Informative Quiz On CCNP

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1. End-user PCs should be connected into which of the following hierarchical layers?

Explanation

End-user PCs should be connected into the access layer of the hierarchical network design. The access layer is responsible for connecting end-user devices to the network. It provides local network access, authentication, and security services. This layer is also responsible for implementing policies and controlling user access to network resources. By connecting end-user PCs to the access layer, network administrators can efficiently manage and control network traffic, ensuring that end-users have the necessary access to resources while maintaining network security and performance.

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Informative Quiz On CCNP - Quiz

Today we’ll be taking a look at some of the questions you’ll need to be able to answer if you ever want to reach the top levels of your Cisco career certifications. Would you like to be a CCNP? Answer the following informative questions and we’ll see if you have... see morewhat it takes.
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2. Which of the following is a standardized method of trunk encapsulation?

Explanation

802.1Q is a standardized method of trunk encapsulation in computer networking. It is a protocol that allows multiple VLANs to be carried over a single physical link, enabling the efficient use of network resources. This method adds a VLAN tag to the Ethernet frame, indicating the VLAN membership of the frame. By using 802.1Q, network administrators can create virtual LANs and segregate network traffic, improving network performance and security.

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3. Layer 2 switching uses which of the following values to forward data?

Explanation

Layer 2 switching uses MAC addresses to forward data. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network interface cards (NICs) at the factory. Layer 2 switches use these addresses to determine the destination of the data and forward it to the appropriate device on the local network. IP addresses, IPX addresses, RIP addresses, and UDP ports are all used in different layers of the network stack and are not directly used by layer 2 switching.

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4. Which IOS command configures a Catalyst switch for VTP client mode?

Explanation

The correct answer is "vtp mode client". This command is used to configure a Catalyst switch for VTP client mode. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to manage VLAN configurations across a network. By setting the switch to client mode, it will receive VLAN information from a VTP server and synchronize its VLAN database accordingly.

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5. Which Catalyst IOS switch command is used to assign a port to a VLAN?

Explanation

The correct answer is "switchport access vlan vlan-id". This command is used to assign a specific port on a Catalyst IOS switch to a VLAN. By specifying the VLAN ID, the port is configured to belong to that particular VLAN, allowing communication and traffic to flow within that VLAN.

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6. Which of the following is not a Catalyst switch VTP mode?

Explanation

The Designated mode is not a valid VTP mode for Catalyst switches. The VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is used to manage VLAN configurations in a network. The available VTP modes are Server, Client, and Transparent. The Server mode allows for creating, modifying, and deleting VLANs, while the Client mode can only receive and store VLAN information. The Transparent mode forwards VTP advertisements but does not synchronize VLAN information. The Designated mode is not a recognized VTP mode.

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7. Which of these is one of the parameters used to elect a Root Bridge?

Explanation

The Bridge Priority is one of the parameters used to elect a Root Bridge. The Root Bridge is the bridge with the lowest Bridge Priority value, and it serves as the root of the spanning tree. Each bridge in a network has a Bridge Priority value assigned to it, and the bridge with the lowest value becomes the Root Bridge. This parameter is important in determining the topology of the spanning tree network and ensuring efficient forwarding of data packets.

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8. What is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk encapsulation?

Explanation

ISL (Inter-Switch Link) is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk encapsulation. It is a protocol used to carry multiple VLANs over a single physical link between switches. ISL encapsulates the entire Ethernet frame with a header and trailer, adding additional information to identify the VLAN to which the frame belongs. This allows for the transmission of VLAN information across the network. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol used for device discovery. EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is a technology used for high-speed internet access.

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9. What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?

Explanation

The Layer 2 switch uses the destination MAC address to forward frames. Each device on a network has a unique MAC address, and the switch uses this address to determine where to send the frame. By examining the destination MAC address, the switch can determine which port to forward the frame to, ensuring that it reaches the correct device. The source MAC address, source switch port, and IP addresses are not used by the switch for forwarding frames.

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10. What type of cable should you use to connect two switches back to back using their FastEthernet 10/100 ports?

Explanation

To connect two switches back to back using their FastEthernet 10/100 ports, a crossover cable should be used. A crossover cable is designed to connect two similar devices, such as switches, directly to each other without the need for a hub or a switch in between. It allows the transmit signals of one device to be connected to the receive signals of the other device, ensuring proper communication between the switches.

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11. A VLAN is which of the following?

Explanation

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of devices in a network that are grouped together based on their function, department, or any other criteria. Within a VLAN, devices can communicate with each other as if they were connected to the same physical network, while being isolated from devices in other VLANs. A broadcast domain refers to the area in a network where broadcast packets are forwarded. In the context of the given options, a VLAN can be considered a broadcast domain as devices within the same VLAN can receive and process broadcast packets sent within that VLAN.

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12. What type of interface represents an EtherChannel as a whole?

Explanation

A Port-channel interface represents an EtherChannel as a whole. This interface combines multiple physical Ethernet links into a single logical link, providing increased bandwidth and redundancy. It allows for load balancing and fault tolerance by distributing traffic across the bundled links. The Port-channel interface acts as a single entity, allowing for easier configuration and management of the EtherChannel.

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13. What is the maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX connection?

Explanation

The maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX connection is 100 meters. This is because Category 5 cables are designed to support Fast Ethernet speeds of up to 100 Mbps, and the maximum cable length for this speed is 100 meters. Beyond this distance, the signal strength may degrade and cause data transmission issues.

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14. What is the default 802.1D STP bridge priority on a Catalyst switch?

Explanation

The default 802.1D STP bridge priority on a Catalyst switch is 32,768. This value determines the root bridge in a spanning tree network. The bridge with the lowest priority value becomes the root bridge, and all other bridges calculate their path cost to the root bridge based on this value.

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15. What is a VLAN primarily used for?

Explanation

A VLAN, or Virtual Local Area Network, is primarily used to segment a broadcast domain. By dividing a network into multiple VLANs, broadcast traffic is contained within each VLAN, reducing unnecessary network congestion and improving network performance. This segmentation allows for better control over network traffic and enhances security by isolating different groups of devices or users. Additionally, VLANs enable easier management and configuration of network resources, as they can be logically grouped together based on specific requirements or organizational structures.

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16. Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display the addresses in the CAM table?

Explanation

The correct answer is "show mac address-table". This command is used to display the addresses in the CAM (Content Addressable Memory) table on a Catalyst switch. The CAM table is responsible for mapping MAC addresses to corresponding ports on the switch. By using this command, network administrators can view the MAC addresses and their associated ports, which is useful for troubleshooting network connectivity and identifying devices on the network.

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17. Switches provide VLAN connectivity at which layer of the OSI model?

Explanation

Switches provide VLAN connectivity at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Layer 2 is the Data Link layer, which is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network. Switches operate at this layer by using MAC addresses to forward data packets between devices within the same VLAN. By assigning devices to specific VLANs, switches can segregate network traffic and improve network performance and security. Layer 2 switches are also capable of performing basic network functions such as filtering, forwarding, and error checking at this layer.

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18. Which of these is a method for negotiating an EtherChannel?

Explanation

LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) is a method for negotiating an EtherChannel. It is a protocol used to automatically bundle multiple physical links into a single logical link, providing increased bandwidth and redundancy. LACP allows network devices to exchange information and negotiate the formation of an EtherChannel, ensuring that all links in the channel are properly configured and operational. This protocol is commonly used in Ethernet networks to optimize link utilization and improve network performance.

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19. Where should the STP PortFast feature be used?

Explanation

The STP PortFast feature should be used on an access-layer switch port connected to a PC. This feature allows the switch port to immediately transition to the forwarding state, bypassing the usual listening and learning states of the Spanning Tree Protocol. This is useful in situations where a fast convergence is required, such as when connecting end devices like PCs that do not participate in the Spanning Tree Protocol.

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20. Which of the following protocols can be used as a tool to discover a network topology?

Explanation

CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a protocol used by Cisco devices to discover and gather information about neighboring devices on a network. It allows network administrators to obtain details about the devices connected to their Cisco network, such as their IP addresses, capabilities, and platform information. By using CDP, administrators can effectively map out the network topology, identifying the connections between devices and understanding how they are interconnected. Therefore, CDP is a suitable tool for discovering a network topology.

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21. What happens to a port that is neither a Root Port nor a Designated Port?

Explanation

When a port is neither a Root Port nor a Designated Port, it means that it is not the best path to reach the Root Bridge or the designated switch. In this case, the port is put into the Blocking state. The Blocking state is a temporary state in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) where the port is still enabled but does not forward any data. This is done to prevent loops in the network and ensure a stable and loop-free topology.

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22. Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the following?

Explanation

Ethernet autonegotiation determines the duplex mode. Duplex mode refers to the communication method used between two devices on a network. It determines whether the devices can send and receive data simultaneously (full duplex) or only one at a time (half duplex). Autonegotiation allows devices to automatically negotiate and select the appropriate duplex mode based on their capabilities, ensuring efficient and reliable communication.

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23. Which of the following is a valid EtherChannel negotiation mode combination between two switches?

Explanation

PAgP (Port Aggregation Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol used for negotiating and creating EtherChannels. "auto" means that the interface will respond to PAgP messages but will not initiate the negotiation, while "desirable" means that the interface will actively try to form an EtherChannel by sending PAgP messages. Therefore, the combination of "PAgP auto, PAgP desirable" is a valid negotiation mode combination between two switches.

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24. What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM table?

Explanation

When a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not found in the CAM table, it means that the switch does not know the port to which the frame should be forwarded. In this case, the switch will flood the frame out to all ports (except the receiving port) in order to reach the intended destination. This flooding technique ensures that the frame reaches the correct destination by sending it to all connected devices, allowing the device with the correct MAC address to respond and update the switch's CAM table accordingly.

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25. How many different VLANs can an 802.1Q trunk support?

Explanation

An 802.1Q trunk is capable of supporting up to 4096 different VLANs. This is the maximum number of VLANs that can be assigned on a single trunk.

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26. Which of these parameters should you change to make a switch become a Root Bridge?

Explanation

To make a switch become a Root Bridge, you need to change the Bridge priority parameter. The Bridge priority is a value assigned to each switch, and the switch with the lowest Bridge priority becomes the Root Bridge. By changing the Bridge priority to a lower value than the other switches in the network, you can ensure that the switch becomes the Root Bridge.

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27. What switch command can be used to change from PVST+ to MST?

Explanation

The correct answer is "spanning-tree mode mst". This command is used to change the spanning tree mode from PVST+ (Per VLAN Spanning Tree Plus) to MST (Multiple Spanning Tree). MST is a more advanced and efficient spanning tree protocol that allows for the grouping of VLANs into multiple instances, reducing the number of spanning tree instances required in the network.

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28. What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?

Explanation

The IEEE 802.3 standard defines Ethernet. Ethernet is a widely used networking technology that allows devices to communicate over a local area network (LAN). It specifies the physical and data link layer protocols for wired Ethernet networks, including the types of cables, connectors, and signaling used, as well as the format and transmission of data packets. The standard ensures compatibility and interoperability between different Ethernet devices and networks.

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29. Which one of the following is needed for VTP communication?

Explanation

A trunk link is needed for VTP communication because it allows multiple VLANs to be transmitted over a single physical link between switches. This enables the switches to exchange VLAN information and synchronize their VLAN databases. Trunk links use VLAN tagging to identify and separate the different VLANs, ensuring that the correct VLAN information is maintained and communicated between switches. Without a trunk link, VTP communication would not be possible as the VLAN information would not be able to traverse between switches.

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30. Which one of the following VTP modes does not allow any manual VLAN configuration changes?

Explanation

In VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol), the Client mode does not allow any manual VLAN configuration changes. In this mode, the switch receives VLAN information from VTP servers and forwards it to other switches in the network. However, it cannot create, modify, or delete VLANs. The Client mode is typically used in larger networks where centralized VLAN management is preferred, and switches are configured as either servers or clients based on their role in the network.

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31. If a switch has 10 VLANs defined and active, how many instances of STP will run using PVST+ versus CST?

Explanation

In a switch with 10 VLANs defined and active, PVST+ (Per VLAN Spanning Tree Plus) will run 10 instances of STP, one for each VLAN. This is because PVST+ creates a separate spanning tree for each VLAN. On the other hand, CST (Common Spanning Tree) will only run one instance of STP for all VLANs. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 for PVST+, 1 for CST.

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32. What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design?

Explanation

Breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design helps in making the network predictable and scalable. This design allows for easy management and troubleshooting by dividing the network into smaller, manageable segments. It also helps in efficient allocation of resources and bandwidth, as well as easy expansion as the network grows. Additionally, a hierarchical design enables better performance and reduces the chances of network congestion by controlling the flow of traffic.

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33. Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting BPDUs when PortFast is enabled?

Explanation

When PortFast is enabled on a switch port, it allows the port to transition directly from blocking to forwarding state without going through the listening and learning states. However, this can cause issues if a BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) is received on that port, as it could potentially create a loop in the network. STP BPDU guard is a feature that protects the switch port from accepting BPDUs when PortFast is enabled. If a BPDU is received on a port with BPDU guard enabled, the port will be put into an error-disabled state, preventing any potential loop from occurring.

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34. What mechanism is used to set STP timer values for all switches in a network?

Explanation

The correct answer is configuring the timers on the Root Bridge switch. In a spanning tree protocol (STP) network, the Root Bridge switch is responsible for determining the topology and path selection. By configuring the timers on the Root Bridge switch, the network administrator can control the values for the various STP timers such as hello time, forward delay, and maximum age. These timers determine how quickly the STP protocol reacts to changes in the network and how long it takes for switches to transition between states.

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35. How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical campus network design model?

Explanation

The hierarchical campus network design model recommends having three layers. This design consists of the core layer, distribution layer, and access layer. The core layer is responsible for high-speed switching and routing, connecting different buildings or campuses. The distribution layer provides connectivity between the core and access layers, handling traffic filtering and policy enforcement. The access layer connects end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. Having three layers in the hierarchical model helps to improve network performance, scalability, and manageability.

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36. Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?

Explanation

A Layer 2 switch performs transparent bridging. Transparent bridging is a technique used in computer networks to connect multiple network segments together. It operates at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets between different network segments. A Layer 2 switch can learn and store MAC addresses in its forwarding table, allowing it to make forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses. This allows for efficient and fast switching of data packets between different network segments, making Layer 2 switches ideal for creating local area networks (LANs).

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37. Which one of the following is needed to pass data between two PCs, each connected to a different VLAN?

Explanation

A Layer 3 switch is needed to pass data between two PCs connected to different VLANs because it operates at both Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and Layer 3 (Network Layer) of the OSI model. It can route traffic between different VLANs by examining the IP addresses in the packets and making forwarding decisions based on the destination IP address. This allows the PCs in different VLANs to communicate with each other.

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38. What logical operation is performed to calculate EtherChannel load balancing as a function of two addresses?

Explanation

The logical operation performed to calculate EtherChannel load balancing as a function of two addresses is XOR. XOR (exclusive OR) is a logical operation that returns true only if the inputs are different. In the context of EtherChannel load balancing, XOR is used to determine which link in the channel will be used for transmitting a packet based on the source and destination addresses of the packet. If the addresses are different, XOR will result in true, indicating that the packet should be transmitted through one link. If the addresses are the same, XOR will result in false, indicating that the packet should be transmitted through the other link.

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39. Which command can be used to see the status of an EtherChannel's links?

Explanation

The command "show etherchannel summary" can be used to see the status of an EtherChannel's links. This command provides a summary of the EtherChannel configuration, including information about the individual links in the EtherChannel and their status. It allows the user to quickly check the status of the links and ensure that they are functioning properly.

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40. Which of the following show interface output information can you use to diagnose a switch port problem?

Explanation

All of the options listed (port state, port speed, input errors, and collisions) can provide valuable information for diagnosing a switch port problem. The port state can indicate if the port is up or down, the port speed can help identify any speed mismatches, input errors can indicate issues with incoming data, and collisions can suggest problems with network congestion. Therefore, all of these answers are correct in helping diagnose a switch port problem.

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41. Which VLAN number is never eligible for VTP pruning?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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42. When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the collision domain spread?

Explanation

When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, the collision domain is limited to that specific switch port. This means that collisions can only occur between devices connected to that particular port. The switch itself helps to eliminate collisions by creating separate collision domains for each port, allowing for simultaneous communication between devices connected to different ports without interference. Therefore, in this scenario, the collision domain does not extend beyond the switch port to any other ports or VLANs.

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43. Assume that you have just entered the configure terminal command. To configure the speed of the first FastEthernet interface on a Cisco IOS Software–based Catalyst switch to 100 Mbps, which one of these commands should you enter first?

Explanation

To configure the speed of the first FastEthernet interface on a Cisco IOS Software-based Catalyst switch to 100 Mbps, the first command to enter should be "interface fastethernet 0/1". This command allows the user to access the configuration settings for the specified interface. By specifying "fastethernet 0/1", the user is indicating that they want to configure the first FastEthernet interface on the switch.

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44. What is the maximum number of Root Ports that a Catalyst switch can have?

Explanation

A Catalyst switch can have a maximum of 1 Root Port. The Root Port is the switch port that offers the fastest path to reach the root bridge in a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network. In a network, there can only be one root bridge, and each switch will have only one Root Port to connect to the root bridge. Therefore, the maximum number of Root Ports that a Catalyst switch can have is 1.

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45. When a switch running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU, what happens?

Explanation

When a switch running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU, it begins to use 802.1D rules on that port. This is because 802.1D BPDU is the standard protocol used by Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), while RSTP is an enhanced version of STP. When a switch receives an 802.1D BPDU, it recognizes that the connected device is using STP and switches its operation to use 802.1D rules on that specific port. This allows the switch to maintain compatibility and communicate effectively with the connected device using STP.

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46. How is a bridging loop best described?

Explanation

A bridging loop is best described as a loop formed between switches where frames circulate endlessly. This occurs when there are multiple paths between switches and the Spanning Tree Protocol is not properly configured to prevent loops. The frames keep circulating within the loop, causing network congestion and potentially leading to network failures.

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47. What is the default "hello" time for IEEE 802.1D?

Explanation

The default "hello" time for IEEE 802.1D is 2 seconds. This refers to the interval at which bridge devices in a network send hello messages to each other to ensure connectivity and exchange information.

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48. Where should the Root Bridge be placed on a network?

Explanation

The Root Bridge should be placed closest to the center of the network because it is responsible for coordinating and managing the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a network. By placing it at the center, it can ensure efficient communication and optimal path selection for data transmission between different network segments. This placement allows for better network stability and performance by minimizing the distance and latency between switches and users.

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49. Which of the following does a multilayer switch perform?

Explanation

A multilayer switch performs all of the mentioned tasks. It is capable of forwarding data packets based on MAC addresses, IP addresses, and UDP/TCP port numbers. This allows the switch to efficiently route traffic at both the data link layer and network layer, making it a versatile networking device.

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50. In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the following are aggregated?

Explanation

In the core layer of a hierarchical network, distribution switches are aggregated. The core layer is responsible for moving large amounts of data quickly and efficiently. Distribution switches are used to aggregate traffic from access-layer switches and route it to the appropriate destination. They help to optimize network performance by distributing traffic across multiple paths and providing redundancy. Therefore, distribution switches play a crucial role in aggregating and managing the flow of data in the core layer of a hierarchical network.

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51. Configuration BPDUs are originated by which of the following?

Explanation

Configuration BPDUs are originated only by the Root Bridge switch. BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) are used by the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to exchange information between switches in order to determine the topology of the network and prevent loops. The Root Bridge switch is responsible for initiating the exchange of BPDUs and sending them to all other switches in the STP domain. The other switches in the network receive and process these BPDUs to determine their own roles and paths to the Root Bridge. Therefore, only the Root Bridge switch originates the Configuration BPDUs.

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52. Why is it important to protect the placement of the Root Bridge?

Explanation

To keep the STP topology stable, it is important to protect the placement of the Root Bridge. The Root Bridge is the central point in a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network and determines the path for data transmission. By protecting the placement of the Root Bridge, it ensures that the network topology remains consistent and prevents any potential disruptions or loops in the network. This helps to maintain a stable and reliable network infrastructure.

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53. Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?

Explanation

By default, all active VLANs are allowed on a trunk link. Trunk links are used to carry traffic from multiple VLANs, so by allowing all active VLANs on the trunk link, it ensures that all VLANs can communicate with each other. This allows for efficient communication and flexibility in network design.

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54. Which of the following might present a VTP problem?

Explanation

A new server with a higher configuration revision number might present a VTP problem because when a new server with a higher revision number is added to a VTP domain, it will overwrite the existing VTP configuration on all switches in the domain, causing them to lose their VLAN configuration. This can lead to network connectivity issues and disruption in communication.

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55. Which of these is the single most important design decision to be made in a network running STP?

Explanation

Root Bridge placement is the single most important design decision to be made in a network running STP. The Root Bridge is the central point in the network and determines the path for all traffic. By strategically placing the Root Bridge, network administrators can optimize the network's performance and ensure efficient traffic flow. The Root Bridge should be located in a position that minimizes the distance and hops to other switches, reducing latency and improving network stability.

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56. Which of the following commands can enable STP loop guard on a switch port?

Explanation

The correct command to enable STP loop guard on a switch port is "spanning-tree guard loop". This command enables the loop guard feature, which helps to prevent loops in the network by placing a port into the loop-inconsistent state if it stops receiving BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units). By enabling loop guard on a switch port, it ensures that the port does not participate in the spanning tree until it starts receiving BPDUs again, thus preventing potential network loops.

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57. If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the first thing you should do?

Explanation

The first thing to do when a switch port is in the errdisable state is to determine the cause of the problem. This involves investigating the error message or logs to identify the specific issue that caused the port to be disabled. Once the cause is determined, appropriate actions can be taken to resolve the problem and bring the port back to an operational state. Simply reloading the switch, using the clear errdisable port command, or using the shut and no shut interface-configuration commands may not address the underlying cause of the errdisable state.

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58. Which of the following features can actively test for the loss of the receive side of a link between switches?

Explanation

UDLD stands for Unidirectional Link Detection. It is a feature that actively tests for the loss of the receive side of a link between switches. It detects if a link is unidirectional, meaning that data can be transmitted in one direction but not received in the other direction. UDLD sends periodic messages between switches to verify that the receive side of the link is functioning properly. If the receive side is not functioning, UDLD can take actions such as disabling the affected port to prevent network issues.

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59. Where does a broadcast domain exist in a switched network?

Explanation

A broadcast domain exists on a single VLAN in a switched network. A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of devices that are connected to the same network and can communicate with each other as if they were on the same physical network. In a switched network, each VLAN is isolated from others, creating separate broadcast domains. This means that broadcast traffic, such as ARP requests or DHCP requests, is only forwarded within the same VLAN and does not cross over to other VLANs. Therefore, a broadcast domain exists within a single VLAN in a switched network.

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60. Access list contents can be merged into which of the following?

Explanation

Access list contents can be merged into a TCAM (Ternary Content Addressable Memory) table. TCAM tables are used in networking devices for fast and efficient packet forwarding. They allow for matching of packet headers against predefined rules or access lists. By merging access list contents into a TCAM table, the network device can quickly and accurately determine how to handle incoming packets based on the defined access control rules. This helps in improving network performance and security.

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61. Which of the following is not a valid method for EtherChannel load balancing?

Explanation

The IP precedence is not a valid method for EtherChannel load balancing. EtherChannel load balancing typically uses source MAC address, source and destination MAC addresses, source IP address, and UDP/TCP port to distribute traffic across multiple links in an EtherChannel. IP precedence, on the other hand, is a field in the IP header that is used for quality of service (QoS) purposes, such as prioritizing certain types of traffic over others. It is not directly related to load balancing.

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62. How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?

Explanation

In order to ensure redundancy and avoid a single point of failure, it is recommended to have at least two distribution switches built into each switch block. This allows for load balancing and provides backup in case one switch fails. Having only one distribution switch would increase the risk of network downtime and potential disruptions. Having four or eight distribution switches would be excessive and unnecessary for most network setups, as it would result in increased complexity and cost without significant benefits.

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63. In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after forwarding decisions are made?

Explanation

After forwarding decisions are made in a switch, frames are placed in the egress queues. Egress queues are responsible for temporarily storing frames before they are transmitted out of the switch. Once the forwarding decisions are made, the switch determines the appropriate egress port for each frame and places them in the corresponding egress queue. From there, the frames are transmitted out of the switch in the order they were placed in the egress queues.

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64. Which of the following cannot be determined if the far end of a connection doesn't support autonegotiation?

Explanation

If the far end of a connection doesn't support autonegotiation, the link duplex mode cannot be determined. Autonegotiation is a feature that allows devices on both ends of a connection to negotiate and agree upon the link speed, duplex mode, and other parameters. However, if one end doesn't support autonegotiation, the duplex mode cannot be negotiated, and it will need to be manually configured on both ends to ensure compatibility and proper communication.

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65. Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of these techniques?

Explanation

Multilayer switches using CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) are based on topology-based switching. This technique involves building a forwarding table based on the network topology, which allows the switch to make forwarding decisions based on the physical connections between devices. By using this approach, the switch can quickly forward packets without the need for additional processing or lookups, resulting in improved performance and efficiency.

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66. Which of these protocols dynamically negotiates trunking parameters?

Explanation

DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) is the correct answer because it is a Cisco proprietary protocol that allows switches to dynamically negotiate trunking parameters, such as whether to form a trunk or not, the trunking encapsulation type, and the allowed VLANs. PAgP (Port Aggregation Protocol) is used for the creation of EtherChannels, STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is used for loop prevention, and CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is used for network device discovery. However, none of these protocols are specifically designed for dynamic negotiation of trunking parameters.

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67. How many VTP management domains can a Catalyst switch participate in?

Explanation

A Catalyst switch can participate in only one VTP management domain. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) allows for the synchronization of VLAN information across multiple switches. Each VTP management domain is a separate administrative entity that can have its own VLAN configurations. A switch can only be a member of one management domain at a time, meaning it can only synchronize VLAN information with switches within that specific domain. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

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68. If all switches in a network are left at their default STP values, which one of the following is not true?

Explanation

The given statement is not true because in a network where all switches are left at their default STP values, the Root Bridge will be the switch with the lowest MAC address, not the highest. The Root Bridge is the bridge with the lowest Bridge ID, which is determined by combining the Bridge Priority and the MAC address. Therefore, the switch with the lowest MAC address will have the lowest Bridge ID and become the Root Bridge.

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69. What is the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect into a single distribution-layer switch?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Limited only by the number of ports on the distribution-layer switch." This means that the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect to a single distribution-layer switch is determined by the number of available ports on the distribution-layer switch. As long as there are enough ports on the distribution-layer switch, there is no specific limit to the number of access-layer switches that can be connected.

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70. Which command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using negotiation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "switch mode trunk nonegotiate". This command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using negotiation. By using the "nonegotiate" keyword, the switch port will be forced to become a trunk without sending or receiving Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) negotiation frames. This means that the trunking will be enabled immediately without any negotiation process.

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71. If a VTP server is configured for VTP version 2, what else must happen for successful VTP communication in a domain?

Explanation

For successful VTP communication in a domain with a VTP server configured for version 2, all other switches in the domain must also be version 2 capable. This means that they should have the ability to understand and process VTP version 2 messages. If any switch in the domain is not version 2 capable, it will not be able to communicate effectively with the VTP server and may cause inconsistencies in the VTP domain.

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72. Which of the following commands can you use to enable STP root guard on a switch port?

Explanation

The correct answer is "spanning-tree guard root". This command is used to enable STP root guard on a switch port. STP root guard is a feature that protects the network from potential issues caused by unauthorized switches attempting to become the root bridge. By enabling root guard, the switch will not allow any other switch with a lower priority to become the root bridge. This helps to ensure the stability and integrity of the network.

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73. Which of the following is not a port state in RSTP?

Explanation

Listening is not a port state in RSTP. In RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol), there are three port states: Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding. Listening is not one of the defined port states in RSTP.

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74. Which one of the following is a valid combination of ports for an EtherChannel?

Explanation

An EtherChannel is a technology used to combine multiple physical links into a single logical link, providing increased bandwidth and redundancy. In this case, the valid combination of ports for an EtherChannel is two access links, where both links are configured with the same VLAN, in this case, VLAN 5. This allows traffic from VLAN 5 to be load balanced across the two links, improving performance and providing redundancy in case one link fails.

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75. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet different?

Explanation

Traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model. Layer 1, also known as the physical layer, is responsible for the physical transmission of data over the network medium. It deals with the electrical, mechanical, and functional aspects of the physical connection between devices. In the case of Ethernet, the different speeds (10-Mbps, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet) refer to the different physical transmission rates at which data is sent over the network.

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76. To maintain a loop-free STP topology, which one of the following should a switch uplink be protected against?

Explanation

To maintain a loop-free STP topology, a switch uplink should be protected against a sudden loss of BPDUs. BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) are used by switches to exchange information and maintain the spanning tree topology. If a switch suddenly loses BPDUs, it will not be able to communicate with other switches and may not be aware of changes in the network, which could lead to loops and network instability. Therefore, protecting against a sudden loss of BPDUs is crucial to maintain a loop-free STP topology.

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77. On which standard is RSTP based?

Explanation

RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) is based on the 802.1w standard. This standard was developed to improve the convergence time of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) and provide faster network recovery in case of link failures. RSTP introduces new features such as Port Roles and Port States, which allow for quicker detection and transition of ports to forwarding state. Therefore, 802.1w is the correct standard on which RSTP is based.

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78. Where does a collision domain exist in a switched network?

Explanation

A collision domain exists on a single switch port in a switched network. In a switched network, each switch port operates as an individual collision domain. This means that when data is transmitted on a switch port, it does not collide with data transmitted on other switch ports. Switches use MAC address tables to forward data only to the intended destination port, effectively isolating each port and creating separate collision domains. This allows for efficient and simultaneous communication between devices connected to different switch ports.

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79. What are the most important aspects to consider when designing the core layer in a large network? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

The most important aspects to consider when designing the core layer in a large network include switches that can efficiently forward traffic, even when every uplink is at 100% capacity, and high port density of high-speed ports. These aspects are crucial in ensuring that the core layer can handle the high volume of traffic and provide fast and reliable connectivity. Low cost and a low number of Layer 3 routing peers are not mentioned as important aspects for designing the core layer in this context.

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80. In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution layer typically operate?

Explanation

Devices in the distribution layer typically operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model. Layer 3, also known as the network layer, is responsible for routing packets across different networks. The distribution layer connects different LANs or VLANs and performs functions like routing, filtering, and policy-based traffic control. It ensures that packets are delivered to the correct destination network by examining IP addresses and making routing decisions. Therefore, devices in the distribution layer primarily operate at Layer 3 to facilitate inter-network communication.

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81. Which of the following is a result of a poorly placed Root Bridge in a network?

Explanation

A poorly placed Root Bridge in a network can result in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) topology taking unexpected paths. The Root Bridge is a crucial component in STP, as it determines the primary path for data transmission. If the Root Bridge is poorly placed, it may lead to inefficient or suboptimal paths being chosen for data transmission, potentially causing delays or congestion in the network.

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82. Which of the following events triggers a topology change with RSTP on a nonedge port?

Explanation

When a port moves to the Forwarding state in RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol), it triggers a topology change on a nonedge port. This means that when a port transitions from a blocking or discarding state to the forwarding state, it indicates a change in the network topology. This could be due to a new link being added or an existing link becoming active. As a result, RSTP will recalculate the spanning tree to ensure optimal network connectivity and prevent loops.

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83. A hierarchical network's distribution layer aggregates which of the following?

Explanation

A hierarchical network's distribution layer aggregates access-layer switches. The distribution layer is responsible for connecting the access layer to the core layer in a hierarchical network design. It acts as a central point for traffic distribution and provides services such as routing, filtering, and policy enforcement. By aggregating the access-layer switches, the distribution layer reduces the number of connections required to connect the access layer to the core layer, improving scalability and manageability of the network.

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84. A switch in VTP transparent mode can do which one of the following?

Explanation

A switch in VTP transparent mode can create a new VLAN. In VTP transparent mode, the switch does not participate in VTP advertisements or updates, but it still has the ability to create and modify VLANs locally. This means that it can independently create new VLANs without relying on VTP advertisements from other switches.

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85. What is the default path cost of a Gigabit Ethernet switch port?

Explanation

The default path cost of a Gigabit Ethernet switch port is 4. This means that when determining the best path for data transmission, the switch will consider the port with the lowest path cost as the preferred route. A lower path cost indicates a faster and more efficient connection.

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86. What command can change the path cost of interface Gigabit Ethernet 3/1 to a value of 8?

Explanation

The command "spanning-tree cost 8" can change the path cost of interface Gigabit Ethernet 3/1 to a value of 8. This command is used in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to manually set the cost of a specific interface. By setting the cost to 8, the interface will be preferred over interfaces with higher costs when determining the best path in the network.

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87. Which of the following commands is most likely to make a switch become the Root Bridge for VLAN 5, assuming that all switches have the default STP parameters?

Explanation

The command "spanning-tree vlan 5 priority 100" is most likely to make a switch become the Root Bridge for VLAN 5. This command sets the priority of the switch to 100, which is lower than the default priority of 32768. The switch with the lowest priority becomes the Root Bridge, so by setting the priority to a lower value, this command increases the likelihood of the switch becoming the Root Bridge.

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88. Where should the STP root guard feature be enabled on a switch?

Explanation

The STP root guard feature should be enabled on only those ports where the Root Bridge should never appear. This feature is designed to protect the network from unauthorized switches trying to become the Root Bridge. By enabling root guard on these specific ports, any switch that attempts to become the Root Bridge will be blocked from doing so, ensuring that the designated Root Bridge remains in control of the network.

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89. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet the same?

Explanation

Traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet all operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Layer 2 is the data link layer, which is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes over a physical link. It provides error detection and correction, as well as addressing and framing of data packets. Therefore, these Ethernet technologies share the same layer because they all perform similar functions at the data link layer.

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90. Which of the following features effectively disables spanning-tree operation on a switch port?

Explanation

STP BPDU filtering effectively disables spanning-tree operation on a switch port. BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) filtering is a feature that prevents the transmission and reception of BPDU packets on a specific port. By filtering out these packets, the switch port is no longer participating in the spanning-tree protocol, effectively disabling its operation. This feature is useful in situations where spanning-tree is not needed or desired, such as when connecting to a non-STP aware device or in a network with a different loop prevention mechanism.

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91. Which one of the following enables the use of RSTP?

Explanation

RPVST+ (Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus) is an advanced version of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) that enables the use of Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a per-VLAN basis. It is an enhancement of PVST+ (Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus) which allows for faster convergence and better utilization of network resources by enabling rapid transition between port states. RPVST+ is backward compatible with PVST+ and is commonly used in modern Ethernet networks to provide redundancy and loop prevention.

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92. Which of the following standards defines the MST protocol?

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.1s. This standard defines the Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) protocol, which is used to create multiple spanning tree instances in a network. MST allows for load balancing and redundancy by dividing the network into multiple regions, each with its own spanning tree. This helps to optimize network performance and ensure high availability.

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93. What does the 20/80 rule of networking state? (Pick one.)

Explanation

The 20/80 rule of networking states that twenty percent of the traffic on a network segment stays local, whereas 80 percent of it travels across the network. This means that only a small portion of the network traffic remains within a specific segment, while the majority of it is transmitted across different segments or even outside of the network. This rule highlights the importance of efficient network design and management to ensure smooth and effective data transmission.

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94. Which process is used during RSTP convergence?

Explanation

During RSTP convergence, the process of synchronization is used. This process ensures that all switches in the network have the same information about topology changes and the state of each port. Synchronization helps in avoiding loops and ensuring the stability of the network. It involves exchanging information between switches and updating their port states accordingly. This ensures that all switches reach a consistent and converged state, allowing for efficient and reliable network operation.

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95. Which of the following EtherChannel modes does not send or receive any negotiation frames? a.  b.  c.  d.  e. 

Explanation

The correct answer is "channel-group 1 mode on". In this mode, there is no negotiation of any kind. The link is simply turned on and traffic is allowed to pass through without any negotiation frames being sent or received.

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96. Which of these is not a standard type of Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable (SFP) module?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1000BASE-FX. This is because 1000BASE-FX is a standard type of Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable (SFP) module.

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97. Which of the following incorrectly describes a native VLAN?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Frames are untagged on an ISL trunk." because ISL (Inter-Switch Link) is a Cisco proprietary trunking protocol that does not support untagged frames. In ISL, all frames are encapsulated with an ISL header, which includes VLAN information. Therefore, frames on an ISL trunk are always tagged.

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98. Select all the parameters that decide whether to accept new VTP information:

Explanation

The VTP domain name and configuration revision number are the parameters that determine whether to accept new VTP information. The VTP domain name is used to identify the VTP domain, and if the incoming VTP information has a different domain name, it will not be accepted. The configuration revision number is used to track the most recent update to the VTP configuration, and if the incoming VTP information has a lower revision number, it will not be accepted.

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99. When is PagP's "desirable silent" mode useful?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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100. Where should the STP UplinkFast feature be enabled?

Explanation

The STP UplinkFast feature should be enabled on an access-layer switch. This feature is used to provide fast convergence in the event of a link failure. By enabling UplinkFast on an access-layer switch, it allows for quick recovery and minimal disruption to the network. Enabling this feature on distribution or core-layer switches is not necessary as these switches are typically not directly connected to end devices and do not play a critical role in providing access to the network.

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101. UDLD must detect a unidirectional link before which of the following?

Explanation

UDLD (Unidirectional Link Detection) is a protocol used to detect unidirectional links in a network. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model. When STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) moves a link to the Forwarding state, it means that the link is active and carrying network traffic. Therefore, UDLD must detect a unidirectional link before STP moves the link to the Forwarding state to ensure that the link is bidirectional and functioning properly.

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102. How many instances of STP are supported in the Cisco implementation of MST?

Explanation

In the Cisco implementation of MST, 16 instances of STP are supported. MST (Multiple Spanning Tree) allows for the creation of multiple spanning tree instances on a network, each with its own VLAN-to-instance mapping. This helps in load balancing and optimizing network performance. By supporting 16 instances of STP, Cisco provides flexibility and scalability for managing large networks with multiple VLANs.

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103. If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a link between them, which one will be negotiated?

Explanation

If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a link between them, the negotiation will result in ISL being chosen as the trunk encapsulation protocol. ISL (Inter-Switch Link) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that allows for the encapsulation of multiple VLANs over a single physical link. Although 802.1Q is a standard trunking protocol, it may not be supported by both switches. DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) is used for automatically negotiating trunking on a link, but it does not determine the specific trunk encapsulation protocol. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is used for managing VLANs, but it does not determine the trunk encapsulation protocol either.

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104. Which answer describes multilayer switching with CEF?

Explanation

Multilayer switching with CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) involves building a single database of routing information for the switching hardware. This database allows the switching hardware to make fast and efficient forwarding decisions based on the destination address of the packets. Instead of the switch supervisor CPU forwarding each packet individually, CEF caches the first packet's routing information and subsequent packets with the same flow are then forwarded based on the cached information. This improves performance and reduces the load on the CPU.

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105. Two computers are the only hosts sending IP data across an EtherChannel between two switches. Several different applications are being used between them. Which of these load-balancing methods would be more likely to use the most links in the EtherChannel?

Explanation

The load-balancing method that would be more likely to use the most links in the EtherChannel is based on the source and destination TCP/UDP ports. This method distributes the traffic across multiple links based on the TCP or UDP port numbers of the source and destination. Since there are several different applications being used between the two computers, each application may have a different port number, resulting in a more even distribution of traffic across the available links in the EtherChannel.

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106. Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When a packet is matched against an access list, in what order are the TCAM entries evaluated?

Explanation

The TCAM entries in an access list are evaluated in parallel, meaning that they are all evaluated at the same time. This allows for faster processing of packets as they can be matched against multiple entries simultaneously. The order of the original access list, the access list number, or the access list name does not affect the evaluation of the TCAM entries.

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107. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

Explanation

VTP pruning is used to limit the extent of broadcast traffic in a network. By enabling VTP pruning, unnecessary broadcast traffic is prevented from being forwarded to switches that do not have any active ports in the respective VLAN. This helps to reduce the amount of broadcast traffic on the network, improving overall network performance and efficiency.

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108. Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting superior BPDUs?

Explanation

STP root guard is a feature that protects a switch port from accepting superior BPDUs. Superior BPDUs are BPDUs that are received from a switch with a lower bridge ID, indicating that it has a higher priority to become the root bridge. By enabling STP root guard on a port, the switch ensures that the port will not accept any superior BPDUs and will not participate in the root bridge election process. This helps to prevent accidental or unauthorized changes to the network topology and ensures stability in the spanning tree network.

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109. When does an RSTP switch consider a neighbor to be down?

Explanation

An RSTP switch considers a neighbor to be down after three BPDUs are missed. BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) are messages exchanged between switches to establish and maintain network connectivity. By monitoring the receipt of BPDUs, an RSTP switch can determine if a neighboring switch is still active and reachable. If three consecutive BPDUs are missed from a neighbor, the RSTP switch assumes that the neighbor is no longer available and considers it to be down.

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110. In a server farm block, where should redundancy be provided? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

Redundancy should be provided in multiple areas within a server farm block to ensure high availability and fault tolerance. Dual connections from each distribution switch to the core allow for redundancy at the network backbone level. Dual connections from each access switch to the distribution switches provide redundancy at the access layer. Dual connections from each server to the access switches offer redundancy at the server level, allowing for load balancing and failover. By implementing redundancy in these areas, the server farm block can continue to function even if there is a failure in one of the components.

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111. Which one of the following is a valid VTP advertisement?

Explanation

A valid VTP advertisement refers to a message that is sent by a VTP server to inform other switches in the network about its VLAN configuration. In this context, the term "subset" can be considered a valid VTP advertisement as it represents a portion or a smaller group of VLANs within a larger VLAN configuration. This advertisement can be used to update and synchronize VLAN information across multiple switches in the network.

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112. What causes RSTP to view a port as a point-to-point port?

Explanation

RSTP views a port as a point-to-point port based on its duplex setting. In a point-to-point connection, there are only two devices connected directly to each other, allowing for full-duplex communication. Full-duplex means that data can be transmitted and received simultaneously. RSTP identifies the port as a point-to-point port when it is set to full-duplex mode, indicating that it can support simultaneous bidirectional communication.

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113. In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined to what?

Explanation

In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined to one switch block. This means that the broadcast traffic is limited to the specific area or segment of the network where the PC and the corresponding switch block are located. It does not propagate to the entire campus network, which helps to minimize network congestion and improve overall network performance.

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114. Which of these methods distributes traffic over an EtherChannel?

Explanation

A function of address distributes traffic over an EtherChannel. This means that the distribution of traffic is based on the source or destination address of the packets. The specific algorithm used may vary, but essentially it ensures that the traffic is evenly distributed across the links in the EtherChannel based on the address information.

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115. STP loop guard detects which of the following conditions?

Explanation

STP loop guard is a feature that helps in preventing loops in a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) network. It detects the sudden lack of BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) on a port. BPDUs are messages exchanged between switches to establish and maintain the spanning tree topology. If a port stops receiving BPDUs, it indicates a potential problem such as a link failure or a misconfiguration. By detecting the sudden lack of BPDUs, loop guard can block the port and prevent the creation of a loop in the network.

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116. Which of the following is not a characteristic of MST?

Explanation

MST (Multiple Spanning Tree) is a protocol that allows for the creation of multiple spanning trees within a network. It provides a reduced number of STP instances, meaning that instead of having a separate spanning tree for each VLAN, MST groups multiple VLANs into a single spanning tree instance. This reduces the complexity and overhead of managing multiple spanning trees. MST also ensures fast STP convergence, which means that in the event of a network topology change, the network can quickly adapt and reconfigure itself to maintain connectivity. Additionally, MST allows for interoperability with PVST+ (Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus), which is a Cisco proprietary protocol. However, MST does not eliminate the need for CST (Common Spanning Tree), as CST is still required to provide a loop-free topology for VLANs that are not part of any MST instance.

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117. What network diameter value is the basis for the default STP timer calculations?

Explanation

The network diameter value of 7 is the basis for the default Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) timer calculations. The network diameter represents the maximum number of switches or bridges that a frame must traverse in order to reach its destination. By using this value, STP can calculate and adjust timers to ensure that the network remains stable and prevents loops.

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118. If Fast Ethernet ports are bundled into an EtherChannel, what is the maximum throughput supported on a Catalyst switch?

Explanation

When Fast Ethernet ports are bundled into an EtherChannel on a Catalyst switch, the maximum throughput supported is 1600 Mbps. This is because each Fast Ethernet port has a maximum throughput of 100 Mbps, and when multiple ports are bundled together, their throughputs are combined. Therefore, if four Fast Ethernet ports are bundled, the maximum throughput would be 400 Mbps (4 x 100 Mbps). In this case, the maximum throughput is 1600 Mbps, indicating that multiple Fast Ethernet ports are being used to achieve higher speeds.

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119. MAC addresses can be placed into the CAM table, but no data can be sent or received if a switch port is in which of the following STP states?

Explanation

In the Learning state of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), the switch is still learning the MAC addresses of devices connected to its ports. During this state, the switch listens to network traffic and populates its MAC address table. However, no data can be sent or received until the switch transitions to the Forwarding state. Therefore, if a switch port is in the Learning state, no data can be sent or received.

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120. What must a switch do when it receives a UDLD message on a link?

Explanation

When a switch receives a UDLD (Unidirectional Link Detection) message on a link, it is required to echo the message back across the same link. This is done to verify that the link is bidirectional and to detect any unidirectional link failures. By echoing the message back, the switch ensures that the link is functioning properly in both directions.

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121. What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry?

Explanation

The mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry are 134 bits in size. This means that both the mask and pattern fields are 134 bits long and can store information or data of that size.

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122. How can the EtherChannel load-balancing method be set?

Explanation

The EtherChannel load-balancing method can be set globally per switch. This means that the load-balancing method will be applied to all the EtherChannels on that particular switch. It cannot be configured on a per switch port or per EtherChannel basis.

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123. Multilayer switching (MLS) forwards packets based on what OSI layers?

Explanation

Multilayer switching (MLS) forwards packets based on OSI layers 2, 3, and 4. Layer 2 is the data link layer, which handles the physical addressing of devices on the network. Layer 3 is the network layer, responsible for logical addressing and routing. Layer 4 is the transport layer, which manages end-to-end communication between devices. Therefore, MLS considers all these layers when forwarding packets.

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124. What are two types of core, or backbone, designs?

Explanation

The two types of core designs mentioned in the answer are "Collapsed core" and "Dual core". A collapsed core design refers to a network architecture where the core and distribution layers are combined into a single layer, reducing complexity and cost. On the other hand, a dual core design involves having two separate core layers for redundancy and increased reliability. These designs are commonly used in network infrastructure to ensure efficient and reliable data transmission.

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125. In the Catalyst 6500, frames can be filtered with access lists for security and QoS purposes. This filtering occurs according to which of the following?

Explanation

Frames in the Catalyst 6500 are filtered with access lists for security and QoS purposes. The filtering occurs according to how the access lists are configured. This means that the access lists define the specific criteria and rules for filtering frames, such as source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, or other parameters. The frames are then filtered based on these configured access lists. The filtering process takes place after a CAM table lookup, which is used to determine the appropriate outgoing interface for the frame.

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126. Which of the following is the Spanning Tree Protocol defined in the IEEE 802.1Q standard?

Explanation

CST stands for Common Spanning Tree and is the Spanning Tree Protocol defined in the IEEE 802.1Q standard. It is used in networks that have multiple VLANs and ensures that only one spanning tree is used for all VLANs, reducing the complexity and overhead of managing multiple spanning trees.

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127. Which one of the following tasks is not an appropriate strategy for migrating an existing network into the Enterprise Composite Model?

Explanation

The task of identifying distribution switches to connect the switch blocks is not an appropriate strategy for migrating an existing network into the Enterprise Composite Model. The Enterprise Composite Model is a hierarchical network design that consists of access, distribution, and core layers. In this model, switch blocks are connected to distribution switches, which are then connected to the core layer. Therefore, the distribution switches should already be identified and in place before migrating the network into the Enterprise Composite Model.

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128. Which one or more of the following are the components of a typical switch block?

Explanation

Access-layer switches and distribution-layer switches are components of a typical switch block. Access-layer switches are responsible for connecting end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. Distribution-layer switches are used to connect access-layer switches to the core-layer switches. Core-layer switches are not mentioned in the question, but they are another component of a typical switch block, as they are responsible for routing data between different networks. E-commerce servers and service provider switches are not components of a typical switch block.

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129. A switch block should be sized according to what?

Explanation

A switch block should be sized according to the number of access-layer users and a study of the traffic patterns and flows. The number of access-layer users is important because it determines the capacity needed to handle the network traffic. A study of the traffic patterns and flows helps to understand the data flow and identify potential bottlenecks or areas of high traffic, allowing for proper sizing of the switch block to ensure optimal performance and efficiency.

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130. If used, the STP BackboneFast feature should be enabled on which of these?

Explanation

The STP BackboneFast feature should be enabled on all switches in the network. This feature is used to speed up the convergence of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in case of a link failure. By enabling this feature on all switches, it ensures that the network can quickly recover from any link failures and maintain a stable and efficient network topology.

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131. What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

When a switch block is too large, several evidence can be observed. Firstly, the broadcast traffic becomes excessive. This is because a large switch block means more devices, which leads to an increase in broadcast messages that are sent to all devices in the network. Secondly, traffic is throttled at the distribution-layer switches. This happens because the distribution-layer switches have limited capacity and may struggle to handle the high volume of traffic generated by the large switch block. Lastly, network congestion occurs. The excessive traffic and limited capacity of the switches can result in congestion, causing delays and performance issues in the network.

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132. Hat happens if the Root Bridge switch and another switch are configured with different STP hello timer values?

Explanation

If the Root Bridge switch and another switch are configured with different STP hello timer values, the other switch will change its Hello timer to match the Root Bridge. This is because the Hello timer is used by switches to exchange information and determine the best path to the Root Bridge. In order to ensure that the switches are in sync and to prevent any bridging loops from forming, the other switch adjusts its Hello timer to match that of the Root Bridge.

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133. Which services typically are located at the enterprise edge block? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation

The services typically located at the enterprise edge block are VPN and remote access and e-commerce servers. VPN and remote access services allow employees or authorized users to securely connect to the enterprise network from remote locations. E-commerce servers are used to host online stores or conduct online transactions. These services are typically placed at the enterprise edge block to ensure secure access and efficient delivery of services to external users or customers.

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134. Which of the following are building blocks or modules used to build a scalable campus network? (Check all that apply.)

Explanation

The correct answer is Core block, Server farm block, and Switch block. These three building blocks or modules are commonly used to build a scalable campus network. The core block is responsible for high-speed connectivity within the network and acts as the central hub. The server farm block is used to house and manage the servers that provide various services to the network. The switch block is used to connect different network devices and facilitate communication between them. Together, these building blocks form the foundation of a scalable and efficient campus network.

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End-user PCs should be connected into which of the following...
Which of the following is a standardized method of trunk...
Layer 2 switching uses which of the following values to forward data?
Which IOS command configures a Catalyst switch for VTP client mode?
Which Catalyst IOS switch command is used to assign a port to a VLAN?
Which of the following is not a Catalyst switch VTP mode?
Which of these is one of the parameters used to elect a Root Bridge?
What is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk encapsulation?
What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?
What type of cable should you use to connect two switches back to back...
A VLAN is which of the following?
What type of interface represents an EtherChannel as a whole?
What is the maximum cable distance for a Category 5 100BASE-TX...
What is the default 802.1D STP bridge priority on a Catalyst switch?
What is a VLAN primarily used for?
Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display the addresses in the...
Switches provide VLAN connectivity at which layer of the OSI model?
Which of these is a method for negotiating an EtherChannel?
Where should the STP PortFast feature be used?
Which of the following protocols can be used as a tool to discover a...
What happens to a port that is neither a Root Port nor a Designated...
Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the following?
Which of the following is a valid EtherChannel negotiation mode...
What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM...
How many different VLANs can an 802.1Q trunk support?
Which of these parameters should you change to make a switch become a...
What switch command can be used to change from PVST+ to MST?
What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?
Which one of the following is needed for VTP communication?
Which one of the following VTP modes does not allow any manual VLAN...
If a switch has 10 VLANs defined and active, how many instances of STP...
What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into a hierarchical...
Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting...
What mechanism is used to set STP timer values for all switches in a...
How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical campus network...
Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?
Which one of the following is needed to pass data between two PCs,...
What logical operation is performed to calculate EtherChannel load...
Which command can be used to see the status of an EtherChannel's...
Which of the following show interface output information can you use...
Which VLAN number is never eligible for VTP pruning?
When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the...
Assume that you have just entered the configure terminal command. To...
What is the maximum number of Root Ports that a Catalyst switch can...
When a switch running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU, what happens?
How is a bridging loop best described?
What is the default "hello" time for IEEE 802.1D?
Where should the Root Bridge be placed on a network?
Which of the following does a multilayer switch perform?
In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the following...
Configuration BPDUs are originated by which of the following?
Why is it important to protect the placement of the Root Bridge?
Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?
Which of the following might present a VTP problem?
Which of these is the single most important design decision to be made...
Which of the following commands can enable STP loop guard on a switch...
If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the first thing...
Which of the following features can actively test for the loss of the...
Where does a broadcast domain exist in a switched network?
Access list contents can be merged into which of the following?
Which of the following is not a valid method for EtherChannel load...
How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?
In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after forwarding...
Which of the following cannot be determined if the far end of a...
Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of these techniques?
Which of these protocols dynamically negotiates trunking parameters?
How many VTP management domains can a Catalyst switch participate in?
If all switches in a network are left at their default STP values,...
What is the maximum number of access-layer switches that can connect...
Which command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using...
If a VTP server is configured for VTP version 2, what else must happen...
Which of the following commands can you use to enable STP root guard...
Which of the following is not a port state in RSTP?
Which one of the following is a valid combination of ports for an...
At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and...
To maintain a loop-free STP topology, which one of the following...
On which standard is RSTP based?
Where does a collision domain exist in a switched network?
What are the most important aspects to consider when designing the...
In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution layer typically...
Which of the following is a result of a poorly placed Root Bridge in a...
Which of the following events triggers a topology change with RSTP on...
A hierarchical network's distribution layer aggregates which of the...
A switch in VTP transparent mode can do which one of the following?
What is the default path cost of a Gigabit Ethernet switch port?
What command can change the path cost of interface Gigabit Ethernet...
Which of the following commands is most likely to make a switch become...
Where should the STP root guard feature be enabled on a switch?
At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and...
Which of the following features effectively disables spanning-tree...
Which one of the following enables the use of RSTP?
Which of the following standards defines the MST protocol?
What does the 20/80 rule of networking state? (Pick one.)
Which process is used during RSTP convergence?
Which of the following EtherChannel modes does not send or receive any...
Which of these is not a standard type of Gigabit Interface Converter...
Which of the following incorrectly describes a native VLAN?
Select all the parameters that decide whether to accept new VTP...
When is PagP's "desirable silent" mode useful?
Where should the STP UplinkFast feature be enabled?
UDLD must detect a unidirectional link before which of the following?
How many instances of STP are supported in the Cisco implementation of...
If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a...
Which answer describes multilayer switching with CEF?
Two computers are the only hosts sending IP data across an...
Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When a packet is...
What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
Which of the following features protects a switch port from accepting...
When does an RSTP switch consider a neighbor to be down?
In a server farm block, where should redundancy be provided? (Choose...
Which one of the following is a valid VTP advertisement?
What causes RSTP to view a port as a point-to-point port?
In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC...
Which of these methods distributes traffic over an EtherChannel?
STP loop guard detects which of the following conditions?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of MST?
What network diameter value is the basis for the default STP timer...
If Fast Ethernet ports are bundled into an EtherChannel, what is the...
MAC addresses can be placed into the CAM table, but no data can be...
What must a switch do when it receives a UDLD message on a link?
What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry?
How can the EtherChannel load-balancing method be set?
Multilayer switching (MLS) forwards packets based on what OSI layers?
What are two types of core, or backbone, designs?
In the Catalyst 6500, frames can be filtered with access lists for...
Which of the following is the Spanning Tree Protocol defined in the...
Which one of the following tasks is not an appropriate strategy for...
Which one or more of the following are the components of a typical...
A switch block should be sized according to what?
If used, the STP BackboneFast feature should be enabled on which of...
What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose...
Hat happens if the Root Bridge switch and another switch are...
Which services typically are located at the enterprise edge block?...
Which of the following are building blocks or modules used to build a...
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