Informative Quiz On CCNP
Today we’ll be taking a look at some of the questions you’ll need to be able to answer if you ever want to reach the top levels of your Cisco career certifications. Would you like to be a CCNP? Answer the following informative questions and we’ll see if you have what it takes.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Layer 2 switching uses which of the following values to forward data?
- A.
IP address
- B.
IPX address
- C.
MAC address
- D.
RIP address
- E.
UDP port
Correct Answer
C. MAC addressExplanation
Layer 2 switching uses MAC addresses to forward data. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network interface cards (NICs) at the factory. Layer 2 switches use these addresses to determine the destination of the data and forward it to the appropriate device on the local network. IP addresses, IPX addresses, RIP addresses, and UDP ports are all used in different layers of the network stack and are not directly used by layer 2 switching.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Multilayer switching (MLS) forwards packets based on what OSI layers?
- A.
Layer 1
- B.
Layer 2
- C.
Layer 3
- D.
Layer 4
- E.
B, c, d
- F.
A, b, c, d
Correct Answer
E. B, c, dExplanation
Multilayer switching (MLS) forwards packets based on OSI layers 2, 3, and 4. Layer 2 is the data link layer, which handles the physical addressing of devices on the network. Layer 3 is the network layer, responsible for logical addressing and routing. Layer 4 is the transport layer, which manages end-to-end communication between devices. Therefore, MLS considers all these layers when forwarding packets.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following does a multilayer switch perform?
- A.
Forwarding according to MAC address.
- B.
Forwarding according to IP address.
- C.
Forwarding according to UDP/TCP port numbers.
- D.
All of these answers are correct.
Correct Answer
D. All of these answers are correct.Explanation
A multilayer switch performs all of the mentioned tasks. It is capable of forwarding data packets based on MAC addresses, IP addresses, and UDP/TCP port numbers. This allows the switch to efficiently route traffic at both the data link layer and network layer, making it a versatile networking device.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What does the 20/80 rule of networking state? (Pick one.)
- A.
Only 20 out of 80 packets arrive at the destination.
- B.
Twenty percent of the network is used 80 percent of the time.
- C.
Twenty percent of the traffic on a network segment travels across the network, whereas 80 percent of it stays local.
- D.
Twenty percent of the traffic on a network segment stays local, whereas 80 percent of it travels across the network.
Correct Answer
D. Twenty percent of the traffic on a network segment stays local, whereas 80 percent of it travels across the network.Explanation
The 20/80 rule of networking states that twenty percent of the traffic on a network segment stays local, whereas 80 percent of it travels across the network. This means that only a small portion of the network traffic remains within a specific segment, while the majority of it is transmitted across different segments or even outside of the network. This rule highlights the importance of efficient network design and management to ensure smooth and effective data transmission.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Where does a collision domain exist in a switched network?
- A.
On a single switch port
- B.
Across all switch ports
- C.
On a single VLAN
- D.
Across all VLANs
Correct Answer
A. On a single switch portExplanation
A collision domain exists on a single switch port in a switched network. In a switched network, each switch port operates as an individual collision domain. This means that when data is transmitted on a switch port, it does not collide with data transmitted on other switch ports. Switches use MAC address tables to forward data only to the intended destination port, effectively isolating each port and creating separate collision domains. This allows for efficient and simultaneous communication between devices connected to different switch ports.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where does a broadcast domain exist in a switched network?
- A.
On a single switch port
- B.
Across all switch ports
- C.
On a single VLAN
- D.
Across all VLANs
Correct Answer
C. On a single VLANExplanation
A broadcast domain exists on a single VLAN in a switched network. A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of devices that are connected to the same network and can communicate with each other as if they were on the same physical network. In a switched network, each VLAN is isolated from others, creating separate broadcast domains. This means that broadcast traffic, such as ARP requests or DHCP requests, is only forwarded within the same VLAN and does not cross over to other VLANs. Therefore, a broadcast domain exists within a single VLAN in a switched network.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is a VLAN primarily used for?
- A.
To segment a collision domain
- B.
To segment a broadcast domain
- C.
To segment an autonomous system
- D.
To segment a spanning-tree domain
Correct Answer
B. To segment a broadcast domainExplanation
A VLAN, or Virtual Local Area Network, is primarily used to segment a broadcast domain. By dividing a network into multiple VLANs, broadcast traffic is contained within each VLAN, reducing unnecessary network congestion and improving network performance. This segmentation allows for better control over network traffic and enhances security by isolating different groups of devices or users. Additionally, VLANs enable easier management and configuration of network resources, as they can be logically grouped together based on specific requirements or organizational structures.Rate this question:
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- 8.
How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical campus network design model?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- E.
7
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The hierarchical campus network design model recommends having three layers. This design consists of the core layer, distribution layer, and access layer. The core layer is responsible for high-speed switching and routing, connecting different buildings or campuses. The distribution layer provides connectivity between the core and access layers, handling traffic filtering and policy enforcement. The access layer connects end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. Having three layers in the hierarchical model helps to improve network performance, scalability, and manageability.Rate this question:
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- 9.
End-user PCs should be connected into which of the following hierarchical layers?
- A.
Distribution layer
- B.
Common layer
- C.
Access layer
- D.
Core layer
Correct Answer
C. Access layerExplanation
End-user PCs should be connected into the access layer of the hierarchical network design. The access layer is responsible for connecting end-user devices to the network. It provides local network access, authentication, and security services. This layer is also responsible for implementing policies and controlling user access to network resources. By connecting end-user PCs to the access layer, network administrators can efficiently manage and control network traffic, ensuring that end-users have the necessary access to resources while maintaining network security and performance.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution layer typically operate?
- A.
Layer 1
- B.
Layer 2
- C.
Layer 3
- D.
Layer 4
Correct Answer
C. Layer 3Explanation
Devices in the distribution layer typically operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model. Layer 3, also known as the network layer, is responsible for routing packets across different networks. The distribution layer connects different LANs or VLANs and performs functions like routing, filtering, and policy-based traffic control. It ensures that packets are delivered to the correct destination network by examining IP addresses and making routing decisions. Therefore, devices in the distribution layer primarily operate at Layer 3 to facilitate inter-network communication.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A hierarchical network’s distribution layer aggregates which of the following?
- A.
Core switches
- B.
Broadcast domains
- C.
Routing updates
- D.
Access-layer switches
Correct Answer
D. Access-layer switchesExplanation
A hierarchical network's distribution layer aggregates access-layer switches. The distribution layer is responsible for connecting the access layer to the core layer in a hierarchical network design. It acts as a central point for traffic distribution and provides services such as routing, filtering, and policy enforcement. By aggregating the access-layer switches, the distribution layer reduces the number of connections required to connect the access layer to the core layer, improving scalability and manageability of the network.Rate this question:
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- 12.
In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the following are aggregated?
- A.
Routing tables
- B.
Packet filters
- C.
Distribution switches
- D.
Access-layer switches
Correct Answer
C. Distribution switchesExplanation
In the core layer of a hierarchical network, distribution switches are aggregated. The core layer is responsible for moving large amounts of data quickly and efficiently. Distribution switches are used to aggregate traffic from access-layer switches and route it to the appropriate destination. They help to optimize network performance by distributing traffic across multiple paths and providing redundancy. Therefore, distribution switches play a crucial role in aggregating and managing the flow of data in the core layer of a hierarchical network.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design?
- A.
To facilitate documentation
- B.
To follow political or organizational policies
- C.
To make the network predictable and scalable
- D.
To make the network more redundant and secure
Correct Answer
C. To make the network predictable and scalableExplanation
Breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design helps in making the network predictable and scalable. This design allows for easy management and troubleshooting by dividing the network into smaller, manageable segments. It also helps in efficient allocation of resources and bandwidth, as well as easy expansion as the network grows. Additionally, a hierarchical design enables better performance and reduces the chances of network congestion by controlling the flow of traffic.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following are building blocks or modules used to build a scalable campus network? (Check all that apply.)
- A.
Access block
- B.
Distribution block
- C.
Core block
- D.
Server farm block
- E.
Switch block
Correct Answer(s)
C. Core block
D. Server farm block
E. Switch blockExplanation
The correct answer is Core block, Server farm block, and Switch block. These three building blocks or modules are commonly used to build a scalable campus network. The core block is responsible for high-speed connectivity within the network and acts as the central hub. The server farm block is used to house and manage the servers that provide various services to the network. The switch block is used to connect different network devices and facilitate communication between them. Together, these building blocks form the foundation of a scalable and efficient campus network.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which one or more of the following are the components of a typical switch block?
- A.
Access-layer switches
- B.
Distribution-layer switches
- C.
Core-layer switches
- D.
E-commerce servers
- E.
Service provider switches
Correct Answer(s)
A. Access-layer switches
B. Distribution-layer switchesExplanation
Access-layer switches and distribution-layer switches are components of a typical switch block. Access-layer switches are responsible for connecting end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. Distribution-layer switches are used to connect access-layer switches to the core-layer switches. Core-layer switches are not mentioned in the question, but they are another component of a typical switch block, as they are responsible for routing data between different networks. E-commerce servers and service provider switches are not components of a typical switch block.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What are two types of core, or backbone, designs?
- A.
Collapsed core
- B.
Loop-free core
- C.
Dual core
- D.
Layered core
Correct Answer(s)
A. Collapsed core
C. Dual coreExplanation
The two types of core designs mentioned in the answer are "Collapsed core" and "Dual core". A collapsed core design refers to a network architecture where the core and distribution layers are combined into a single layer, reducing complexity and cost. On the other hand, a dual core design involves having two separate core layers for redundancy and increased reliability. These designs are commonly used in network infrastructure to ensure efficient and reliable data transmission.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined to what?
- A.
One access-layer switch port
- B.
One access-layer switch
- C.
One switch block
- D.
The entire campus network
Correct Answer
C. One switch blockExplanation
In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined to one switch block. This means that the broadcast traffic is limited to the specific area or segment of the network where the PC and the corresponding switch block are located. It does not propagate to the entire campus network, which helps to minimize network congestion and improve overall network performance.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect into a single distribution-layer switch?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
Limited only by the number of ports on the access-layer switch
- D.
Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switch
- E.
Unlimited
Correct Answer
D. Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switchExplanation
The correct answer is "Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switch." This means that the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect to a single distribution-layer switch is determined by the number of available ports on the distribution-layer switch. As long as there are enough ports on the distribution-layer switch, there is no specific limit to the number of access-layer switches that can be connected.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A switch block should be sized according to what?
- A.
The number of access-layer users
- B.
A maximum of 250 access-layer users
- C.
A study of the traffic patterns and flows
- D.
The amount of rack space available
- E.
The number of servers accessed by users
Correct Answer(s)
A. The number of access-layer users
C. A study of the traffic patterns and flowsExplanation
A switch block should be sized according to the number of access-layer users and a study of the traffic patterns and flows. The number of access-layer users is important because it determines the capacity needed to handle the network traffic. A study of the traffic patterns and flows helps to understand the data flow and identify potential bottlenecks or areas of high traffic, allowing for proper sizing of the switch block to ensure optimal performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose all that apply.)
- A.
IP address space is exhausted.
- B.
You run out of access-layer switch ports.
- C.
Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.
- D.
Traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches.
- E.
Network congestion occurs.
Correct Answer(s)
C. Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.
D. Traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches.
E. Network congestion occurs.Explanation
When a switch block is too large, several evidence can be observed. Firstly, the broadcast traffic becomes excessive. This is because a large switch block means more devices, which leads to an increase in broadcast messages that are sent to all devices in the network. Secondly, traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches. This happens because the distribution-layer switches have limited capacity and may struggle to handle the high volume of traffic generated by the large switch block. Lastly, network congestion occurs. The excessive traffic and limited capacity of the switches can result in congestion, causing delays and performance issues in the network.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
4
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
In order to ensure redundancy and avoid a single point of failure, it is recommended to have at least two distribution switches built into each switch block. This allows for load balancing and provides backup in case one switch fails. Having only one distribution switch would increase the risk of network downtime and potential disruptions. Having four or eight distribution switches would be excessive and unnecessary for most network setups, as it would result in increased complexity and cost without significant benefits.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What are the most important aspects to consider when designing the core layer in a large network? (Choose all that apply.)
- A.
Low cost
- B.
Switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at 100% capacity
- C.
High port density of high-speed ports
- D.
A low number of Layer 3 routing peers
Correct Answer(s)
B. Switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at 100% capacity
C. High port density of high-speed portsExplanation
The most important aspects to consider when designing the core layer in a large network include switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at 100% capacity, and high port density of high-speed ports. These aspects are crucial in ensuring that the core layer can handle the high volume of traffic and provide fast and reliable connectivity. Low cost and a low number of Layer 3 routing peers are not mentioned as important aspects for designing the core layer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which services typically are located at the enterprise edge block? (Choose all that apply.)
- A.
Network management
- B.
Intranet server farms
- C.
VPN and remote access
- D.
E-commerce servers
- E.
End users
Correct Answer(s)
C. VPN and remote access
D. E-commerce serversExplanation
The services typically located at the enterprise edge block are VPN and remote access and e-commerce servers. VPN and remote access services allow employees or authorized users to securely connect to the enterprise network from remote locations. E-commerce servers are used to host online stores or conduct online transactions. These services are typically placed at the enterprise edge block to ensure secure access and efficient delivery of services to external users or customers.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In a server farm block, where should redundancy be provided? (Choose all that apply.)
- A.
Dual connections from each distribution switch to the core.
- B.
Dual connections from each access switch to the distribution switches.
- C.
Dual connections from each server to the access switches.
- D.
No redundancy is necessary.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Dual connections from each distribution switch to the core.
B. Dual connections from each access switch to the distribution switches.
C. Dual connections from each server to the access switches.Explanation
Redundancy should be provided in multiple areas within a server farm block to ensure high availability and fault tolerance. Dual connections from each distribution switch to the core allow for redundancy at the network backbone level. Dual connections from each access switch to the distribution switches provide redundancy at the access layer. Dual connections from each server to the access switches offer redundancy at the server level, allowing for load balancing and failover. By implementing redundancy in these areas, the server farm block can continue to function even if there is a failure in one of the components.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following protocols can be used as a tool to discover a network topology?
- A.
RIP
- B.
CDP
- C.
STP
- D.
ICMP
Correct Answer
B. CDPExplanation
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a protocol used by Cisco devices to discover and gather information about neighboring devices on a network. It allows network administrators to obtain details about the devices connected to their Cisco network, such as their IP addresses, capabilities, and platform information. By using CDP, administrators can effectively map out the network topology, identifying the connections between devices and understanding how they are interconnected. Therefore, CDP is a suitable tool for discovering a network topology.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which one of the following tasks is not an appropriate strategy for migrating an existing network into the Enterprise Composite Model?
- A.
Identify groups of end users as switch blocks
- B.
Group common resources into switch blocks
- C.
Identify distribution switches to connect the switch blocks
- D.
Add redundancy between the hierarchical layers
Correct Answer
C. Identify distribution switches to connect the switch blocksExplanation
The task of identifying distribution switches to connect the switch blocks is not an appropriate strategy for migrating an existing network into the Enterprise Composite Model. The Enterprise Composite Model is a hierarchical network design that consists of access, distribution, and core layers. In this model, switch blocks are connected to distribution switches, which are then connected to the core layer. Therefore, the distribution switches should already be identified and in place before migrating the network into the Enterprise Composite Model.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?
- A.
Ethernet hub
- B.
Layer 2 switch
- C.
Layer 3 switch
- D.
Router
Correct Answer
B. Layer 2 switchExplanation
A Layer 2 switch performs transparent bridging. Transparent bridging is a technique used in computer networks to connect multiple network segments together. It operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets between different network segments. A Layer 2 switch can learn and store MAC addresses in its forwarding table, allowing it to make forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses. This allows for efficient and fast switching of data packets between different network segments, making Layer 2 switches ideal for creating local area networks (LANs).Rate this question:
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- 28.
When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the collision domain spread?
- A.
No collision domain exists.
- B.
One switch port.
- C.
One VLAN.
- D.
All ports on the switch.All ports on the switch.
Correct Answer
B. One switch port.Explanation
When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, the collision domain is limited to that specific switch port. This means that collisions can only occur between devices connected to that particular port. The switch itself helps to eliminate collisions by creating separate collision domains for each port, allowing for simultaneous communication between devices connected to different ports without interference. Therefore, in this scenario, the collision domain does not extend beyond the switch port to any other ports or VLANs.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?
- A.
Source MAC address
- B.
Destination MAC address
- C.
Source switch port
- D.
IP addresses
Correct Answer
B. Destination MAC addressExplanation
The Layer 2 switch uses the destination MAC address to forward frames. Each device on a network has a unique MAC address, and the switch uses this address to determine where to send the frame. By examining the destination MAC address, the switch can determine which port to forward the frame to, ensuring that it reaches the correct device. The source MAC address, source switch port, and IP addresses are not used by the switch for forwarding frames.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM table?
- A.
The frame is forwarded to the default port.
- B.
The switch generates an ARP request for the address.
- C.
The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the receiving port).
- D.
The switch drops the frame.
Correct Answer
C. The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the receiving port).Explanation
When a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not found in the CAM table, it means that the switch does not know the port to which the frame should be forwarded. In this case, the switch will flood the frame out to all ports (except the receiving port) in order to reach the intended destination. This flooding technique ensures that the frame reaches the correct destination by sending it to all connected devices, allowing the device with the correct MAC address to respond and update the switch's CAM table accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In the Catalyst 6500, frames can be filtered with access lists for security and QoS purposes. This filtering occurs according to which of the following?
- A.
Before a CAM table lookup
- B.
After a CAM table lookup
- C.
Simultaneously with a CAM table lookup
- D.
According to how the access lists are configured
Correct Answer
D. According to how the access lists are configuredExplanation
Frames in the Catalyst 6500 are filtered with access lists for security and QoS purposes. The filtering occurs according to how the access lists are configured. This means that the access lists define the specific criteria and rules for filtering frames, such as source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, or other parameters. The frames are then filtered based on these configured access lists. The filtering process takes place after a CAM table lookup, which is used to determine the appropriate outgoing interface for the frame.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Access list contents can be merged into which of the following?
- A.
A CAM table
- B.
A TCAM table
- C.
A FIB table
- D.
An ARP table
Correct Answer
B. A TCAM tableExplanation
Access list contents can be merged into a TCAM (Ternary Content Addressable Memory) table. TCAM tables are used in networking devices for fast and efficient packet forwarding. They allow for matching of packet headers against predefined rules or access lists. By merging access list contents into a TCAM table, the network device can quickly and accurately determine how to handle incoming packets based on the defined access control rules. This helps in improving network performance and security.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of these techniques?
- A.
Route caching
- B.
Netflow switching
- C.
Topology-based switching
- D.
Demand-based switching
Correct Answer
C. Topology-based switchingExplanation
Multilayer switches using CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) are based on topology-based switching. This technique involves building a forwarding table based on the network topology, which allows the switch to make forwarding decisions based on the physical connections between devices. By using this approach, the switch can quickly forward packets without the need for additional processing or lookups, resulting in improved performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which answer describes multilayer switching with CEF?
- A.
The first packet is routed and then the flow is cached.
- B.
The switch supervisor CPU forwards each packet.
- C.
The switching hardware learns station addresses and builds a routing database.
- D.
A single database of routing information is built for the switching hardware.
Correct Answer
D. A single database of routing information is built for the switching hardware.Explanation
Multilayer switching with CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) involves building a single database of routing information for the switching hardware. This database allows the switching hardware to make fast and efficient forwarding decisions based on the destination address of the packets. Instead of the switch supervisor CPU forwarding each packet individually, CEF caches the first packet's routing information and subsequent packets with the same flow are then forwarded based on the cached information. This improves performance and reduces the load on the CPU.Rate this question:
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- 35.
In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after forwarding decisions are made?
- A.
Ingress queues
- B.
Egress queues
- C.
CAM table
- D.
TCAM
Correct Answer
B. Egress queuesExplanation
After forwarding decisions are made in a switch, frames are placed in the egress queues. Egress queues are responsible for temporarily storing frames before they are transmitted out of the switch. Once the forwarding decisions are made, the switch determines the appropriate egress port for each frame and places them in the corresponding egress queue. From there, the frames are transmitted out of the switch in the order they were placed in the egress queues.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry?
- A.
64 bits
- B.
128 bits
- C.
134 bits
- D.
168 bits
Correct Answer
C. 134 bitsExplanation
The mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry are 134 bits in size. This means that both the mask and pattern fields are 134 bits long and can store information or data of that size.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When a packet is matched against an access list, in what order are the TCAM entries evaluated?
- A.
Sequentially in the order of the original access list.
- B.
Numerically by the access list number.
- C.
Alphabetically by the access list name.
- D.
All entries are evaluated in parallel.
Correct Answer
D. All entries are evaluated in parallel.Explanation
The TCAM entries in an access list are evaluated in parallel, meaning that they are all evaluated at the same time. This allows for faster processing of packets as they can be matched against multiple entries simultaneously. The order of the original access list, the access list number, or the access list name does not affect the evaluation of the TCAM entries.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display the addresses in the CAM table?
- A.
Show cam
- B.
Show mac address-table
- C.
Show mac
- D.
Show cam address-table
Correct Answer
B. Show mac address-tableExplanation
The correct answer is "show mac address-table". This command is used to display the addresses in the CAM (Content Addressable Memory) table on a Catalyst switch. The CAM table is responsible for mapping MAC addresses to corresponding ports on the switch. By using this command, network administrators can view the MAC addresses and their associated ports, which is useful for troubleshooting network connectivity and identifying devices on the network.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?
- A.
Spanning Tree Protocol
- B.
Token Ring
- C.
Ethernet
- D.
Switched Ethernet
Correct Answer
C. EthernetExplanation
The IEEE 802.3 standard defines Ethernet. Ethernet is a widely used networking technology that allows devices to communicate over a local area network (LAN). It specifies the physical and data link layer protocols for wired Ethernet networks, including the types of cables, connectors, and signaling used, as well as the format and transmission of data packets. The standard ensures compatibility and interoperability between different Ethernet devices and networks.Rate this question:
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- 40.
At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet the same?
- A.
Layer 1
- B.
Layer 2
- C.
Layer 3
- D.
Layer 4
Correct Answer
B. Layer 2Explanation
Traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet all operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Layer 2 is the data link layer, which is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes over a physical link. It provides error detection and correction, as well as addressing and framing of data packets. Therefore, these Ethernet technologies share the same layer because they all perform similar functions at the data link layer.Rate this question:
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- 41.
At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet different?
- A.
Layer 1
- B.
Layer 2
- C.
Layer 3
- D.
Layer 4
Correct Answer
A. Layer 1Explanation
Traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model. Layer 1, also known as the physical layer, is responsible for the physical transmission of data over the network medium. It deals with the electrical, mechanical, and functional aspects of the physical connection between devices. In the case of Ethernet, the different speeds (10-Mbps, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet) refer to the different physical transmission rates at which data is sent over the network.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX connection?
- A.
100 feet
- B.
100 m
- C.
328 m
- D.
500 m
Correct Answer
B. 100 mExplanation
The maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX connection is 100 meters. This is because Category 5 cables are designed to support Fast Ethernet speeds of up to 100 Mbps, and the maximum cable length for this speed is 100 meters. Beyond this distance, the signal strength may degrade and cause data transmission issues.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the following?
- A.
Spanning Tree mode
- B.
Duplex mode
- C.
Quality of service mode
- D.
Error threshold
Correct Answer
B. Duplex modeExplanation
Ethernet autonegotiation determines the duplex mode. Duplex mode refers to the communication method used between two devices on a network. It determines whether the devices can send and receive data simultaneously (full duplex) or only one at a time (half duplex). Autonegotiation allows devices to automatically negotiate and select the appropriate duplex mode based on their capabilities, ensuring efficient and reliable communication.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following cannot be determined if the far end of a connection doesn’t support autonegotiation?
- A.
Link speed
- B.
Link duplex mode
- C.
Link media type
- D.
MAC address
Correct Answer
B. Link duplex modeExplanation
If the far end of a connection doesn't support autonegotiation, the link duplex mode cannot be determined. Autonegotiation is a feature that allows devices on both ends of a connection to negotiate and agree upon the link speed, duplex mode, and other parameters. However, if one end doesn't support autonegotiation, the duplex mode cannot be negotiated, and it will need to be manually configured on both ends to ensure compatibility and proper communication.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of these is not a standard type of Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable (SFP) module?
- A.
1000BASE-LX/LH
- B.
1000BASE-T
- C.
1000BASE-FX
- D.
1000BASE-ZX
Correct Answer
C. 1000BASE-FXExplanation
The correct answer is 1000BASE-FX. This is because 1000BASE-FX is a standard type of Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable (SFP) module.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What type of cable should you use to connect two switches back to back using their FastEthernet 10/100 ports?
- A.
Rollover cable
- B.
Transfer cable
- C.
Crossover cable
- D.
Straight-through cable
Correct Answer
C. Crossover cableExplanation
To connect two switches back to back using their FastEthernet 10/100 ports, a crossover cable should be used. A crossover cable is designed to connect two similar devices, such as switches, directly to each other without the need for a hub or a switch in between. It allows the transmit signals of one device to be connected to the receive signals of the other device, ensuring proper communication between the switches.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Assume that you have just entered the configure terminal command. To configure the speed of the first FastEthernet interface on a Cisco IOS Software–based Catalyst switch to 100 Mbps, which one of these commands should you enter first?
- A.
Speed 100 mbps
- B.
Speed 100
- C.
Interface fastethernet 0/1
- D.
Interface fast ethernet 0/1
Correct Answer
C. Interface fastethernet 0/1Explanation
To configure the speed of the first FastEthernet interface on a Cisco IOS Software-based Catalyst switch to 100 Mbps, the first command to enter should be "interface fastethernet 0/1". This command allows the user to access the configuration settings for the specified interface. By specifying "fastethernet 0/1", the user is indicating that they want to configure the first FastEthernet interface on the switch.Rate this question:
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- 48.
If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the first thing you should do?
- A.
Reload the switch.
- B.
Use the clear errdisable port command.
- C.
Use the shut and no shut interface-configuration commands.
- D.
Determine the cause of the problem.
Correct Answer
D. Determine the cause of the problem.Explanation
The first thing to do when a switch port is in the errdisable state is to determine the cause of the problem. This involves investigating the error message or logs to identify the specific issue that caused the port to be disabled. Once the cause is determined, appropriate actions can be taken to resolve the problem and bring the port back to an operational state. Simply reloading the switch, using the clear errdisable port command, or using the shut and no shut interface-configuration commands may not address the underlying cause of the errdisable state.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following show interface output information can you use to diagnose a switch port problem?
- A.
Port state.
- B.
Port speed.
- C.
Input errors.
- D.
Collisions.
- E.
All of these answers are correct.
Correct Answer
E. All of these answers are correct.Explanation
All of the options listed (port state, port speed, input errors, and collisions) can provide valuable information for diagnosing a switch port problem. The port state can indicate if the port is up or down, the port speed can help identify any speed mismatches, input errors can indicate issues with incoming data, and collisions can suggest problems with network congestion. Therefore, all of these answers are correct in helping diagnose a switch port problem.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A VLAN is which of the following?
- A.
Collision domain
- B.
Spanning-tree domain
- C.
Broadcast domain
- D.
VTP domain
Correct Answer
C. Broadcast domainExplanation
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of devices in a network that are grouped together based on their function, department, or any other criteria. Within a VLAN, devices can communicate with each other as if they were connected to the same physical network, while being isolated from devices in other VLANs. A broadcast domain refers to the area in a network where broadcast packets are forwarded. In the context of the given options, a VLAN can be considered a broadcast domain as devices within the same VLAN can receive and process broadcast packets sent within that VLAN.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 06, 2011Quiz Created by
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