Switch Final Exam - CCNP Switch (Version 6.0)

60 Questions | By Gunde1994 | Updated: Mar 21, 2022 | Attempts: 1208

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1.

Refer to the exhibit. The indicated configuration was established on the HSRP standby router RTB. However, the console message %IP-4-DUPADDR started appearing almost immediately on the RTB router. Given the output of the show standby brief command on RTA, what is the cause of the problem?
- A.
  
  The command standby preempt should only be applied on the active router
- B.
  
  The subnet mask is missing from the standby ip 10.1.1.1 command
- C.
  
  The group number 50 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.
- D.
  
  The priority number 150 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands.
- E.
  
  The virtual IP address should be the same as the active router
- F.
  
  The ports on the switch must be configured with the spanning-tree PortFast feature.
2.

Which statement correctly explains the process of mitigating ARP attacks on a switch where dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) has been configured?
- A.
  
  All intercepted packets that come from untrusted ports are dropped.
- B.
  
  All intercepted packets that come from trusted ports are sent to untrusted ports only
- C.
  
  The intercepted packets are verified against the DHCP snooping binding table for valid IP-to-MAC bindings.
- D.
  
  For all intercepted packets, an ARP request is sent to the DHCP server for IP-to-MAC address resolution
3.

Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need to be able to set a parameter on ACSw1?
- A.
  
  A manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut
- B.
  
  A manager who is using an Inform Request MIB
- C.
  
  a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5
- D.
  
  A manager who is using authPriv
4.

Which statement is true concerning the core layer within the hierarchical design model?
- A.
  
  Remote users are granted access to the network through the core.
- B.
  
  Routing should be configured without traffic filtering, address translation, or other packet manipulation at the core
- C.
  
  The core, which acts as the front door to a network, is designed to prevent unauthorized users from gaining entry.
- D.
  
  The core provides an optimized and reliable transport structure by using a combination of route summaries, distribution lists, and route maps
5.

When a port security violation occurs on a switch port, the switch sends a syslog message but does not shut down the port. What port security mode is in effect?
- A.
  
  Sticky
- B.
  
  Shutdown
- C.
  
  Restrict
- D.
  
  Protect
6.

Which three steps are required to configure interfaces as routed ports on a multilayer Catalyst switch? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Enable IP routing globally
- B.
  
  Assign IP addresses to routed ports.
- C.
  
  Configure SVI for each VLAN in the network.
- D.
  
  Configure 802.1 Q encapsulation on routed ports.
- E.
  
  Disable Power over Ethernet (PoE) on the physical Layer 3 interfaces.
- F.
  
  Disable Layer 2 functionality on interfaces that will be configured as routed ports
7.

A bridging loop occurs in a network and disrupts user connectivity. What action should be taken by a network administrator to restore connectivity?
- A.
  
  Disable ports that should be in the blocking state.
- B.
  
  Disable ports that should be in the forwarding state.
- C.
  
  Disable and re-enable all ports on the distribution switches.
- D.
  
  Disable all ports on the distribution switches and replace with new switches
8.

Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Using a non-trunk link to connect switches
- B.
  
  Using non-Cisco switches
- C.
  
  Configuring all switches to be in VTP server mode
- D.
  
  Not using any VTP passwords on any switches
- E.
  
  Using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names
- F.
  
  having a VTP transparent switch in between a VTP server switch and a VTP client switch (all switches in the same VTP domain)
9.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the output? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  Interfaces Fa0/1 through Fa0/6 are trunk ports.
- B.
  
  Switch DLS1 is not the root bridge for VLAN 1.
- C.
  
  The Cost column in the lower part of the exhibit is not the cumulative root path cost.
- D.
  
  The default spanning-tree timers have been adjusted.
- E.
  
  That Fa0/12 is displaying the alternate port role indicates that PVRST+ is enabled.
10.

Which QoS requirement should be taken into account when implementing VoIP in a campus environment?
- A.
  
  The QoS requirements should accommodate the best effort delivery for voice traffic
- B.
  
  The QoS requirements should accommodate the bursty nature of voice traffic.
- C.
  
  The QoS requirements should accommodate the intensive demand on bandwidth for voice traffic
- D.
  
  The QoS requirements should accommodate the smooth demand on bandwidth, low latency, and delay for voice traffic.
11.

When troubleshooting GLBP in an environment with a VLAN that spans multiple access layer switches, a network engineer discovers that suboptimal paths are being used for upstream traffic. What is the recommended solution?
- A.
  
  Use HSRP instead of GLBP
- B.
  
  Adjust the GLBP timers.
- C.
  
  Configure spanning tree so that the spanning-tree topology adjusts with the GLBP active virtual forwarder (AVF).
- D.
  
  Disable GLBP preemption on all route processors.
12.

Refer to the exhibit. What happens if interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on SwitchA stops receiving UDLD packets?
- A.
  
  UDLD stops trying to establish a connection with the neighbor.
- B.
  
  UDLD changes the port state to err-disable.
- C.
  
  UDLD changes the port to loop-inconsistent blocking state.
- D.
  
  UDLD sends hello messages to its neighbor at a rate of one per second to attempt to recover the connection.
13.

How should a switch port be configured for a connection to a standalone wireless access point that provides multiple VLAN-separated SSIDs?
- A.
  
  As a trunk port
- B.
  
  As a routed port
- C.
  
  As an access port
- D.
  
  As a switched virtual interface
14.

Which two procedures should be implemented and in place when deploying VoIP in a campus network? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  Keep voice and data traffic in the same VLAN and mark the traffic for high priority treatment.
- B.
  
  Create voice VLANs to keep voice traffic separate from other data to ensure special handling of the traffic.
- C.
  
  Configure traffic shaping QoS policy to guarantee minimum delay for the voice traffic.
- D.
  
  Configure QoS policy to classify the voice traffic in the priority queue to guarantee reserved bandwidth allocation for the traffic.
- E.
  
  Configure the Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) congestion avoidance mechanism to guarantee that the voice traffic will be placed in the priority queue.
15.

What are three possible misconfigurations or indicators of misconfigurations on a Layer 3 interface? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Wrong IP address or subnet mask
- B.
  
  Ports in the wrong VLAN
- C.
  
  Mismatch between SVI and VLAN numbering
- D.
  
  Disabled VTP pruning
- E.
  
  Downed SVI
- F.
  
  ACL on wrong interface
16.

What type of queuing provides the best quality for voice applications?
- A.
  
  Custom queuing
- B.
  
  FIFO queuing
- C.
  
  Priority queuing
- D.
  
  Weighted round robin (WRR) queuing
17.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2?
- A.
  
  Native VLAN mismatch
- B.
  
  Encapsulation mismatch
- C.
  
  Switchport mode mismatch
- D.
  
  VTP mismatch
- E.
  
  DTP mismatch
- F.
  
  Hardware failure
18.

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains the configuration for a Cisco access device. How will someone dialing in be authenticated?
- A.
  
  Local username and password
- B.
  
  TACACS+ server
- C.
  
  RADIUS server and, if that fails, local username and password
- D.
  
  TACACS+ server
- E.
  
  TACACS+ server and, if that fails, local username and password
- F.
  
  RADIUS server and, if that fails, TACACS+ server
19.

Which STP enhancement should be configured in the network to prevent a nondesignated port to transition to a forwarding state when a topology change occurs?
- A.
  
  Root guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between the distribution switches.
- B.
  
  PortFast should be implemented on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
- C.
  
  Loop guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
- D.
  
  BPDU guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches.
20.

What are two actions a hacker may take in a VLAN hopping attack? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  Replying to ARP requests that are intended for other recipients
- B.
  
  Sending malicious dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) frames
- C.
  
  Replying to DHCP requests that are intended for a DHCP server
- D.
  
  Sending a unicast flood of Ethernet frames with distinct source MAC addresses
- E.
  
  Sending frames with two 802.1Q headers
21.

A network administrator wants to implement inter-VLAN routing in the network. Which interfaces should be configured as routed ports?
- A.
  
  All interfaces on links 5 and 6
- B.
  
  All interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, and 4
- C.
  
  All interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
- D.
  
  All interfaces between the distribution and the access switches
22.

Which three actions are taken when the command switchport host is entered on a switch port? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  BPDU guard is enabled
- B.
  
  Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is disabled.
- C.
  
  VLAN trunking protocol (VTP) is disabled.
- D.
  
  PortFast is enabled.
- E.
  
  Trunking is disabled.
- F.
  
  Channel group is disabled.
23.

Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  A routed port behaves like a regular router interface and supports VLAN subinterfaces.
- B.
  
  A routed port is a physical switch port with Layer 2 capability.
- C.
  
  A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN.
- D.
  
  To create a routed port requires removal of Layer 2 port functionality with the no switchport interface configuration command.
- E.
  
  The interface vlan global configuration command is used to create a routed port.
24.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the switch is running Multiple Spanning Tree (MST), which conclusion can be made based on the output?
- A.
  
  Spanning-tree load balancing is in effect.
- B.
  
  All VLANs are mapped to MST instance 2.
- C.
  
  PVRST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.
- D.
  
  PVST+ is still operating on switch DLS1.
- E.
  
  MST will require fewer resources than PVST+ or PVRST+.
25.

Refer to the exhibit. Switches DSw1 and DSw2 are configured with the HSRP virtual IP address 10.10.10.1, and standby priority is set to 100. Assume both switches finish booting at the same time and HSRP is operating as expected. On the basis of this information, which three HSRP statements are true? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Applying the standby 32 timers 10 30 command on the Gi0/2 interfaces of each switch would decrease the failover time
- B.
  
  If the DSw1 and DSw2 switches have been configured to preempt, then DSw2 will be the active router.
- C.
  
  If the DSw1 switch is configured with the standby preempt command and DSw2 is not, then DSw1 will be the active router.
- D.
  
  The HSRP group number in this HSRP configuration is HSRP group number 50.
- E.
  
  The standby track command is useful for tracking interfaces that are not configured for HSRP.
- F.
  
  When host A sends an ARP request for 10.10.10.1, Virtual Router replies with the MAC address of the active router.