Biology And Epidemiology Test Quiz!

26 Questions | By MaddieShirley | Updated: Mar 20, 2022 | Attempts: 174

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Biology And Epidemiology Test Quiz! - Quiz

Do you know the difference between biology and epidemiology? Epidemiology is the branch of science dealing with the spread and control of diseases, viruses, concepts, and health outcomes throughout populations or systems. At the same time, biology is the study of living matter. The study of epidemiology is essential to public health. The study of biology is necessary to understanding the world around us. This scientific quiz will bring your awareness to these two subjects.

Questions and Answers

1.

The SENSITIVITY of a test is the percentage of all patients with disease present who have a positive test. Which of the following formula represents SENSITIVITY?
- A.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)
- B.
  
  (True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients
- C.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)
- D.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)
- E.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)
2.

The SPECIFICITY of a test is the percentage of all patients without disease who have a negative test. Which of the following formula represents SPECIFICITY?
- A.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)
- B.
  
  (True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients
- C.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)
- D.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)
- E.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)
3.

The EFFICIENCY of a test is the percentage of the times that the test give the correct answer compared to the total number of tests. Which of the following formula represents TEST EFFICIENCY?
- A.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)
- B.
  
  (True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients
- C.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)
- D.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)
- E.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)
4.

The PREDICTIVE VALUE of a test is a measure of the times that the value (positive or negative) is the true value. Which of the following formula represents POSITIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE ?
- A.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)
- B.
  
  (True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients
- C.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)
- D.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)
- E.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)
5.

The PREDICTIVE VALUE of a test is a measure of the times that the value (positive or negative) is the true value. Which of the following formula represents NEGATIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE ?
- A.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)
- B.
  
  (True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients
- C.
  
  True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)
- D.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)
- E.
  
  True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)
6.

What are abnormal accumulations of triglycerides within parenchymal cells called?
- A.
  
  Brown Atrophy
- B.
  
  Steatosis
- C.
  
  Fatty Change
- D.
  
  Niemann-Pick disease
7.

What is an accumulation of cholesterol within the intimal layer of the aorta and large arteries called?
- A.
  
  Xanthomas
- B.
  
  Brown Atrpohy
- C.
  
  Steatosis
- D.
  
  Atherosclerosis
8.

What is an accumulation of cholesterol within the subepithelial connective tissue called?
- A.
  
  Xanthoma
- B.
  
  Brown Atrpohy
- C.
  
  Steatosis
- D.
  
  Atherosclerosis
9.

Local deposition of calcium in dying tissues in the absence of calcium metabolism derangements is called _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ calcification.
10.

Metastatic calcification is the deposition of calcium due to hypercalcemia secondary to some disturbance in calcium metabolism.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
11.

Which of the following is true about Phospholipases?
- A.
  
  Inhibited by steroids
- B.
  
  Drives the cell cycle by phosphorylating protein critical for cell cycle transitions.
- C.
  
  Activated by increased intracellular calcium
- D.
  
  Breaks down phospholidpids
- E.
  
  Antioxidant
- F.
  
  Most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane
12.

The most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane is _ _ _ _ _ _ _.
13.

Which of the following can induce apoptosis and promote cell survival?
- A.
  
  IFN-γ
- B.
  
  IL-1
- C.
  
  Leukotrienes
- D.
  
  Lipoxins
- E.
  
  Prostacyclin
- F.
  
  TNF
14.

Which of the following is the major macrophage activating cytokine?
- A.
  
  IFN-γ
- B.
  
  IL-1
- C.
  
  Leukotrienes
- D.
  
  Lipoxins
- E.
  
  Prostacyclin
- F.
  
  TNF
15.

Which of the following is created by the lipoxygenase pathway, is an intense vasoconstrictor, and causes bronchospasm and increased vascular permeability?
- A.
  
  IFN-γ
- B.
  
  IL-1
- C.
  
  Leukotrienes
- D.
  
  Lipoxins
- E.
  
  Prostacyclin
- F.
  
  TNF
16.

Which of the following inhibits leukocyte recruitment?
- A.
  
  IFN-γ
- B.
  
  IL-1
- C.
  
  Leukotrienes
- D.
  
  Lipoxins
- E.
  
  Prostacyclin
- F.
  
  TNF
17.

Which of the following inhibits platelet aggregation?
- A.
  
  IFN-γ
- B.
  
  IL-1
- C.
  
  Leukotrienes
- D.
  
  Lipoxins
- E.
  
  Prostacyclin
- F.
  
  TNF
18.

Non-inflammatory edema is usually exudate due to hydrodynamic arrangements.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
19.

1. ________ is an active process resulting from arteriolar dilation → _________. 2. ________ is a passive process resulting from decreased venous outflow → .
- A.
  
  1. Hyperaemia → cyanosis, 2. Congestion → erythema
- B.
  
  1. Hyperaemia, → erythema, 2. Congestion → cyanosis
- C.
  
  1. Congestion, → cyanosis, 2. Hyperaemia → erythema
- D.
  
  1. Congestion, → erythema, 2. Hyperaemia → cyanosis
20.

_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ inhibits thrombin and other serine proteases.
21.

Proteins C and S are Vitamin K dependent proteins:
- A.
  
  Activate factors IX and X
- B.
  
  Inactivate factors IX and X
- C.
  
  Activate factors II and III
- D.
  
  Inactivate factors II and III
- E.
  
  Activate factors V and VIII
- F.
  
  Inactivate factors V and VIII
22.

Which of the following are risk factors for bladder cancer?
- A.
  
  Cyclophosphamide
- B.
  
  Tobacco smoke
- C.
  
  E coli
- D.
  
  Schistosomiasis
- E.
  
  Aromatic amines, particularly benzidine and a-and ß-naphthylamine
- F.
  
  Family History
23.

The maintenance of long-term immunity of some vaccines (including toxoids, recombinant subunit and polysaccharide conjugate vaccines), requires multidose immunization courses consisting of 2 – 3 inoculations, followed by periodic administration of booster doses. Doses administered at intervals less than the minimum interval can lead to a suboptimal immune response. In clinical practice, however, it is recommended that vaccine doses administered ≤ __ days before the minimum interval may be counted as valid (except rabies vaccine).
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  7
24.

An autosomal recessive disorder resulting from mutations in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase.
- A.
  
  Amyloidosis
- B.
  
  Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
- C.
  
  Gaucher Disese
- D.
  
  Nieman-Pick Disease
- E.
  
  Sarcoidosis
- F.
  
  Wagener's Granulomatosis
25.

Cyclin-dependent kinases drive the cell cycle by __________ critical target proteins that are required for the progression of cells to the next stage of the cell cycle.
- A.
  
  Carboxylating
- B.
  
  Hydroxylating
- C.
  
  Oxidating
- D.
  
  Phophorylating