Informative Quiz On CCNP

134 Questions

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CCNP Quizzes & Trivia

Today we’ll be taking a look at some of the questions you’ll need to be able to answer if you ever want to reach the top levels of your Cisco career certifications. Would you like to be a CCNP? Answer the following informative questions and we’ll see if you have what it takes.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Layer 2 switching uses which of the following values to forward data?
    • A. 

      IP address

    • B. 

      IPX address

    • C. 

      MAC address

    • D. 

      RIP address

    • E. 

      UDP port

  • 2. 
    Multilayer switching (MLS) forwards packets based on what OSI layers?
    • A. 

      Layer 1

    • B. 

      Layer 2

    • C. 

      Layer 3

    • D. 

      Layer 4

    • E. 

      B, c, d

    • F. 

      A, b, c, d

  • 3. 
    Which of the following does a multilayer switch perform?
    • A. 

      Forwarding according to MAC address.

    • B. 

      Forwarding according to IP address.

    • C. 

      Forwarding according to UDP/TCP port numbers.

    • D. 

      All of these answers are correct.

  • 4. 
    What does the 20/80 rule of networking state? (Pick one.)
    • A. 

      Only 20 out of 80 packets arrive at the destination.

    • B. 

      Twenty percent of the network is used 80 percent of the time.

    • C. 

      Twenty percent of the traffic on a network segment travels across the network, whereas 80 percent of it stays local.

    • D. 

      Twenty percent of the traffic on a network segment stays local, whereas 80 percent of it travels across the network.

  • 5. 
    Where does a collision domain exist in a switched network?
    • A. 

      On a single switch port

    • B. 

      Across all switch ports

    • C. 

      On a single VLAN

    • D. 

      Across all VLANs

  • 6. 
    Where does a broadcast domain exist in a switched network?
    • A. 

      On a single switch port

    • B. 

      Across all switch ports

    • C. 

      On a single VLAN

    • D. 

      Across all VLANs

  • 7. 
    What is a VLAN primarily used for?
    • A. 

      To segment a collision domain

    • B. 

      To segment a broadcast domain

    • C. 

      To segment an autonomous system

    • D. 

      To segment a spanning-tree domain

  • 8. 
    How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical campus network design model?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    • E. 

      7

  • 9. 
    End-user PCs should be connected into which of the following hierarchical layers?
    • A. 

      Distribution layer

    • B. 

      Common layer

    • C. 

      Access layer

    • D. 

      Core layer

  • 10. 
    In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution layer typically operate?
    • A. 

      Layer 1

    • B. 

      Layer 2

    • C. 

      Layer 3

    • D. 

      Layer 4

  • 11. 
    A hierarchical network’s distribution layer aggregates which of the following?
    • A. 

      Core switches

    • B. 

      Broadcast domains

    • C. 

      Routing updates

    • D. 

      Access-layer switches

  • 12. 
    In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the following are aggregated?
    • A. 

      Routing tables

    • B. 

      Packet filters

    • C. 

      Distribution switches

    • D. 

      Access-layer switches

  • 13. 
    What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design?
    • A. 

      To facilitate documentation

    • B. 

      To follow political or organizational policies

    • C. 

      To make the network predictable and scalable

    • D. 

      To make the network more redundant and secure

  • 14. 
    Which of the following are building blocks or modules used to build a scalable campus network? (Check all that apply.)
    • A. 

      Access block

    • B. 

      Distribution block

    • C. 

      Core block

    • D. 

      Server farm block

    • E. 

      Switch block

  • 15. 
    Which one or more of the following are the components of a typical switch block?
    • A. 

      Access-layer switches

    • B. 

      Distribution-layer switches

    • C. 

      Core-layer switches

    • D. 

      E-commerce servers

    • E. 

      Service provider switches

  • 16. 
    What are two types of core, or backbone, designs?
    • A. 

      Collapsed core

    • B. 

      Loop-free core

    • C. 

      Dual core

    • D. 

      Layered core

  • 17. 
    In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined to what?
    • A. 

      One access-layer switch port

    • B. 

      One access-layer switch

    • C. 

      One switch block

    • D. 

      The entire campus network

  • 18. 
    What is the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect into a single distribution-layer switch?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      Limited only by the number of ports on the access-layer switch

    • D. 

      Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switch

    • E. 

      Unlimited

  • 19. 
    A switch block should be sized according to what?
    • A. 

      The number of access-layer users

    • B. 

      A maximum of 250 access-layer users

    • C. 

      A study of the traffic patterns and flows

    • D. 

      The amount of rack space available

    • E. 

      The number of servers accessed by users

  • 20. 
    What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose all that apply.)
    • A. 

      IP address space is exhausted.

    • B. 

      You run out of access-layer switch ports.

    • C. 

      Broadcast traffic becomes excessive.

    • D. 

      Traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches.

    • E. 

      Network congestion occurs.

  • 21. 
    How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      8

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Low cost

    • B. 

      Switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at 100% capacity

    • C. 

      High port density of high-speed ports

    • D. 

      A low number of Layer 3 routing peers

  • 23. 
    Which services typically are located at the enterprise edge block? (Choose all that apply.)
    • A. 

      Network management

    • B. 

      Intranet server farms

    • C. 

      VPN and remote access

    • D. 

      E-commerce servers

    • E. 

      End users

  • 24. 
    In a server farm block, where should redundancy be provided? (Choose all that apply.)
    • A. 

      Dual connections from each distribution switch to the core.

    • B. 

      Dual connections from each access switch to the distribution switches.

    • C. 

      Dual connections from each server to the access switches.

    • D. 

      No redundancy is necessary.

  • 25. 
    Which of the following protocols can be used as a tool to discover a network topology?
    • A. 

      RIP

    • B. 

      CDP

    • C. 

      STP

    • D. 

      ICMP

  • 26. 
    Which one of the following tasks is not an appropriate strategy for migrating an existing network into the Enterprise Composite Model?
    • A. 

      Identify groups of end users as switch blocks

    • B. 

      Group common resources into switch blocks

    • C. 

      Identify distribution switches to connect the switch blocks

    • D. 

      Add redundancy between the hierarchical layers

  • 27. 
    Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?
    • A. 

      Ethernet hub

    • B. 

      Layer 2 switch

    • C. 

      Layer 3 switch

    • D. 

      Router

  • 28. 
    When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the collision domain spread?
    • A. 

      No collision domain exists.

    • B. 

      One switch port.

    • C. 

      One VLAN.

    • D. 

      All ports on the switch.All ports on the switch.

  • 29. 
    What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?
    • A. 

      Source MAC address

    • B. 

      Destination MAC address

    • C. 

      Source switch port

    • D. 

      IP addresses

  • 30. 
    What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM table?
    • A. 

      The frame is forwarded to the default port.

    • B. 

      The switch generates an ARP request for the address.

    • C. 

      The switch floods the frame out all ports (except the receiving port).

    • D. 

      The switch drops the frame.

  • 31. 
    In the Catalyst 6500, frames can be filtered with access lists for security and QoS purposes. This filtering occurs according to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Before a CAM table lookup

    • B. 

      After a CAM table lookup

    • C. 

      Simultaneously with a CAM table lookup

    • D. 

      According to how the access lists are configured

  • 32. 
    Access list contents can be merged into which of the following?
    • A. 

      A CAM table

    • B. 

      A TCAM table

    • C. 

      A FIB table

    • D. 

      An ARP table

  • 33. 
    Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of these techniques?
    • A. 

      Route caching

    • B. 

      Netflow switching

    • C. 

      Topology-based switching

    • D. 

      Demand-based switching

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      The first packet is routed and then the flow is cached.

    • B. 

      The switch supervisor CPU forwards each packet.

    • C. 

      The switching hardware learns station addresses and builds a routing database.

    • D. 

      A single database of routing information is built for the switching hardware.

  • 35. 
    In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after forwarding decisions are made?
    • A. 

      Ingress queues

    • B. 

      Egress queues

    • C. 

      CAM table

    • D. 

      TCAM

  • 36. 
    What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry?
    • A. 

      64 bits

    • B. 

      128 bits

    • C. 

      134 bits

    • D. 

      168 bits

  • 37. 
    Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When a packet is matched against an access list, in what order are the TCAM entries evaluated?
    • A. 

      Sequentially in the order of the original access list.

    • B. 

      Numerically by the access list number.

    • C. 

      Alphabetically by the access list name.

    • D. 

      All entries are evaluated in parallel.

  • 38. 
    Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display the addresses in the CAM table?
    • A. 

      Show cam

    • B. 

      Show mac address-table

    • C. 

      Show mac

    • D. 

      Show cam address-table

  • 39. 
    What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?
    • A. 

      Spanning Tree Protocol

    • B. 

      Token Ring

    • C. 

      Ethernet

    • D. 

      Switched Ethernet

  • 40. 
    At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet the same?
    • A. 

      Layer 1

    • B. 

      Layer 2

    • C. 

      Layer 3

    • D. 

      Layer 4

  • 41. 
    At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet different?
    • A. 

      Layer 1

    • B. 

      Layer 2

    • C. 

      Layer 3

    • D. 

      Layer 4

  • 42. 
    What is the maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX connection?
    • A. 

      100 feet

    • B. 

      100 m

    • C. 

      328 m

    • D. 

      500 m

  • 43. 
    Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the following?
    • A. 

      Spanning Tree mode

    • B. 

      Duplex mode

    • C. 

      Quality of service mode

    • D. 

      Error threshold

  • 44. 
    Which of the following cannot be determined if the far end of a connection doesn’t support autonegotiation?
    • A. 

      Link speed

    • B. 

      Link duplex mode

    • C. 

      Link media type

    • D. 

      MAC address

  • 45. 
    Which of these is not a standard type of Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable (SFP) module?
    • A. 

      1000BASE-LX/LH

    • B. 

      1000BASE-T

    • C. 

      1000BASE-FX

    • D. 

      1000BASE-ZX

  • 46. 
    What type of cable should you use to connect two switches back to back using their FastEthernet 10/100 ports?
    • A. 

      Rollover cable

    • B. 

      Transfer cable

    • C. 

      Crossover cable

    • D. 

      Straight-through cable

  • 47. 
    Assume that you have just entered the configure terminal command. To configure the speed of the first FastEthernet interface on a Cisco IOS Software–based Catalyst switch to 100 Mbps, which one of these commands should you enter first?
    • A. 

      Speed 100 mbps

    • B. 

      Speed 100

    • C. 

      Interface fastethernet 0/1

    • D. 

      Interface fast ethernet 0/1

  • 48. 
    If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the first thing you should do?
    • A. 

      Reload the switch.

    • B. 

      Use the clear errdisable port command.

    • C. 

      Use the shut and no shut interface-configuration commands.

    • D. 

      Determine the cause of the problem.

  • 49. 
    Which of the following show interface output information can you use to diagnose a switch port problem?
    • A. 

      Port state.

    • B. 

      Port speed.

    • C. 

      Input errors.

    • D. 

      Collisions.

    • E. 

      All of these answers are correct.

  • 50. 
    A VLAN is which of the following?
    • A. 

      Collision domain

    • B. 

      Spanning-tree domain

    • C. 

      Broadcast domain

    • D. 

      VTP domain

  • 51. 
    Switches provide VLAN connectivity at which layer of the OSI model?
    • A. 

      Layer 1

    • B. 

      Layer 2

    • C. 

      Layer 3

    • D. 

      Layer 4

  • 52. 
    Which one of the following is needed to pass data between two PCs, each connected to a different VLAN?
    • A. 

      Layer 2 switch

    • B. 

      Layer 3 switch

    • C. 

      Trunk

    • D. 

      Tunnel

  • 53. 
    Which Catalyst IOS switch command is used to assign a port to a VLAN?
    • A. 

      Access vlan vlan-id

    • B. 

      Switchport access vlan vlan-id

    • C. 

      Vlan vlan-id

    • D. 

      Set port vlan vlan-id

  • 54. 
    Which of the following is a standardized method of trunk encapsulation?
    • A. 

      802.1d

    • B. 

      802.1Q

    • C. 

      802.3z

    • D. 

      802.1a

  • 55. 
    What is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk encapsulation?
    • A. 

      CDP

    • B. 

      EIGRP

    • C. 

      ISL

    • D. 

      DSL

  • 56. 
    Which of these protocols dynamically negotiates trunking parameters?
    • A. 

      PAgP

    • B. 

      STP

    • C. 

      CDP

    • D. 

      DTP

  • 57. 
    How many different VLANs can an 802.1Q trunk support?
    • A. 

      256

    • B. 

      1024

    • C. 

      4096

    • D. 

      32,768

    • E. 

      65,536

  • 58. 
    Which of the following incorrectly describes a native VLAN?
    • A. 

      Frames are untagged on an 802.1Q trunk.

    • B. 

      Frames are untagged on an ISL trunk.

    • C. 

      Frames can be interpreted by a nontrunking host.

    • D. 

      The native VLAN can be configured for each trunking port.

  • 59. 
    If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a link between them, which one will be negotiated?
    • A. 

      ISL

    • B. 

      802.1Q

    • C. 

      DTP

    • D. 

      VTP

  • 60. 
    Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      Only the native VLAN

    • C. 

      All active VLANs

    • D. 

      Only negotiated VLANs

  • 61. 
    Which command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using negotiation?
    • A. 

      Switch mode trunk

    • B. 

      Switch mode trunk nonegotiate

    • C. 

      Switch mode dynamic auto

    • D. 

      Switch mode dynamic desirable

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is not a Catalyst switch VTP mode?
    • A. 

      Server

    • B. 

      Client

    • C. 

      Designated

    • D. 

      Transparent

  • 63. 
    A switch in VTP transparent mode can do which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Create a new VLAN

    • B. 

      Only listen to VTP advertisements

    • C. 

      Send its own VTP advertisements

    • D. 

      Cannot make VLAN configuration changes

  • 64. 
    Which one of the following is a valid VTP advertisement?
    • A. 

      Triggered update

    • B. 

      VLAN database

    • C. 

      Subset

    • D. 

      Domain

  • 65. 
    Which one of the following is needed for VTP communication?
    • A. 

      A management VLAN

    • B. 

      A trunk link

    • C. 

      An access VLAN

    • D. 

      An IP address

  • 66. 
    Which one of the following VTP modes does not allow any manual VLAN configuration changes?
    • A. 

      Server

    • B. 

      Client

    • C. 

      Designated

    • D. 

      Transparent

  • 67. 
    Select all the parameters that decide whether to accept new VTP information:
    • A. 

      VTP priority

    • B. 

      VTP domain name

    • C. 

      Configuration revision number

    • D. 

      VTP server name

  • 68. 
    How many VTP management domains can a Catalyst switch participate in?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      Unlimited

    • D. 

      4096

  • 69. 
    Which IOS command configures a Catalyst switch for VTP client mode?
    • A. 

      Set vtp mode client

    • B. 

      Vtp client

    • C. 

      Vtp mode client

    • D. 

      Vtp client mode

  • 70. 
    What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
    • A. 

      Limit the number of VLANs in a domain

    • B. 

      Stop unnecessary VTP advertisements

    • C. 

      Limit the extent of broadcast traffic

    • D. 

      Limit the size of the virtual tree

  • 71. 
    Which VLAN number is never eligible for VTP pruning?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      1000

    • D. 

      1001

  • 72. 
    Which of the following might present a VTP problem?
    • A. 

      Two or more VTP servers in a domain

    • B. 

      Two servers with the same configuration revision number

    • C. 

      A server in two domains

    • D. 

      A new server with a higher configuration revision number

  • 73. 
    If a VTP server is configured for VTP version 2, what else must happen for successful VTP communication in a domain?
    • A. 

      A VTP version 2 password must be set.

    • B. 

      All other switches in the domain must be version 2 capable.

    • C. 

      All other switches must be configured for VTP version 2.

    • D. 

      The VTP configuration revision number must be reset.

  • 74. 
    If Fast Ethernet ports are bundled into an EtherChannel, what is the maximum throughput supported on a Catalyst switch?
    • A. 

      100 Mbps

    • B. 

      200 Mbps

    • C. 

      400 Mbps

    • D. 

      800 Mbps

    • E. 

      1600 Mbps

  • 75. 
    Which of these methods distributes traffic over an EtherChannel?
    • A. 

      Round robin

    • B. 

      Least-used link

    • C. 

      A function of address

    • D. 

      A function of packet size

  • 76. 
    What type of interface represents an EtherChannel as a whole?
    • A. 

      Channel

    • B. 

      Port

    • C. 

      Port-channel

    • D. 

      Channel-port

  • 77. 
    Which of the following is not a valid method for EtherChannel load balancing?
    • A. 

      Source MAC address

    • B. 

      Source and destination MAC addresses

    • C. 

      Source IP address

    • D. 

      IP precedence

    • E. 

      UDP/TCP port

  • 78. 
    How can the EtherChannel load-balancing method be set?
    • A. 

      Per switch port

    • B. 

      Per EtherChannel

    • C. 

      Globally per switch

    • D. 

      Can’t be configured

  • 79. 
    What logical operation is performed to calculate EtherChannel load balancing as a function of two addresses?
    • A. 

      OR

    • B. 

      AND

    • C. 

      XOR

    • D. 

      NOR

  • 80. 
    Which one of the following is a valid combination of ports for an EtherChannel?
    • A. 

      Two access links (one VLAN 5, one VLAN 5)

    • B. 

      Two access links (one VLAN 1, one VLAN 10)

    • C. 

      Two trunk links (one VLANs 1 to 10, one VLANs 1, 11 to 20)

    • D. 

      Two Fast Ethernet links (both full duplex, one 10 Mbps)

  • 81. 
    Which of these is a method for negotiating an EtherChannel?
    • A. 

      PAP

    • B. 

      CHAP

    • C. 

      LAPD

    • D. 

      LACP

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is a valid EtherChannel negotiation mode combination between two switches?
    • A. 

      PAgP auto, PAgP auto

    • B. 

      PAgP auto, PAgP desirable

    • C. 

      On, PAgP auto

    • D. 

      LACP passive, LACP passive

  • 83. 
    When is PagP’s “desirable silent” mode useful?
    • A. 

      When the switch should not send PAgP frames

    • B. 

      When the switch should not form an EtherChannel

    • C. 

      When the switch should not expect to receive PAgP frames

    • D. 

      When the switch is using LACP mode

  • 84. 
    Which of the following EtherChannel modes does not send or receive any negotiation frames? a.  b.  c.  d.  e. 
    • A. 

      Channel-group 1 mode passive

    • B. 

      Channel-group 1 mode active

    • C. 

      Channel-group 1 mode on

    • D. 

      Channel-group 1 mode desirable

    • E. 

      Channel-group 1 mode a

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Source and destination MAC addresses.

    • B. 

      Source and destination IP addresses.

    • C. 

      Source and destination TCP/UDP ports.

    • D. 

      None of the other answers is correct.

  • 86. 
    Which command can be used to see the status of an EtherChannel’s links?
    • A. 

      Show channel link

    • B. 

      Show etherchannel status

    • C. 

      Show etherchannel summary

    • D. 

      Show ether channel status

  • 87. 
    How is a bridging loop best described?
    • A. 

      A loop formed between switches for redundancy

    • B. 

      A loop formed by the Spanning Tree Protocol

    • C. 

      A loop formed between switches where frames circulate endlessly

    • D. 

      The round-trip path a frame takes from source to destination

  • 88. 
    Which of these is one of the parameters used to elect a Root Bridge?
    • A. 

      Root Path Cost

    • B. 

      Path Cost

    • C. 

      Bridge Priority

    • D. 

      BPDU revision number

  • 89. 
    If all switches in a network are left at their default STP values, which one of the following is not true?
    • A. 

      The Root Bridge will be the switch with the lowest MAC address.

    • B. 

      The Root Bridge will be the switch with the highest MAC address.

    • C. 

      One or more switches will have a Bridge Priority of 32,768.

    • D. 

      A secondary Root Bridge will be present on the network.

  • 90. 
    Configuration BPDUs are originated by which of the following?
    • A. 

      All switches in the STP domain

    • B. 

      Only the Root Bridge switch

    • C. 

      Only the switch that detects a topology change

    • D. 

      Only the secondary Root Bridge when it takes over

  • 91. 
    Which of these is the single most important design decision to be made in a network running STP?
    • A. 

      Removing any redundant links

    • B. 

      Making sure all switches run the same version of IEEE 802.1D

    • C. 

      Root Bridge placement

    • D. 

      Making sure all switches have redundant links

  • 92. 
    What happens to a port that is neither a Root Port nor a Designated Port?
    • A. 

      It is available for normal use.

    • B. 

      It can be used for load balancing.

    • C. 

      It is put into the Blocking state.

    • D. 

      It is disabled.

  • 93. 
    What is the maximum number of Root Ports that a Catalyst switch can have?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      Unlimited

    • D. 

      None

  • 94. 
    What mechanism is used to set STP timer values for all switches in a network?
    • A. 

      Configuring the timers on every switch in the network.

    • B. 

      Configuring the timers on the Root Bridge switch.

    • C. 

      Configuring the timers on both primary and secondary Root Bridge switches.

    • D. 

      The timers can’t be adjusted.

  • 95. 
    MAC addresses can be placed into the CAM table, but no data can be sent or received if a switch port is in which of the following STP states?
    • A. 

      Blocking

    • B. 

      Forwarding

    • C. 

      Listening

    • D. 

      Learning

  • 96. 
    What is the default “hello” time for IEEE 802.1D?
    • A. 

      1 second

    • B. 

      2 seconds

    • C. 

      30 seconds

    • D. 

      60 seconds

  • 97. 
    Which of the following is the Spanning Tree Protocol defined in the IEEE 802.1Q standard?
    • A. 

      PVST

    • B. 

      CST

    • C. 

      EST

    • D. 

      MST

  • 98. 
    If a switch has 10 VLANs defined and active, how many instances of STP will run using PVST+ versus CST?
    • A. 

      1 for PVST+, 1 for CST

    • B. 

      1 for PVST+, 10 for CST

    • C. 

      10 for PVST+, 1 for CST

    • D. 

      10 for PVST+, 10 for CST

  • 99. 
    Where should the Root Bridge be placed on a network?
    • A. 

      On the fastest switch

    • B. 

      Closest to the most users

    • C. 

      Closest to the center of the network

    • D. 

      On the least-used switch

  • 100. 
    Which of the following is a result of a poorly placed Root Bridge in a network?
    • A. 

      Bridging loops form.

    • B. 

      STP topology can’t be resolved.

    • C. 

      STP topology can take unexpected paths.

    • D. 

      Root Bridge election flapping occurs.

  • 101. 
    Which of these parameters should you change to make a switch become a Root Bridge?
    • A. 

      Switch MAC address

    • B. 

      Path cost

    • C. 

      Port priority

    • D. 

      Bridge priority

  • 102. 
    What is the default 802.1D STP bridge priority on a Catalyst switch?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      32,768

    • D. 

      65,535

  • 103. 
    Which of the following commands is most likely to make a switch become the Root Bridge for VLAN 5, assuming that all switches have the default STP parameters?
    • A. 

      Spanning-tree root

    • B. 

      Spanning-tree root vlan 5

    • C. 

      Spanning-tree vlan 5 priority 100

    • D. 

      Spanning-tree vlan 5 root

  • 104. 
    What is the default path cost of a Gigabit Ethernet switch port?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      19

    • E. 

      1000

  • 105. 
    What command can change the path cost of interface Gigabit Ethernet 3/1 to a value of 8?
    • A. 

      Spanning-tree path-cost 8

    • B. 

      Spanning-tree cost 8

    • C. 

      Spanning-tree port-cost 8

    • D. 

      Spanning-tree gig 3/1 cost 8

  • 106. 
    • A. 

      Nothing—each sends hellos at different times.

    • B. 

      A bridging loop could form because the two switches are out of sync.

    • C. 

      The other switch changes its Hello timer to match the Root Bridge

    • D. 

      The other switch changes its Hello timer to match the Root Bridge

  • 107. 
    What network diameter value is the basis for the default STP timer calculations?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

    • E. 

      15

  • 108. 
    Where should the STP PortFast feature be used?
    • A. 

      An access-layer switch port connected to a PC

    • B. 

      An access-layer switch port connected to a hub

    • C. 

      A distribution-layer switch port connected to an access layer switch

    • D. 

      A core-layer switch port

  • 109. 
    Where should the STP UplinkFast feature be enabled?
    • A. 

      An access-layer switch

    • B. 

      A distribution-layer switch

    • C. 

      A core-layer switch

    • D. 

      All of these answers are correct

  • 110. 
    If used, the STP BackboneFast feature should be enabled on which of these?
    • A. 

      All backbone- or core-layer switches

    • B. 

      All backbone- and distribution-layer switches

    • C. 

      All access-layer switches

    • D. 

      All switches in the network

  • 111. 
    Why is it important to protect the placement of the Root Bridge?
    • A. 

      To keep two Root Bridges from becoming active

    • B. 

      To keep the STP topology stable

    • C. 

      So all hosts have the correct gateway

    • D. 

      So the Root Bridge can have complete knowledge of the STP topology

  • 112. 
    Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting superior BPDUs?
    • A. 

      STP loop guard

    • B. 

      STP BPDU guard

    • C. 

      STP root guard

    • D. 

      UDLD

  • 113. 
    Which of the following commands can you use to enable STP root guard on a switch port?
    • A. 

      Spanning-tree root guard

    • B. 

      Spanning-tree root-guard

    • C. 

      Spanning-tree guard root

    • D. 

      Spanning-tree rootguard enable

  • 114. 
    Where should the STP root guard feature be enabled on a switch?
    • A. 

      All ports

    • B. 

      Only ports where the Root Bridge should never appear

    • C. 

      Only ports where the Root Bridge should be located

    • D. 

      Only ports with PortFast enabled

  • 115. 
    Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting BPDUs when PortFast is enabled?
    • A. 

      STP loop guard

    • B. 

      STP BPDU guard

    • C. 

      STP root guard

    • D. 

      UDLD

  • 116. 
    To maintain a loop-free STP topology, which one of the following should a switch uplink be protected against?
    • A. 

      A sudden loss of BPDUs

    • B. 

      Too many BPDUs

    • C. 

      The wrong version of BPDUs

    • D. 

      BPDUs relayed from the Root Bridge

  • 117. 
    Which of the following commands can enable STP loop guard on a switch port?
    • A. 

      Spanning-tree loop guard

    • B. 

      Spanning-tree guard loop

    • C. 

      Spanning-tree loop-guard

    • D. 

      Spanning-tree loopguard enable

  • 118. 
    STP loop guard detects which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      The sudden appearance of superior BPDUs

    • B. 

      The sudden lack of BPDUs

    • C. 

      The appearance of duplicate BPDUs

    • D. 

      The appearance of two Root Bridges

  • 119. 
    Which of the following features can actively test for the loss of the receive side of a link between switches?
    • A. 

      POST

    • B. 

      BPDU

    • C. 

      UDLD

    • D. 

      STP

  • 120. 
    UDLD must detect a unidirectional link before which of the following?
    • A. 

      The Max Age timer expires

    • B. 

      STP moves the link to the Blocking state

    • C. 

      STP moves the link to the Forwarding state

    • D. 

      STP moves the link to the Listening state

  • 121. 
    What must a switch do when it receives a UDLD message on a link?
    • A. 

      Relay the message on to other switches

    • B. 

      Send a UDLD acknowledgment

    • C. 

      Echo the message back across the link

    • D. 

      Drop the message

  • 122. 
    Which of the following features effectively disables spanning-tree operation on a switch port?
    • A. 

      STP PortFast

    • B. 

      STP BPDU filtering

    • C. 

      STP BPDU guard

    • D. 

      STP root guard

  • 123. 
    Which one of the following enables the use of RSTP?
    • A. 

      PVST+

    • B. 

      RPVST+

    • C. 

      802.1D

    • D. 

      CST

    • E. 

      MST

  • 124. 
    On which standard is RSTP based?
    • A. 

      802.1Q

    • B. 

      802.1D

    • C. 

      802.1w

    • D. 

      802.1s

  • 125. 
    Which of the following is not a port state in RSTP?
    • A. 

      Listening

    • B. 

      Learning

    • C. 

      Discarding

    • D. 

      Forwarding

  • 126. 
    When a switch running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU, what happens?
    • A. 

      The BPDU is discarded or dropped.

    • B. 

      An ICMP message is returned.

    • C. 

      The switch begins to use 802.1D rules on that port.

    • D. 

      The switch disables RSTP.

  • 127. 
    When does an RSTP switch consider a neighbor to be down?
    • A. 

      After three BPDUs are missed

    • B. 

      After six BPDUs are missed

    • C. 

      After the Max Age timer expires

    • D. 

      After the Forward timer expires

  • 128. 
    Which process is used during RSTP convergence?
    • A. 

      BPDU propagation

    • B. 

      Synchronization

    • C. 

      Forward timer expiration

    • D. 

      BPDU acknowledgments

  • 129. 
    What causes RSTP to view a port as a point-to-point port?
    • A. 

      Port speed

    • B. 

      Port media

    • C. 

      Port duplex

    • D. 

      Port priority

  • 130. 
    Which of the following events triggers a topology change with RSTP on a nonedge port?
    • A. 

      A port comes up or goes down.

    • B. 

      A port comes up.

    • C. 

      A port goes down.

    • D. 

      A port moves to the Forwarding state.

  • 131. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of MST?
    • A. 

      A reduced number of STP instances

    • B. 

      Fast STP convergence

    • C. 

      Eliminated need for CST

    • D. 

      Interoperability with PVST+

  • 132. 
    Which of the following standards defines the MST protocol?
    • A. 

      802.1Q

    • B. 

      802.1D

    • C. 

      802.1w

    • D. 

      802.1s

  • 133. 
    How many instances of STP are supported in the Cisco implementation of MST?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      256

    • D. 

      4096

  • 134. 
    What switch command can be used to change from PVST+ to MST?
    • A. 

      Spanning-tree mst enable

    • B. 

      No spanning-tree pvst+

    • C. 

      Spanning-tree mode mst

    • D. 

      Spanning-tree mst