Interesting Quiz CCNP Route - Q31-q61

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| By Jordbluenose
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1. What is the purpose of the Cisco IOS IP SLA feature?

Explanation

The purpose of the Cisco IOS IP SLA feature is to generate and analyze traffic in order to measure performance between devices. This feature allows network administrators to monitor network performance, identify any issues or bottlenecks, and make necessary adjustments to optimize network performance. IP SLA can simulate various types of network traffic, such as voice, video, or data, and measure factors like latency, packet loss, and jitter. By analyzing this data, administrators can make informed decisions to improve network performance and ensure optimal user experience.

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2. Which two networks would match the following prefix list? (Choose two.) ip prefix-list MATCHTHIS seq 5 permit 10.1.0.0/16 ge 24 le 30

Explanation

The prefix list "MATCHTHIS" permits IP addresses with a prefix length of 16, a subnet mask greater than or equal to 24, and less than or equal to 30. Among the given networks, 10.1.0.0/24 and 10.1.1.0/30 match these criteria. The prefix length of both networks is 16, which satisfies the first condition. The subnet mask of 10.1.0.0/24 is 24, which is greater than or equal to 24, and the subnet mask of 10.1.1.0/30 is 30, which is less than or equal to 30, satisfying the second condition. Therefore, these two networks match the prefix list.

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3. Which router interface command would enable a router to acquire an IP address configuration from an upstream DHCP server?

Explanation

The correct answer is "IP address DHCP." This command enables a router to acquire an IP address configuration from an upstream DHCP server. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol that allows devices to obtain IP addresses and other network configuration settings automatically. By using the "IP address DHCP" command, the router will request an IP address from a DHCP server and automatically configure its interface with the assigned IP address.

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4. Which routes will retain existing metrics when redistributed into EIGRP?

Explanation

When routes are redistributed into EIGRP, their metrics are typically recalculated based on EIGRP's own algorithm. However, when static routes are redistributed, they retain their existing metrics. This means that the metrics assigned to the static routes will not be changed or modified by EIGRP.

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5. Which set of commands correctly configures one-way route redistribution from OSPF into the EIGRP routing domain?

Explanation

This set of commands correctly configures one-way route redistribution from OSPF into the EIGRP routing domain. The "router eigrp 10" command enables EIGRP routing with an autonomous system number of 10. The "network 10.0.0.0" command specifies the network to be advertised by EIGRP. The "redistribute ospf 1" command redistributes OSPF routes into EIGRP. The "metric 10000 10 200 5 1500" option sets the metric for the redistributed routes. The "exit" command exits the EIGRP configuration mode. The "router ospf 1" command enables OSPF routing with an autonomous system number of 1. The "network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0" command specifies the network to be advertised by OSPF in area 0.

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6. Which statement about SNMP is true?

Explanation

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7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions will be results of the distribute list that is shown? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The distribute list shown in the exhibit is used to control the routing updates that are sent or received by a router. The prefix list statements 5 and 10 are used to permit or deny specific networks. According to the given answer, all networks that do not match the prefix list statements 5 and 10 will be permitted. This means that any network not specifically mentioned in statements 5 and 10 will be allowed. Additionally, the 10.10.10.0/25 network and the 10.10.10.0/30 network will be denied, meaning that these networks will not be permitted.

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8. Which of the following regarding MP-BGP is not a true statement?

Explanation

MP-BGP (Multiprotocol BGP) supports BGP for both IPv4 and IPv6, allowing it to send BGP messages for both protocols. It also uses address families for configuration, which enables it to handle multiple protocols simultaneously. However, it does not require a separate router ID for BGP for IPv4 and BGP for IPv6. The same router ID can be used for both IPv4 and IPv6 BGP sessions.

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9. Refer to the exhibit. The network policy requires that packets from the 10.0.0.0/8 network be directed to R2 toand then the Internet? Given the following configuration:  access-list 111 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any route-map net-10 permit 10 match ip address 111 set interface FastEthernet 0/1 On which router and which interface would the ip policy route-map command be configured?

Explanation

The ip policy route-map command would be configured on the RTB router, specifically on the Fa1/0 interface. This is because the network policy requires packets from the 10.0.0.0/8 network to be directed to R2 and then to the Internet. The route-map net-10 is used to match the IP address 111, which corresponds to the access-list 111 that permits packets from the 10.0.0.0/8 network. The set interface command is used to specify the outgoing interface for the packets, which in this case is FastEthernet 1/0 on the RTB router.

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10. Which protocol would you use to provide IPv4 Internet connectivity to IPv6 devices?

Explanation

NAT64 is the correct answer because it is a protocol that allows IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 devices over the internet. It provides a translation mechanism that converts IPv6 packets to IPv4 packets and vice versa, enabling IPv6 devices to access IPv4 resources. NAT-PT and NATv6 are not valid protocols, and PAT (Port Address Translation) is a technique used for conserving IPv4 addresses, but it does not provide connectivity between IPv4 and IPv6 devices.

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11. Which statement best describes the route filtering process used by route maps?

Explanation

Once a route match is made, no further comparisons occur. This means that once a route map finds a match for a route, it will take the action specified in the route map and no further comparisons will be made for that route. This allows for efficient and streamlined routing decisions based on the specific criteria defined in the route map.

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12. Which routing updates would be permitted when the distribute-list 1 in serial 0/0/0 router configuration command is configured?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Routing updates that are received on serial 0/0/0 and permitted by ACL 1." This means that only routing updates received on the specific interface "serial 0/0/0" will be permitted, and they must also be allowed by ACL 1. The distribute-list command is used to filter routing updates based on an access control list (ACL), prefix-list, or route-map. In this case, it specifies that only updates received on the serial 0/0/0 interface and allowed by ACL 1 will be accepted.

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13. Match the NAT address type to the description.
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14. In MP-BGP, what must be configured within an address family before a neighbor can be established?

Explanation

Before a neighbor can be established in MP-BGP, the neighbor's IP address used in peering must be activated with the neighbor IP-address activate command. This command is necessary to enable the BGP neighbor relationship and establish the peering session between the two routers. Without activating the neighbor's IP address, the routers will not be able to communicate and exchange BGP information.

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15. The output of the show ip ssh command displays "SSH Enabled - version 2". Based on this output, which statement is true?

Explanation

Based on the output of the "show ip ssh" command, which displays "SSH Enabled - version 2", it indicates that the device was configured with the "ip ssh version 2" command. This command enables SSH version 2 on the device, which is a more secure and updated version of the SSH protocol.

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16. Which two statements are correct about redistribution? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The first correct statement explains that when redistributing into EIGRP, the redistributed routes must be assigned a metric value. This means that when redistributing routes from another routing protocol into EIGRP, a metric value needs to be assigned to those routes in order for EIGRP to properly calculate the best path.

The second correct statement states that when redistributing into OSPF, the subnets keyword must be configured to redistribute subnetted routes. This means that when redistributing routes from another routing protocol into OSPF, the subnets keyword needs to be included in the configuration to ensure that OSPF redistributes subnetted routes along with their network addresses.

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17. Match the packet switching method to its description
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18. Use this interface configuration command to enable the automatic configuration of an IPv6 address usingstateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC).

Explanation

The correct answer is "ipv6 address autoconfig". This command enables the automatic configuration of an IPv6 address using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC). SLAAC allows hosts to configure their own IPv6 addresses by using information advertised by routers on the network. By enabling this command, the host will be able to automatically configure its IPv6 address without the need for a DHCP server.

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19. Which command would allow the filtering of routes for the 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 network through the 10.0.255.0255.255.255.0 network address space?

Explanation

The correct answer is "ip prefix-list FLIST1 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24". This command allows the filtering of routes for the 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 network through the 10.0.255.0 255.255.255.0 network address space. The "ip prefix-list FLIST1" command creates a prefix list named FLIST1, and the "permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24" statement permits routes with a network address of 10.0.0.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 or more specific (up to a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0) to be filtered.

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20. The IPv6 _____________________ interface ID is derived by splitting an interface's 48-bit MAC address in twoand inserting 0xFFFE in between the two parts.

Explanation

The IPv6 interface ID is derived by splitting an interface's 48-bit MAC address in two and inserting 0xFFFE in between the two parts. This process is known as EUI-64 (Extended Unique Identifier-64). The EUI-64 method allows for automatic generation of IPv6 interface IDs based on the MAC address, ensuring uniqueness and simplifying network configuration.

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21. Match the DHCP negotiation process message to the message description.
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22. Refer to the exhibit. The route map LOAD_BALANCE has been applied to the FastEthernet interfaces of R1,and all interfaces are up. R1 uses two default static routes to reach the Internet via ISP1 and ISP2. Which traffic will be sent to the null 0 interface by the route map on R1?

Explanation

The route map LOAD_BALANCE on R1 is configured to send packets that are sourced from the 10.2.0.0 network and destined for the Internet to the null 0 interface. This means that any traffic originating from the 10.2.0.0 network and intended for destinations outside of the network will be discarded and not forwarded to any other interface.

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23. Refer to the exhibit. RTR-A and RTR-B cannot establish a BGP relationship. What could the problem be? 

Explanation

The problem could be that RTR-A and RTR-B do not have the command neighbor ebgp-multihop applied. This command is used in BGP to allow the routers to establish a BGP relationship when the next hop IP address is not directly reachable. By default, BGP only allows peering with directly connected neighbors. Applying the ebgp-multihop command allows the routers to peer with non-directly connected neighbors.

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24. Which VRF statement is true?

Explanation

VRF-lite is the deployment of VRF without MPLS. This means that VRF can be used without the need for MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) technology. VRF-lite allows for the creation of multiple virtual routing and forwarding instances within a network, without the need for MPLS to separate and route traffic between them. This provides a simpler and more lightweight implementation of VRF, making it a suitable choice for networks that do not require the advanced features and complexity of MPLS.

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25. Which two routing protocol authentication statements are true? (Choose two.)

Explanation

EIGRP supports MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using named EIGRP. This means that EIGRP can authenticate its routing updates using either MD5 or SHA hashing algorithms, and the authentication can be done using a named EIGRP authentication method.

OSPFv2 supports plain text, MD5 hashing authentication and SHA hashing authentication using key chains. This means that OSPFv2 can authenticate its routing updates using plain text, MD5, or SHA hashing algorithms, and the authentication can be done using key chains.

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26. Which statement about the Secure Copy (SCP) feature is true?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the Secure Copy (SCP) feature requires that SSH be enabled before using it. SCP is a network protocol that allows secure file transfers between a local and remote host. SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol that provides secure communication over an unsecured network. SCP uses SSH for authentication and encryption, so SSH must be enabled on both the source and destination devices before SCP can be used to transfer files securely.

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27. Which two statements are true of policy-based routing (PBR) as a path control tool? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Policy-based routing (PBR) is a path control tool that allows the network administrator to control the path that specific packets take through the network. Two statements that are true about PBR are: it is applied only in the inbound direction and it provides a mechanism to mark packets with different types of service (ToS). PBR is not limited to link-state routing protocols and can be applied to any routing protocol. The statement about configured route map entries having a default sequence number increments of 5 is false. Additionally, packets that do not match any match statements in the route map will not be dropped but will follow the normal routing path.

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28. Which three of the following packets cannot be CEF switched and must be processed in software?

Explanation

Packets that exceed the MTU of an output interface and must be fragmented cannot be CEF switched because they need to be broken down into smaller fragments before they can be transmitted over the network. Similarly, packets which are forwarded to a tunnel interface also cannot be CEF switched because they need to be encapsulated within another packet for transmission. Finally, packets with an expiring TTL counter cannot be CEF switched because the TTL counter needs to be decremented and checked for expiration in software before forwarding the packet.

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29. Which two OSPF routing protocol characteristics can be used or modified at redistribution points to help implement a path control strategy? (Choose two).

Explanation

At redistribution points, the metric and NSSA translation of Type 7 LSA's to Type 5 LSA's can be used or modified to implement a path control strategy. The metric is a value that represents the cost of using a particular route, and by adjusting the metric, the OSPF routing protocol can be influenced to prefer certain paths over others. NSSA translation of Type 7 LSA's to Type 5 LSA's allows for the conversion of non-backbone OSPF areas into the backbone area, which can help control the flow of traffic and optimize the network's routing strategy.

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30. Match the type of Internet connection to its description.
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What is the purpose of the Cisco IOS IP SLA feature?
Which two networks would match the following prefix list? (Choose...
Which router interface command would enable a router to acquire an IP...
Which routes will retain existing metrics when redistributed into...
Which set of commands correctly configures one-way route...
Which statement about SNMP is true?
Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions will be results of the...
Which of the following regarding MP-BGP is not a true statement?
Refer to the exhibit. The network policy requires that packets from...
Which protocol would you use to provide IPv4 Internet connectivity to...
Which statement best describes the route filtering process used by...
Which routing updates would be permitted when the distribute-list 1 in...
Match the NAT address type to the description.
In MP-BGP, what must be configured within an address family before a...
The output of the show ip ssh command displays "SSH Enabled -...
Which two statements are correct about redistribution? (Choose two.)
Match the packet switching method to its description
Use this interface configuration command to enable the automatic...
Which command would allow the filtering of routes for the 10.0.0.0...
The IPv6 _____________________ interface ID is derived by splitting an...
Match the DHCP negotiation process message to the message description.
Refer to the exhibit. The route map LOAD_BALANCE has been applied to...
Refer to the exhibit. RTR-A and RTR-B cannot establish a BGP...
Which VRF statement is true?
Which two routing protocol authentication statements are true? (Choose...
Which statement about the Secure Copy (SCP) feature is true?
Which two statements are true of policy-based routing (PBR) as a path...
Which three of the following packets cannot be CEF switched and must...
Which two OSPF routing protocol characteristics can be used or...
Match the type of Internet connection to its description.
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