Bioscience I - Exam 3

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Scottishduffy
S
Scottishduffy
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 28 | Total Attempts: 63,399
| Attempts: 218 | Questions: 85
Please wait...
Question 1 / 85
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Acute Renal failure is irreversible and generally leads to chronic renal failure.

Explanation

The given statement is false. Acute renal failure is a sudden and temporary loss of kidney function, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, medication side effects, or kidney injury. Unlike chronic renal failure, which is a long-term and progressive loss of kidney function, acute renal failure can be reversible with proper treatment and management. Therefore, acute renal failure does not necessarily lead to chronic renal failure.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Bioscience I - Exam 3 - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on renal system functions, including hormone secretion, metabolic products, and anatomical features related to kidney function.

2. What effect will an increase in ADH secretion have on the kidneys?

Explanation

An increase in ADH secretion will cause the kidneys to reabsorb more water from the urine, resulting in a decrease in urine output. ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, acts on the kidneys to increase their permeability to water, allowing more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. This leads to a decrease in the volume of urine produced, as more water is conserved by the body.

Submit
3. Ammonia is produced from deamination of amino acids.

Explanation

Ammonia is produced from the deamination of amino acids. Deamination is the process by which the amino group (-NH2) is removed from an amino acid, resulting in the production of ammonia (NH3) as a byproduct. This process occurs primarily in the liver and kidneys. Therefore, the statement "Ammonia is produced from deamination of amino acids" is true.

Submit
4. Which type of acute renal failure pt will maintain urine output greater than 400 ml/day?

Explanation

Nonoliguric acute renal failure refers to a condition where there is a normal or increased urine output of greater than 400 ml/day. This means that the kidneys are still able to produce and excrete a sufficient amount of urine, indicating that there is some level of functioning in the renal system. In contrast, anuric acute renal failure is characterized by a complete absence of urine output, while oliguric acute renal failure is characterized by a significantly reduced urine output. Therefore, the correct answer is nonoliguric, as this type of patient will maintain a urine output greater than 400 ml/day.

Submit
5. What is the purpose of the tufts of capillaries which compose the glomerulus? 

Explanation

The tufts of capillaries in the glomerulus provide a large surface area. This is important because it allows for efficient filtration of blood and the removal of waste products and excess water from the body. By having a large surface area, more blood can be filtered at a time, increasing the efficiency of the filtration process.

Submit
6. Which type of acute renal failure pt will have no urine output?

Explanation

Anuric acute renal failure refers to a condition where the patient has no urine output. This means that the kidneys are not producing any urine, leading to a complete absence of urine flow. This can be caused by various factors such as severe damage to the kidneys, obstruction in the urinary tract, or decreased blood flow to the kidneys. Anuric acute renal failure is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention and intervention to prevent further complications.

Submit
7. A patient with acute Oliguric renal failure will have how much urine output per day?

Explanation

In acute Oliguric renal failure, the kidneys are not able to adequately filter waste and excess fluid from the blood, resulting in a significant decrease in urine output. A normal urine output is typically around 1-2 liters per day. Therefore, a patient with acute Oliguric renal failure will have less than 400 ml of urine output per day.

Submit
8. The risk for acute renal failure increases with age due to a decreased renal reserve.

Explanation

As individuals age, their kidneys may experience a decrease in renal reserve, which refers to the ability of the kidneys to maintain normal function even under stressful conditions. This decreased renal reserve can make older individuals more susceptible to acute renal failure, a condition where the kidneys suddenly lose their ability to filter waste from the blood. Therefore, the statement that the risk for acute renal failure increases with age due to a decreased renal reserve is true.

Submit
9. When trying to prevent acute renal failure following a large surgical procedure it is most important to prevent which of the following?

Explanation

In order to prevent acute renal failure following a large surgical procedure, it is most important to prevent sustained renal hypoperfusion. This is because sustained renal hypoperfusion, which refers to inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, can lead to ischemia and damage to the renal tissue. Without adequate blood flow, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products and maintain electrolyte balance, leading to renal failure. Therefore, preventing sustained renal hypoperfusion is crucial in preserving kidney function and preventing acute renal failure.

Submit
10. You are the SRNA for Mr. Dosakos who recently had a cystoscopy. The recovery room nurses tell you that this patient now has foot drop, and can’t dorsiflex his right foot. This is most likely due to an injury of what nerve during the procedure?

Explanation

During a cystoscopy procedure, the common peroneal nerve is most likely to be injured, resulting in foot drop and the inability to dorsiflex the right foot. The common peroneal nerve runs along the outer side of the knee and can be susceptible to injury during surgical procedures in this area. Damage to this nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control foot movement and dorsiflexion.

Submit
11. A sudden inability of the kidneys to vary urine volume and content appropriately in response to homeostatic needs is known as what?

Explanation

Acute Renal Failure refers to a sudden inability of the kidneys to adjust urine volume and composition according to the body's homeostatic requirements. This condition can occur due to various factors such as kidney damage, decreased blood flow to the kidneys, or blockage in the urinary tract. It is characterized by a rapid decline in kidney function, leading to an accumulation of waste products and electrolyte imbalances in the body.

Submit
12. Approximately what percentage of cardiac output flows through the kidneys?

Explanation

Approximately 20-25% of cardiac output flows through the kidneys. This means that a significant amount of blood is delivered to the kidneys, allowing them to perform their vital functions such as filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance, regulating blood pressure, and removing waste products from the body. The percentage of cardiac output directed towards the kidneys highlights their importance in maintaining overall body homeostasis.

Submit
13. Which of the following muscle relaxants would you choose for a pt in renal failure?

Explanation

Atracurium would be the preferred muscle relaxant for a patient in renal failure because it is primarily metabolized by Hofmann elimination, which does not depend on renal function. This means that it can be safely used in patients with impaired kidney function without the risk of accumulation or prolonged effects. In contrast, Rocuronium, Pancuronium, and Succinylcholine are all eliminated through the kidneys and may have prolonged effects or increased risk of toxicity in patients with renal failure.

Submit
14. What would be considered the lowest normal hourly urinary output for a pt weighing 80 kg?

Explanation

The lowest normal hourly urinary output for a patient weighing 80 kg would be 40 ml/hr. This means that the patient should be producing at least 40 milliliters of urine every hour. This is considered the minimum acceptable amount of urine output for a patient of this weight, indicating that their kidneys are functioning properly and adequately removing waste and excess fluid from the body.

Submit
15. What is Azotemia?

Explanation

Azotemia refers to the retention of nitrogenous waste products in the bloodstream. These waste products, such as urea and creatinine, are normally filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine. However, in cases of azotemia, the kidneys are unable to properly filter and eliminate these waste products, leading to their buildup in the blood. This can occur due to kidney dysfunction or damage, and it is often a sign of underlying kidney disease or other medical conditions. Symptoms of azotemia may include decreased urine production and the presence of protein in the urine.

Submit
16. Which of the following is not true regarding lithotomy position?

Explanation

The lithotomy position is not the optimal choice for a CHF (congestive heart failure) patient undergoing urological surgeries. This position involves the patient lying on their back with their legs raised and supported in stirrups. It is commonly used for urological procedures as it provides good access to the pelvic area. However, in a CHF patient, this position can lead to decreased venous return to the heart, increased workload on the heart, and potential fluid overload. Therefore, the lithotomy position is not the optimal choice for a CHF patient undergoing urological surgeries.

Submit
17. What is the most lethal electrolye imbalance associated with chronic renal failure?

Explanation

In chronic renal failure, the most lethal electrolyte imbalance is associated with high levels of potassium in the blood, known as hyperkalemia. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining potassium balance, and when they are not functioning properly, potassium levels can rise to dangerous levels. Hyperkalemia can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest, making it a potentially life-threatening condition. Therefore, monitoring and managing potassium levels is crucial in patients with chronic renal failure to prevent these complications.

Submit
18. Which of the following is responsible to adhering the kidneys to the abdominal wall and other internal structures?

Explanation

The renal fascia is responsible for adhering the kidneys to the abdominal wall and other internal structures. It is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds and supports the kidneys, helping to keep them in place within the abdominal cavity. The renal fascia also provides protection to the kidneys and helps to maintain their position, preventing excessive movement or displacement.

Submit
19. You are the SRNA for Mr. Recher who is coming in for emergent surgery to fix internal bleeding following a MVA.  He is currently hypotensive (MAP of 60) in spite of fluid administration and continues to lose blood. What effect will these injuries have on renal blood flow and urine output?

Explanation

The correct answer is that renal blood flow will decrease due to a decrease in MAP. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a MAP of 60, which indicates low blood pressure. The kidneys rely on an adequate blood pressure to maintain renal blood flow. When the MAP decreases, it leads to a decrease in perfusion pressure in the kidneys, resulting in reduced renal blood flow. This decrease in renal blood flow can subsequently affect urine output.

Submit
20. Knowing what electrolyte abnormalities are associated with renal failure, which of the following would be most useful to administer in order to increase cardiac output on an ESRF patient?

Explanation

Calcium would be most useful to administer in order to increase cardiac output in an ESRF patient. Renal failure can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including low calcium levels. Calcium plays a crucial role in regulating cardiac muscle contraction and maintaining normal heart rhythm. By administering calcium, it can help restore the balance of electrolytes and improve cardiac function, ultimately increasing cardiac output.

Submit
21. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the kidneys?

Explanation

Erythropoietin is a hormone that is secreted by the kidneys. It plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells. When the kidneys detect low oxygen levels in the blood, they release erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. This hormone helps to maintain the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and is essential for proper functioning of the body. Insulin, glucose, and uric acid are not hormones secreted by the kidneys.

Submit
22. How is blood supplied to the glomerulus?

Explanation

Blood is supplied to the glomerulus through a single afferent renal arteriole. The afferent arteriole brings blood into the glomerulus, where it then enters a network of capillaries known as the glomerular capillaries. These capillaries are responsible for filtration of waste products and excess fluid from the blood. After filtration, the blood exits the glomerulus through the efferent arteriole. So, the correct answer is that blood is supplied to the glomerulus through a single afferent renal arteriole.

Submit
23. You are the SRNA for Mr. Eobil who is having a spinal laminectomy and fusion today. He has a past history of HTN and DM. Two hours into the procedure you notice your urine output has dropped to 15 ml/hr for this 70 kg pt. What should be your first intervention?

Explanation

The correct answer is to give a fluid challenge. A fluid challenge involves administering a bolus of intravenous fluids to assess the patient's response. In this case, the decreased urine output may indicate inadequate fluid volume, which can be addressed by giving a fluid challenge. This intervention will help determine if the low urine output is due to hypovolemia and if additional fluid resuscitation is needed. Monitoring the patient's response to the fluid challenge will guide further interventions if necessary.

Submit
24.                             What is the major product of metabolism excreted by the kidneys?

Explanation

Urea is the major product of metabolism excreted by the kidneys. It is formed in the liver through the breakdown of proteins and amino acids. Urea is then transported to the kidneys where it is filtered out of the bloodstream and excreted in urine. This process helps to remove waste products from the body and maintain the balance of nitrogen in the blood. Water, creatinine, and renin are also involved in kidney function, but they are not the major product of metabolism excreted by the kidneys.

Submit
25. A normal creatinine clearance is…

Explanation

A normal creatinine clearance is 110-150 ml/min. This range indicates that the kidneys are functioning properly and able to filter waste products, such as creatinine, from the blood. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and is typically filtered out by the kidneys. A higher clearance rate suggests better kidney function, while a lower rate may indicate impaired kidney function. Therefore, a creatinine clearance of 110-150 ml/min is considered normal and indicates healthy kidney function.

Submit
26. COMIC RELIEF: Benny Lava

Explanation

The given answer "All the Above" is correct because the statement "How many costume changes does that dude go through?!" implies that the person in the video, Benny Lava, goes through multiple costume changes. Additionally, the statement "Now poop on them, Oliver!!!" suggests that there is a character named Oliver who is involved in the video. Therefore, both statements are true, making "All the Above" the correct answer.

Submit
27. What is the major function of the proximal tubule?

Explanation

The major function of the proximal tubule is to reabsorb sodium. This is an important process in the kidneys where sodium is actively transported from the tubule back into the bloodstream. This helps maintain the body's fluid and electrolyte balance. Sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule is also coupled with the reabsorption of other substances such as glucose, amino acids, and water.

Submit
28. A person with anemia generally has a decrease _______, this causes the body to increase ______ in order to compensate.

Explanation

A person with anemia generally has a decrease in their O2 carrying capacity, which means that their blood is not able to carry as much oxygen as it should. In order to compensate for this decrease in oxygen, the body increases its Cardiac Output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. By increasing Cardiac Output, the body can try to deliver more oxygen to the tissues and organs despite the decreased O2 carrying capacity of the blood.

Submit
29. How will advanced renal disease effect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

Explanation

Advanced renal disease will cause a shift to the right in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. This is because renal disease leads to a decrease in the production of erythropoietin, which in turn decreases the production of red blood cells. As a result, there is a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This shift to the right indicates that hemoglobin has a decreased affinity for oxygen, making it easier for oxygen to be released to the tissues.

Submit
30. Which of the following medication may be given to prevent ischemic renal injury?

Explanation

Mannitol may be given to prevent ischemic renal injury. Mannitol is a diuretic that works by increasing urine output, which helps to flush out toxins and prevent the buildup of harmful substances in the kidneys. It also helps to maintain blood flow to the kidneys, reducing the risk of ischemic injury. Lasix is a diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body but does not specifically prevent ischemic renal injury. Calcium chloride is used to treat low calcium levels and does not have a direct role in preventing renal injury. Nephrocaps is a dietary supplement for kidney health and does not have a specific preventive effect on ischemic renal injury.

Submit
31. What happens to urine volume and urine osmolality when ADH output is high?

Explanation

When ADH output is high, it means that the body is releasing more antidiuretic hormone. This hormone helps to regulate water balance in the body by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. As a result, more water is retained in the body and less is excreted in urine. Therefore, urine volume is low. Additionally, because more water is being reabsorbed, the concentration of solutes in the urine increases, leading to a higher urine osmolality.

Submit
32. Which of the following is characterized by movement of filtrate back into the blood from renal tubule?

Explanation

Tubular reabsorption is characterized by the movement of filtrate back into the blood from the renal tubule. This process occurs in the kidney's nephrons, where substances such as water, glucose, electrolytes, and amino acids are reabsorbed from the renal tubules into the bloodstream. This helps to maintain the body's balance of water and electrolytes, as well as reabsorb important nutrients. Tubular reabsorption is a crucial step in urine formation and plays a vital role in maintaining homeostasis within the body.

Submit
33. You are in the middle of a long case, and are the SRNA for Ms. Pompador. During the procedure her urine output dropped and you gave her a fluid challenge in an attempt to increase urine output. In spite or adequate hydration her urine output still has not picked up, what should be your next intervention?

Explanation

If the patient's urine output has not improved despite adequate hydration and a fluid challenge, the next intervention should be to give a dose of 20mg Lasix IV. Lasix, also known as furosemide, is a loop diuretic that can help increase urine output by promoting the excretion of excess fluid and sodium from the body. This intervention may help address the underlying cause of the decreased urine output and improve the patient's condition.

Submit
34. Which of the following would not be useful in managing intra-operative hyperkalemia?

Explanation

Decreasing respiratory rate would not be useful in managing intra-operative hyperkalemia because it does not directly address the underlying cause of hyperkalemia, which is an excess of potassium in the blood. Decreasing respiratory rate may affect carbon dioxide levels in the body, but it does not directly affect potassium levels. The other options, such as IV infusion of insulin, glucose, and bicarbonate, administration of calcium chloride, and hemodialysis, are all effective in managing hyperkalemia by either promoting the movement of potassium into cells or removing excess potassium from the body.

Submit
35. What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretic such as furosemide?

Explanation

Loop diuretics such as furosemide work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle in the kidney. This prevents the reabsorption of sodium, leading to increased excretion of sodium in the urine. By blocking sodium reabsorption, loop diuretics also cause increased excretion of water, chloride, and other electrolytes. This mechanism of action is what allows loop diuretics to have a potent diuretic effect and help in the treatment of conditions such as edema and hypertension.

Submit
36. The greatest renal derangements are caused by abnormalities of _________ and are readily detectable.

Explanation

Renal derangements refer to abnormalities or dysfunctions in the kidneys. The question asks for the cause of the greatest renal derangements that are readily detectable. The correct answer is "Glomerular function." The glomerulus is a part of the kidney responsible for filtering waste products and excess fluids from the blood. Any abnormalities or dysfunction in the glomerular function can lead to significant renal derangements, such as proteinuria, hematuria, or decreased renal function, which can be easily detected through various tests like urine analysis or blood tests.

Submit
37. During End Stage Renal failure, approximately what percent of functioning nephrons have been lost?

Explanation

During end stage renal failure, approximately 95% of functioning nephrons have been lost. This means that only a small percentage of the nephrons in the kidneys are still functioning properly. This severe loss of nephrons greatly impairs the kidneys' ability to filter waste products and maintain fluid balance in the body. As a result, patients with end stage renal failure often require dialysis or a kidney transplant to survive.

Submit
38. You are taking care of Mr. Henri today who is a dialysis pt. He was very confused in the pre-op area but suddenly began to have seizures. You quickly look at his labs and notice his BUN and sodium are both low. What do you think may be wrong with Mr. Henri?

Explanation

Disequilibrium Syndrome is the most likely explanation for Mr. Henri's symptoms. This condition occurs in dialysis patients and is characterized by neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The low levels of BUN and sodium observed in his labs also support this diagnosis, as they can be indicative of fluid imbalance caused by the dialysis process. Natremic Epilepsy and CVA (stroke) are less likely explanations as they do not align with the symptoms and lab findings described. Hypoxemia, while a possibility, is not as likely as Disequilibrium Syndrome in this case.

Submit
39. When performing regional anesthesia for a TURP, a sensory blockade at least at the level of ____ is needed.

Explanation

During a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), regional anesthesia is commonly used. This involves blocking the sensory nerves in the lower part of the body to prevent pain during the procedure. The question asks about the level of sensory blockade needed, and the correct answer is T10. This means that the anesthesia should be effective at least up to the 10th thoracic vertebra. This level is chosen because it covers the sensory innervation of the lower abdomen, pelvis, and perineum, which are the areas involved in the TURP procedure.

Submit
40. You are SRNA for Mr. Govino today who is having regional anesthesia for a TURP procedure. About 45 minutes into the case Mr. Govino starts to complain of a bad headache. You notice his sats has gone from 98 down to 92. What do you suspect may be happening?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the most likely explanation for Mr. Govino's symptoms is TURP syndrome. TURP syndrome is a potential complication of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) procedure, where the absorption of irrigating fluid used during the surgery can lead to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. The symptoms of TURP syndrome can include headache, decreased oxygen saturation (as indicated by the decrease in sats from 98 to 92), and potentially other signs such as confusion, visual disturbances, and cardiovascular changes. Therefore, TURP syndrome is the most probable cause of Mr. Govino's symptoms in this scenario.

Submit
41. An increase in GFR would likely cause...

Explanation

An increase in GFR (glomerular filtration rate) indicates an increase in the amount of blood being filtered by the kidneys per unit of time. This increased filtration rate would result in a more efficient removal of waste products from the blood, including urea nitrogen (BUN). As a result, there would be a decrease in BUN levels. Creatinine, on the other hand, is a waste product that is not reabsorbed by the kidneys, so an increase in GFR would lead to an increase in creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is a decrease in BUN.

Submit
42. Mr. Jud is a body builder who has come to the OR today for repair rotator cuff. What might you expect to see on his labs?

Explanation

When a person undergoes surgery, especially in the case of a rotator cuff repair, there is a risk of kidney damage due to the use of anesthesia and the stress on the body. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered out by the kidneys. An increase in creatinine levels in the lab results would indicate impaired kidney function, which is a potential complication of surgery. Therefore, it is expected to see an increase in creatinine levels in Mr. Jud's labs.

Submit
43. Which of the following patient should not get ESWL at this time?

Explanation

A patient with a bladder tumor that obstructs urine flow should not receive ESWL at this time because the procedure may cause further obstruction and potentially worsen the patient's condition. ESWL uses shock waves to break down kidney stones, but it may not be suitable for patients with bladder tumors as it can cause complications and hinder urine flow. Therefore, it is not recommended for this patient in order to avoid exacerbating the obstruction caused by the tumor.

Submit
44. What is the most accurate lab test for assessing overall renal function and GFR?

Explanation

The 24 hour creatinine clearance test is the most accurate lab test for assessing overall renal function and glomerular filtration rate (GFR). This test measures the amount of creatinine cleared from the blood by the kidneys over a 24 hour period. Creatinine is a waste product produced by the muscles that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. By measuring the amount of creatinine cleared, the test can provide an accurate assessment of how well the kidneys are functioning and the GFR. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and serum creatinine levels can also provide some information about renal function, but the 24 hour creatinine clearance test is considered more accurate. A renal ultrasound, while useful for evaluating the structure of the kidneys, does not directly assess renal function or GFR.

Submit
45. Shivering may increase O2 consumption by as much as …

Explanation

Shivering is a physiological response to cold temperatures in order to generate heat and maintain body temperature. It involves rapid muscle contractions, which require energy in the form of oxygen. Therefore, shivering increases the body's oxygen consumption. The given answer of 300% suggests that shivering can increase oxygen consumption by three times the normal rate, indicating the significant energy demand of shivering to generate heat.

Submit
46. Which would be the ideal anesthetic agent for a patient with renal disease?

Explanation

Isoflurane would be the ideal anesthetic agent for a patient with renal disease. This is because isoflurane has a low potential for renal toxicity compared to other volatile anesthetic agents. It undergoes minimal metabolism in the liver and is primarily eliminated through the lungs, making it a safer option for patients with impaired renal function. Additionally, isoflurane provides good anesthesia depth and rapid onset and recovery, making it suitable for various surgical procedures.

Submit
47. Renal blood flow is approximately how many mL’s per minute?

Explanation

Renal blood flow refers to the amount of blood that passes through the kidneys in a minute. The correct answer of 1200 mL per minute suggests that this is the approximate amount of blood that flows through the kidneys in a minute. This value is within the normal range for renal blood flow, indicating that it is a reasonable estimate.

Submit
48. The common cardiovascular side effect associated with dialysis is…

Explanation

Hypotension is a common cardiovascular side effect associated with dialysis. During the dialysis process, excess fluid and waste products are removed from the body, which can cause a decrease in blood volume and subsequently lower blood pressure. This can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting. Hypotension can occur due to rapid fluid removal, excessive ultrafiltration, or inadequate fluid replacement during dialysis. Monitoring and adjusting fluid levels during dialysis sessions can help prevent and manage hypotension in patients undergoing dialysis.

Submit
49. Which of the following is not an expected effect of immersion during ESWL?

Explanation

During extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), the use of shock waves to break down kidney stones can cause various effects. Muscle relaxation and increased functional residual capacity (FRC) are expected effects of immersion during ESWL. Immersion in water helps in reducing muscle tension and increasing lung capacity. Vasodilation is also an expected effect as it helps in improving blood flow to the targeted area. However, hypoxemia in predisposed patients and hypotension are not expected effects of immersion during ESWL. Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood, which can be a result of impaired lung function or reduced blood flow, while hypotension refers to low blood pressure.

Submit
50. Which of the following is a normal specific gravity for urine?

Explanation

A normal specific gravity for urine is typically around 1.010 to 1.030. A specific gravity of 1.028 falls within this range, indicating that the urine is within the normal range of concentration. Specific gravity measures the density of urine compared to the density of water, and it can provide information about the concentration of solutes in the urine, such as waste products and electrolytes.

Submit
51. During which phase of chronic renal failure are only 10-40% of nephrons functioning adequately?

Explanation

During the phase of renal insufficiency in chronic renal failure, only 10-40% of nephrons are functioning adequately. This phase is characterized by a significant decline in kidney function, leading to a decreased ability to filter waste products and maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. It is a progressive stage of the disease, but not as severe as end-stage renal disease where less than 10% of nephrons are functioning. The decreased renal reserve phase refers to a stage where there is a reduction in the ability of the kidneys to respond to stress or increased demands, while the maintenance phase is not a recognized phase in the progression of chronic renal failure.

Submit
52. The main cause for hypothermia during the TURP procedure is….

Explanation

During a Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP) procedure, irrigation fluid is used to maintain visibility and prevent clot formation. If this fluid enters the bladder, it can cause a drop in the body's temperature, leading to hypothermia. This occurs because the irrigation fluid is usually colder than the body's temperature, and when it enters the bladder, it cools the surrounding tissues, resulting in hypothermia.

Submit
53. Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for renal transplantation?

Explanation

Advanced age is not an absolute contraindication for renal transplantation because older patients can still benefit from the procedure. While age may increase the risk of complications, it does not automatically exclude a person from being a candidate for transplantation. The decision to proceed with transplantation in older patients is based on a careful evaluation of their overall health and the potential benefits of the procedure.

Submit
54. What would you expect the BUN and GFR be on a patient who has just been in an accident and profusely bleeding?

Explanation

In a patient who has just been in an accident and is profusely bleeding, the BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) level is expected to be high. This is because bleeding leads to a decrease in blood volume, which in turn causes a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys. As a result, the kidneys will reabsorb more water and concentrate the urine, leading to an increase in the concentration of urea nitrogen in the blood. On the other hand, the GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate) is expected to be low. Bleeding and decreased blood flow to the kidneys can cause damage to the glomeruli, which are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood. This can lead to a decrease in the GFR.

Submit
55. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

Explanation

Renal ischemia refers to a condition where there is a lack of blood flow to the kidneys, leading to acute renal failure. This can occur due to various reasons such as decreased blood volume, low blood pressure, or blockage in the blood vessels supplying the kidneys. When the kidneys do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, they are unable to function properly, resulting in acute renal failure. Intrinsic renal disease and nephrotoxins can also cause acute renal failure, but renal ischemia is the most common cause.

Submit
56. In what portion of the tubular system does concentration of urine occur?

Explanation

The concentration of urine occurs in the collecting tubule. This is where water is reabsorbed from the urine, resulting in a more concentrated final product. The proximal tubule is responsible for the reabsorption of most of the water and solutes, but it does not specifically concentrate the urine. The loop of Henle is involved in creating a concentration gradient in the medulla of the kidney, but it does not directly concentrate the urine. The distal tubule is responsible for fine-tuning the reabsorption and secretion of specific ions, but it does not concentrate the urine either. Therefore, the correct answer is the collecting tubule.

Submit
57. Which portion of the tubular system is responsible for maintaining a hypertonic medullary interstitium?

Explanation

The Loop of Henle is responsible for maintaining a hypertonic medullary interstitium. This is achieved through the countercurrent mechanism, where the descending limb of the loop allows for passive reabsorption of water, while the ascending limb actively pumps out sodium and chloride ions. This creates a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium, which helps in the reabsorption of water in the collecting duct. The proximal tubule, collecting tubule, and distal tubule also play important roles in renal function, but they are not specifically responsible for maintaining a hypertonic medullary interstitium.

Submit
58. Which of the following would be a poor choice for a pt with HTN who is also taking an ACE inhibitor?

Explanation

Aldactone would be a poor choice for a patient with hypertension (HTN) who is also taking an ACE inhibitor because both medications can increase potassium levels in the body. Aldactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. When combined with an ACE inhibitor, which can also increase potassium levels, there is a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can be dangerous. Therefore, Aldactone should be avoided in this scenario to prevent potential complications.

Submit
59. An increase in protein catabolism due to sepsis would likely cause…

Explanation

An increase in protein catabolism due to sepsis would likely cause an increase in BUN (blood urea nitrogen) levels. BUN is a waste product of protein breakdown in the liver. When protein catabolism increases, more protein is broken down, leading to higher levels of BUN in the bloodstream. This can indicate impaired kidney function, as the kidneys are responsible for filtering and excreting BUN from the body. Therefore, an increase in BUN is a common finding in sepsis, reflecting the increased breakdown of proteins and potential kidney dysfunction.

Submit
60. Acute renal failure will likely cause a decreased ________ and an increase in _______.

Explanation

Acute renal failure is a condition characterized by a sudden loss of kidney function. In this scenario, there is likely to be a decrease in renal perfusion pressure, which refers to the pressure at which blood is delivered to the kidneys. This decrease in pressure can be caused by various factors such as low blood volume or constriction of blood vessels supplying the kidneys. Additionally, there is likely to be an increase in renal vascular resistance, which refers to the resistance encountered by blood flow within the renal blood vessels. This increase in resistance can be a result of the kidneys attempting to compensate for the decreased perfusion pressure by constricting their blood vessels.

Submit
61. You are the SRNA for Mr. Dowst who had a TURP today and is now in PACU. The PACU nurse tells that he is c/o nausea and lower abdominal pain. When you go to take a look at the patient he is also diaphoretic. What do you think may be wrong?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the patient had a TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) procedure and is now experiencing symptoms such as nausea, lower abdominal pain, and diaphoresis. These symptoms are indicative of bladder perforation, which can occur as a complication of the TURP procedure. Bladder perforation can cause leakage of urine into the abdominal cavity, leading to abdominal pain and discomfort. The presence of diaphoresis may be a result of the patient's physiological response to pain and distress. Therefore, bladder perforation is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms in this case.

Submit
62. GFR is normally how much of the mean arterial pressure?

Explanation

GFR stands for glomerular filtration rate, which is a measure of how well the kidneys are functioning. Normally, GFR is approximately 20% of the mean arterial pressure, meaning that only a small portion of the pressure is used for filtration. However, the correct answer in this case is 60%, which is not the typical value. It is possible that this is an error or an atypical scenario, but without further information, it is difficult to determine the reason for this discrepancy.

Submit
63. Which of the following would be inappropriate to use for an edematous CHF patient in the ICU?

Explanation

Mannitol would be inappropriate to use for an edematous CHF patient in the ICU because it is an osmotic diuretic that can increase fluid volume and worsen edema. It works by drawing water into the renal tubules, which can lead to increased intravascular volume and strain on the heart. Therefore, it is not recommended for patients with congestive heart failure and edema.

Submit
64. Acute renal failure is usually due to ______ or _______ factors which will impair renal function.

Explanation

Acute renal failure is a condition characterized by a sudden loss of kidney function. Hemodynamic factors refer to changes in blood flow to the kidneys, such as decreased blood volume or low blood pressure, which can impair renal function. Endocrine factors, on the other hand, involve hormonal imbalances that can affect kidney function. Both hemodynamic and endocrine factors can contribute to the development of acute renal failure by impairing the normal functioning of the kidneys.

Submit
65. When performing regional anesthesia for an ESWL< a sensory bloackade at the level of _____ is required.

Explanation

When performing regional anesthesia for an ESWL, a sensory blockade at the level of T6 is required. This means that the nerves responsible for transmitting sensory information from the area around the T6 vertebrae need to be blocked in order to achieve anesthesia for the procedure. This level of blockade is necessary to ensure that the patient does not feel any pain or discomfort during the ESWL.

Submit
66. Which of the following is not a pre-renal cause of acute renal failure?

Explanation

Prostatic hypertrophy is not a pre-renal cause of acute renal failure. Pre-renal causes refer to conditions that affect blood flow to the kidneys, leading to kidney dysfunction. Renal vein thrombosis, liver failure, and sepsis can all cause decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in acute renal failure. However, prostatic hypertrophy, which is the enlargement of the prostate gland, does not directly affect blood flow to the kidneys and therefore is not considered a pre-renal cause of acute renal failure.

Submit
67. Which of the following is characterized by movement of substances from the blood to the filtrate?

Explanation

Tubular secretion is characterized by the movement of substances from the blood to the filtrate. This process occurs in the renal tubules of the kidney, where certain substances that were not filtered out during glomerular filtration are actively transported from the blood into the filtrate. This allows for the elimination of waste products, such as drugs, excess ions, and metabolic byproducts, from the body. Tubular secretion plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid and electrolyte balance.

Submit
68. During which phase of acute intrarenal renal failure is the process able to corrected if prompt action is taken?

Explanation

During the initiation period of acute intrarenal renal failure, the process is able to be corrected if prompt action is taken. This is because during this phase, the underlying cause of the renal failure can still be addressed and potentially resolved. Prompt intervention can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and allow for the restoration of normal kidney function. In contrast, the maintenance and recovery periods may involve more irreversible damage to the kidneys and may require supportive care rather than corrective measures.

Submit
69. Renal blood flow is determined by oxygen consumption. 

Explanation

The statement "Renal blood flow is determined by oxygen consumption" is false. Renal blood flow is actually determined by factors such as blood pressure, vascular resistance, and autoregulation. Oxygen consumption is important for the overall functioning of the kidneys, but it does not directly determine renal blood flow.

Submit
70. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest blood loss?

Explanation

Partial nephrectomy is likely to have the greatest blood loss compared to total nephrectomy and renal biopsy. During a partial nephrectomy, only a portion of the kidney is removed, while in total nephrectomy, the entire kidney is removed. Renal biopsy involves taking a small sample of kidney tissue for examination. Since partial nephrectomy involves removing a part of the kidney, it is expected to have a higher potential for blood loss compared to the other options.

Submit
71. Which of the following would not be considered an Intrarenal cause of acute renal failure?

Explanation

A urinary tract infection (UTI) would not be considered an intrarenal cause of acute renal failure. Intrarenal causes refer to conditions that originate within the kidney itself, such as glomerulonephritis or rhabdomyolysis. UTIs primarily affect the urinary tract, including the bladder and urethra, and can potentially spread to the kidneys, causing a condition known as pyelonephritis. However, UTIs are not typically considered a direct intrarenal cause of acute renal failure.

Submit
72. Which of the following is not true regarding juxtaglomerular cells?

Explanation

The statement "Responsible for secretion of ADH" is not true regarding juxtaglomerular cells. Juxtaglomerular cells are specialized cells located in the kidney that produce and secrete the enzyme renin, which plays a role in regulating blood pressure. These cells are also innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. However, the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is primarily regulated by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland.

Submit
73. What is the site of action of Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

Explanation

Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, meaning it blocks the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. This enzyme is responsible for the conversion of carbon dioxide and water into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions in the proximal tubule of the kidney. By inhibiting carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule, acetazolamide reduces the reabsorption of bicarbonate, leading to increased excretion of bicarbonate and consequently increased excretion of sodium, water, and potassium. Therefore, the site of action of acetazolamide is the proximal tubule.

Submit
74. At which phase of acute intrarenal renal failure will loss of renal function and irreversible damage to kidneys occur?

Explanation

During the maintenance period of acute intrarenal renal failure, there is a sustained loss of renal function and irreversible damage to the kidneys. This phase occurs after the initiation period, where the initial insult to the kidneys takes place, and before the recovery period, where the kidneys start to regain their function. In the maintenance period, the damage to the kidneys worsens, leading to a decline in renal function that cannot be reversed. Therefore, this is the phase where irreversible damage occurs.

Submit
75. Which of the following is not true regarding TURP syndrome?

Explanation

Decreased O2 sats are not a late sign of fluid overload. In fact, decreased oxygen saturation is an early sign of fluid overload in TURP syndrome. As fluid accumulates in the body, it can lead to pulmonary edema and impaired gas exchange, resulting in decreased O2 saturation levels. This is an important indicator that fluid overload is occurring and immediate intervention is needed to prevent further complications.

Submit
76. Which of the following is not a risk factor for renal failure post op?

Explanation

Prolonged surgery >4 hours is not a risk factor for renal failure post-op. While prolonged surgery can increase the risk of complications, such as infection or blood loss, it is not directly associated with renal failure. Pre-existing renal disease, history of CHF, and advanced age are all known risk factors for renal failure post-op due to the increased strain on the kidneys during surgery and anesthesia.

Submit
77. During which phase of Chronic Renal failure is there a loss of nephron function without symptoms?

Explanation

During the phase of Decreased Renal reserve in Chronic Renal failure, there is a loss of nephron function without any noticeable symptoms. This means that the kidneys are still able to function adequately despite some loss of nephron function. It is in this phase that the kidneys are still able to compensate for the loss of function by increasing their workload. However, as the disease progresses, symptoms may start to appear in the subsequent phases such as Renal Insufficiency, End stage renal failure, and Oliguric phase.

Submit
78. Which of the following is not associated with advanced renal disease?

Explanation

Advanced renal disease is associated with various complications, including hypertension, hyperparathyroidism, and an increased risk of GI bleed. However, it is not typically associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). DVT is more commonly associated with conditions such as immobility, surgery, pregnancy, obesity, and certain genetic factors. In advanced renal disease, the impaired kidney function may lead to fluid retention, electrolyte imbalances, and anemia, but it does not directly increase the risk of DVT.

Submit
79. Injection of indigo carmine is known to cause which of the following? (More than one answer)

Explanation

Injection of indigo carmine can cause both hypertension and hypotension. Indigo carmine is a dye that is commonly used in medical procedures to visualize the urinary tract. It works by temporarily staining the urine blue. When injected, indigo carmine can cause a transient increase in blood pressure, leading to hypertension. However, it can also cause a decrease in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, both hypertension and hypotension can be caused by the injection of indigo carmine.

Submit
80. TURP syndrome is associated with all of the following except….

Explanation

TURP syndrome is a potential complication of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) surgery. It occurs when irrigating fluid used during the procedure is absorbed into the bloodstream, leading to various electrolyte imbalances and fluid overload. The syndrome is characterized by symptoms such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hypoosmolality (low osmotic pressure), and hemolysis (breakdown of red blood cells). However, hypovolemia, which refers to decreased blood volume, is not typically associated with TURP syndrome.

Submit
81. What are two most common causes of acute intrarenal renal failure in a healthy kidney? (two answers)

Explanation

The two most common causes of acute intrarenal renal failure in a healthy kidney are nephrotoxic insult and hypoperfusion. Nephrotoxic insult refers to the damage caused to the kidney by exposure to certain drugs or toxins. Hypoperfusion, on the other hand, occurs when there is a decrease in blood flow to the kidneys, leading to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply. Both of these factors can result in acute renal failure, where the kidney is unable to properly filter waste products from the blood.

Submit
82. A GFR of less than _____ ml/min is associated with end stage renal failure?

Explanation

A GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of less than 10 ml/min is associated with end stage renal failure. This means that the kidneys are functioning at a very low level and are unable to adequately filter waste products and excess fluid from the blood. At this stage, dialysis or kidney transplantation is typically required to maintain the body's normal functioning.

Submit
83. Which of the following diuretic exerts its action in the Distal Tubule?

Explanation

Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that exerts its action in the distal tubule. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. This diuretic is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that acts on the proximal tubule, while acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that primarily affects the proximal convoluted tubule. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the collecting duct.

Submit
84. A patient has just had dialysis and is now complaining of cramping and pain in their legs. This is most likely due to a decrease in serum  ______.

Explanation

After dialysis, the patient may experience a decrease in serum sodium levels, leading to cramping and pain in their legs. Sodium is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance and nerve function in the body. A decrease in sodium can disrupt nerve signaling and muscle contraction, resulting in cramps and pain.

Submit
85. Which of the following will not affect release of renin?

Explanation

A change in sodium flow past the macula densa will not affect the release of renin. The macula densa is a group of specialized cells in the kidney that detect changes in sodium concentration in the tubular fluid. When sodium flow past the macula densa decreases, it signals the juxtaglomerular cells to release renin, which is an enzyme involved in the regulation of blood pressure. However, if there is a change in sodium flow past the macula densa, it means that the concentration of sodium is not changing, so there is no need for renin release. Therefore, a change in sodium flow past the macula densa will not affect the release of renin.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Feb 10, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 10, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
Cancel
  • All
    All (85)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Acute Renal failure is irreversible and generally leads to chronic...
What effect will an increase in ADH secretion have on the kidneys?
Ammonia is produced from deamination of amino acids.
Which type of acute renal failure pt will maintain urine output...
What is the purpose of the tufts of capillaries which compose the...
Which type of acute renal failure pt will have no urine output?
A patient with acute Oliguric renal failure will have how much urine...
The risk for acute renal failure increases with age due to a decreased...
When trying to prevent acute renal failure following a large surgical...
You are the SRNA for Mr. Dosakos who recently had a cystoscopy. The...
A sudden inability of the kidneys to vary urine volume and content...
Approximately what percentage of cardiac output flows through the...
Which of the following muscle relaxants would you choose for a pt in...
What would be considered the lowest normal hourly urinary output for a...
What is Azotemia?
Which of the following is not true regarding lithotomy position?
What is the most lethal electrolye imbalance associated with chronic...
Which of the following is responsible to adhering the kidneys to the...
You are the SRNA for Mr. Recher who is coming in for emergent surgery...
Knowing what electrolyte abnormalities are associated with renal...
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the kidneys?
How is blood supplied to the glomerulus?
You are the SRNA for Mr. Eobil who is having a spinal laminectomy and...
                           ...
A normal creatinine clearance is…
COMIC RELIEF: Benny Lava
What is the major function of the proximal tubule?
A person with anemia generally has a decrease _______, this causes the...
How will advanced renal disease effect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation...
Which of the following medication may be given to prevent ischemic...
What happens to urine volume and urine osmolality when ADH output is...
Which of the following is characterized by movement of filtrate back...
You are in the middle of a long case, and are the SRNA for Ms....
Which of the following would not be useful in managing intra-operative...
What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretic such as furosemide?
The greatest renal derangements are caused by abnormalities of...
During End Stage Renal failure, approximately what percent of...
You are taking care of Mr. Henri today who is a dialysis pt. He was...
When performing regional anesthesia for a TURP, a sensory blockade at...
You are SRNA for Mr. Govino today who is having regional anesthesia...
An increase in GFR would likely cause...
Mr. Jud is a body builder who has come to the OR today for repair...
Which of the following patient should not get ESWL at this time?
What is the most accurate lab test for assessing overall renal...
Shivering may increase O2 consumption by as much as …
Which would be the ideal anesthetic agent for a patient with renal...
Renal blood flow is approximately how many mL’s per minute?
The common cardiovascular side effect associated with dialysis is…
Which of the following is not an expected effect of immersion during...
Which of the following is a normal specific gravity for urine?
During which phase of chronic renal failure are only 10-40% of...
The main cause for hypothermia during the TURP procedure is….
Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for renal...
What would you expect the BUN and GFR be on a patient who has just...
What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
In what portion of the tubular system does concentration of urine...
Which portion of the tubular system is responsible for maintaining a...
Which of the following would be a poor choice for a pt with HTN who is...
An increase in protein catabolism due to sepsis would likely cause…
Acute renal failure will likely cause a decreased ________ and an...
You are the SRNA for Mr. Dowst who had a TURP today and is now in...
GFR is normally how much of the mean arterial pressure?
Which of the following would be inappropriate to use for an edematous...
Acute renal failure is usually due to ______ or _______ factors which...
When performing regional anesthesia for an ESWL< a sensory...
Which of the following is not a pre-renal cause of acute renal...
Which of the following is characterized by movement of substances from...
During which phase of acute intrarenal renal failure is the process...
Renal blood flow is determined by oxygen consumption. 
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest blood loss?
Which of the following would not be considered an Intrarenal cause of...
Which of the following is not true regarding juxtaglomerular cells?
What is the site of action of Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase...
At which phase of acute intrarenal renal failure will loss of renal...
Which of the following is not true regarding TURP syndrome?
Which of the following is not a risk factor for renal failure post op?
During which phase of Chronic Renal failure is there a loss of nephron...
Which of the following is not associated with advanced renal disease?
Injection of indigo carmine is known to cause which of the following?...
TURP syndrome is associated with all of the following except….
What are two most common causes of acute intrarenal renal failure in a...
A GFR of less than _____ ml/min is associated with end stage renal...
Which of the following diuretic exerts its action in the Distal...
A patient has just had dialysis and is now complaining of cramping and...
Which of the following will not affect release of renin?
Alert!

Advertisement