Quiz About CCNP Route - Q1-q30

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| By Jordbluenose
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Jordbluenose
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 648
Questions: 30 | Attempts: 275

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CCNP Quizzes & Trivia

Welcome to a quiz on what it takes to become a Cisco Certified Network Professionals, which is someone in the IT industry – typically Network Operations Specialists, administrators or engineers – who has achieved a professional level of Cisco career certification. What do you need to know to make it to that point? Take the quiz to find out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2always be the DR and maintain adjacency. Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.

    • A.

      Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value

    • B.

      Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.

    • C.

      Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.

    • D.

      Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.

    • E.

      Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
    D. Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0 and to configure a loopback interface on R2 with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers. By setting the priority value to 0 on the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3, R2 will always be elected as the designated router (DR) because the DR is chosen based on the highest priority value. Additionally, by configuring a loopback interface on R2 with a higher IP address than the other routers, R2 will have a higher router ID, which will also help maintain adjacency.

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  • 2. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabledon both routers. Which two router commands should be used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

    • B.

      Ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224

    • C.

      Summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31

    • D.

      Ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63

    • E.

      Serial interface on router A

    • F.

      Serial interface on router B

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
    E. Serial interface on router A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192" because this command is used to summarize the attached routes in EIGRP. The IP address 192.168.10.64 represents the network address to be summarized, and the subnet mask 255.255.255.192 represents the range of addresses to be included in the summary. This command should be applied to the serial interface on router A because it is the interface that connects to the network that needs to be summarized.

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  • 3. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is seeing routes that are advertised by router R2, and R2 is seeing routes thatare advertised by R1. Which two statements are true when using EIGRP and an L3 MPLS VPN? (Choosetwo.)

    • A.

      Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1

    • B.

      Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE2

    • C.

      Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router R2

    • D.

      Router R2 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1

    • E.

      Router R2 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router R1

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1
    D. Router R2 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Router R1 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1 and Router R2 has established an EIGRP neighbor relationship with router PE1. This is because in an L3 MPLS VPN, the routers at the customer edge (CE) establish EIGRP neighbor relationships with the routers at the provider edge (PE). In this case, R1 is the CE router and PE1 is the PE router, and R2 is also a CE router that has established a neighbor relationship with PE1.

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  • 4. 

    Which two EIGRP and MPLS implementation statements are true? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Two EIGRP routers must be on the same IP subnet when connecting over a Layer 2 MPLS VPN backbone.

    • B.

      Two EIGRP routers must be on the same IP subnet when connecting over a Layer 3 MPLS VPN backbone.

    • C.

      Two EIGRP routers must be on the different IP subnet when connecting over a Layer 2 MPLS VPNbackbone.

    • D.

      Two EIGRP routers must be on different IP subnets when connecting over a Layer 3 MPLS VPNbackbone.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Two EIGRP routers must be on the same IP subnet when connecting over a Layer 2 MPLS VPN backbone.
    D. Two EIGRP routers must be on different IP subnets when connecting over a Layer 3 MPLS VPNbackbone.
  • 5. 

    What are two effective ways to prevent the EIGRP stuck-in-active problem? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Modify keepalive timers on point-to-point connections

    • B.

      Manually summarize routes wherever possible.

    • C.

      Configure core routers with SIA-Guard

    • D.

      Configure distribution routers with SIA-Guard

    • E.

      Set K-values to their default

    • F.

      Maintain a hierarchical network design

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Manually summarize routes wherever possible.
    F. Maintain a hierarchical network design
  • 6. 

    On an OSPF multiaccess network, which multicast address must a non-DR router use to send an LSU packet that contains new link-state information

    • A.

      224.0.0.1

    • B.

      224.0.0.2

    • C.

      224.0.0.5

    • D.

      224.0.0.6

    • E.

      224.0.0.9

    Correct Answer
    D. 224.0.0.6
    Explanation
    A non-DR (Designated Router) router on an OSPF multiaccess network must use the multicast address 224.0.0.6 to send an LSU (Link State Update) packet that contains new link-state information. This multicast address is reserved for OSPF AllDRouters and is used to send updates to all routers on the network, including the DR and BDR (Backup Designated Router). This ensures that all routers receive the updated link-state information and can maintain consistent routing tables.

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  • 7. 

    Which two variables must match between two OSPF routers to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Area IDs

    • B.

      K-values

    • C.

      Process IDs

    • D.

      Router priorities

    • E.

      Hello and dead intervals

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Area IDs
    E. Hello and dead intervals
    Explanation
    The area IDs must match between two OSPF routers in order to form a neighbor adjacency. This is because OSPF routers within the same area can exchange routing information. Additionally, the hello and dead intervals must also match between the routers. The hello interval is the time interval at which OSPF routers send hello packets to discover and maintain neighbor relationships. The dead interval is the time interval at which a router considers a neighbor to be unreachable if it does not receive any hello packets. Matching these intervals ensures proper communication and neighbor adjacency between the routers.

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  • 8. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a recent OSPF stub configuration between R3and R4. The only routes that should appear on the routing table for R4 are intra-area routes and the default route. However, interarea routes are also appearing. What must the administrator do to fix this problem?

    • A.

      Issue the keyword stub on R3

    • B.

      Issue the keyword no-summary on R3.

    • C.

      Issue the keyword nssa on R3

    • D.

      Issue the keyword stub on R4

    • E.

      Issue the keyword no-summary on R4

    • F.

      Issue the keyword nssa on R4

    Correct Answer
    B. Issue the keyword no-summary on R3.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to issue the keyword "no-summary" on R3. By doing this, R3 will not advertise summary routes to R4, which will prevent interarea routes from appearing in the routing table of R4. This will ensure that only intra-area routes and the default route are present in R4's routing table as intended.

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  • 9. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands need to be used on R1 and R2 to create a virtual link to and from area 0? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      R2(config-router)#area 0 virtual-link 1.1.1.1

    • B.

      R1(config-router)#area 0 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

    • C.

      R2(config-router)#area 5 virtual-link 1.1.1.1

    • D.

      R1(config-router)#area 5 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

    • E.

      R2(config-router)#area 7 virtual-link 1.1.1.1

    • F.

      R1(config-router)#area 7 virtual-link 2.2.2.2

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. R2(config-router)#area 5 virtual-link 1.1.1.1
    D. R1(config-router)#area 5 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
    Explanation
    To create a virtual link to and from area 0, the commands "R2(config-router)#area 5 virtual-link 1.1.1.1" and "R1(config-router)#area 5 virtual-link 2.2.2.2" need to be used. This is because the virtual link is created between two ABRs (Area Border Routers) in different areas, and in this case, R2 is in area 5 and R1 is in area 0. Therefore, the virtual link needs to be configured on R2 in area 5 and on R1 in area 0 to establish connectivity between the two areas.

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  • 10. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The BGP sessions are established between all routers. RTC receives route updates for network 170.10.0.0 from autonomous system 300 with the weight attribute set to 3000. RTB learns about network 170.10.0.0 from autonomous system 200 with a weight of 2000. Which router will be used by RTA as a next hop to reach network 170.10.0.0?

    • A.

      RTC because of the highest weight

    • B.

      RTC because of the T1 link

    • C.

      RTC because of the longest AS_PATH

    • D.

      RTB because of the lowest weight

    • E.

      RTB because of the slow 64-kb/s link

    • F.

      RTB because of the shortest AS_PATH

    Correct Answer
    F. RTB because of the shortest AS_PATH
    Explanation
    RTA will use RTB as the next hop to reach network 170.10.0.0 because RTB has the shortest AS_PATH. The AS_PATH attribute in BGP represents the path that a route has taken through autonomous systems. In this scenario, RTB learned about the network from autonomous system 200, while RTC received route updates from autonomous system 300. Since RTB has a shorter AS_PATH, it is preferred as the next hop by RTA.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Assume router R2 does not have BGP enabled. However, the neighbour remote-as router configuration command has been entered on routers R1 and R3. Based on the information that is presented, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      R1 will establish a peer relationship with R2 because they belong to the same BGP autonomous system.

    • B.

      R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 because they have an IBGP session established.

    • C.

      R1 will establish a peer relationship with R2 although they do not have an IBGP session established.

    • D.

      R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 although they are not directly connected

    • E.

      R1 will establish a peer relationship with R2 because they are directly connected

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 because they have an IBGP session established.
    D. R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 although they are not directly connected
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 because they have an IBGP session established. This is because the "neighbor remote-as" command has been entered on both R1 and R3, indicating that they are configured to establish an IBGP session. Additionally, R1 will establish a peer relationship with R3 although they are not directly connected. This is because BGP allows for the establishment of peer relationships between routers that are not directly connected as long as the necessary configuration commands are in place.

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  • 12. 

    What is a characteristic of an IBGP session type?

    • A.

      Neighbors may be located anywhere within multiple autonomous systems, even several hops away from each other.

    • B.

      A session typically occurs between routers in different autonomous systems with multiple ISPs.

    • C.

      It can be established between routers in the same AS even if they are not link partners.

    • D.

      It occurs between routers in two different autonomous systems

    Correct Answer
    C. It can be established between routers in the same AS even if they are not link partners.
    Explanation
    An IBGP session can be established between routers in the same autonomous system (AS) even if they are not directly connected as link partners. This means that the routers can be located anywhere within the AS, regardless of their physical distance or network topology. This characteristic allows for more flexibility and scalability in the design and configuration of the AS's internal routing system.

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  • 13. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Assume all routers are running BGP sessions and both links are operational. Which procedure would ensure that AS1 routers use link 1.1.1.1 for packet transmittal to AS2?

    • A.

      Set RTA local preference to 50 and other AS1 router local preference to 100.

    • B.

      Set RTA local preference to 100 and other AS1 router local preference to 50.

    • C.

      Set RTB local preference to 50 and other AS2 router local preference to 100.

    • D.

      Set RTB local preference to 100 and other AS2 router local preference to 50.

    Correct Answer
    B. Set RTA local preference to 100 and other AS1 router local preference to 50.
    Explanation
    Setting the local preference to 100 on RTA and 50 on other AS1 routers will ensure that AS1 routers use link 1.1.1.1 for packet transmittal to AS2. The local preference attribute is used by BGP routers to determine the preferred exit point for outgoing traffic. A higher local preference value indicates a higher preference for a particular route. Therefore, by setting a higher local preference on RTA and a lower local preference on other AS1 routers, traffic will be directed towards link 1.1.1.1.

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  • 14. 

    Which statement about stateless autoconfiguration is true?

    • A.

      A host can autoconfigure itself by appending its MAC address to the local link prefix (64 bits)

    • B.

      Autoconfiguration allows devices to connect themselves to the network via IOS router DHCP services.

    • C.

      Autoconfiguration is well suited for devices such as servers and print servers.

    • D.

      During the autoconfiguration process, a router advertises the IPv6 64-bit prefix of its interface, and the host prepends this prefix to its modified EUI-64 formatted MAC address or privacy extension.

    • E.

      During the autoconfiguration process, the host sends a router advertisement, and the router replies with a router solicitation.

    Correct Answer
    D. During the autoconfiguration process, a router advertises the IPv6 64-bit prefix of its interface, and the host prepends this prefix to its modified EUI-64 formatted MAC address or privacy extension.
    Explanation
    Stateless autoconfiguration is a process in IPv6 where a host can configure its own IP address without the need for a DHCP server. In this process, the router advertises its IPv6 64-bit prefix, and the host uses its modified EUI-64 formatted MAC address or privacy extension to create its unique interface identifier. The host then combines this identifier with the router's prefix to form its complete IPv6 address. This allows the host to autoconfigure itself without relying on external DHCP services or manual configuration.

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  • 15. 

    Assume that the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command has already been applied on a router. What is the effect of entering the ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 interface configuration command?

    • A.

      CEF will be disabled.

    • B.

      CEF will be enabled.

    • C.

      OSPF routing for IPv6 will be enabled on this interface.

    • D.

      The IPv6 address that is configured on the interface will be used as the router ID

    Correct Answer
    C. OSPF routing for IPv6 will be enabled on this interface.
    Explanation
    Entering the "ipv6 ospf 1 area 1" interface configuration command enables OSPF routing for IPv6 on the specified interface. This means that the router will start exchanging OSPF routing information with other routers in the same OSPF area for IPv6. This command does not affect CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) and does not change the router ID.

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  • 16. 

    Which ICMPv6 message provides prefix, prefix length and default gateway information for an IPv6 device?

    • A.

      Neighbour Advertisement

    • B.

      Neighbour Solicitation

    • C.

      Router Advertisement

    • D.

      Router Solicitation

    Correct Answer
    C. Router Advertisement
    Explanation
    Router Advertisement is the correct answer because it is an ICMPv6 message that is sent by routers to provide network configuration information to IPv6 devices. This message includes the prefix, prefix length, and default gateway information, allowing the devices to configure their IPv6 addresses and routing tables accordingly. Neighbour Advertisement and Neighbour Solicitation messages are used for address resolution in IPv6, while Router Solicitation is used by devices to request router configuration information.

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  • 17. 

    Which mechanism optimizes the TCP window size by multiplying the product of the bandwidth times theround-trip delay?

    • A.

      Bandwidth Delay Product

    • B.

      Sliding Windows

    • C.

      Maximum segment size

    • D.

      Path MTU Delivery

    Correct Answer
    A. Bandwidth Delay Product
    Explanation
    The Bandwidth Delay Product is the mechanism that optimizes the TCP window size by multiplying the product of the bandwidth times the round-trip delay. This product represents the maximum amount of data that can be in transit on the network at any given time, and by setting the TCP window size to this value, the network can achieve optimal throughput without overwhelming the receiver. Sliding Windows, Maximum segment size, and Path MTU Delivery are not directly related to optimizing the TCP window size in this way.

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  • 18. 

    Which command is used by a router to only announce a default route in it's RIPng updates?

    • A.

      Router(config-if)# ipv6 rip name default-information

    • B.

      Router(config-if)# ipv6 rip name default-information originate

    • C.

      Router(config-if)# ipv6 rip name default-information only

    • D.

      Router(config-if)# ipv6 rip name default-information originate only

    Correct Answer
    C. Router(config-if)# ipv6 rip name default-information only
    Explanation
    The command "Router(config-if)# ipv6 rip name default-information only" is used by a router to only announce a default route in its RIPng updates.

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  • 19. 

    Which type of address is used to send traffic to a group of devices?

    • A.

      Unicast

    • B.

      Multicast

    • C.

      Anycast

    • D.

      Broadcast

    Correct Answer
    B. Multicast
    Explanation
    Multicast is the correct answer because it is the type of address used to send traffic to a group of devices. Unlike unicast, which sends data to a single device, multicast allows for efficient distribution of data to multiple devices that have joined a specific group. This is commonly used in applications such as video streaming or online gaming, where the same data needs to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously. Anycast is used to send data to the nearest device in a group, while broadcast sends data to all devices on a network.

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  • 20. 

    What is the IPv4 multicast address used by EIGRP?

    • A.

      224.0.0.5

    • B.

      224.0.0.6

    • C.

      224.0.0.9

    • D.

      224.0.0.10

    Correct Answer
    D. 224.0.0.10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 224.0.0.10. This is the IPv4 multicast address used by EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol), a routing protocol used in computer networks. Multicast addresses are used to send data to a group of devices instead of a single destination. In the case of EIGRP, 224.0.0.10 is the multicast address used for EIGRP updates and queries to be sent to all EIGRP routers in the network.

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  • 21. 

    Which VPN solution is used to better scale large IPsec hub-to-spoke and spoke-to-spoke networks?

    • A.

      GRE

    • B.

      DMVPN

    • C.

      Layer 2 MPLS VPN

    • D.

      Layer 3 MPLS VPN

    • E.

      Hybrid VPN

    Correct Answer
    B. DMVPN
    Explanation
    DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN) is the correct answer. DMVPN is used to better scale large IPsec hub-to-spoke and spoke-to-spoke networks. It provides a scalable and efficient solution for connecting multiple remote sites in a secure manner. DMVPN uses a combination of IPsec and GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) to create a dynamically-meshed network topology, allowing for easy scalability and flexibility. This makes it an ideal choice for large networks where scalability is a key requirement. Layer 2 MPLS VPN, Layer 3 MPLS VPN, and Hybrid VPN are not specifically designed for scaling IPsec networks in the same way as DMVPN.

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  • 22. 

    What must be done before RIPng can be enabled?

    • A.

      IPv6 must be enabled on the interface using the ipv6 enable interface command

    • B.

      IPv6 must be enabled on the router using the ipv6 enable global configuration command

    • C.

      The router must be configured with at least one IPv6 address on an interface

    • D.

      IPv6 routing must be enabled using the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command

    Correct Answer
    D. IPv6 routing must be enabled using the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command
    Explanation
    Before RIPng can be enabled, IPv6 routing must be enabled using the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command. This command enables the router to forward IPv6 packets and allows it to participate in IPv6 routing protocols like RIPng. Simply enabling IPv6 on the interface or router and configuring IPv6 addresses on interfaces are necessary steps for IPv6 functionality, but specifically enabling IPv6 routing is required for RIPng to be enabled.

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  • 23. 

    In which routing protocol and type of active interface automatically enabled for that routing protocol? Choose two.

    • A.

      Classic EIGRP for IPv6

    • B.

      Named EIGRP only

    • C.

      Traditional OSPFv3

    • D.

      OSPFv3 with Address Families only

    • E.

      IPv4 Interface

    • F.

      IPv6 Interface

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Named EIGRP only
    F. IPv6 Interface
    Explanation
    Named EIGRP only is the correct answer because it is a routing protocol that supports automatic activation of interfaces. IPv6 Interface is also correct because EIGRP for IPv6 specifically supports IPv6 interfaces for routing.

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  • 24. 

    Which IGP routing protocols use a 32-bit router-ID? Choose all that apply.

    • A.

      EIGRP for IPv4

    • B.

      EIGRP for IPv6

    • C.

      OSPFv2

    • D.

      OSPFv3

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. EIGRP for IPv4
    B. EIGRP for IPv6
    C. OSPFv2
    D. OSPFv3
    Explanation
    Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 use a 32-bit router-ID. OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 also use a 32-bit router-ID.

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  • 25. 

    Which command is used to enable OSPFv3 using address families on an interface?

    • A.

      Router(config-if)#ospfv3 pid [ ipv4 | ipv6 ] area area-id

    • B.

      Router(config-router-af)#network prefix/prefix-length area area-id

    • C.

      Router(config-if)#[ipv4|ipv6] ospfv3 area area-id

    • D.

      Router(config-router-af)#prefix/prefix-length area area-id activate

    Correct Answer
    A. Router(config-if)#ospfv3 pid [ ipv4 | ipv6 ] area area-id
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Router(config-if)#ospfv3 pid [ ipv4 | ipv6 ] area area-id". This command is used to enable OSPFv3 using address families on an interface. The "ospfv3" command is used to enable OSPFv3, "pid" specifies the process ID for OSPFv3, and "[ ipv4 | ipv6 ]" specifies the address family. "area area-id" specifies the OSPFv3 area ID.

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  • 26. 

    Which statement is true concerning OSPF messages when using OSPFv3 with address families?

    • A.

      IPv4 is used for OSPF messages for IPv4 and IPv6

    • B.

      IPv6 is used for OSPF messages for IPv4 and IPv6

    • C.

      IPv4 is used for OSPF messages for IPv4 and IPv6

    • D.

      The layer layer protocol used to send OSPF messages must be configured

    Correct Answer
    B. IPv6 is used for OSPF messages for IPv4 and IPv6
  • 27. 

    Which two IPv6 multicast addresses are used by OSPFv3? Choose two.

    • A.

      FF02::5

    • B.

      FF02::6

    • C.

      FF02::9

    • D.

      FF02::A

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. FF02::5
    B. FF02::6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FF02::5 and FF02::6. These IPv6 multicast addresses are used by OSPFv3. FF02::5 is the OSPFv3 AllSPFRouters address, which is used by OSPFv3 routers to exchange OSPFv3 routing information. FF02::6 is the OSPFv3 AllDRouters address, which is used by OSPFv3 routers to elect a designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR) for a network segment.

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  • 28. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct for the route map that is shown? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Both of the match statements must match for the route map to be considered a match.

    • B.

      If the first match statement is a match, then the first set statement will be used. If the second match statement is a match, then the second set statement will be used.

    • C.

      If the route map is considered a match, all set commands will be executed

    • D.

      Only one of the match statements must match for the route map to be considered a match

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Both of the match statements must match for the route map to be considered a match.
    C. If the route map is considered a match, all set commands will be executed
    Explanation
    The first statement is correct because it states that both of the match statements must match for the route map to be considered a match. This means that both conditions specified in the match statements must be true for the route map to be applied.

    The third statement is also correct as it states that if the route map is considered a match, all set commands will be executed. This means that if the conditions specified in the match statements are met, all the set commands specified in the route map will be applied to the matched route.

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  • 29. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which route redistribution statement is true?

    • A.

      Both RIP and OSPF will be redistributed into EIGRP with the same seed metric.

    • B.

      No metric is set for OSPF routes redistributed into EIGRP

    • C.

      No seed metric is set for redistributed RIP routes into EIGRP

    • D.

      OSPF is redistributed into EIGRP with a default metric of 1

    • E.

      RIP routes are redistributed into EIGRP with a seed metric of infinity

    Correct Answer
    A. Both RIP and OSPF will be redistributed into EIGRP with the same seed metric.
    Explanation
    Both RIP and OSPF will be redistributed into EIGRP with the same seed metric. This means that when RIP and OSPF routes are redistributed into EIGRP, they will both have the same initial metric value. This allows for a consistent metric calculation and comparison within the EIGRP routing process.

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  • 30. 

    Which route map configuration command matches routes identified by an ACL or an prefix list?

    • A.

      Match interface

    • B.

      Match ip address

    • C.

      Match ip next-hop

    • D.

      Match ip route-source

    Correct Answer
    B. Match ip address
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "match ip address". This command is used to match routes identified by an ACL (Access Control List) or a prefix list. ACLs and prefix lists are used to filter or control the flow of traffic in a network. The "match ip address" command allows the route map to match routes based on the IP addresses specified in the ACL or prefix list.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 14, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Jordbluenose
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