Bioscience I - Exam 3

85 Questions | Total Attempts: 155

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Bioscience Quizzes & Trivia

Review for exam 3 in bioscience, covering the renal lectures.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
                                What is the major product of metabolism excreted by the kidneys?
    • A. 

      Urea

    • B. 

      Water

    • C. 

      Creatinine

    • D. 

      Renin

  • 2. 
    Which of the following hormones is secreted by the kidneys?
    • A. 

      Insulin

    • B. 

      Erythropoetin

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Uric Acid

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is characterized by movement of substances from the blood to the filtrate?
    • A. 

      Tubular reabsorption

    • B. 

      Glomerular filtration

    • C. 

      Tubular Secretion

    • D. 

      Juxtamedullary absorption

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is characterized by movement of filtrate back into the blood from renal tubule?
    • A. 

      Glomerular filtration

    • B. 

      Tubular Secretion

    • C. 

      Juxtamedullary absorption

    • D. 

      Tubular reabsorption

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is responsible to adhering the kidneys to the abdominal wall and other internal structures?
    • A. 

      Renal Fascia

    • B. 

      Renal Capsule

    • C. 

      Adipose Capsule

    • D. 

      Perinephrium

  • 6. 
    What is the purpose of the tufts of capillaries which compose the glomerulus? 
    • A. 

      This is the site where filtered fluid is converted to urine

    • B. 

      Provide a large surface area

    • C. 

      Provide multiple arteriole sites for blood flow

    • D. 

      They support the MAP

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is likely to have the greatest blood loss?
    • A. 

      Total nephrectomy

    • B. 

      Renal Biopsy

    • C. 

      Partial Nephrectomy

    • D. 

      All above have equal blood loss potential

  • 8. 
    How is blood supplied to the glomerulus?
    • A. 

      Via a single efferent arteriole

    • B. 

      Through multiple renal arterioles

    • C. 

      Through hundreds of renal capillaries

    • D. 

      Through a single afferent renal arteriole

  • 9. 
    What is the major function of the proximal tubule?
    • A. 

      Reabsoption of sodium

    • B. 

      Reabsorption of water

    • C. 

      Concentration of urine

    • D. 

      Reabsorption of Chloride

  • 10. 
    Which portion of the tubular system is responsible for maintaining a hypertonic medullary interstitium?
    • A. 

      Proximal Tubule

    • B. 

      Loop of Henle

    • C. 

      Collecting Tubule

    • D. 

      Distal Tubule

  • 11. 
    What effect will an increase in ADH secretion have on the kidneys?
    • A. 

      Urine output will decrease

    • B. 

      Urine output will increase

    • C. 

      No effect on kidneys

  • 12. 
    In what portion of the tubular system does concentration of urine occur?
    • A. 

      Proximal Tubule

    • B. 

      Loop of Henle

    • C. 

      Collecting Tubule

    • D. 

      Distal Tubule

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding juxtaglomerular cells?
    • A. 

      They contain renin

    • B. 

      Innervated by sympathetic nervous system

    • C. 

      Responsible for secretion of ADH

    • D. 

      All above are true

  • 14. 
    Which of the following will not affect release of renin?
    • A. 

      Administration of epinephrine

    • B. 

      Decrease in MAP

    • C. 

      A patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus

    • D. 

      Change in sodium flow past macula densa

  • 15. 
    Renal blood flow is determined by oxygen consumption. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    What would be considered the lowest normal hourly urinary output for a pt weighing 80 kg?
    • A. 

      40 ml/hr

    • B. 

      80 ml/hr

    • C. 

      160 ml/hr

    • D. 

      30 ml/hr

  • 17. 
    Renal blood flow is approximately how many mL’s per minute?
    • A. 

      125

    • B. 

      1200

    • C. 

      500

    • D. 

      2500

  • 18. 
    You are the SRNA for Mr. Recher who is coming in for emergent surgery to fix internal bleeding following a MVA.  He is currently hypotensive (MAP of 60) in spite of fluid administration and continues to lose blood. What effect will these injuries have on renal blood flow and urine output?
    • A. 

      Glomerular filtration will cease due to his low MAP

    • B. 

      Urine output will increase due to fluid administration

    • C. 

      Renal blood flow will decrease due to decrease in MAP

    • D. 

      Effect on kidneys dependent upon whether renal arteries or aorta were damaged in accident

  • 19. 
    What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretic such as furosemide?
    • A. 

      Limits passive water reabsoption in the thin descending limb

    • B. 

      Antagonizes aldosterone in the collecting duct

    • C. 

      Inhibit carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule

    • D. 

      Inhibit sodium reabsoption in the ascending limb

  • 20. 
    Which of the following would be inappropriate to use for an edematous CHF patient in the ICU?
    • A. 

      Mannitol

    • B. 

      Diamox

    • C. 

      Furosemide

    • D. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide

  • 21. 
    Which of the following would be a poor choice for a pt with HTN who is also taking an ACE inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Furosemide

    • B. 

      Aldactone

    • C. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • D. 

      Diamox

  • 22. 
    What is the site of action of Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Thick ascending Limb

    • B. 

      Thin descending limb

    • C. 

      Proximal Tubule

    • D. 

      Distal Tubule

  • 23. 
    Which of the following diuretic exerts its action in the Distal Tubule?
    • A. 

      Mannitol

    • B. 

      Acetazolamide

    • C. 

      Spironolactone

    • D. 

      Hydrochlorothiazide

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is not a risk factor for renal failure post op?
    • A. 

      Prolonged surgery >4 hours

    • B. 

      Pre-existing renal disease

    • C. 

      History of CHF

    • D. 

      Advanced Age

  • 25. 
    The greatest renal derangements are caused by abnormalities of _________ and are readily detectable.
    • A. 

      Obstruction

    • B. 

      Glomerular function

    • C. 

      Tubular function

    • D. 

      Renal tumors

  • 26. 
    What is the most accurate lab test for assessing overall renal function and GFR?
    • A. 

      BUN

    • B. 

      Serum Creatinine

    • C. 

      24 hour creatinine clearance

    • D. 

      Renal ultrasound

  • 27. 
    Ammonia is produced from deamination of amino acids.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 28. 
    An increase in protein catabolism due to sepsis would likely cause…
    • A. 

      A decrease in BUN

    • B. 

      An increase in creatinine

    • C. 

      A decrease in creatinine

    • D. 

      An increase in BUN

  • 29. 
    An increase in GFR would likely cause...
    • A. 

      A decrease in BUN

    • B. 

      An increase in creatinine

    • C. 

      An increase in BUN

    • D. 

      None of above

  • 30. 
    Mr. Jud is a body builder who has come to the OR today for repair rotator cuff. What might you expect to see on his labs?
    • A. 

      A decrease in BUN

    • B. 

      An increase in creatinine

    • C. 

      A decrease in creatinine

    • D. 

      An increase in BUN

  • 31. 
    Which would be the ideal anesthetic agent for a patient with renal disease?
    • A. 

      Sevoflurane

    • B. 

      Enflurane

    • C. 

      Isoflurane

    • D. 

      Desflurane

  • 32. 
    A sudden inability of the kidneys to vary urine volume and content appropriately in response to homeostatic needs is known as what?
    • A. 

      Yo’ momma

    • B. 

      Chronic Renal Failure

    • C. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • D. 

      Acute Renal Failure

  • 33. 
    Acute Renal failure is irreversible and generally leads to chronic renal failure.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    What is Azotemia?
    • A. 

      Retention of nitrogenous waste products

    • B. 

      Decreased urine production,

    • C. 

      The presence of protein in the urine

    • D. 

      Inflammation of the small blood vessels within the kidney

  • 35. 
    Acute renal failure is usually due to ______ or _______ factors which will impair renal function.
    • A. 

      Infectious, Hypertensive

    • B. 

      Hemodynamic, Endocrine

    • C. 

      Cardiovascular, Obstructive

    • D. 

      Congenital defects, Diabetic

  • 36. 
    Acute renal failure will likely cause a decreased ________ and an increase in _______.
    • A. 

      Renal vascular resistance, renal perfusion pressure

    • B. 

      Renal reserve, urinary output

    • C. 

      Renal perfusion pressure, renal vascular resistance

    • D. 

      Urinary output, Renal Reserve

  • 37. 
    Which of the following is not a pre-renal cause of acute renal failure?
    • A. 

      Renal vein Thrombosis

    • B. 

      Liver Failure

    • C. 

      Sepsis

    • D. 

      Prostatic Hypertrophy

  • 38. 
    Which type of acute renal failure pt will maintain urine output greater than 400 ml/day?
    • A. 

      Nonoliguric

    • B. 

      Anuric

    • C. 

      Oliguric

    • D. 

      This pt would not have renal failure

  • 39. 
    Which type of acute renal failure pt will have no urine output?
    • A. 

      Nonoliguric

    • B. 

      Anuric

    • C. 

      Oliguric

    • D. 

      All of above

  • 40. 
    A patient with acute Oliguric renal failure will have how much urine output per day?
    • A. 

      No urine output

    • B. 

      Greater than 3L/day

    • C. 

      Less than 400 ml/day

    • D. 

      None of above

  • 41. 
    Which of the following would not be considered an Intrarenal cause of acute renal failure?
    • A. 

      Rhabdomyolosis

    • B. 

      Aminoglycoside antibiotic use

    • C. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • D. 

      Urinary tract infection

  • 42. 
    During which phase of acute intrarenal renal failure is the process able to corrected if prompt action is taken?
    • A. 

      Initiation period

    • B. 

      Maintenance period

    • C. 

      Recovery period

    • D. 

      All the above, acute renal failure is reversible

  • 43. 
    What are two most common causes of acute intrarenal renal failure in a healthy kidney? (two answers)
    • A. 

      Severe infection

    • B. 

      Nephrotoxic insult

    • C. 

      Hypoperfusion

    • D. 

      Parenchymal Disease

  • 44. 
    At which phase of acute intrarenal renal failure will loss of renal function and irreversible damage to kidneys occur?
    • A. 

      Never, acute renal failure is always reversible

    • B. 

      Recovery period

    • C. 

      Initiation period

    • D. 

      Maintenance period

  • 45. 
    What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
    • A. 

      Renal Ischemia

    • B. 

      Intrinsic Renal Disease

    • C. 

      Nephrotoxins

    • D. 

      None of above

  • 46. 
    The risk for acute renal failure increases with age due to a decreased renal reserve.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    When trying to prevent acute renal failure following a large surgical procedure it is most important to prevent which of the following?
    • A. 

      Electrolyte imbalances

    • B. 

      Sustained renal hypoperfusion

    • C. 

      Exposure to nephrotoxins

    • D. 

      Blockage of foley catheter

  • 48. 
    You are the SRNA for Mr. Eobil who is having a spinal laminectomy and fusion today. He has a past history of HTN and DM. Two hours into the procedure you notice your urine output has dropped to 15 ml/hr for this 70 kg pt. What should be your first intervention?
    • A. 

      Give a 20mg IV dose of lasix

    • B. 

      Start a 2 mcg/kg/min dopamine drip

    • C. 

      Give a fluid challenge

    • D. 

      Watch the pt, if low output continues for another hour then consider intervention

  • 49. 
    You are in the middle of a long case, and are the SRNA for Ms. Pompador. During the procedure her urine output dropped and you gave her a fluid challenge in an attempt to increase urine output. In spite or adequate hydration her urine output still has not picked up, what should be your next intervention?
    • A. 

      Start dopamine drip at 5 mcg/kg/min

    • B. 

      Give another fluid challenge

    • C. 

      Watch the pt for now, see if urine output picks up later in case.

    • D. 

      Give a dose of 20mg Lasix IV

  • 50. 
    During which phase of Chronic Renal failure is there a loss of nephron function without symptoms?
    • A. 

      Decreased Renal reserve

    • B. 

      Renal Insufficiency

    • C. 

      End stage renal failure

    • D. 

      Oliguric phase

  • 51. 
    During which phase of chronic renal failure are only 10-40% of nephrons functioning adequately?
    • A. 

      Decreased renal reserve

    • B. 

      Renal Insufficiency

    • C. 

      End Stage renal Disease

    • D. 

      Maintenance phase

  • 52. 
    During End Stage Renal failure, approximately what percent of functioning nephrons have been lost?
    • A. 

      50%

    • B. 

      85%

    • C. 

      95%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 53. 
    A GFR of less than _____ ml/min is associated with end stage renal failure?
    • A. 

      125

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      10

  • 54. 
    You are taking care of Mr. Henri today who is a dialysis pt. He was very confused in the pre-op area but suddenly began to have seizures. You quickly look at his labs and notice his BUN and sodium are both low. What do you think may be wrong with Mr. Henri?
    • A. 

      Disequilibrium Syndrome

    • B. 

      Natremic Epilepsy

    • C. 

      CVA

    • D. 

      Hypoxemia

  • 55. 
    The common cardiovascular side effect associated with dialysis is…
    • A. 

      Muscle Cramping

    • B. 

      Hypotension

    • C. 

      Anemia

    • D. 

      Hypoxemia

  • 56. 
    A patient has just had dialysis and is now complaining of cramping and pain in their legs. This is most likely due to a decrease in serum  ______.
    • A. 

      Potassium

    • B. 

      Magnesium

    • C. 

      Sodium

    • D. 

      Calcium

  • 57. 
    A person with anemia generally has a decrease _______, this causes the body to increase ______ in order to compensate.
    • A. 

      Cardiac Output, Hematocrit

    • B. 

      Hematocrit, O2 carrying capacity

    • C. 

      SVR, sodium

    • D. 

      O2 carrying capacity, Cardiac Output

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is not associated with advanced renal disease?
    • A. 

      Increased risk of DVT

    • B. 

      Hyperparathyroidism

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Increased risk of GI bleed

  • 59. 
    How will advanced renal disease effect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
    • A. 

      Shift to Left

    • B. 

      Shift to right

    • C. 

      No effect

  • 60. 
    Knowing what electrolyte abnormalities are associated with renal failure, which of the following would be most useful to administer in order to increase cardiac output on an ESRF patient?
    • A. 

      Potassium

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Magnesium

  • 61. 
    Which of the following would not be useful in managing intra-operative hyperkalemia?
    • A. 

      IV infusion of insulin, glucose, and bicarbonate

    • B. 

      Administration of calcium chloride

    • C. 

      Hemodialysis

    • D. 

      Decreasing respiratory rate

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding lithotomy position?
    • A. 

      Optimal choice for CHF patient undergoing urological surgeries

    • B. 

      Decreases FRC

    • C. 

      Injury to commom peroneal nerve may be common

    • D. 

      Rapid lowering of legs may cause hypotension

  • 63. 
    You are the SRNA for Mr. Dosakos who recently had a cystoscopy. The recovery room nurses tell you that this patient now has foot drop, and can’t dorsiflex his right foot. This is most likely due to an injury of what nerve during the procedure?
    • A. 

      Obturator

    • B. 

      Common Peroneal

    • C. 

      Femoral

    • D. 

      Tibial

  • 64. 
    Injection of indigo carmine is known to cause which of the following? (More than one answer)
    • A. 

      Transient decrease in O2 sats

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Hematuria

    • D. 

      Hypotension

  • 65. 
    You are the SRNA for Mr. Dowst who had a TURP today and is now in PACU. The PACU nurse tells that he is c/o nausea and lower abdominal pain. When you go to take a look at the patient he is also diaphoretic. What do you think may be wrong?
    • A. 

      Bladder perforation

    • B. 

      TURP syndrome

    • C. 

      Low blood glucose

    • D. 

      DIC

  • 66. 
    The main cause for hypothermia during the TURP procedure is….
    • A. 

      Cold OR

    • B. 

      Irrigation fluid going into bladder

    • C. 

      Bleeding associated with procedure

    • D. 

      Systemic absorption of irrigation fluid

  • 67. 
    Shivering may increase O2 consumption by as much as …
    • A. 

      125%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      300%

    • D. 

      500%

  • 68. 
    TURP syndrome is associated with all of the following except….
    • A. 

      Hemolysis

    • B. 

      Hypoosmolality

    • C. 

      Hyponatremia

    • D. 

      Hypovolemia

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding TURP syndrome?
    • A. 

      Decreased O2 sats are a late sign of fluid overload

    • B. 

      Greater resection time increase fluid absorption

    • C. 

      Hypertonic saline should be administered

    • D. 

      Loop diurectics should be given

  • 70. 
    When performing regional anesthesia for a TURP, a sensory blockade at least at the level of ____ is needed.
    • A. 

      T6

    • B. 

      T10

    • C. 

      T8

    • D. 

      T4

  • 71. 
    You are SRNA for Mr. Govino today who is having regional anesthesia for a TURP procedure. About 45 minutes into the case Mr. Govino starts to complain of a bad headache. You notice his sats has gone from 98 down to 92. What do you suspect may be happening?
    • A. 

      Septicemia

    • B. 

      Bladder perforation

    • C. 

      TURP syndrome

    • D. 

      DIC

  • 72. 
    Which of the following patient should not get ESWL at this time?
    • A. 

      A patient who had a UTI 2 weeks ago, but has been on antibiotics

    • B. 

      A patient who had the procedure several years ago and then experienced hematuria

    • C. 

      A patient with aortic stenosis who can’t recieve regional anesthesia

    • D. 

      A patient with a bladder tumor that obstructs urine flow

  • 73. 
    Which of the following is not an expected effect of immersion during ESWL?
    • A. 

      Muscle relaxation and increased FRC

    • B. 

      Vasodilation

    • C. 

      Hypoxemia in predisposed pts

    • D. 

      Hypotension

  • 74. 
    When performing regional anesthesia for an ESWL< a sensory bloackade at the level of _____ is required.
    • A. 

      T10

    • B. 

      T6

    • C. 

      T4

    • D. 

      T8

  • 75. 
    Which of the following medication may be given to prevent ischemic renal injury?
    • A. 

      Lasix

    • B. 

      Calcium chloride

    • C. 

      Mannitol

    • D. 

      Nephrocaps

  • 76. 
    Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for renal transplantation?
    • A. 

      Advanced Age

    • B. 

      Infection

    • C. 

      Lung Cancer

    • D. 

      None of above

  • 77. 
    What is the most lethal electrolye imbalance associated with chronic renal failure?
    • A. 

      Sodium

    • B. 

      Calcium

    • C. 

      Magnesium

    • D. 

      Potassium

  • 78. 
    Approximately what percentage of cardiac output flows through the kidneys?
    • A. 

      10-20%

    • B. 

      20-25%

    • C. 

      45-50%

    • D. 

      75%

  • 79. 
    Which of the following is a normal specific gravity for urine?
    • A. 

      1.040

    • B. 

      1.007

    • C. 

      1.028

    • D. 

      1.32

  • 80. 
    Which of the following muscle relaxants would you choose for a pt in renal failure?
    • A. 

      Rocuronium

    • B. 

      Pancuronium

    • C. 

      Succinylcholine

    • D. 

      Atracurium

  • 81. 
    A normal creatinine clearance is…
    • A. 

      110-150 ml/min

    • B. 

      40-60 ml/min

    • C. 

      25-40 ml/min

    • D. 

  • 82. 
    What happens to urine volume and urine osmolality when ADH output is high?
    • A. 

      Urine volume is high, urine osmolality is low

    • B. 

      Urine volume is low, urine osmolality is low

    • C. 

      Urine volume is high, urine osmolality is high

    • D. 

      Urine volume is low, urine osmolality is high

  • 83. 
    GFR is normally how much of the mean arterial pressure?
    • A. 

      40%

    • B. 

      50%

    • C. 

      60%

    • D. 

      80%

  • 84. 
    What would you expect the BUN and GFR be on a patient who has just been in an accident and profusely bleeding?
    • A. 

      BUN low, GFR high

    • B. 

      BUN low, GFR low

    • C. 

      BUN high, GFR low

    • D. 

      ) BUN high, GFR high

  • 85. 
    COMIC RELIEF: Benny Lava
    • A. 

      Silly Indians...

    • B. 

      How many costume changes does that dude go through?!?1

    • C. 

      Now poop on them, Oliver!!! Ha ha!!

    • D. 

      All the Above