Switch Final Exam - CCNP Switch (Version 6.0)

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1. Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2? 

Explanation

The problem between the connection on Switch1 and Switch2 is an encapsulation mismatch. This means that the two switches are using different encapsulation protocols, which are used to define how data is formatted and transmitted over the network. This mismatch can cause communication issues between the switches, as they are not able to understand each other's encapsulation methods.

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About This Quiz
CCNP Quizzes & Trivia

This SWITCH Final Exam for CCNP SWITCH (Version 6.0) assesses advanced skills in network configuration and troubleshooting, focusing on topics like HSRP, ARP attacks mitigation, SNMP management, and... see morecore layer functionalities within network design. Essential for professionals aiming to validate their expertise in Cisco network environments. see less

2. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided show ip dhcp snooping command, which statement is true? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only port Fa0/24 can send and receive all DHCP messages" because the output of the "show ip dhcp snooping" command shows that only port Fa0/24 is listed under the "trusted" column, indicating that it is the only port allowed to send and receive DHCP messages. The other ports, Fa0/1 and Fa0/2, are not listed under the "trusted" column, indicating that they are not allowed to send and receive DHCP messages.

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3. What type of queuing provides the best quality for voice applications? 

Explanation

Priority queuing provides the best quality for voice applications because it assigns higher priority to voice packets over other types of traffic. This ensures that voice packets are delivered with minimal delay and jitter, resulting in improved voice quality and clarity. Other types of queuing may not prioritize voice traffic as effectively, leading to potential issues such as voice distortion or dropped calls.

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4. Refer to the exhibit. The indicated configuration was established on the HSRP standby router RTB. However, the console message %IP-4-DUPADDR started appearing almost immediately on the RTB router. Given the output of the show standby brief command on RTA, what is the cause of the problem? 

Explanation

The cause of the problem is that the group number 50 is missing in the Router RTB configuration commands. HSRP uses group numbers to identify the HSRP group to which a router belongs. In this case, the standby router RTB is not configured with the correct group number, which is causing the %IP-4-DUPADDR error message to appear.

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5. Which two types of attacks can be mitigated by port security? (Choose two.) 

Explanation

Port security can mitigate denial of service (DoS) attacks by limiting the number of connections allowed on a specific port, preventing an attacker from overwhelming the network with excessive traffic. It can also mitigate MAC-address flooding attacks by allowing only specific MAC addresses to access the network through a particular port, preventing the attacker from flooding the switch with fake MAC addresses and causing network congestion.

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6. What device can be used to support Power over Ethernet (PoE) to power the access points? 

Explanation

An Ethernet switch can be used to support Power over Ethernet (PoE) to power the access points. PoE allows the transfer of electrical power along with data over Ethernet cables, eliminating the need for separate power cables. An Ethernet switch with PoE capabilities can provide power to devices such as access points, IP phones, and other PoE-enabled devices, simplifying the installation and reducing the number of cables needed. This makes an Ethernet switch the ideal device for supporting PoE and powering access points.

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7. When a port security violation occurs on a switch port, the switch sends a syslog message but does not shut down the port. What port security mode is in effect?

Explanation

When a port security violation occurs on a switch port and the switch sends a syslog message but does not shut down the port, the port security mode in effect is "restrict." In this mode, the switch restricts the traffic on the port to a limited number of MAC addresses, and any violation of this restriction triggers a syslog message. However, the port is not shut down completely, allowing the network administrator to investigate and take appropriate actions.

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8. Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need to be able to set a parameter on ACSw1?

Explanation

The correct answer is "a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5." This is because the exhibit mentions the IP address 192.168.0.5 as the host. To set a parameter on ACSw1, the SNMP manager needs to have the correct host address to establish communication and send the necessary SNMP commands.

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9. Which benefit is provided by centralizing servers in a data center server farm? 

Explanation

Centralizing servers in a data center server farm makes it easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center. By having all servers in one location, network administrators can implement centralized filtering and traffic management policies more effectively. This allows for better control over network traffic, ensuring that critical applications receive priority and potentially malicious or unnecessary traffic can be filtered out. Additionally, centralization can simplify network management and troubleshooting processes, as all servers are located in a single facility.

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10. A bridging loop occurs in a network and disrupts user connectivity. What action should be taken by a network administrator to restore connectivity?

Explanation

When a bridging loop occurs in a network, it creates multiple redundant paths between switches, causing a broadcast storm and disrupting user connectivity. To restore connectivity, the network administrator should disable the ports that should be in the blocking state. This will prevent the loop by blocking the redundant paths and allowing the network to function properly. By disabling these ports, the network can eliminate the bridging loop and restore normal connectivity for the users.

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11. How should a switch port be configured for a connection to a standalone wireless access point that provides multiple VLAN-separated SSIDs?

Explanation

A switch port should be configured as a trunk port when connecting to a standalone wireless access point that provides multiple VLAN-separated SSIDs. Trunk ports are capable of carrying traffic for multiple VLANs, allowing the access point to differentiate and separate the different SSIDs based on VLAN tags. This configuration ensures that each SSID is isolated and can communicate within its designated VLAN.

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12. Which three parameters must be configured in order to enable SSH? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

To enable SSH, three parameters must be configured: hostname, domain name, and keys. The hostname parameter is necessary to identify the device on the network. The domain name parameter is used to specify the domain in which the device resides. Keys are required for secure communication between the SSH client and server. These parameters ensure proper identification and authentication for SSH connections.

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13. Refer to the exhibit. What restriction will be presented in a campus enterprise network that is designed with four large distribution building blocks?

Explanation

In a campus enterprise network designed with four large distribution building blocks, the restriction that will be presented is the limited implementation of scalability that is required during future growth. This means that the network may not be able to effectively handle the increasing demands and expansion of the network in the future.

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14. A network administrator wants to implement inter-VLAN routing in the network. Which interfaces should be configured as routed ports?

Explanation

All interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 should be configured as routed ports because inter-VLAN routing requires each VLAN to have its own subnet and a routed port is needed to connect each VLAN to the router. By configuring all interfaces on links 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 as routed ports, the network administrator ensures that all VLANs can communicate with each other through the router.

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15. Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required in order for users in VLAN 10 to communicate with the users in VLAN 20? 

Explanation

To enable communication between users in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, it is necessary to configure interface Fa0/1 on SW1 as a trunk. Trunk ports allow the transmission of multiple VLAN traffic between switches. By configuring Fa0/1 as a trunk, it will be able to carry the traffic from both VLANs, allowing communication between them.

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16. Which QoS requirement should be taken into account when implementing VoIP in a campus environment? 

Explanation

The correct answer is the QoS requirements should accommodate the smooth demand on bandwidth, low latency, and delay for voice traffic. This means that the network should be able to provide a consistent and uninterrupted flow of data for voice calls, with minimal delay and latency. This is important in a campus environment where there may be a high volume of voice traffic and a need for reliable and high-quality communication.

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17. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration will be required on the DSW switch in order to perform inter-VLAN routing for all VLANs that are configured on the access switches?

Explanation

The correct answer is to configure SVI for each VLAN in the network. This is because SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) allows the switch to perform inter-VLAN routing by creating a virtual interface for each VLAN. By configuring SVI for each VLAN, the DSW switch will be able to route traffic between the VLANs. The other options mentioned, such as configuring the routing protocol or configuring the links as access links or routed ports, are not necessary for performing inter-VLAN routing on the DSW switch.

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18. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on SwitchA stops receiving UDLD packets?

Explanation

If interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on SwitchA stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD will change the port state to err-disable. This means that the port will be disabled and put into an error-disabled state. This is a safety mechanism to prevent any potential issues or loops in the network.

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19. Which statement is true concerning the core layer within the hierarchical design model?

Explanation

The statement "Routing should be configured without traffic filtering, address translation, or other packet manipulation at the core" is true concerning the core layer within the hierarchical design model. This means that the core layer should focus solely on efficient routing and should not be burdened with additional tasks such as filtering or address translation. By keeping the core layer dedicated to routing, it ensures optimized and reliable transport within the network.

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20. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains the configuration for a Cisco access device. How will someone dialing in be authenticated? 

Explanation

The exhibit shows that the "aaa authentication login default group radius local" command is configured. This means that the device will first try to authenticate the user using the RADIUS server. If the RADIUS server is not available or the authentication fails, the device will then fall back to using the local username and password for authentication.

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21. When troubleshooting GLBP in an environment with a VLAN that spans multiple access layer switches, a network engineer discovers that suboptimal paths are being used for upstream traffic. What is the recommended solution?

Explanation

The recommended solution for the issue of suboptimal paths being used for upstream traffic in a VLAN that spans multiple access layer switches is to use HSRP instead of GLBP. HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides redundancy for IP networks by allowing two or more routers to work together to represent a single virtual router. By using HSRP, the network engineer can ensure that the traffic takes the optimal path by configuring the routers to use a single active router and one or more standby routers.

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22. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the switch is running Multiple Spanning Tree (MST), which conclusion can be made based on the output?

Explanation

The output suggests that the switch is running Multiple Spanning Tree (MST). Based on this, it can be concluded that MST will require fewer resources than PVST+ or PVRST+.

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23. The TCAM defines three different match options that correlate to which three specific match regions? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The TCAM (Ternary Content Addressable Memory) defines three different match options that correlate to three specific match regions: longest match, exact match, and first match. The longest match option refers to finding the rule that matches the most number of bits in the packet. The exact match option is used to find an exact match for all bits in the packet. The first match option is used to find the first rule that matches the packet. These three match options help in efficiently searching and matching packets in the TCAM.

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24. Which statement correctly explains the process of mitigating ARP attacks on a switch where dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) has been configured? 

Explanation

The process of mitigating ARP attacks on a switch with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) involves verifying intercepted packets against the DHCP snooping binding table for valid IP-to-MAC bindings. This ensures that the ARP packets are legitimate and not spoofed. By comparing the source IP and MAC addresses in the intercepted packets with the DHCP snooping binding table, any unauthorized or malicious ARP packets can be dropped, preventing ARP attacks from occurring.

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25. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to verify the proper operations of the packet load sharing between a group of redundant routers that are configured with GLBP. On the basis of the provided output, which router is the Active Virtual Forwarder (AVF) for Host2?

Explanation

Based on the provided output, the router with the IP address of 10.1.1.2 is the Active Virtual Forwarder (AVF) for Host2. This can be determined by observing the "Active router is local" status for the router with the IP address of 10.1.1.2. This indicates that it is the active router responsible for forwarding traffic to Host2.

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26. What is the recommended maximum one-way latency when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications?

Explanation

The recommended maximum one-way latency when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications should not be more than 150 ms.

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27. What is required for SLA to capture one-way delays?

Explanation

Network Time Protocol (NTP) is required for SLA to capture one-way delays. NTP is used to synchronize the clocks of devices on a network, ensuring that they have accurate time information. By having accurate time information, SLA can accurately measure and capture the time it takes for packets to travel from the source to the destination, allowing for the calculation of one-way delays. The other options listed, such as having two IP SLA responders or using a Round Trip Timer value, are not directly related to capturing one-way delays.

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28. How many physical links can comprise a single PAgP EtherChannel on a Catalyst 3560 switch? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

A PAgP EtherChannel on a Catalyst 3560 switch can comprise a maximum of 8 physical links. This means that you can bundle together up to 8 physical links to form a single logical link for increased bandwidth and redundancy. The options 2 and 5 are correct because they fall within this limit. The other options (10, 12, 13, and 16) exceed the maximum number of physical links allowed for a PAgP EtherChannel on this switch.

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29. Which multilayer switching forwarding method does Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) use?

Explanation

Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) is a multilayer switching technology used by Cisco routers. It uses a topology-based switching method to forward packets. In this method, CEF builds a forwarding table based on the network topology and stores information about the best path to reach each destination network. This allows for fast and efficient packet forwarding as CEF does not need to perform complex routing calculations for every packet. Instead, it simply looks up the destination address in its forwarding table and forwards the packet accordingly.

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30. What is the most common method of configuring inter-VLAN routing on a Layer 3 switch? 

Explanation

The most common method of configuring inter-VLAN routing on a Layer 3 switch is to configure switch virtual interfaces. This allows the switch to act as a router and have a virtual interface in each VLAN, enabling communication between the VLANs. This method eliminates the need for physical interfaces on the router for each VLAN and simplifies the configuration process.

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31. Which STP enhancement should be configured in the network to prevent a nondesignated port to transition to a forwarding state when a topology change occurs?

Explanation

To prevent a nondesignated port from transitioning to a forwarding state during a topology change, loop guard should be implemented on the Layer 2 ports between DSW1 and DSW2 and on the uplink ports from the access switches to the distribution switches. Loop guard is a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) enhancement that helps to prevent loops by monitoring the consistency of the received BPDUs. If a loop is detected or if BPDUs stop being received on a designated port, loop guard will put the port into the loop-inconsistent state, preventing it from transitioning to the forwarding state and avoiding potential network disruptions.

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32. Which three steps are required to configure interfaces as routed ports on a multilayer Catalyst switch? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

To configure interfaces as routed ports on a multilayer Catalyst switch, three steps are required. First, IP routing needs to be enabled globally. This allows the switch to route traffic between different networks. Second, IP addresses need to be assigned to the routed ports. This allows the switch to have an IP address on each interface and participate in routing protocols. Finally, Layer 2 functionality needs to be disabled on the interfaces that will be configured as routed ports. This ensures that the switch treats these interfaces as Layer 3 ports and does not perform any switching functions on them.

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33. Which three issues can cause devices to become disconnected across a trunk link? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

The three issues that can cause devices to become disconnected across a trunk link are native VLAN mismatch, Layer 2 interface mode incompatibilities, and mismatched trunk encapsulations. A native VLAN mismatch occurs when the native VLAN on one end of the trunk link is different from the native VLAN on the other end. Layer 2 interface mode incompatibilities can occur when one end of the trunk link is configured in access mode while the other end is configured in trunk mode. Mismatched trunk encapsulations happen when the encapsulation type (such as 802.1Q or ISL) on one end of the trunk link is different from the other end.

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34. Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Using a non-trunk link to connect switches can cause problems with a VTP implementation because VTP information can only be transmitted over trunk links. Using non-Cisco switches can also cause problems because VTP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. Using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names can cause problems because VTP domain names are case-sensitive.

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35. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the displayed configuration on switches ASW1 and ASW2? 

Explanation

The displayed configuration on switches ASW1 and ASW2 enables BPDU guard. When a BPDU is received on an interface that is configured for STP PortFast, BPDU guard puts that interface into the err-disable state. This is done to prevent the potential creation of a loop in the network.

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36. Which phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach includes building a network according to the design and verifying that it performs according to specifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is the implement phase. This phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach involves building the network based on the design that has been created and ensuring that it functions as intended. This includes tasks such as installing and configuring network devices, testing the network for performance and functionality, and making any necessary adjustments or fixes. The implement phase is crucial in turning the design into a working network that meets the specified requirements.

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37. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)

Explanation

In a Layer 2 switched environment with redundant connections between switches, two statements are true about the default operation of STP. First, decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and index. This means that if two ports have the same cost, the port with the higher priority and index will be chosen as the designated port, while the other port will be blocked. Second, nonroot switches each have only one root port. This means that nonroot switches will have one port that is directly connected to the root switch, which is used for forwarding traffic to the root switch.

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38. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the way HSRP is configured? 

Explanation

The statement "By setting different priorities on different VLANs, a type of load balancing is occurring" is true because HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) allows for load balancing by assigning different priorities to different VLANs. In this configuration, Switch DLS1 is the standby router for VLANs 1, 10, and 20, while Switch DLS2 is the standby router for VLANs 30 and 40. By setting different priorities, the routers can distribute the traffic across multiple VLANs, providing a form of load balancing.

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39. What is the recommended maximum one-way jitter when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications? 

Explanation

The recommended maximum one-way jitter when implementing video over IP for real-time video applications is 10 ms. Jitter refers to the variation in packet arrival time, and in the case of video over IP, it can cause disruptions and inconsistencies in the playback. To ensure smooth and uninterrupted video streaming, it is recommended to keep the one-way jitter within a maximum limit of 10 ms. This allows for a reasonable amount of variation in packet arrival time without significantly impacting the quality of the video stream.

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40. Refer to the exhibit. What two effects will occur when a fourth distribution module is included in the campus enterprise network that is depicted in the exhibit? (Choose two.) 

Explanation

The inclusion of the fourth module will increase the routing complexity because there will be an additional module that needs to be configured and managed for routing purposes. It will also increase the number of additional links that are required to provide redundant connectivity because the fourth module will need to be connected to the existing modules to ensure network redundancy.

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41. What are two actions a hacker may take in a VLAN hopping attack? (Choose two.)

Explanation

A hacker may take two actions in a VLAN hopping attack: sending malicious dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) frames and sending frames with two 802.1Q headers. By sending malicious DTP frames, the hacker can manipulate the trunking configuration between switches and gain unauthorized access to VLANs. Sending frames with two 802.1Q headers allows the hacker to bypass security measures and gain access to multiple VLANs. These actions enable the hacker to exploit vulnerabilities and gain unauthorized access to sensitive network resources.

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42. Catalyst Catalyst 6500 switches support which three Supervisor Engine redundancy features? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The Catalyst 6500 switches support three Supervisor Engine redundancy features: Route Processor Redundancy+ (RPR+), Stateful Switchover (SSO), and Nonstop Forwarding (NSF). These features ensure high availability and fault tolerance in the network. RPR+ provides redundancy for the route processor, SSO allows for seamless switchover between supervisor engines, and NSF enables uninterrupted forwarding of packets during supervisor engine switchover. These features collectively enhance the reliability and resilience of the Catalyst 6500 switches.

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43. Which architecture enables enterprises to offer important network services, such as security, new communication services, and improved application performance to every office, regardless of its size or proximity to headquarters?

Explanation

Cisco Enterprise Branch Architecture enables enterprises to offer important network services, such as security, new communication services, and improved application performance to every office, regardless of its size or proximity to headquarters. This architecture is specifically designed for branch offices, providing a comprehensive solution that addresses the unique needs and challenges of these locations. It ensures consistent and reliable network services across all branches, allowing for seamless connectivity and enhanced productivity.

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44. Which two procedures should be implemented and in place when deploying VoIP in a campus network? (Choose two.)

Explanation

When deploying VoIP in a campus network, it is important to create voice VLANs to separate voice traffic from other data. This ensures that voice traffic receives special handling and can be prioritized appropriately. Additionally, configuring traffic shaping QoS policy is necessary to guarantee minimum delay for the voice traffic. This helps to maintain a consistent and reliable quality of service for VoIP calls. By implementing these two procedures, the network can effectively support VoIP communication with optimal performance and reliability.

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45. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the output? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Based on the output, the first conclusion that can be made is that Switch DLS1 is not the root bridge for VLAN 1. This can be inferred from the fact that the root bridge ID for VLAN 1 is different from the bridge ID of Switch DLS1.

The second conclusion that can be made is that the Cost column in the lower part of the exhibit is not the cumulative root path cost. This can be deduced from the fact that the cost values in the Cost column are different from the cumulative root path cost values in the Root Path Cost column.

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46. Which two items in the TCAM table are referenced in the process of forwarding a packet? (Choose two.) 

Explanation

In the process of forwarding a packet, the TCAM table references ACL information and QoS information. ACL (Access Control List) information is used to determine whether a packet should be allowed or denied based on defined rules. QoS (Quality of Service) information is used to prioritize and manage network traffic based on specific requirements or policies. Both ACL and QoS information play a crucial role in determining how a packet should be forwarded within the network.

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47. What is the most fundamental form of high availability when using Catalyst modular switches? 

Explanation

Supervisor Engine redundancy is the most fundamental form of high availability when using Catalyst modular switches. This is because the supervisor engine is responsible for managing and controlling the entire switch, including forwarding packets, managing interfaces, and implementing protocols. With supervisor engine redundancy, multiple supervisor engines are installed in the switch, providing backup and failover capabilities. If one supervisor engine fails, another one takes over seamlessly, ensuring uninterrupted network operation. This redundancy at the supervisor engine level is crucial for maintaining high availability and minimizing downtime in a network environment.

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48. Which three actions are taken when the command switchport host is entered on a switch port? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

When the command "switchport host" is entered on a switch port, three actions are taken. First, PortFast is enabled, which allows the port to transition into a forwarding state immediately without going through the usual listening and learning states. Second, trunking is disabled, meaning the port will not participate in VLAN trunking. Lastly, channel group is disabled, indicating that the port will not be part of any port channel or etherchannel group.

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49. What is a characteristic of a standalone WLAN solution?

Explanation

A characteristic of a standalone WLAN solution is that it does not have centralized operational control. This means that each access point operates independently and does not rely on a centralized system to control its operations. This can be beneficial in some cases as it allows for more flexibility and autonomy in managing the WLAN network. However, it also means that there is no centralized control or coordination, which can make it more difficult to manage and troubleshoot the network.

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50. Refer to the exhibit. The link between switch SW1 and SW2 is manually configured as full duplex on SW2 and with half duplex on SW1. How could this impact the STP operations?

Explanation

The link between SW1 and SW2 being configured as full duplex on SW2 and half duplex on SW1 can cause a mismatch in the transmission capabilities of the two switches. This can lead to a situation where SW2 is sending data at a faster rate than SW1 can handle, potentially causing buffer overflows and packet loss. As a result, SW2 may move port Fa0/3 into a forwarding state, creating a Layer 2 loop. This loop can cause network congestion, broadcast storms, and ultimately disrupt network connectivity.

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51. How do FlexLink and STP operate together? 

Explanation

If STP is active in the distribution layer, it means that it is responsible for blocking redundant paths and ensuring loop-free topology. However, it is not aware of any updates or changes happening in the access layer through FlexLink. FlexLink, on the other hand, is a feature that allows for redundant links in the access layer, providing faster convergence and failover in case of link failure. Therefore, while STP is active in the distribution layer, it does not have visibility or control over any updates or changes happening in the access layer through FlexLink.

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52. Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.) 

Explanation

A routed port is not associated with a particular VLAN because it operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model and does not participate in VLAN tagging or trunking. To create a routed port, the Layer 2 port functionality must be removed using the "no switchport interface configuration command" because a routed port needs to be configured with a Layer 3 IP address.

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53. What are three possible misconfigurations or indicators of misconfigurations on a Layer 3 interface? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Three possible misconfigurations or indicators of misconfigurations on a Layer 3 interface are a wrong IP address or subnet mask, a downed SVI (Switched Virtual Interface), and an ACL (Access Control List) on the wrong interface. These misconfigurations can cause connectivity issues, routing problems, and security vulnerabilities.

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54. What is the purpose of the debug condition standby vlan vlan-id group-number command in troubleshooting HSRP? 

Explanation

The purpose of the "debug condition standby vlan vlan-id group-number" command in troubleshooting HSRP is to limit the output of the "debug standby" command to the specific VLAN interface and HSRP group. This allows for more targeted troubleshooting and analysis of HSRP traffic within a specific VLAN and group, making it easier to identify and resolve any issues or inconsistencies.

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55. What are two benefits of local VLANs in the Enterprise Campus Network? (Choose two.) 

Explanation

Local VLANs in the Enterprise Campus Network provide two benefits. Firstly, they offer ease of management as they are usually limited to the building access submodule, making it easier to control and configure. Secondly, they provide high availability due to redundant paths existing at all infrastructure levels, ensuring that if one path fails, there are alternative paths available to maintain network connectivity.

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56. What three features are provided by IEEE 802.1Q trunking? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

IEEE 802.1Q trunking provides three features: QoS support, which allows for prioritization of traffic; multivendor support, which ensures compatibility between different vendors' equipment; and relatively small frame overhead, which minimizes the additional size added to the frames.

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57. When should a proactive management be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle Services? 

Explanation

Proactive management should be performed during the optimize phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services. This phase focuses on continuously improving and optimizing the network infrastructure to meet changing business needs and technology advancements. By regularly monitoring and analyzing network performance, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing necessary changes, proactive management helps ensure the network operates at its highest level of efficiency and effectiveness. This phase also includes activities such as capacity planning, performance tuning, and ongoing network health checks.

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58. Refer to the exhibit. Given that interface Fa3/42 is an active trunk port, what two conclusions can be made based on the displayed output? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Based on the displayed output, the first conclusion is that root guard is not enabled on interface Fa3/42. This can be inferred because the "Root Guard" field is showing "No" for this interface. The second conclusion is that interface Fa3/42 will not pass data traffic if it detects that it is part of a spanning-tree loop caused by unidirectional link failure. This can be inferred because the "Loop Guard" field is showing "Yes" for this interface, indicating that it will block data traffic in case of a loop caused by unidirectional link failure.

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59. Refer to the exhibit. Switches DSw1 and DSw2 are configured with the HSRP virtual IP address 10.10.10.1, and standby priority is set to 100. Assume both switches finish booting at the same time and HSRP is operating as expected. On the basis of this information, which three HSRP statements are true? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

The first statement is false because the standby timers command does not affect failover time. The second statement is true because if both switches have been configured to preempt, the switch with the higher priority will become the active router. The third statement is false because the HSRP group number is not mentioned in the exhibit. The fourth statement is true because the standby track command is used to track interfaces that are not part of the HSRP configuration. The fifth statement is false because the exhibit does not provide information about how the virtual router replies to ARP requests.

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60. Which three statements about RSTP edge ports are true? (Choose three.) 

Explanation

The three statements that are true about RSTP edge ports are:
1) Edge ports should never connect to another switch - This is because edge ports are designed to connect to end devices, such as computers or servers, and not to other switches.
2) If an edge port receives a BPDU, it becomes a normal spanning-tree port - BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) is a message exchanged between switches to establish and maintain a loop-free network topology. If an edge port receives a BPDU, it means that another switch is connected to it, and the port will transition to a normal spanning-tree port to participate in the spanning-tree protocol.
3) Edge ports never generate topology change notifications (TCNs) when the port transitions to a disabled or enabled status - TCNs are messages sent by switches to inform other switches in the network about a change in the network topology. Edge ports, being directly connected to end devices, do not generate TCNs when their status changes.

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  • Sep 28, 2016
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    Gunde1994
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Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem between the connection on...
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided show ip dhcp snooping...
What type of queuing provides the best quality for voice...
Refer to the exhibit. The indicated configuration was established on...
Which two types of attacks can be mitigated by port security? (Choose...
What device can be used to support Power over Ethernet (PoE) to power...
When a port security violation occurs on a switch port, the switch...
Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need to be...
Which benefit is provided by centralizing servers in a data center...
A bridging loop occurs in a network and disrupts user connectivity....
How should a switch port be configured for a connection to a...
Which three parameters must be configured in order to enable SSH?...
Refer to the exhibit. What restriction will be presented in a campus...
A network administrator wants to implement inter-VLAN routing in the...
Refer to the exhibit. What additional configuration is required in...
Which QoS requirement should be taken into account when implementing...
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration will be required on the DSW...
Refer to the exhibit. What happens if interface gigabitEthernet 5/1 on...
Which statement is true concerning the core layer within the...
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit contains the configuration for a...
When troubleshooting GLBP in an environment with a VLAN that spans...
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the switch is running Multiple...
The TCAM defines three different match options that correlate to which...
Which statement correctly explains the process of mitigating ARP...
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to verify the...
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency when implementing...
What is required for SLA to capture one-way delays?
How many physical links can comprise a single PAgP EtherChannel on a...
Which multilayer switching forwarding method does Cisco Express...
What is the most common method of configuring inter-VLAN routing on a...
Which STP enhancement should be configured in the network to prevent a...
Which three steps are required to configure interfaces as routed ports...
Which three issues can cause devices to become disconnected across a...
Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation?...
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the displayed...
Which phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach includes building...
Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a...
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the way HSRP is...
What is the recommended maximum one-way jitter when implementing video...
Refer to the exhibit. What two effects will occur when a fourth...
What are two actions a hacker may take in a VLAN hopping attack?...
Catalyst Catalyst 6500 switches support which three Supervisor Engine...
Which architecture enables enterprises to offer important network...
Which two procedures should be implemented and in place when deploying...
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the...
Which two items in the TCAM table are referenced in the process of...
What is the most fundamental form of high availability when using...
Which three actions are taken when the command switchport host is...
What is a characteristic of a standalone WLAN solution?
Refer to the exhibit. The link between switch SW1 and SW2 is manually...
How do FlexLink and STP operate together? 
Which two statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer...
What are three possible misconfigurations or indicators of...
What is the purpose of the debug condition standby vlan vlan-id...
What are two benefits of local VLANs in the Enterprise Campus Network?...
What three features are provided by IEEE 802.1Q trunking? (Choose...
When should a proactive management be performed within the stages of...
Refer to the exhibit. Given that interface Fa3/42 is an active trunk...
Refer to the exhibit. Switches DSw1 and DSw2 are configured with the...
Which three statements about RSTP edge ports are true? (Choose...
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