Interesting Quiz CCNP Route - Q31-q61

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| By Jordbluenose
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CCNP Quizzes & Trivia

You worked your way through the first thirty questions and that’s no small feat! That said, the questions on the knowledge required to become a Cisco Certified Network Professional don’t stop there! Let’s see how many of the remaining questions you can answer correctly!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which two networks would match the following prefix list? (Choose two.) ip prefix-list MATCHTHIS seq 5 permit 10.1.0.0/16 ge 24 le 30

    • A.

      10.0.0.0/16

    • B.

      10.0.0.0/24

    • C.

      10.1.0.0/16

    • D.

      10.1.0.0/24

    • E.

      10.1.1.0/30

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. 10.1.0.0/24
    E. 10.1.1.0/30
    Explanation
    The prefix list "MATCHTHIS" permits IP addresses with a prefix length of 16, a subnet mask greater than or equal to 24, and less than or equal to 30. Among the given networks, 10.1.0.0/24 and 10.1.1.0/30 match these criteria. The prefix length of both networks is 16, which satisfies the first condition. The subnet mask of 10.1.0.0/24 is 24, which is greater than or equal to 24, and the subnet mask of 10.1.1.0/30 is 30, which is less than or equal to 30, satisfying the second condition. Therefore, these two networks match the prefix list.

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  • 2. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions will be results of the distribute list that is shown? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      All /30 networks will be permitted

    • B.

      All networks that do not match the prefix list statements 5 and 10 will be permitted.

    • C.

      The 10.10.10.0/24 network will be denied

    • D.

      The 10.10.10.0/25 network will be denied.

    • E.

      The 10.10.10.0/30 network will be denied.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. All networks that do not match the prefix list statements 5 and 10 will be permitted.
    D. The 10.10.10.0/25 network will be denied.
    E. The 10.10.10.0/30 network will be denied.
    Explanation
    The distribute list shown in the exhibit is used to control the routing updates that are sent or received by a router. The prefix list statements 5 and 10 are used to permit or deny specific networks. According to the given answer, all networks that do not match the prefix list statements 5 and 10 will be permitted. This means that any network not specifically mentioned in statements 5 and 10 will be allowed. Additionally, the 10.10.10.0/25 network and the 10.10.10.0/30 network will be denied, meaning that these networks will not be permitted.

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  • 3. 

    Which routing updates would be permitted when the distribute-list 1 in serial 0/0/0 router configuration command is configured?

    • A.

      Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by ACL 1.

    • B.

      Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by prefix-list 1.

    • C.

      Routing updates that are received on any interface and permitted by route-map 1.

    • D.

      Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by ACL 1.

    • E.

      Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by prefix-list 1.

    • F.

      Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by route-map 1.

    Correct Answer
    D. Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by ACL 1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by ACL 1." This means that only routing updates received on the specific interface "serial 0/0/0" will be permitted, and they must also be allowed by ACL 1. The distribute-list command is used to filter routing updates based on an access control list (ACL), prefix-list, or route-map. In this case, it specifies that only updates received on the serial 0/0/0 interface and allowed by ACL 1 will be accepted.

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  • 4. 

    Which set of commands correctly configures one-way route redistribution from OSPF into the EIGRP routing domain?

    • A.

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 redistribute eigrp 10

    • B.

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 redistribute ospf 1 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

    • C.

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 redistribute ospf 1 metric 10000 10 200 5 1500 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

    • D.

      Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 redistribute ospf 1 metric 10000 10 200 5 1500 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 redistribute eigrp 10 subnets metric 100

    Correct Answer
    C. Router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 redistribute ospf 1 metric 10000 10 200 5 1500 exit router ospf 1 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
    Explanation
    This set of commands correctly configures one-way route redistribution from OSPF into the EIGRP routing domain. The "router eigrp 10" command enables EIGRP routing with an autonomous system number of 10. The "network 10.0.0.0" command specifies the network to be advertised by EIGRP. The "redistribute ospf 1" command redistributes OSPF routes into EIGRP. The "metric 10000 10 200 5 1500" option sets the metric for the redistributed routes. The "exit" command exits the EIGRP configuration mode. The "router ospf 1" command enables OSPF routing with an autonomous system number of 1. The "network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0" command specifies the network to be advertised by OSPF in area 0.

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  • 5. 

    Which two statements are correct about redistribution? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Redistribution does not cause routing loops due to safeguards such as administrative distance and default metric values.

    • B.

      The default-metric router configuration command takes precedence over the redistribute metric metric-value command.

    • C.

      The redistribute command is configured in the routing process of the routing protocol being redistributed

    • D.

      When redistributing into EIGRP, redistributed routes must be assigned a metric value.

    • E.

      When redistributing into OSPF, the subnets keyword must be configured to redistribute subnetted routes.

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. When redistributing into EIGRP, redistributed routes must be assigned a metric value.
    E. When redistributing into OSPF, the subnets keyword must be configured to redistribute subnetted routes.
    Explanation
    The first correct statement explains that when redistributing into EIGRP, the redistributed routes must be assigned a metric value. This means that when redistributing routes from another routing protocol into EIGRP, a metric value needs to be assigned to those routes in order for EIGRP to properly calculate the best path.

    The second correct statement states that when redistributing into OSPF, the subnets keyword must be configured to redistribute subnetted routes. This means that when redistributing routes from another routing protocol into OSPF, the subnets keyword needs to be included in the configuration to ensure that OSPF redistributes subnetted routes along with their network addresses.

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  • 6. 

    Which statement best describes the route filtering process used by route maps?

    • A.

      Once a route map is made, all possible further comparisons still occur.

    • B.

      Once a route match is made, no further comparisons occur

    • C.

      Once a route match is made, some further comparisons occur.

    • D.

      Once a route match is made, the route is denied.

    Correct Answer
    B. Once a route match is made, no further comparisons occur
    Explanation
    Once a route match is made, no further comparisons occur. This means that once a route map finds a match for a route, it will take the action specified in the route map and no further comparisons will be made for that route. This allows for efficient and streamlined routing decisions based on the specific criteria defined in the route map.

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  • 7. 

    Which routes will retain existing metrics when redistributed into EIGRP?

    • A.

      BGP

    • B.

      OSPF

    • C.

      RIPv2

    • D.

      Static

    Correct Answer
    D. Static
    Explanation
    When routes are redistributed into EIGRP, their metrics are typically recalculated based on EIGRP's own algorithm. However, when static routes are redistributed, they retain their existing metrics. This means that the metrics assigned to the static routes will not be changed or modified by EIGRP.

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  • 8. 

    Which two statements are true of policy-based routing (PBR) as a path control tool? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Configured route map entries will have a default sequence number increments of 5.

    • B.

      It can be applied only to link-state routing protocols.

    • C.

      It is applied only in the inbound direction.

    • D.

      It provides a mechanism to mark packets with different types of service (ToS).

    • E.

      Packets that do not match any match statements will be dropped.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. It is applied only in the inbound direction.
    D. It provides a mechanism to mark packets with different types of service (ToS).
    Explanation
    Policy-based routing (PBR) is a path control tool that allows the network administrator to control the path that specific packets take through the network. Two statements that are true about PBR are: it is applied only in the inbound direction and it provides a mechanism to mark packets with different types of service (ToS). PBR is not limited to link-state routing protocols and can be applied to any routing protocol. The statement about configured route map entries having a default sequence number increments of 5 is false. Additionally, packets that do not match any match statements in the route map will not be dropped but will follow the normal routing path.

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  • 9. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The route map LOAD_BALANCE has been applied to the FastEthernet interfaces of R1,and all interfaces are up. R1 uses two default static routes to reach the Internet via ISP1 and ISP2. Which traffic will be sent to the null 0 interface by the route map on R1?

    • A.

      Any packets that are sourced from the internet.

    • B.

      Packets that are not sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network

    • C.

      Packets that are not sourced from ISP1 or ISP2 routers.

    • D.

      Packets that are sourced from 10.0.0.0 or 10.1.0.0 networks destined for 10.2.0.0

    • E.

      Packets that are sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network and destined for the Internet

    Correct Answer
    E. Packets that are sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network and destined for the Internet
    Explanation
    The route map LOAD_BALANCE on R1 is configured to send packets that are sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network and destined for the Internet to the null 0 interface. This means that any traffic originating from the 10.2.0.0 network and intended for destinations outside of the network will be discarded and not forwarded to any other interface.

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  • 10. 

    Which command would allow the filtering of routes for the 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 network through the 10.0.255.0255.255.255.0 network address space?

    • A.

      Access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255

    • B.

      Access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255

    • C.

      Ip prefix-list FLIST1 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16

    • D.

      Ip prefix-list FLIST1 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24

    Correct Answer
    D. Ip prefix-list FLIST1 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ip prefix-list FLIST1 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24". This command allows the filtering of routes for the 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 network through the 10.0.255.0 255.255.255.0 network address space. The "ip prefix-list FLIST1" command creates a prefix list named FLIST1, and the "permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24" statement permits routes with a network address of 10.0.0.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 or more specific (up to a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0) to be filtered.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The network policy requires that packets from the 10.0.0.0/8 network be directed to R2 toand then the Internet? Given the following configuration:  access-list 111 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any route-map net-10 permit 10 match ip address 111 set interface FastEthernet 0/1 On which router and which interface would the ip policy route-map command be configured?

    • A.

      R2 interface Fa0/0

    • B.

      R2 interface Fa0/1

    • C.

      RTA interface Fa0/0

    • D.

      RTA interface Fa0/1

    • E.

      RTB interface Fa0/0

    • F.

      RTB interface Fa 1/0

    Correct Answer
    F. RTB interface Fa 1/0
    Explanation
    The ip policy route-map command would be configured on the RTB router, specifically on the Fa1/0 interface. This is because the network policy requires packets from the 10.0.0.0/8 network to be directed to R2 and then to the Internet. The route-map net-10 is used to match the IP address 111, which corresponds to the access-list 111 that permits packets from the 10.0.0.0/8 network. The set interface command is used to specify the outgoing interface for the packets, which in this case is FastEthernet 1/0 on the RTB router.

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  • 12. 

    What is the purpose of the Cisco IOS IP SLA feature?

    • A.

      To control traffic as it enters a router interface.

    • B.

      To determine the full path a packet takes across the network to its final destination.

    • C.

      To determine the full path a packet takes across the network to its final destination.

    • D.

      To generate and analyze traffic in order to measure performance between devices

    Correct Answer
    D. To generate and analyze traffic in order to measure performance between devices
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Cisco IOS IP SLA feature is to generate and analyze traffic in order to measure performance between devices. This feature allows network administrators to monitor network performance, identify any issues or bottlenecks, and make necessary adjustments to optimize network performance. IP SLA can simulate various types of network traffic, such as voice, video, or data, and measure factors like latency, packet loss, and jitter. By analyzing this data, administrators can make informed decisions to improve network performance and ensure optimal user experience.

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  • 13. 

    Which three of the following packets cannot be CEF switched and must be processed in software?

    • A.

      Packets that exceed the MTU of an output interface and must be fragmented

    • B.

      Packets that need to be translated by NAT.

    • C.

      Packets which are forwarded to a tunnel interface

    • D.

      Packets whoes destination IP address is in the FIB table

    • E.

      Packets with an expiring TTL counter

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Packets that exceed the MTU of an output interface and must be fragmented
    C. Packets which are forwarded to a tunnel interface
    E. Packets with an expiring TTL counter
    Explanation
    Packets that exceed the MTU of an output interface and must be fragmented cannot be CEF switched because they need to be broken down into smaller fragments before they can be transmitted over the network. Similarly, packets which are forwarded to a tunnel interface also cannot be CEF switched because they need to be encapsulated within another packet for transmission. Finally, packets with an expiring TTL counter cannot be CEF switched because the TTL counter needs to be decremented and checked for expiration in software before forwarding the packet.

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  • 14. 

    Which router interface command would enable a router to acquire an IP address configuration from an upstream DHCP server?

    • A.

      IP address client

    • B.

      IP address DHCP

    • C.

      IP address dhcp client

    • D.

      IP address negotiate

    Correct Answer
    B. IP address DHCP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "IP address DHCP." This command enables a router to acquire an IP address configuration from an upstream DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol that allows devices to obtain IP addresses and other network configuration settings automatically. By using the "IP address DHCP" command, the router will request an IP address from a DHCP server and automatically configure its interface with the assigned IP address.

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  • 15. 

    The IPv6 _____________________ interface ID is derived by splitting an interface's 48-bit MAC address in twoand inserting 0xFFFE in between the two parts.

    Correct Answer
    eui-64
    Explanation
    The IPv6 interface ID is derived by splitting an interface's 48-bit MAC address in two and inserting 0xFFFE in between the two parts. This process is known as EUI-64 (Extended Unique Identifier-64). The EUI-64 method allows for automatic generation of IPv6 interface IDs based on the MAC address, ensuring uniqueness and simplifying network configuration.

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  • 16. 

    Use this interface configuration command to enable the automatic configuration of an IPv6 address usingstateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC).

    • A.

      Ipv6 address address/prefix-length link-local

    • B.

      Ipv6 address autoconfig

    • C.

      Ipv6 address dhcp

    • D.

      Ipv6 address slaac

    • E.

      Ipv6 dhcp server server-name

    Correct Answer
    B. Ipv6 address autoconfig
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ipv6 address autoconfig". This command enables the automatic configuration of an IPv6 address using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC). SLAAC allows hosts to configure their own IPv6 addresses by using information advertised by routers on the network. By enabling this command, the host will be able to automatically configure its IPv6 address without the need for a DHCP server.

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  • 17. 

    Which protocol would you use to provide IPv4 Internet connectivity to IPv6 devices?

    • A.

      NAT64

    • B.

      NAT-PT

    • C.

      NATv6

    • D.

      PAT

    Correct Answer
    A. NAT64
    Explanation
    NAT64 is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 devices over the internet. It provides a translation mechanism that converts IPv6 packets to IPv4 packets and vice versa, enabling IPv6 devices to access IPv4 resources. NAT-PT and NATv6 are not valid protocols, and PAT (Port Address Translation) is a technique used for conserving IPv4 addresses, but it does not provide connectivity between IPv4 and IPv6 devices.

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  • 18. 

    In MP-BGP, what must be configured within an address family before a neighbor can be established?

    • A.

      The neighbor's IP address used in peering must be activated with the neighbor IP-address activate command

    • B.

      The directly connected network between the two neighbors must be advertised using the network command.

    • C.

      The directly connected network between the two neighbors must be advertised using the neighbor IP-address activate command.

    • D.

      No additional configuration in the address family is needed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The neighbor's IP address used in peering must be activated with the neighbor IP-address activate command
    Explanation
    Before a neighbor can be established in MP-BGP, the neighbor's IP address used in peering must be activated with the neighbor IP-address activate command. This command is necessary to enable the BGP neighbor relationship and establish the peering session between the two routers. Without activating the neighbor's IP address, the routers will not be able to communicate and exchange BGP information.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following regarding MP-BGP is not a true statement?

    • A.

      IPv4 can be used to send BGP messages for IPv4 and IPv6.

    • B.

      Supports BGP for both IPv4 and IPv6

    • C.

      Uses address families for configuration

    • D.

      Requires a separate router ID for BGP for IPv4 and BGP for IPv6

    Correct Answer
    D. Requires a separate router ID for BGP for IPv4 and BGP for IPv6
    Explanation
    MP-BGP (Multiprotocol BGP) supports BGP for both IPv4 and IPv6, allowing it to send BGP messages for both protocols. It also uses address families for configuration, which enables it to handle multiple protocols simultaneously. However, it does not require a separate router ID for BGP for IPv4 and BGP for IPv6. The same router ID can be used for both IPv4 and IPv6 BGP sessions.

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  • 20. 

    Which statement about SNMP is true?

    • A.

      SNMPv1 uses community strings to encrypt SNMP messages

    • B.

      SNMPv1 is the most secure version to use

    • C.

      SNMPv1, SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 use community strings

    • D.

      SNMPv2 supports the use of read-write community strings to encrypt SNMP messages

    • E.

      SNMPv3 can provide authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality.

    Correct Answer
    E. SNMPv3 can provide authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality.
  • 21. 

    The output of the show ip ssh command displays "SSH Enabled - version 2". Based on this output, which statement is true?

    • A.

      The device was configured with the ip ssh version 2 command.

    • B.

      The device was configured with the no ip ssh version command

    • C.

      This is also known as compatibility mode because it supports both SSHv1 and SSHv2.

    • D.

      This is the default SSH version when SSH is enabled.

    • E.

      This is the original version but has known vulnerabilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. The device was configured with the ip ssh version 2 command.
    Explanation
    Based on the output of the "show ip ssh" command, which displays "SSH Enabled - version 2", it indicates that the device was configured with the "ip ssh version 2" command. This command enables SSH version 2 on the device, which is a more secure and updated version of the SSH protocol.

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  • 22. 

    Which VRF statement is true?

    • A.

      A layer 3 interface can belong to more than one VRF at a time.

    • B.

      The show ip route vrf-lite vrf-name command is used to display the VRF routing table entries.

    • C.

      Routing table entries prepended with "V" identify VRF enabled routes.

    • D.

      VRF can only be used with MPLS

    • E.

      VRF-lite is the deployment of VRF without MPLS.

    Correct Answer
    E. VRF-lite is the deployment of VRF without MPLS.
    Explanation
    VRF-lite is the deployment of VRF without MPLS. This means that VRF can be used without the need for MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) technology. VRF-lite allows for the creation of multiple virtual routing and forwarding instances within a network, without the need for MPLS to separate and route traffic between them. This provides a simpler and more lightweight implementation of VRF, making it a suitable choice for networks that do not require the advanced features and complexity of MPLS.

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  • 23. 

    Which two routing protocol authentication statements are true? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      BGP supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

    • B.

      EIGRP supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

    • C.

      EIGRP supports MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using named EIGRP.

    • D.

      OSPFv2 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using key chains

    • E.

      OSPv3 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

    • F.

      RIPv2 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. EIGRP supports MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using named EIGRP.
    D. OSPFv2 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using key chains
    Explanation
    EIGRP supports MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using named EIGRP. This means that EIGRP can authenticate its routing updates using either MD5 or SHA hashing algorithms, and the authentication can be done using a named EIGRP authentication method.

    OSPFv2 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using key chains. This means that OSPFv2 can authenticate its routing updates using plain text, MD5, or SHA hashing algorithms, and the authentication can be done using key chains.

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  • 24. 

    Which statement about the Secure Copy (SCP) feature is true?

    • A.

      A workstation requires an SSH client such as Tera Term or PuTTY to securely transfer files

    • B.

      Requires a local database entry to be configured when used with AAA.

    • C.

      Requires that a router be configured with the ip ssh server enable global configuration command.

    • D.

      Requires that SSH be enabled before using it.

    • E.

      Requires that SSL be enabled before using it.

    Correct Answer
    D. Requires that SSH be enabled before using it.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Secure Copy (SCP) feature requires that SSH be enabled before using it. SCP is a network protocol that allows secure file transfers between a local and remote host. SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol that provides secure communication over an unsecured network. SCP uses SSH for authentication and encryption, so SSH must be enabled on both the source and destination devices before SCP can be used to transfer files securely.

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  • 25. 

    Refer to the exhibit. RTR-A and RTR-B cannot establish a BGP relationship. What could the problem be? 

    • A.

      RTR-B does not have have the command neighbor 64.100.25.1 remove-private-as applied.

    • B.

      RTR-A and RTR-B do not have the command neighbor ebgp-multihop applied.

    • C.

      The routers are attempting to peer with the loopback interface instead of the physical interface.

    • D.

      A network statement is missing on both routers.

    Correct Answer
    B. RTR-A and RTR-B do not have the command neighbor ebgp-multihop applied.
    Explanation
    The problem could be that RTR-A and RTR-B do not have the command neighbor ebgp-multihop applied. This command is used in BGP to allow the routers to establish a BGP relationship when the next hop IP address is not directly reachable. By default, BGP only allows peering with directly connected neighbors. Applying the ebgp-multihop command allows the routers to peer with non-directly connected neighbors.

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  • 26. 

    Which two OSPF routing protocol characteristics can be used or modified at redistribution points to help implement a path control strategy? (Choose two).

    • A.

      Metric

    • B.

      NSSA translation of Type 7 LSA's to Type 5 LSA's

    • C.

      Process ID

    • D.

      Route tag

    • E.

      Unequal cost load balancing

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Metric
    B. NSSA translation of Type 7 LSA's to Type 5 LSA's
    Explanation
    At redistribution points, the metric and NSSA translation of Type 7 LSA's to Type 5 LSA's can be used or modified to implement a path control strategy. The metric is a value that represents the cost of using a particular route, and by adjusting the metric, the OSPF routing protocol can be influenced to prefer certain paths over others. NSSA translation of Type 7 LSA's to Type 5 LSA's allows for the conversion of non-backbone OSPF areas into the backbone area, which can help control the flow of traffic and optimize the network's routing strategy.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 18, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Jordbluenose
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