv6 address autoconfig

    • C. 

      Ipv6 address dhcp

    • D. 

      Ipv6 address slaac

    • E. 

      Ipv6 dhcp server server-name

  • 17. 
    Which protocol would you use to provide IPv4 Internet connectivity to IPv6 devices?
    • A. 

      NAT64

    • B. 

      NAT-PT

    • C. 

      NATv6

    • D. 

      PAT

  • 18. 
    In MP-BGP, what must be configured within an address family before a neighbor can be established?
    • A. 

      The neighbor's IP address used in peering must be activated with the neighbor IP-address activate command

    • B. 

      The directly connected network between the two neighbors must be advertised using the network command.

    • C. 

      The directly connected network between the two neighbors must be advertised using the neighbor IP-address activate command.

    • D. 

      No additional configuration in the address family is needed.

  • 19. 
    Which of the following regarding MP-BGP is not a true statement?
    • A. 

      IPv4 can be used to send BGP messages for IPv4 and IPv6.

    • B. 

      Supports BGP for both IPv4 and IPv6

    • C. 

      Uses address families for configuration

    • D. 

      Requires a separate router ID for BGP for IPv4 and BGP for IPv6

  • 20. 
    Which statement about SNMP is true?
    • A. 

      SNMPv1 uses community strings to encrypt SNMP messages

    • B. 

      SNMPv1 is the most secure version to use

    • C. 

      SNMPv1, SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 use community strings

    • D. 

      SNMPv2 supports the use of read-write community strings to encrypt SNMP messages

    • E. 

      SNMPv3 can provide authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality.

  • 21. 
    The output of the show ip ssh command displays "SSH Enabled - version 2". Based on this output, which statement is true?
    • A. 

      The device was configured with the ip ssh version 2 command.

    • B. 

      The device was configured with the no ip ssh version command

    • C. 

      This is also known as compatibility mode because it supports both SSHv1 and SSHv2.

    • D. 

      This is the default SSH version when SSH is enabled.

    • E. 

      This is the original version but has known vulnerabilities.

  • 22. 
    Which VRF statement is true?
    • A. 

      A layer 3 interface can belong to more than one VRF at a time.

    • B. 

      The show ip route vrf-lite vrf-name command is used to display the VRF routing table entries.

    • C. 

      Routing table entries prepended with "V" identify VRF enabled routes.

    • D. 

      VRF can only be used with MPLS

    • E. 

      VRF-lite is the deployment of VRF without MPLS.

  • 23. 
    Which two routing protocol authentication statements are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      BGP supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

    • B. 

      EIGRP supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

    • C. 

      EIGRP supports MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using named EIGRP.

    • D. 

      OSPFv2 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using key chains

    • E. 

      OSPv3 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

    • F. 

      RIPv2 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

  • 24. 
    Which statement about the Secure Copy (SCP) feature is true?
    • A. 

      A workstation requires an SSH client such as Tera Term or PuTTY to securely transfer files

    • B. 

      Requires a local database entry to be configured when used with AAA.

    • C. 

      Requires that a router be configured with the ip ssh server enable global configuration command.

    • D. 

      Requires that SSH be enabled before using it.

    • E. 

      Requires that SSL be enabled before using it.

  • 25. 
    Refer to the exhibit. RTR-A and RTR-B cannot establish a BGP relationship. What could the problem be? 
    • A. 

      RTR-B does not have have the command neighbor 64.100.25.1 remove-private-as applied.

    • B. 

      RTR-A and RTR-B do not have the command neighbor ebgp-multihop applied.

    • C. 

      The routers are attempting to peer with the loopback interface instead of the physical interface.

    • D. 

      A network statement is missing on both routers.

  • 26. 
    Which two OSPF routing protocol characteristics can be used or modified at redistribution points to help implement a path control strategy? (Choose two).
    • A. 

      Metric

    • B. 

      NSSA translation of Type 7 LSA's to Type 5 LSA's

    • C. 

      Process ID

    • D. 

      Route tag

    • E. 

      Unequal cost load balancing