# Biology And Epidemiology Test Quiz!

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Do you know the difference between biology and epidemiology? Epidemiology is the branch of science dealing with the spread and control of diseases, viruses, concepts, and health outcomes throughout populations or systems. At the same time, biology is the study of living matter. The study of epidemiology is essential to public health. The study of biology is necessary to understanding the world around us. This scientific quiz will bring your awareness to these two subjects.

• 1.

### The SENSITIVITY of a test is the percentage of all patients with disease present who have a positive test. Which of the following formula represents SENSITIVITY?

• A.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)

• B.

(True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients

• C.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)

• D.

True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)

• E.

True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)

D. True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)
Explanation
The sensitivity of a test is the percentage of all patients with the disease present who have a positive test. This means that the formula that represents sensitivity is True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives). This formula calculates the proportion of true positive results (patients with the disease who test positive) out of all the patients with the disease present.

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• 2.

### The SPECIFICITY of a test is the percentage of all patients without disease who have a negative test. Which of the following formula represents SPECIFICITY?

• A.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)

• B.

(True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients

• C.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)

• D.

True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)

• E.

True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)

A. True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)
Explanation
The formula True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives) represents SPECIFICITY. This formula calculates the percentage of patients without the disease who have a negative test result. True Negatives represent the number of patients without the disease who are correctly identified as negative. The denominator, True Negatives and False Positives, represents the total number of patients without the disease. Therefore, dividing True Negatives by the total number of patients without the disease gives the specificity of the test.

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• 3.

### The EFFICIENCY of a test is the percentage of the times that the test give the correct answer compared to the total number of tests. Which of the following formula represents TEST EFFICIENCY?

• A.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)

• B.

(True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients

• C.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)

• D.

True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)

• E.

True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)

B. (True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients
Explanation
The formula (True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients represents test efficiency because it calculates the percentage of times that the test gives the correct answer (True Positives and True Negatives) compared to the total number of tests (Total number of patients).

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• 4.

### The PREDICTIVE VALUE of a test is a measure of the times that the value (positive or negative) is the true value. Which of the following formula represents POSITIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE ?

• A.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)

• B.

(True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients

• C.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)

• D.

True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)

• E.

True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)

E. True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)
Explanation
The positive predictive value is a measure of the proportion of positive test results that are true positives. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the sum of true positives and false positives. This formula represents the positive predictive value because it calculates the ratio of true positives to the sum of true positives and false positives.

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• 5.

### The PREDICTIVE VALUE of a test is a measure of the times that the value (positive or negative) is the true value. Which of the following formula represents NEGATIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE ?

• A.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Positives)

• B.

(True Positives + True Negatives) / Total number of patients

• C.

True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)

• D.

True Positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)

• E.

True Positives / (True Positives and False Positives)

C. True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives)
Explanation
The formula for negative predictive value is True Negatives / (True Negatives and False Negatives). This formula calculates the proportion of true negative results among all the negative results, including both the true negatives and the false negatives. It is a measure of the accuracy of a test in correctly identifying individuals who do not have a condition or disease.

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• 6.

### What are abnormal accumulations of triglycerides within parenchymal cells called?

• A.

Brown Atrophy

• B.

Steatosis

• C.

Fatty Change

• D.

Niemann-Pick disease

B. Steatosis
C. Fatty Change
Explanation
Sites of fatty change are liver, heart, mucle, kidney. Causes of fatty change include toxins, protein malnutrition, diabetes mellitus, obesity, anoxia.

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• 7.

### What is an accumulation of cholesterol within the intimal layer of the aorta and large arteries called?

• A.

Xanthomas

• B.

Brown Atrpohy

• C.

Steatosis

• D.

Atherosclerosis

D. Atherosclerosis
Explanation
Atherosclerosis is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of cholesterol within the intimal layer of the aorta and large arteries. This condition occurs when fatty deposits, known as plaques, build up on the inner walls of the arteries, leading to narrowing and hardening of the arteries. Atherosclerosis is a common cause of various cardiovascular diseases, including heart attacks and strokes.

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• 8.

### What is an accumulation of cholesterol within the subepithelial connective tissue called?

• A.

Xanthoma

• B.

Brown Atrpohy

• C.

Steatosis

• D.

Atherosclerosis

A. Xanthoma
Explanation
Xanthoma is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of cholesterol within the subepithelial connective tissue. Xanthomas are typically yellowish nodules or plaques that develop due to the buildup of cholesterol in certain areas of the body, such as tendons, skin, and blood vessels. They can be a sign of underlying lipid disorders or conditions like familial hypercholesterolemia. Therefore, xanthoma accurately describes the accumulation of cholesterol within the subepithelial connective tissue.

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• 9.

### Local deposition of calcium in dying tissues in the absence of calcium metabolism derangements is called _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ calcification.

dystrophic
Explanation
Dystrophic calcification refers to the local deposition of calcium in dying tissues without any disturbances in calcium metabolism. This type of calcification occurs as a result of tissue injury or damage, such as in areas of necrosis or inflammation. It is a common occurrence in various pathological conditions, including atherosclerosis, chronic kidney disease, and certain types of cancer. Dystrophic calcification is different from metastatic calcification, which is characterized by calcium deposition in otherwise healthy tissues due to systemic metabolic imbalances.

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• 10.

### Metastatic calcification is the deposition of calcium due to hypercalcemia secondary to some disturbance in calcium metabolism.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Metastatic calcification occurs when calcium is deposited in tissues due to an underlying condition that disrupts calcium metabolism, leading to hypercalcemia. This can happen in various diseases such as hyperparathyroidism or kidney failure. The statement is true because it accurately describes the process of metastatic calcification.

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• 11.

### Which of the following is true about Phospholipases?

• A.

Inhibited by steroids

• B.

Drives the cell cycle by phosphorylating protein critical for cell cycle transitions.

• C.

Activated by increased intracellular calcium

• D.

Breaks down phospholidpids

• E.

Antioxidant

• F.

Most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane

A. Inhibited by steroids
C. Activated by increased intracellular calcium
D. Breaks down pHospHolidpids
Explanation
Phospholipases are enzymes that break down phospholipids. They are activated by increased intracellular calcium levels and are inhibited by steroids. Steroids are known to have anti-inflammatory effects and can suppress the activity of phospholipases. Therefore, the statement "Inhibited by steroids" is true. Additionally, the statement "Activated by increased intracellular calcium" is also true because phospholipases require calcium ions for their activation. Lastly, the statement "Breaks down phospholipids" is true because that is the primary function of phospholipases.

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• 12.

### The most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane is _ _ _ _ _ _ _.

laminin
Explanation
Laminin is the most abundant glycoprotein found in the basement membrane. It is a major component of the extracellular matrix and plays a crucial role in providing structural support and stability to tissues. Laminin is involved in various cellular processes including cell adhesion, migration, and differentiation. Its abundance in the basement membrane makes it an essential protein for maintaining tissue integrity and function.

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• 13.

### Which of the following can induce apoptosis and promote cell survival?

• A.

IFN-Î³

• B.

IL-1

• C.

Leukotrienes

• D.

Lipoxins

• E.

Prostacyclin

• F.

TNF

F. TNF
Explanation
TNF, or tumor necrosis factor, can induce apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death process, and it can also promote cell survival. TNF is a cytokine that plays a role in regulating immune responses and inflammation. It can activate signaling pathways that lead to apoptosis in certain cells, such as cancer cells or infected cells. However, TNF can also promote cell survival by activating other signaling pathways that promote cell growth and proliferation. Therefore, TNF can have both pro-apoptotic and pro-survival effects depending on the context and the specific cells involved.

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• 14.

### Which of the following is the major macrophage activating cytokine?

• A.

IFN-Î³

• B.

IL-1

• C.

Leukotrienes

• D.

Lipoxins

• E.

Prostacyclin

• F.

TNF

A. IFN-Î³
Explanation
IFN-Î³ is the major macrophage activating cytokine. It plays a crucial role in activating macrophages, which are important immune cells involved in the defense against pathogens. IFN-Î³ enhances the ability of macrophages to kill and eliminate invading microorganisms, as well as stimulates the production of inflammatory mediators. This cytokine is produced by various immune cells, including T cells and natural killer cells, in response to infection or inflammation. Its activation of macrophages is essential for the immune response against pathogens and the regulation of inflammation.

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• 15.

### Which of the following is created by the lipoxygenase pathway, is an intense vasoconstrictor, and causes bronchospasm and increased vascular permeability?

• A.

IFN-Î³

• B.

IL-1

• C.

Leukotrienes

• D.

Lipoxins

• E.

Prostacyclin

• F.

TNF

C. Leukotrienes
Explanation
Leukotrienes are created by the lipoxygenase pathway and are known to be potent vasoconstrictors. They also cause bronchospasm and increased vascular permeability. Therefore, they fit the description given in the question.

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• 16.

### Which of the following inhibits leukocyte recruitment?

• A.

IFN-Î³

• B.

IL-1

• C.

Leukotrienes

• D.

Lipoxins

• E.

Prostacyclin

• F.

TNF

D. Lipoxins
Explanation
Lipoxins inhibit leukocyte recruitment. Leukocyte recruitment is a process in which white blood cells are attracted to and accumulate at the site of inflammation or infection. Lipoxins are anti-inflammatory molecules derived from arachidonic acid metabolism. They play a crucial role in resolving inflammation by inhibiting the recruitment of leukocytes to the site of inflammation. By reducing leukocyte recruitment, lipoxins help to dampen the inflammatory response and promote the resolution of inflammation.

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• 17.

### Which of the following inhibits platelet aggregation?

• A.

IFN-Î³

• B.

IL-1

• C.

Leukotrienes

• D.

Lipoxins

• E.

Prostacyclin

• F.

TNF

E. Prostacyclin
Explanation
Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation. It is a prostaglandin produced by endothelial cells and acts as a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation. It prevents platelets from clumping together and forming blood clots, thus helping to maintain normal blood flow.

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• 18.

### Non-inflammatory edema is usually exudate due to hydrodynamic arrangements.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Non-inflammatory edema is usually transudate due to hydrodynamic derrangements. Inflammatory oedema is often an exudate = protein rich, due to increased vascular permeability.

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• 19.

### 1. ________ is an active process resulting from arteriolar dilation → _________.  2. ________ is a passive process resulting from decreased venous outflow → .

• A.

1. Hyperaemia â†’ cyanosis, 2. Congestion â†’ erythema

• B.

1. Hyperaemia, â†’ erythema, 2. Congestion â†’ cyanosis

• C.

1. Congestion, â†’ cyanosis, 2. Hyperaemia â†’ erythema

• D.

1. Congestion, â†’ erythema, 2. Hyperaemia â†’ cyanosis

B. 1. Hyperaemia, â†’ erythema, 2. Congestion â†’ cyanosis
Explanation
Hyperaemia is an active process resulting from arteriolar dilation, which leads to an increased blood flow to a particular area. This increased blood flow can cause erythema, which is the redness of the skin due to increased blood flow. On the other hand, congestion is a passive process resulting from decreased venous outflow, which leads to a buildup of blood in the tissue. This buildup of blood can cause cyanosis, which is the bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation. Therefore, the correct answer is 1. Hyperaemia â†’ erythema, 2. Congestion â†’ cyanosis.

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• 20.

### _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ inhibits thrombin and other serine proteases.

antithrombin
Explanation
Antithrombin is a substance that inhibits the activity of thrombin, a protein involved in blood clotting, as well as other serine proteases. By inhibiting these enzymes, antithrombin helps to regulate the clotting process and prevent excessive blood clot formation.

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• 21.

### Proteins C and S are Vitamin K dependent proteins:

• A.

Activate factors IX and X

• B.

Inactivate factors IX and X

• C.

Activate factors II and III

• D.

Inactivate factors II and III

• E.

Activate factors V and VIII

• F.

Inactivate factors V and VIII

F. Inactivate factors V and VIII
Explanation
There are 3 types of natural anticoagulants: 1. Antithrombins: inhibits thrombin and other serine proteases 2. Proteins C and S: Vitamin K dependent proteins that inactivate factors V and VIII 3. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor: forms complexes with clotting factors that inhibits them.

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• 22.

### Which of the following are risk factors for bladder cancer?

• A.

Cyclophosphamide

• B.

Tobacco smoke

• C.

E coli

• D.

Schistosomiasis

• E.

Aromatic amines, particularly benzidine and a-and ÃŸ-naphthylamine

• F.

Family History

A. CyclopHospHamide
B. Tobacco smoke
D. Schistosomiasis
E. Aromatic amines, particularly benzidine and a-and ÃŸ-napHthylamine
F. Family History
Explanation
Smoking cigarettes is the principal preventable risk factor for bladder cancer in both men and women.

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• 23.

### The maintenance of long-term immunity of some vaccines (including toxoids, recombinant subunit and polysaccharide conjugate vaccines), requires multidose immunization courses consisting of 2 – 3 inoculations, followed by periodic administration of booster doses. Doses administered at intervals less than the minimum interval can lead to a suboptimal immune response. In clinical practice, however, it is recommended that vaccine doses administered ≤  __  days before the minimum interval may be counted as valid (except rabies vaccine).

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

4

• D.

7

C. 4
Explanation
In order to maintain long-term immunity, some vaccines require multiple doses followed by booster doses. Administering doses at intervals less than the minimum interval can result in a suboptimal immune response. However, in clinical practice, it is recommended that vaccine doses administered within a certain number of days before the minimum interval may still be considered valid. The correct answer is 4, indicating that vaccine doses administered within 4 days before the minimum interval may be counted as valid.

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• 24.

### An autosomal recessive disorder resulting from mutations in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase.

• A.

Amyloidosis

• B.

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

• C.

Gaucher Disese

• D.

Nieman-Pick Disease

• E.

Sarcoidosis

• F.

Wagener's Granulomatosis

C. Gaucher Disese
Explanation
Glucocerebrosidase cleaves glucose residue from ceramide.

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• 25.

### Cyclin-dependent kinases drive the cell cycle by __________ critical target proteins that are required for the progression of cells to the next stage of the cell cycle.

• A.

Carboxylating

• B.

Hydroxylating

• C.

Oxidating

• D.

Phophorylating

D. pHopHorylating
Explanation
Cyclin-dependent kinases play a crucial role in regulating the cell cycle by phosphorylating target proteins. Phosphorylation is the process of adding a phosphate group to a protein, which can change its structure and function. In the context of the cell cycle, phosphorylation by cyclin-dependent kinases helps to activate or inactivate specific target proteins, allowing cells to progress to the next stage of the cell cycle. Therefore, phosphorylating critical target proteins is essential for driving the cell cycle forward.

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• 26.

### Phosphorylation of RB promotes cell replication.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
In the hypophosphorylated state, RB prevents cells from replicating by forming a tight inactive complex with the transcription factor E2F.

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• Mar 20, 2023
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• Apr 27, 2011
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