Switch Final Exam - CCNP Switch (Version 6.0)

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CCNP Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The indicated configuration was established on the HSRP standby router RTB. However, the console message %IP-4-DUPADDR started appearing almost immediately on the RTB router. Given the output of the show standby brief command on RTA, what is the cause of the problem? 

    • A.

      The command standby preempt should only be applied on the active router

    • B.

      The subnet mask is missing from the standby ip 10.1.1.1 command

    • C.

      The group number 50 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.

    • D.

      The priority number 150 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.

    • E.

      The virtual IP address should be the same as the active router

    • F.

      The ports on the switch must be configured with the spanning-tree PortFast feature.

    Correct Answer
    C. The group number 50 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.
    Explanation
    The cause of the problem is that the group number 50 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands. HSRP uses group numbers to identify the HSRP group to which a router belongs. In this case, the standby router RTB is not configured with the correct group number, which is causing the %IP-4-DUPADDR error message to appear.

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  • 2. 

    Which statement correctly explains the process of mitigating ARP attacks on a switch where dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) has been configured? 

    • A.

      All intercepted packets that come from untrusted ports are dropped.

    • B.

      All intercepted packets that come from trusted ports are sent to untrusted ports only

    • C.

      The intercepted packets are verified against the DHCP snooping binding table for valid IP-to-MAC bindings.

    • D.

      For all intercepted packets, an ARP request is sent to the DHCP server for IP-to-MAC address resolution

    Correct Answer
    C. The intercepted packets are verified against the DHCP snooping binding table for valid IP-to-MAC bindings.
    Explanation
    The process of mitigating ARP attacks on a switch with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) involves verifying intercepted packets against the DHCP snooping binding table for valid IP-to-MAC bindings. This ensures that the ARP packets are legitimate and not spoofed. By comparing the source IP and MAC addresses in the intercepted packets with the DHCP snooping binding table, any unauthorized or malicious ARP packets can be dropped, preventing ARP attacks from occurring.

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  • 3. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need to be able to set a parameter on ACSw1?

    • A.

      A manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

    • B.

      A manager who is using an Inform Request MIB

    • C.

      a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5

    • D.

      A manager who is using authPriv

    Correct Answer
    C. a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5." This is because the exhibit mentions the IP address 192.168.0.5 as the host. To set a parameter on ACSw1, the SNMP manager needs to have the correct host address to establish communication and send the necessary SNMP commands.

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  • 4. 

    Which statement is true concerning the core layer within the hierarchical design model?

    • A.

      Remote users are granted access to the network through the core.

    • B.

      Routing should be configured without traffic filtering, address translation, or other packet manipulation at the core

    • C.

      The core, which acts as the front door to a network, is designed to prevent unauthorized users from gaining entry.

    • D.

      The core provides an optimized and reliable transport structure by using a combination of route summaries, distribution lists, and route maps

    Correct Answer
    B. Routing should be configured without traffic filtering, address translation, or other packet manipulation at the core
    Explanation
    The statement "Routing should be configured without traffic filtering, address translation, or other packet manipulation at the core" is true concerning the core layer within the hierarchical design model. This means that the core layer should focus solely on efficient routing and should not be burdened with additional tasks such as filtering or address translation. By keeping the core layer dedicated to routing, it ensures optimized and reliable transport within the network.

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  • 5. 

    When a port security violation occurs on a switch port, the switch sends a syslog message but does not shut down the port. What port security mode is in effect?

    • A.

      Sticky

    • B.

      Shutdown

    • C.

      Restrict

    • D.

      Protect

    Correct Answer
    C. Restrict
    Explanation
    When a port security violation occurs on a switch port and the switch sends a syslog message but does not shut down the port, the port security mode in effect is "restrict." In this mode, the switch restricts the traffic on the port to a limited number of MAC addresses, and any violation of this restriction triggers a syslog message. However, the port is not shut down completely, allowing the network administrator to investigate and take appropriate actions.

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  • 6. 

    Which three steps are required to configure interfaces as routed ports on a multilayer Catalyst switch? (Choose three.) 

    • A.

      Enable IP routing globally

    • B.

      Assign IP addresses to routed ports.

    • C.

      Configure SVI for each VLAN in the network.

    • D.

      Configure 802.1 Q encapsulation on routed ports.

    • E.

      Disable Power over Ethernet (PoE) on the physical Layer 3 interfaces.

    • F.

      Disable Layer 2 functionality on interfaces that will be configured as routed ports

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Enable IP routing globally
    B. Assign IP addresses to routed ports.
    F. Disable Layer 2 functionality on interfaces that will be configured as routed ports
    Explanation
    To configure interfaces as routed ports on a multilayer Catalyst switch, three steps are required. First, IP routing needs to be enabled globally. This allows the switch to route traffic between different networks. Second, IP addresses need to be assigned to the routed ports. This allows the switch to have an IP address on each interface and participate in routing protocols. Finally, Layer 2 functionality needs to be disabled on the interfaces that will be configured as routed ports. This ensures that the switch treats these interfaces as Layer 3 ports and does not perform any switching functions on them.

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  • 7. 

    A bridging loop occurs in a network and disrupts user connectivity. What action should be taken by a network administrator to restore connectivity?

    • A.

      Disable ports that should be in the blocking state.

    • B.

      Disable ports that should be in the forwarding state.

    • C.

      Disable and re-enable all ports on the distribution switches.

    • D.

      Disable all ports on the distribution switches and replace with new switches

    Correct Answer
    A. Disable ports that should be in the blocking state.
    Explanation
    When a bridging loop occurs in a network, it creates multiple redundant paths between switches, causing a broadcast storm and disrupting user connectivity. To restore connectivity, the network administrator should disable the ports that should be in the blocking state. This will prevent the loop by blocking the redundant paths and allowing the network to function properly. By disabling these ports, the network can eliminate the bridging loop and restore normal connectivity for the users.

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  • 8. 

    Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Using a non-trunk link to connect switches

    • B.

      Using non-Cisco switches

    • C.

      Configuring all switches to be in VTP server mode

    • D.

      Not using any VTP passwords on any switches

    • E.

      Using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names

    • F.

      having a VTP transparent switch in between a VTP server switch and a VTP client switch (all switches in the same VTP domain)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Using a non-trunk link to connect switches
    B. Using non-Cisco switches
    E. Using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names
    Explanation
    Using a non-trunk link to connect switches can cause problems with a VTP implementation because VTP information can only be transmitted over trunk links. Using non-Cisco switches can also cause problems because VTP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. Using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names can cause problems because VTP domain names are case-sensitive.

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  • 9. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the output? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Interfaces Fa0/1 through Fa0/6 are trunk ports.

    • B.

      Switch DLS1 is not the root bridge for VLAN 1.

    • C.

      The Cost column in the lower part of the exhibit is not the cumulative root path cost.

    • D.

      The default spanning-tree timers have been adjusted.

    • E.

      That Fa0/12 is displaying the alternate port role indicates that PVRST+ is enabled.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Switch DLS1 is not the root bridge for VLAN 1.
    C. The Cost column in the lower part of the exhibit is not the cumulative root path cost.
    Explanation
    Based on the output, the first conclusion that can be made is that Switch DLS1 is not the root bridge for VLAN 1. This can be inferred from the fact that the root bridge ID for VLAN 1 is different from the bridge ID of Switch DLS1.

    The second conclusion that can be made is that the Cost column in the lower part of the exhibit is not the cumulative root path cost. This can be deduced from the fact that the cost values in the Cost column are different from the cumulative root path cost values in the Root Path Cost column.

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  • 10. 

    Which QoS requirement should be taken into account when implementing VoIP in a campus environment? 

    • A.

      The QoS requirements should accommodate the best effort delivery for voice traffic

    • B.

      The QoS requirements should accommodate the bursty nature of voice traffic.

    • C.

      The QoS requirements should accommodate the intensive demand on bandwidth for voice traffic

    • D.

      The QoS requirements should accommodate the smooth demand on bandwidth, low latency, and delay for voice traffic.

    Correct Answer
    D. The QoS requirements should accommodate the smooth demand on bandwidth, low latency, and delay for voice traffic.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the QoS requirements should accommodate the smooth demand on bandwidth, low latency, and delay for voice traffic. This means that the network should be able to provide a consistent and uninterrupted flow of data for voice calls, with minimal delay and latency. This is important in a campus environment where there may be a high volume of voice traffic and a need for reliable and high-quality communication.

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  • 11. 

    When troubleshooting GLBP in an environment with a VLAN that spans multiple access layer switches, a network engineer discovers that suboptimal paths are being used for upstream traffic. What is the recommended solution?

    • A.

      Use HSRP instead of GLBP

    • B.

      Adjust the GLBP timers.

    • C.

      Configure spanning tree so that the spanning-tree topology adjusts with the GLBP active virtual forwarder (AVF).

    • D.

      Disable GLBP preemption on all route processors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use HSRP instead of GLBP
    Explanation
    The recommended solution for the issue of suboptimal paths being used for upstream traffic in a VLAN that spans multiple access layer switches is to use HSRP instead of GLBP. HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides redundancy for IP networks by allowing two or more routers to work together to represent a single virtual router. By using HSRP, the network engineer can ensure that the traffic takes the optimal path by configuring the routers to use a single active router and one or more standby routers.

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  • 12. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What happens if interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on SwitchA stops receiving UDLD packets?

    • A.

      UDLD stops trying to establish a connection with the neighbor.

    • B.

      UDLD changes the port state to err-disable.

    • C.

      UDLD changes the port to loop-inconsistent blocking state.

    • D.

      UDLD sends hello messages to its neighbor at a rate of one per second to attempt to recover the connection.

    Correct Answer
    B. UDLD changes the port state to err-disable.
    Explanation
    If interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on SwitchA stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD will change the port state to err-disable. This means that the port will be disabled and put into an error-disabled state. This is a safety mechanism to prevent any potential issues or loops in the network.

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  • 13. 

    How should a switch port be configured for a connection to a standalone wireless access point that provides multiple VLAN-separated SSIDs?

    • A.

      As a trunk port

    • B.

      As a routed port

    • C.

      As an access port

    • D.

      As a switched virtual interface

    Correct Answer
    A. As a trunk port
    Explanation
    A switch port should be configured as a trunk port when connecting to a standalone wireless access point that provides multiple VLAN-separated SSIDs. Trunk ports are capable of carrying traffic for multiple VLANs, allowing the access point to differentiate and separate the different SSIDs based on VLAN tags. This configuration ensures that each SSID is isolated and can communicate within its designated VLAN.

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  • 14. 

    Which two procedures should be implemented and in place when deploying VoIP in a campus network? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Keep voice and data traffic in the same VLAN and mark the traffic for high priority treatment.

    • B.

      Create voice VLANs to keep voice traffic separate from other data to ensure special handling of the traffic.

    • C.

      Configure traffic shaping QoS policy to guarantee minimum delay for the voice traffic.

    • D.

      Configure QoS policy to classify the voice traffic in the priority queue to guarantee reserved bandwidth allocation for the traffic.

    • E.

      Configure the Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) congestion avoidance mechanism to guarantee that the voice traffic will be placed in the priority queue.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Create voice VLANs to keep voice traffic separate from other data to ensure special handling of the traffic.
    C. Configure traffic shaping QoS policy to guarantee minimum delay for the voice traffic.
    Explanation
    When deploying VoIP in a campus network, it is important to create voice VLANs to separate voice traffic from other data. This ensures that voice traffic receives special handling and can be prioritized appropriately. Additionally, configuring traffic shaping QoS policy is necessary to guarantee minimum delay for the voice traffic. This helps to maintain a consistent and reliable quality of service for VoIP calls. By implementing these two procedures, the network can effectively support VoIP communication with optimal performance and reliability.

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  • 15. 

    What are three possible misconfigurations or indicators of misconfigurations on a Layer 3 interface? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Wrong IP address or subnet mask

    • B.

      Ports in the wrong VLAN

    • C.

      Mismatch between SVI and VLAN numbering

    • D.

      Disabled VTP pruning

    • E.

      Downed SVI

    • F.

      ACL on wrong interface

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Wrong IP address or subnet mask
    E. Downed SVI
    F. ACL on wrong interface
    Explanation
    Three possible misconfigurations or indicators of misconfigurations on a Layer 3 interface are a wrong IP address or subnet mask, a downed SVI (Switched Virtual Interface), and an ACL (Access Control List) on the wrong interface. These misconfigurations can cause connectivity issues, routing problems, and security vulnerabilities.

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  • 16. 

    What type of queuing provides the best quality for voice applications? 

    • A.

      Custom queuing

    • B.

      FIFO queuing

    • C.

      Priority queuing

    • D.

      Weighted round robin (WRR) queuing

    Correct Answer
    C. Priority queuing
    Explanation
    Priority queuing provides the best quality for voice applications because it assigns higher priority to voice packets over other types of traffic. This ensures that voice packets are delivered with minimal delay and jitter, resulting in improved voice quality and clarity. Other types of queuing may not prioritize voice traffic as effectively, leading to potential issues such as voice distortion or dropped calls.

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  • 17. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2? 

    • A.

      Native VLAN mismatch

    • B.

      Encapsulation mismatch

    • C.

      Switchport mode mismatch

    • D.

      VTP mismatch

    • E.

      DTP mismatch

    • F.

      Hardware failure

    Correct Answer
    B. Encapsulation mismatch
    Explanation
    The problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2 is an encapsulation mismatch. This means that the two switches are using different encapsulation protocols, which are used to define how data is formatted and transmitted over the network. This mismatch can cause communication issues between the switches, as they are not able to understand each other's encapsulation methods.

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  • 18. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains the configuration for a Cisco access device. How will someone dialing in be authenticated? 

    • A.

      Local username and password

    • B.

      TACACS+ server

    • C.

      RADIUS server and, if that fails, local username and password

    • D.

      TACACS+ server

    • E.

      TACACS+ server and, if that fails, local username and password

    • F.

      RADIUS server and, if that fails, TACACS+ server

    Correct Answer
    C. RADIUS server and, if that fails, local username and password
    Explanation
    The exhibit shows that the "aaa authentication login default group radius local" command is configured. This means that the device will first try to authenticate the user using the RADIUS server. If the RADIUS server is not available or the authentication fails, the device will then fall back to using the local username and password for authentication.

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  • 19. 

    Which STP enhancement should be configured in the network to prevent a nondesignated port to transition to a forwarding state when a topology change occurs?

    • A.

      Root guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between the distribution switches.

    • B.

      PortFast should be implemented on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.

    • C.

      Loop guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.

    • D.

      BPDU guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.

    Correct Answer
    C. Loop guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
    Explanation
    To prevent a nondesignated port from transitioning to a forwarding state during a topology change, loop guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches. Loop guard is a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) enhancement that helps to prevent loops by monitoring the consistency of the received BPDUs. If a loop is detected or if BPDUs stop being received on a designated port, loop guard will put the port into the loop-inconsistent state, preventing it from transitioning to the forwarding state and avoiding potential network disruptions.

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  • 20. 

    What are two actions a hacker may take in a VLAN hopping attack? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Replying to ARP requests that are intended for other recipients

    • B.

      Sending malicious dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) frames

    • C.

      Replying to DHCP requests that are intended for a DHCP server

    • D.

      Sending a unicast flood of Ethernet frames with distinct source MAC addresses

    • E.

      Sending frames with two 802.1Q headers

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Sending malicious dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) frames
    E. Sending frames with two 802.1Q headers
    Explanation
    A hacker may take two actions in a VLAN hopping attack: sending malicious dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) frames and sending frames with two 802.1Q headers. By sending malicious DTP frames, the hacker can manipulate the trunking configuration between switches and gain unauthorized access to VLANs. Sending frames with two 802.1Q headers allows the hacker to bypass security measures and gain access to multiple VLANs. These actions enable the hacker to exploit vulnerabilities and gain unauthorized access to sensitive network resources.

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  • 21. 

    A network administrator wants to implement inter-VLAN routing in the network. Which interfaces should be configured as routed ports?

    • A.

      All interfaces on links 5 and 6

    • B.

      All interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, and 4

    • C.

      All interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

    • D.

      All interfaces between the distribution and the access switches

    Correct Answer
    C. All interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
    Explanation
    All interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 should be configured as routed ports because inter-VLAN routing requires each VLAN to have its own subnet and a routed port is needed to connect each VLAN to the router. By configuring all interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 as routed ports, the network administrator ensures that all VLANs can communicate with each other through the router.

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  • 22. 

    Which three actions are taken when the command switchport host is entered on a switch port? (Choose three.) 

    • A.

      BPDU guard is enabled

    • B.

      Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is disabled.

    • C.

      VLAN trunking protocol (VTP) is disabled.

    • D.

      PortFast is enabled.

    • E.

      Trunking is disabled.

    • F.

      Channel group is disabled.

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. PortFast is enabled.
    E. Trunking is disabled.
    F. Channel group is disabled.
    Explanation
    When the command "switchport host" is entered on a switch port, three actions are taken. First, PortFast is enabled, which allows the port to transition into a forwarding state immediately without going through the usual listening and learning states. Second, trunking is disabled, meaning the port will not participate in VLAN trunking. Lastly, channel group is disabled, indicating that the port will not be part of any port channel or etherchannel group.

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  • 23. 

    Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.) 

    • A.

      A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces.

    • B.

      A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability.

    • C.

      A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN.

    • D.

      To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.

    • E.

      The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN.
    D. To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.
    Explanation
    A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN because it operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model and does not participate in VLAN tagging or trunking. To create a routed port, the Layer 2 port functionality must be removed using the "no switchport interface configuration command" because a routed port needs to be configured with a Layer 3 IP address.

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  • 24. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the switch is running Multiple Spanning Tree (MST), which conclusion can be made based on the output?

    • A.

      Spanning-tree load balancing is in effect.

    • B.

      All VLANs are mapped to MST instance 2.

    • C.

      PVRST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.

    • D.

      PVST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.

    • E.

      MST will require fewer resources than PVST+ or PVRST+.

    Correct Answer
    E. MST will require fewer resources than PVST+ or PVRST+.
    Explanation
    The output suggests that the switch is running Multiple Spanning Tree (MST). Based on this, it can be concluded that MST will require fewer resources than PVST+ or PVRST+.

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  • 25. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Switches DSw1 and DSw2 are configured with the HSRP virtual IP address 10.10.10.1, and standby priority is set to 100. Assume both switches finish booting at the same time and HSRP is operating as expected. On the basis of this information, which three HSRP statements are true? (Choose three.) 

    • A.

      Applying the standby 32 timers 10 30 command on the Gi0/2 interfaces of each switch would decrease the failover time

    • B.

      If the DSw1 and DSw2 switches have been configured to preempt, then DSw2 will be the active router.

    • C.

      If the DSw1 switch is configured with the standby preempt command and DSw2 is not, then DSw1 will be the active router.

    • D.

      The HSRP group number in this HSRP configuration is HSRP group number 50.

    • E.

      The standby track command is useful for tracking interfaces that are not configured for HSRP.

    • F.

      When host A sends an ARP request for 10.10.10.1, Virtual Router replies with the MAC address of the active router.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. If the DSw1 and DSw2 switches have been configured to preempt, then DSw2 will be the active router.
    D. The HSRP group number in this HSRP configuration is HSRP group number 50.
    E. The standby track command is useful for tracking interfaces that are not configured for HSRP.
    Explanation
    The first statement is false because the standby timers command does not affect failover time. The second statement is true because if both switches have been configured to preempt, the switch with the higher priority will become the active router. The third statement is false because the HSRP group number is not mentioned in the exhibit. The fourth statement is true because the standby track command is used to track interfaces that are not part of the HSRP configuration. The fifth statement is false because the exhibit does not provide information about how the virtual router replies to ARP requests.

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  • 26. 

    What is the recommended maximum one-way jitter when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications? 

    • A.

      1 ms

    • B.

      2 ms

    • C.

      5 ms

    • D.

      10 ms

    Correct Answer
    D. 10 ms
    Explanation
    The recommended maximum one-way jitter when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications is 10 ms. Jitter refers to the variation in packet arrival time, and in the case of video over IP, it can cause disruptions and inconsistencies in the playback. To ensure smooth and uninterrupted video streaming, it is recommended to keep the one-way jitter within a maximum limit of 10 ms. This allows for a reasonable amount of variation in packet arrival time without significantly impacting the quality of the video stream.

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  • 27. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided show ip dhcp snooping command, which statement is true? 

    • A.

      Only port Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages

    • B.

      Ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages.

    • C.

      Only ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 can send and receive all DHCP messages.

    • D.

      Ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/24 can send and receive only DHCP requests.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only port Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only port Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages" because the output of the "show ip dhcp snooping" command shows that only port Fa0/24 is listed under the "trusted" column, indicating that it is the only port allowed to send and receive DHCP messages. The other ports, Fa0/1 and Fa0/2, are not listed under the "trusted" column, indicating that they are not allowed to send and receive DHCP messages.

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  • 28. 

    Which two items in the TCAM table are referenced in the process of forwarding a packet? (Choose two.) 

    • A.

      VLAN ID

    • B.

      ACL information

    • C.

      Destination MAC address

    • D.

      QoS information

    • E.

      Source MAC address

    • F.

      Hash key

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. ACL information
    D. QoS information
    Explanation
    In the process of forwarding a packet, the TCAM table references ACL information and QoS information. ACL (Access Control List) information is used to determine whether a packet should be allowed or denied based on defined rules. QoS (Quality of Service) information is used to prioritize and manage network traffic based on specific requirements or policies. Both ACL and QoS information play a crucial role in determining how a packet should be forwarded within the network.

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  • 29. 

    Catalyst Catalyst 6500 switches support which three Supervisor Engine redundancy features? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Route Processor Redundancy+ (RPR+)

    • B.

      Distributed CEF (dCEF)

    • C.

      Stateful Switchover (SSO)

    • D.

      Resilient Packet Ring (RPR)

    • E.

      Nonstop Forwarding (NSF)

    • F.

      Per Line Card Traffic Policing

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Route Processor Redundancy+ (RPR+)
    C. Stateful Switchover (SSO)
    E. Nonstop Forwarding (NSF)
    Explanation
    The Catalyst 6500 switches support three Supervisor Engine redundancy features: Route Processor Redundancy+ (RPR+), Stateful Switchover (SSO), and Nonstop Forwarding (NSF). These features ensure high availability and fault tolerance in the network. RPR+ provides redundancy for the route processor, SSO allows for seamless switchover between supervisor engines, and NSF enables uninterrupted forwarding of packets during supervisor engine switchover. These features collectively enhance the reliability and resilience of the Catalyst 6500 switches.

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  • 30. 

    Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.

    • B.

      Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and index.

    • C.

      All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.

    • D.

      Root switches have all ports set as root ports.

    • E.

      Nonroot switches each have only one root port.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and index.
    E. Nonroot switches each have only one root port.
    Explanation
    In a Layer 2 switched environment with redundant connections between switches, two statements are true about the default operation of STP. First, decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and index. This means that if two ports have the same cost, the port with the higher priority and index will be chosen as the designated port, while the other port will be blocked. Second, nonroot switches each have only one root port. This means that nonroot switches will have one port that is directly connected to the root switch, which is used for forwarding traffic to the root switch.

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  • 31. 

    Which benefit is provided by centralizing servers in a data center server farm? 

    • A.

      It keeps client-to-server traffic local to a single subnet.

    • B.

      Servers that are located in a data center require less bandwidth.

    • C.

      It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.

    • D.

      Server farms are not subject to denial of service attacks.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.
    Explanation
    Centralizing servers in a data center server farm makes it easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center. By having all servers in one location, network administrators can implement centralized filtering and traffic management policies more effectively. This allows for better control over network traffic, ensuring that critical applications receive priority and potentially malicious or unnecessary traffic can be filtered out. Additionally, centralization can simplify network management and troubleshooting processes, as all servers are located in a single facility.

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  • 32. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What restriction will be presented in a campus enterprise network that is designed with four large distribution building blocks?

    • A.

      The implementation of link aggregation will be limited.

    • B.

      The implementation of IGP routing protocols will be limited.

    • C.

      The implementation of EtherChannels on redundant links will exceed the bandwidth.

    • D.

      The implementation of scalability that is required during future growth will be limited.

    Correct Answer
    D. The implementation of scalability that is required during future growth will be limited.
    Explanation
    In a campus enterprise network designed with four large distribution building blocks, the restriction that will be presented is the limited implementation of scalability that is required during future growth. This means that the network may not be able to effectively handle the increasing demands and expansion of the network in the future.

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  • 33. 

    Which three issues can cause devices to become disconnected across a trunk link? (Choose three.) 

    • A.

      Native VLAN mismatch

    • B.

      Unassigned management VLAN

    • C.

      Layer 2 interface mode incompatibilities

    • D.

      Missing default VLAN

    • E.

      Mismatched trunk encapsulations

    • F.

      PAgP not enabled

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Native VLAN mismatch
    C. Layer 2 interface mode incompatibilities
    E. Mismatched trunk encapsulations
    Explanation
    The three issues that can cause devices to become disconnected across a trunk link are native VLAN mismatch, Layer 2 interface mode incompatibilities, and mismatched trunk encapsulations. A native VLAN mismatch occurs when the native VLAN on one end of the trunk link is different from the native VLAN on the other end. Layer 2 interface mode incompatibilities can occur when one end of the trunk link is configured in access mode while the other end is configured in trunk mode. Mismatched trunk encapsulations happen when the encapsulation type (such as 802.1Q or ISL) on one end of the trunk link is different from the other end.

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  • 34. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required in order for users in VLAN 10 to communicate with the users in VLAN 20? 

    • A.

      Configure interface Fa0/1 on SW1 as a trunk

    • B.

      Remove the subinterfaces on R1 and configure interface Fa0/0 as a trunk.

    • C.

      Configure interfaces Fa0/2 and Fa0/3 on SW1 as trunk links.

    • D.

      Configure VLAN 100 as a data VLAN and VLAN 1 as the native VLAN.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure interface Fa0/1 on SW1 as a trunk
    Explanation
    To enable communication between users in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, it is necessary to configure interface Fa0/1 on SW1 as a trunk. Trunk ports allow the transmission of multiple VLAN traffic between switches. By configuring Fa0/1 as a trunk, it will be able to carry the traffic from both VLANs, allowing communication between them.

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  • 35. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Given that interface Fa3/42 is an active trunk port, what two conclusions can be made based on the displayed output? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Root guard is not enabled on interface Fa3/42.

    • B.

      Interface Fa3/42 will not pass data traffic if it detects that it is part of a spanning-tree loop caused by unidirectional link failure.

    • C.

      UDLD cannot be configured on interface Fa3/42.

    • D.

      If a spanning-tree loop is detected on VLAN 1, data traffic will be blocked for all VLANs on interface Fa3/42.

    • E.

      The difference in BPDUs sent and received indicates a loop caused by unidirectional link failure has been detected.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Root guard is not enabled on interface Fa3/42.
    B. Interface Fa3/42 will not pass data traffic if it detects that it is part of a spanning-tree loop caused by unidirectional link failure.
    Explanation
    Based on the displayed output, the first conclusion is that root guard is not enabled on interface Fa3/42. This can be inferred because the "Root Guard" field is showing "No" for this interface. The second conclusion is that interface Fa3/42 will not pass data traffic if it detects that it is part of a spanning-tree loop caused by unidirectional link failure. This can be inferred because the "Loop Guard" field is showing "Yes" for this interface, indicating that it will block data traffic in case of a loop caused by unidirectional link failure.

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  • 36. 

    Which architecture enables enterprises to offer important network services, such as security, new communication services, and improved application performance to every office, regardless of its size or proximity to headquarters?

    • A.

      Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture

    • B.

      Cisco Enterprise Data Center Architecture

    • C.

      Cisco Enterprise Branch Architecture

    • D.

      Cisco Enterprise Teleworker Architecture

    Correct Answer
    C. Cisco Enterprise Branch Architecture
    Explanation
    Cisco Enterprise Branch Architecture enables enterprises to offer important network services, such as security, new communication services, and improved application performance to every office, regardless of its size or proximity to headquarters. This architecture is specifically designed for branch offices, providing a comprehensive solution that addresses the unique needs and challenges of these locations. It ensures consistent and reliable network services across all branches, allowing for seamless connectivity and enhanced productivity.

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  • 37. 

    Which three parameters must be configured in order to enable SSH? (Choose three.) 

    • A.

      Retries

    • B.

      Hostname

    • C.

      Timeouts

    • D.

      Domain name

    • E.

      Keys

    • F.

      Routing protocol

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Hostname
    D. Domain name
    E. Keys
    Explanation
    To enable SSH, three parameters must be configured: hostname, domain name, and keys. The hostname parameter is necessary to identify the device on the network. The domain name parameter is used to specify the domain in which the device resides. Keys are required for secure communication between the SSH client and server. These parameters ensure proper identification and authentication for SSH connections.

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  • 38. 

    The TCAM defines three different match options that correlate to which three specific match regions? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Bifurcated match

    • B.

      Longest match

    • C.

      Second match

    • D.

      Exact match

    • E.

      First match

    • F.

      Third match

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Longest match
    D. Exact match
    E. First match
    Explanation
    The TCAM (Ternary Content Addressable Memory) defines three different match options that correlate to three specific match regions: longest match, exact match, and first match. The longest match option refers to finding the rule that matches the most number of bits in the packet. The exact match option is used to find an exact match for all bits in the packet. The first match option is used to find the first rule that matches the packet. These three match options help in efficiently searching and matching packets in the TCAM.

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  • 39. 

    Which two types of attacks can be mitigated by port security? (Choose two.) 

    • A.

      Dictionary

    • B.

      Denial of service (DoS)

    • C.

      Replay

    • D.

      MAC-address flooding

    • E.

      Password

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Denial of service (DoS)
    D. MAC-address flooding
    Explanation
    Port security can mitigate denial of service (DoS) attacks by limiting the number of connections allowed on a specific port, preventing an attacker from overwhelming the network with excessive traffic. It can also mitigate MAC-address flooding attacks by allowing only specific MAC addresses to access the network through a particular port, preventing the attacker from flooding the switch with fake MAC addresses and causing network congestion.

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  • 40. 

    What is a characteristic of a standalone WLAN solution?

    • A.

      Has no centralized monitoring

    • B.

      Has no centralized management

    • C.

      Has no centralized operational control

    • D.

      Has no centralized access authentication

    Correct Answer
    C. Has no centralized operational control
    Explanation
    A characteristic of a standalone WLAN solution is that it does not have centralized operational control. This means that each access point operates independently and does not rely on a centralized system to control its operations. This can be beneficial in some cases as it allows for more flexibility and autonomy in managing the WLAN network. However, it also means that there is no centralized control or coordination, which can make it more difficult to manage and troubleshoot the network.

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  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What configuration will be required on the DSW switch in order to perform inter-VLAN routing for all VLANs that are configured on the access switches?

    • A.

      Configure the routing protocol.

    • B.

      Configure SVI for each VLAN in the network.

    • C.

      Configure the links between DSW and the access switches as access links.

    • D.

      Configure as routed ports the DSW interfaces that face the access switches.

    Correct Answer
    B. Configure SVI for each VLAN in the network.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to configure SVI for each VLAN in the network. This is because SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) allows the switch to perform inter-VLAN routing by creating a virtual interface for each VLAN. By configuring SVI for each VLAN, the DSW switch will be able to route traffic between the VLANs. The other options mentioned, such as configuring the routing protocol or configuring the links as access links or routed ports, are not necessary for performing inter-VLAN routing on the DSW switch.

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  • 42. 

    How do FlexLink and STP operate together? 

    • A.

      If an active STP port is blocked, the active FlexLink port will take over.

    • B.

      Both the active STP port and active FlexLink port can forward traffic simultaneously.

    • C.

      Both the active STP port and active FlexLink port can forward traffic simultaneously but only for different VLANs.

    • D.

      STP can be active in the distribution layer, but is unaware of any FlexLink updates in the access layer.

    Correct Answer
    D. STP can be active in the distribution layer, but is unaware of any FlexLink updates in the access layer.
    Explanation
    If STP is active in the distribution layer, it means that it is responsible for blocking redundant paths and ensuring loop-free topology. However, it is not aware of any updates or changes happening in the access layer through FlexLink. FlexLink, on the other hand, is a feature that allows for redundant links in the access layer, providing faster convergence and failover in case of link failure. Therefore, while STP is active in the distribution layer, it does not have visibility or control over any updates or changes happening in the access layer through FlexLink.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What two effects will occur when a fourth distribution module is included in the campus enterprise network that is depicted in the exhibit? (Choose two.) 

    • A.

      The inclusion of the fourth module will increase the routing complexity.

    • B.

      It will limit the traffic flow in the network.

    • C.

      It will provide scalability for future growth.

    • D.

      It will impact the security of the traffic between the distribution switches.

    • E.

      It will increase the number of additional links that are required to provide redundant connectivity.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The inclusion of the fourth module will increase the routing complexity.
    E. It will increase the number of additional links that are required to provide redundant connectivity.
    Explanation
    The inclusion of the fourth module will increase the routing complexity because there will be an additional module that needs to be configured and managed for routing purposes. It will also increase the number of additional links that are required to provide redundant connectivity because the fourth module will need to be connected to the existing modules to ensure network redundancy.

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  • 44. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the way HSRP is configured? 

    • A.

      Switch DLS1 is the standby router for VLANs 1,10, and 20.

    • B.

      Switch DLS2 is the standby router for VLANs 30 and 40.

    • C.

      Issuing the show standby command on switch DSL1 will reveal that the HSRP state for VLAN 10 is standby.

    • D.

      Issuing the show standby command on switch DSL2 will reveal that the HSRP state for VLAN 30 is standby.

    • E.

      By setting different priorities on different VLANs, a type of load balancing is occurring.

    • F.

      If the Ethernet cables between switch DLS2 and switch ALS1 were severed, Payroll Host would not be able to reach SQL Server.

    Correct Answer
    E. By setting different priorities on different VLANs, a type of load balancing is occurring.
    Explanation
    The statement "By setting different priorities on different VLANs, a type of load balancing is occurring" is true because HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) allows for load balancing by assigning different priorities to different VLANs. In this configuration, Switch DLS1 is the standby router for VLANs 1, 10, and 20, while Switch DLS2 is the standby router for VLANs 30 and 40. By setting different priorities, the routers can distribute the traffic across multiple VLANs, providing a form of load balancing.

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  • 45. 

    When should a proactive management be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle Services? 

    • A.

      Prepare phase

    • B.

      Plan phase

    • C.

      Design phase

    • D.

      Implement phase

    • E.

      Operate phase

    • F.

      Optimize phase

    Correct Answer
    F. Optimize phase
    Explanation
    Proactive management should be performed during the optimize phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services. This phase focuses on continuously improving and optimizing the network infrastructure to meet changing business needs and technology advancements. By regularly monitoring and analyzing network performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing necessary changes, proactive management helps ensure the network operates at its highest level of efficiency and effectiveness. This phase also includes activities such as capacity planning, performance tuning, and ongoing network health checks.

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  • 46. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the displayed configuration on switches ASW1 and ASW2? 

    • A.

      BPDU guard puts an interface that is configured for STP PortFast in the err-disable state upon receipt of a BPDU.

    • B.

      BPDU guard overrides the PortFast configuration and reverts to the default spanning tree configuration on the access ports.

    • C.

      BPDU guard forces the uplink ports on ASW1 and ASW2 to become designated ports to prevent DSW2 from becoming a root switch.

    • D.

      BPDU guard places the uplink ports on a ASW1 and ASW2 into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state when the ports stop receiving BPDUs.

    Correct Answer
    A. BPDU guard puts an interface that is configured for STP PortFast in the err-disable state upon receipt of a BPDU.
    Explanation
    The displayed configuration on switches ASW1 and ASW2 enables BPDU guard. When a BPDU is received on an interface that is configured for STP PortFast, BPDU guard puts that interface into the err-disable state. This is done to prevent the potential creation of a loop in the network.

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  • 47. 

    Which multilayer switching forwarding method does Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) use?

    • A.

      Route caching

    • B.

      Process switching

    • C.

      Silicon switching

    • D.

      Topology-based switching

    Correct Answer
    D. Topology-based switching
    Explanation
    Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) is a multilayer switching technology used by Cisco routers. It uses a topology-based switching method to forward packets. In this method, CEF builds a forwarding table based on the network topology and stores information about the best path to reach each destination network. This allows for fast and efficient packet forwarding as CEF does not need to perform complex routing calculations for every packet. Instead, it simply looks up the destination address in its forwarding table and forwards the packet accordingly.

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  • 48. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to verify the proper operations of the packet load sharing between a group of redundant routers that are configured with GLBP. On the basis of the provided output, which router is the Active Virtual Forwarder (AVF) for Host2?

    • A.

      The router with an IP address of 10.1.1.1

    • B.

      The router with an IP address of 10.1.1.2

    • C.

      The router with the virtual IP address of 10.1.1.254

    • D.

      The router with the IP address 10.1.1.1 and the router with the IP address 10.1.1.2

    Correct Answer
    B. The router with an IP address of 10.1.1.2
    Explanation
    Based on the provided output, the router with the IP address of 10.1.1.2 is the Active Virtual Forwarder (AVF) for Host2. This can be determined by observing the "Active router is local" status for the router with the IP address of 10.1.1.2. This indicates that it is the active router responsible for forwarding traffic to Host2.

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  • 49. 

    What is required for SLA to capture one-way delays?

    • A.

      Two IP SLA responders

    • B.

      A Round Trip Timer value

    • C.

      Network Time Protocol (NTP)

    • D.

      IP SLA source using TCP port 2020

    Correct Answer
    C. Network Time Protocol (NTP)
    Explanation
    Network Time Protocol (NTP) is required for SLA to capture one-way delays. NTP is used to synchronize the clocks of devices on a network, ensuring that they have accurate time information. By having accurate time information, SLA can accurately measure and capture the time it takes for packets to travel from the source to the destination, allowing for the calculation of one-way delays. The other options listed, such as having two IP SLA responders or using a Round Trip Timer value, are not directly related to capturing one-way delays.

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  • 50. 

    What is the most common method of configuring inter-VLAN routing on a Layer 3 switch? 

    • A.

      Configure the switch physical interface so that the router will have an interface in each VLAN.

    • B.

      For each VLAN, configure trunking between the router and the switch.

    • C.

      Configure a routing protocol on the Layer 3 switch to include each interface.

    • D.

      Configure switch virtual interfaces. The result is that the router will have a virtual interface in each VLAN.

    Correct Answer
    D. Configure switch virtual interfaces. The result is that the router will have a virtual interface in each VLAN.
    Explanation
    The most common method of configuring inter-VLAN routing on a Layer 3 switch is to configure switch virtual interfaces. This allows the switch to act as a router and have a virtual interface in each VLAN, enabling communication between the VLANs. This method eliminates the need for physical interfaces on the router for each VLAN and simplifies the configuration process.

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