Bioscience 2: Test 3

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  • 1/72 Questions

    The “master gland” is also called the….

    • Pituitary
    • Adrenal
    • Pancreas
    • Thyroid
Please wait...
About This Quiz

Bioscience 2: Test 3 assesses understanding of endocrine system functions, identifying non-endocrine glands, and hormone-mediated actions. It enhances knowledge on autocrine and paracrine functions, crucial for advanced bioscience studies.

Bioscience 2: Test 3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Hypothalamic hormones may inhibit release of anterior pituitary hormones.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hypothalamic hormones are known to have an inhibitory effect on the release of anterior pituitary hormones. This is because the hypothalamus, which is located in the brain, produces hormones that can regulate the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland. These hypothalamic hormones can either stimulate or inhibit the release of anterior pituitary hormones, depending on the specific hormone and its target. Therefore, it is true that hypothalamic hormones may inhibit the release of anterior pituitary hormones.

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  • 3. 

    All of the following are important in regulating the plasma concentration of calcium except:

    • Parathyroid Hormone

    • Serotonin

    • Calcitonin

    • Vit D

    Correct Answer
    A. Serotonin
    Explanation
    Serotonin is not involved in regulating the plasma concentration of calcium. Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D are all important in regulating calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone increases calcium levels by stimulating the release of calcium from bones and increasing calcium absorption in the intestines. Calcitonin decreases calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption and promoting calcium excretion in the kidneys. Vitamin D helps regulate calcium levels by promoting calcium absorption in the intestines and enhancing the effects of parathyroid hormone. Serotonin, on the other hand, is primarily known for its role in regulating mood, appetite, and sleep.

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  • 4. 

    What is the most common endocrine disorder encountered in surgical patients?

    • Diabetes Mellitus

    • Hypothyroidism

    • SIADH

    • Addison’s Disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes Mellitus
    Explanation
    Diabetes Mellitus is the most common endocrine disorder encountered in surgical patients. This condition is characterized by high blood sugar levels due to the body's inability to produce or effectively use insulin. Surgical patients are at an increased risk of developing diabetes due to factors such as stress, inflammation, and the use of certain medications. Diabetes Mellitus can have significant implications for surgical outcomes, including delayed wound healing, increased risk of infection, and poor glycemic control. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor and manage blood sugar levels in surgical patients with diabetes.

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  • 5. 

    You are caring for Ms. Rodern today who has a PMH of: HTN, DM, Graves disease, Bronchitis, GERD, and arthritis. She is coming in today for a total thyroidectomy. About 30 minutes after inducing the pt you notice the pt is becoming tachycardic. You look around and also notice hypotension, and a high fever. What is most likely happening?

    • Thyroid Storm

    • Diabetic Ketoacidosis

    • Hypoparathyroidism

    • Malignant Hyperthermia

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroid Storm
    Explanation
    The patient's medical history includes Graves disease, which is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. A total thyroidectomy involves removing the entire thyroid gland, which can potentially trigger a release of excessive thyroid hormones into the bloodstream, leading to a condition known as thyroid storm. The symptoms described, including tachycardia, hypotension, and a high fever, are consistent with thyroid storm, making it the most likely explanation for the patient's current condition.

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  • 6. 

    The most common form of feedback is what?

    • Positive feedback

    • Biocircadian feedback

    • Negative Feedback

    • Psychothalamic feedback

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative Feedback
    Explanation
    Negative feedback is the most common form of feedback because it helps to maintain homeostasis in various biological systems. It involves the body's response to counteract any changes or disturbances from the normal state. For example, when body temperature rises, negative feedback mechanisms are activated to bring it back to the normal range. Similarly, negative feedback is involved in regulating hormone levels, blood pressure, and many other physiological processes. It plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and balance in the body.

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  • 7. 

    Comic Relief: Happy Holidays! Ok, The video apparently isn't loading for everyone. Here is the link! (open in seperate window)http://media.mtvnservices.com/player/loader/?CONFIG_URL=http%3A%2F%2Fmedia.mtvnservices.com%2Fplayer%2Fconfig.jhtml%3Furi%3Dmgid%253Acms%253Aitem%253Asouthparkstudios.com%253A151728%26group%3Dentertainment%26type%3Dnormal%26ref%3dwebmail.aol.com&uri=mgid%3Acms%3Aitem%3Asouthparkstudios.com%3A151728&group=entertainment&type=normal&ref=webmail.aol.com&geo=US

    • The cultural insensitivity in that video is absolutely horrid! You are sooooo failing culture class next summer.

    • Ha ha ha! Damn Skippy.

    • Blaspemous and Funny. Awesome.

    • All The Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All The Above
  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not one of the major categories of hormones?

    • Peptides

    • Esters

    • Amines

    • Steroids

    Correct Answer
    A. Esters
    Explanation
    Esters are not one of the major categories of hormones. Hormones can be classified into four major categories: peptides, amines, steroids, and eicosanoids. Peptides are composed of amino acids, amines are derived from amino acids, steroids are derived from cholesterol, and eicosanoids are derived from fatty acids. Esters, on the other hand, are a type of organic compound that is formed from the reaction between an alcohol and an acid, and they are not typically involved in hormone regulation in the body.

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  • 9. 

    Hormones with receptors on the outside of the cell generally have an immediate response.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hormones with receptors on the outside of the cell generally have an immediate response because these receptors are located on the cell membrane, allowing for rapid signal transduction. When a hormone binds to its receptor on the cell surface, it triggers a cascade of events inside the cell that lead to a quick response. This is in contrast to hormones with receptors inside the cell, which require the hormone to enter the cell and bind to its receptor in the nucleus or cytoplasm, resulting in a slower response.

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  • 10. 

    When a secreted hormone acts on the producer cell itself this is known as a ______ function.

    • Paracrine

    • Mesocrine

    • Autocrine

    • Somacrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Autocrine
    Explanation
    Autocrine function refers to the action of a hormone on the cell that produced it. In this case, when a secreted hormone acts on the producer cell itself, it is considered an autocrine function. This means that the cell is able to regulate its own activity by responding to the hormone it produces.

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  • 11. 

    Secretion of pituitary hormones is regulated by what?

    • Adenohypophysis

    • Hypothalamus

    • Neurohypophysis

    • Pons

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus regulates the secretion of pituitary hormones. It is a small region of the brain that acts as a control center for many bodily functions, including the release of hormones. The hypothalamus produces releasing and inhibiting hormones that travel to the pituitary gland, also known as the adenohypophysis, and stimulate or inhibit the release of specific hormones. This intricate feedback system ensures that the body maintains a balance of hormones necessary for various physiological processes. The neurohypophysis, a posterior lobe of the pituitary gland, stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus. The pons, on the other hand, is not directly involved in the regulation of pituitary hormone secretion.

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  • 12. 

    Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome is more likely to occur in type 2 diabetics.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when blood sugar levels are extremely high. This condition is more commonly seen in individuals with type 2 diabetes, as they tend to have higher blood sugar levels for longer periods of time compared to individuals with type 1 diabetes. Type 2 diabetics often have insulin resistance, meaning their bodies have difficulty using insulin effectively, leading to higher blood sugar levels. Therefore, it is true that HHNS is more likely to occur in type 2 diabetics.

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  • 13. 

    Which hormone released from the thyroid gland is most potent?

    • TSH

    • T3

    • T4

    • T2

    Correct Answer
    A. T3
    Explanation
    T3, also known as triiodothyronine, is the most potent hormone released from the thyroid gland. It is more biologically active than T4, which is converted into T3 in the body. T3 plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, growth, and development. It has a stronger binding affinity to thyroid receptors and is responsible for most of the physiological effects associated with thyroid hormones. TSH, or thyroid-stimulating hormone, is not released from the thyroid gland but rather from the pituitary gland to stimulate the production of T3 and T4. T2, or diiodothyronine, is a less active form of thyroid hormone.

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  • 14. 

    You are caring for Mr. Andrews today who has a PMH of Acromegaly.  Your preceptor asks you  what anesthetic considerations are most important when inducing the for anesthesia. To sound like a really smart SRNA you should say which of the following?

    • “My pt has decreased lung volumes due to the effects of growth hormone, so may desaturate easily. I need to intubate quickly”

    • “This pt may be a difficult intubation due to the effects of excessive growth hormone. Perhaps we should consider a fiberoptic intubation.”

    • “My pt will be hypotensive. Perhaps I should consider giving a small fluid bolus prior to inducing this pt.”

    • “I will put the tube in, YOU check a blood sugar. I need to focus most of all on the hyperglycemia.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “This pt may be a difficult intubation due to the effects of excessive growth hormone. Perhaps we should consider a fiberoptic intubation.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "This pt may be a difficult intubation due to the effects of excessive growth hormone. Perhaps we should consider a fiberoptic intubation." This is the most important consideration because acromegaly can cause anatomical changes in the airway, such as enlarged tongue, mandible, and soft tissues, which can make intubation challenging. Using a fiberoptic intubation allows for better visualization and maneuverability in the presence of difficult airway anatomy. The other options are not as relevant to the specific anesthetic considerations for acromegaly.

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  • 15. 

    Aweeee! You’re having a Baby! (If you are a male consider it a divine miracle). It sounds nice but you are currently experiencing horrible uterine contractions while cursing God and the stupid &*#% man that put you here. In this moment of exquisite pain you think back to bioscience and realize what gland and hormone are responsible for your current predicament?

    • Anterior Pituitary and Prolactin

    • Anterior Pituitary and Oxytocin

    • Posterior Pituitary and Oxytocin

    • Posterior Pituitary and Prolactin

    • Wait... If I'm a guy where the heck is that thing going to come out of?!?!?!?!

    Correct Answer
    A. Posterior Pituitary and Oxytocin
    Explanation
    During childbirth, uterine contractions are necessary for the process of labor. The hormone responsible for stimulating these contractions is oxytocin, which is produced by the posterior pituitary gland. Therefore, the correct answer is "Posterior Pituitary and Oxytocin." This hormone helps in the progression of labor by causing the muscles of the uterus to contract, leading to the eventual birth of the baby.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is not true regarding diabetic patients in the OR?

    • Patients with diabetes should be scheduled for early in the morning when possible.

    • Patients under anesthesia should be maintained with mild hypoglycemia.

    • No specific anesthetic technique has been proven superior for diabetics.

    • Blood glucose should be checked frequently during surgery and post-op.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patients under anesthesia should be maintained with mild hypoglycemia.
    Explanation
    Maintaining patients under anesthesia with mild hypoglycemia is not true regarding diabetic patients in the OR. Hypoglycemia can be dangerous for diabetic patients as it can lead to various complications. Therefore, it is important to maintain their blood glucose levels within a normal range during surgery.

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  • 17. 

    How long does it take for a hormone to exert its effect on the target cells?

    • Depends upon the hormone, every hormone has different onset.

    • Several seconds

    • Several Hours

    • Several days

    Correct Answer
    A. Depends upon the hormone, every hormone has different onset.
    Explanation
    The time it takes for a hormone to exert its effect on target cells can vary depending on the specific hormone. Each hormone has a different onset, meaning that some hormones may take only several seconds to have an effect, while others may take several hours or even several days. Therefore, the duration can vary depending on the hormone in question.

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  • 18. 

    ACTH does which of the following?

    • Stimulate adrenal gland to release cortisol

    • Stimulates body to absorb water and decreases plasma osmolarity

    • Regulates protein and carbohydrate metabolism

    • Stimulates testes to produce testosterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Stimulate adrenal gland to release cortisol
    Explanation
    ACTH, or adrenocorticotropic hormone, stimulates the adrenal gland to release cortisol. Cortisol is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating various metabolic processes in the body, including protein and carbohydrate metabolism. It helps to maintain blood sugar levels, regulate immune responses, and respond to stress. ACTH is produced by the pituitary gland and acts on the adrenal cortex, signaling it to produce and release cortisol. Therefore, the correct answer is "Stimulate adrenal gland to release cortisol."

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not true regarding pheochromocytoma?

    • Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine secreting tumor

    • Intra-op HTN should be treated either with sodium nitroprusside or a cardene drip

    • Pts are prone to hypotension post adrenallectomy

    • Pts should be adequately beta blocked before they are alpha-blocked.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pts should be adequately beta blocked before they are alpha-blocked.
    Explanation
    The statement that is not true regarding pheochromocytoma is "Pts should be adequately beta blocked before they are alpha-blocked." In the management of pheochromocytoma, alpha-blockers are typically initiated before beta-blockers. This is because alpha-blockers help to control the vasoconstriction caused by catecholamines released from the tumor, while beta-blockers can unopposedly block the beta receptors and worsen hypertension. Therefore, it is important to alpha-block first to prevent a hypertensive crisis before initiating beta-blockade.

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  • 20. 

    The most important regulator of plasma calcium is…

    • Serotonin

    • Vit D

    • Parathyroid Hormone

    • Calcitonin

    Correct Answer
    A. Parathyroid Hormone
    Explanation
    Parathyroid hormone is the most important regulator of plasma calcium because it acts to increase the levels of calcium in the blood. When the calcium levels are low, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone, which stimulates the release of calcium from the bones, enhances the absorption of calcium from the intestines, and reduces the excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This helps to maintain the balance of calcium in the blood, which is essential for various physiological processes including muscle contraction, nerve function, and bone health.

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  • 21. 

    The average adult secretes approximately ____ units of insulin per day.

    • 100

    • 85

    • 60

    • 35

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    The average adult secretes approximately 60 units of insulin per day. This is the correct answer because insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas to regulate blood sugar levels. The average adult's pancreas secretes around 60 units of insulin per day to help control glucose metabolism and maintain stable blood sugar levels. Insulin plays a crucial role in the body's ability to use and store glucose for energy, making it an essential hormone for overall health and wellbeing.

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  • 22. 

    Hormones are degraded and eliminated through the _____ and _______.  (Mult Answer)

    • Liver

    • Plasma Cholinesterases

    • Lungs

    • Kidneys

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Liver
    A. Kidneys
    Explanation
    Hormones are degraded and eliminated through the liver and kidneys. The liver plays a crucial role in metabolizing hormones by breaking them down into smaller molecules that can be easily eliminated from the body. The kidneys, on the other hand, filter out these metabolized hormones from the blood and excrete them in the form of urine. Together, the liver and kidneys ensure the efficient elimination of hormones from the body, maintaining hormonal balance.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not true regarding pts with Hypothyroidism?

    • These pts are more prone to respiratory depression

    • These pts will have faster wake-up from general anesthesia

    • These pts have diminished baroreceptor reflexes

    • Pts are more likely to be hypothermic

    Correct Answer
    A. These pts will have faster wake-up from general anesthesia
    Explanation
    Patients with hypothyroidism typically have slower wake-up from general anesthesia. This is because hypothyroidism can lead to a decreased metabolism, resulting in slower drug metabolism and elimination. As a result, the effects of anesthesia may last longer in these patients, causing a slower wake-up time.

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  • 24. 

    Thanksgiving dinner was very good, and very big. After feasting with friends and family you beach yourself on a sofa and commence an immediate fat nap. While dreaming you can’t help but think about all of the wonderous things the anesthesia program has taught you. You know that right after eating a large meal you have stimulated the _____ cells of pancreas to release insulin, and inhibited the _____ cells from releasing glucagon.

    • Alpha, Beta

    • Beta, Acinar

    • Acinar, Alpha

    • Beta, Alpha

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta, Alpha
    Explanation
    After eating a large meal, the body needs to regulate blood sugar levels. The release of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas helps to lower blood sugar by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. On the other hand, the release of glucagon from the alpha cells of the pancreas is inhibited. Glucagon helps to increase blood sugar levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen into glucose. Therefore, the correct answer is "Beta, Alpha" as the beta cells release insulin and the alpha cells are inhibited from releasing glucagon.

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  • 25. 

    Weight gain, lethargy, and cold intolerance are most commonly associated with which of the following disorders?

    • Grave’s Disease

    • Cushing’s Disease

    • Hypothyroidism

    • Diabetes Mellitus

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothyroidism
    Explanation
    Weight gain, lethargy, and cold intolerance are most commonly associated with hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a disorder characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, which leads to a decrease in the production of thyroid hormones. This decrease in hormone production can cause a decrease in metabolism, leading to weight gain. Lethargy and cold intolerance are also common symptoms of hypothyroidism, as the lack of thyroid hormones can slow down bodily functions and affect the body's ability to regulate temperature.

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  • 26. 

    You are in the middle of an RFA ablation of the liver on a diabetic patient. You draw a blood glucose and it comes back with a glucose level of 58. What do you do?

    • Give ½ amp of D50

    • This is optimal glucose control, leave the pt alone

    • Assess pt for other sings of hypoglycemia and only treat if pt is symptomatic

    • Start pt on D5NS and hydrate with at 150 ml/hr

    Correct Answer
    A. Give ½ amp of D50
    Explanation
    A blood glucose level of 58 indicates hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level. In a diabetic patient undergoing an RFA ablation of the liver, it is important to address hypoglycemia promptly. Giving ½ amp of D50, which is a concentrated solution of dextrose, will quickly raise the patient's blood sugar level and correct the hypoglycemia. This is the appropriate action to take in this situation.

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  • 27. 

    You are watching over Mr.Phrates today. His PMH history includes hypothyroidism, DM, HTN, and GERD. He has come to ER with Altered mental status, right now he is pretty slowly but will wake if you so a sternal rub.  His temperature is 95.8 on admission. Glucose check shows glucose of 86. You draw an ABG and find this: pH 7.20, pCO2 64, pO2 62, and oxygen saturation 91%. What do you think is the most likely diagnosis?

    • Myxedema

    • Hypoglycemia

    • CVA

    • Addisons Disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Myxedema
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is myxedema. The patient's history of hypothyroidism, along with the altered mental status and low body temperature, are consistent with myxedema coma, a severe form of hypothyroidism. The ABG results also support this diagnosis, as the pH is low and the pCO2 is elevated, indicating respiratory acidosis. Additionally, the low oxygen saturation suggests poor oxygenation, which is common in myxedema coma. Hypoglycemia and CVA are less likely based on the glucose level and ABG results, while Addison's disease does not explain the patient's symptoms and ABG findings.

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  • 28. 

    You are evaluating Mr. Massadure who was admitted to the hospital one week ago with a subarachnoid hemorrhage. In the past few days this pt has become hypertensive and edematous. His labs reveal hyponatremia, low BUN, low creatinine, and hypoalbuminemia. The nurse reports the output from his foley has also been low. What is wrong with Mr. Massadure?

    • Hypopituitarism

    • Diabetes Insipidus

    • Renal insufficiency related to hypertension

    • SIADH

    Correct Answer
    A. SIADH
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, Mr. Massadure is experiencing symptoms that are consistent with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). SIADH is characterized by a high release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to water retention, dilutional hyponatremia, low BUN and creatinine levels, and hypoalbuminemia. The low output from his foley also suggests decreased urine production, which is a common symptom of SIADH. Hypopituitarism, diabetes insipidus, and renal insufficiency related to hypertension do not explain the specific symptoms mentioned in the question.

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  • 29. 

    Post-op for a thryoidectomy it is most important to measure what electrolyte?

    • Potassium

    • Calcium

    • Magnesium

    • Iodine

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    After a thyroidectomy, the most important electrolyte to measure is calcium. This is because the parathyroid glands, which regulate calcium levels in the body, are located near the thyroid gland and can be affected during the surgery. Damage to these glands can lead to a decrease in calcium levels, causing symptoms like muscle cramps, numbness, and tingling. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels post-op is crucial to ensure proper functioning of the parathyroid glands and prevent complications.

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  • 30. 

    Endocrine function is mediated by ____

    • Neurotransmitters

    • Peptides

    • Cortisol

    • Hormones

    Correct Answer
    A. Hormones
    Explanation
    Endocrine function is mediated by hormones. Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by various glands in the body and are released into the bloodstream. They travel to specific target cells or organs, where they bind to specific receptors and regulate various physiological processes. Hormones play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis, growth and development, metabolism, reproduction, and many other functions in the body. Unlike neurotransmitters, which are involved in the transmission of signals within the nervous system, hormones act as signaling molecules that travel through the bloodstream to target cells or organs. Peptides and cortisol are types of hormones, but the most general and inclusive answer is simply "hormones."

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  • 31. 

    A person with Hypothyroidism most likely has a _________ number of receptors for that hormone.

    • Amount of circulating hormone has no effect on receptors.

    • Decreased

    • Increased

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased
    Explanation
    A person with Hypothyroidism most likely has an increased number of receptors for that hormone because when the body detects low levels of thyroid hormone, it compensates by increasing the number of receptors in order to maximize the response to the available hormone. This helps the body to try and maintain normal thyroid hormone function despite the deficiency.

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  • 32. 

    Hypersecretion of growth hormone is a 21 yr old male is most likely to result in which of the following?

    • Acromegaly

    • Dwarfism

    • Gigantism

    • Sheehans Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Acromegaly
    Explanation
    Hypersecretion of growth hormone in a 21-year-old male is most likely to result in acromegaly. Acromegaly is a condition caused by an excess of growth hormone in adulthood, leading to the enlargement of bones and tissues, particularly in the hands, feet, and face. It occurs when the growth plates in the long bones have already closed, preventing further height growth. Dwarfism, gigantism, and Sheehan's syndrome are not associated with hypersecretion of growth hormone in adulthood.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following ECG effects would you likely see on a pt with hypercalcemia?

    • Shortened PR interval

    • Frequent PAC’s

    • Peaked T waves

    • Shortened QT interval

    Correct Answer
    A. Shortened QT interval
    Explanation
    In hypercalcemia, there is an increased level of calcium in the blood. This can lead to shortening of the QT interval on an ECG. The QT interval represents the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize, and a shortened QT interval indicates faster repolarization. This can be caused by the increased calcium levels affecting the electrical activity of the heart. The other options, such as shortened PR interval, frequent PAC's, and peaked T waves, are not typically associated with hypercalcemia.

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  • 34. 

    The most important role of glucagon is to…

    • Increase insulin secretion from beta cells of pancreas

    • Enhance hepatic glucose output and increase plasma glucose

    • Increase glucose uptake by cells in the peripheral tissues

    • Act as negative feedback mechanism to prevent hyperglycemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhance hepatic glucose output and increase plasma glucose
    Explanation
    Glucagon plays a crucial role in increasing plasma glucose levels by enhancing hepatic glucose output. It stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This process, known as glycogenolysis, increases the availability of glucose for energy production in the body. Additionally, glucagon also promotes gluconeogenesis, which is the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids and fatty acids. These actions of glucagon help to maintain blood glucose levels within a normal range and prevent hypoglycemia.

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  • 35. 

    80% of catecholamine secretion from the adrenal medulla is in the form of what?

    • Norepinephrine

    • Acetycholine

    • Epinephrine

    • Cortisol

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is the correct answer because it accounts for 80% of catecholamine secretion from the adrenal medulla. Catecholamines are hormones released in response to stress and play a crucial role in the body's fight-or-flight response. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels, preparing the body for intense physical activity. Norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and cortisol are also involved in stress responses but are not the primary form of catecholamine secretion from the adrenal medulla.

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  • 36. 

    The endocrine system in important in regulating all of the following except…

    • Metabolism

    • Mobility

    • Fluid Status

    • Behavior

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility
    Explanation
    The endocrine system is responsible for regulating various bodily functions, including metabolism, fluid status, and behavior. However, it does not directly regulate mobility. Mobility is primarily controlled by the musculoskeletal system and the nervous system, which work together to coordinate movement and maintain balance. Therefore, the endocrine system does not play a direct role in regulating mobility.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

    • Placenta

    • Thyroid

    • Spleen

    • Pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Spleen
    Explanation
    The spleen is not an endocrine gland because it does not produce hormones that are released into the bloodstream. Instead, it is part of the lymphatic system and functions primarily in filtering blood, storing red blood cells, and supporting the immune system. The placenta, thyroid, and pancreas, on the other hand, are all endocrine glands that produce and release hormones into the bloodstream to regulate various bodily functions.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a symptom of acromegaly?

    • Cardiomyopathy

    • Hepatomegaly

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Decreased Lung volumes

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased Lung volumes
    Explanation
    Acromegaly is a hormonal disorder that occurs when the pituitary gland produces excessive growth hormone. It leads to the enlargement of bones and tissues in the body. Symptoms of acromegaly include enlarged hands and feet, facial changes, joint pain, and organ enlargement. Cardiomyopathy, hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are commonly associated with acromegaly due to the excessive growth hormone. However, decreased lung volumes are not typically seen in acromegaly. This can be explained by the fact that acromegaly primarily affects the bones and soft tissues, rather than the lungs.

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  • 39. 

    Exocrine glands secrete their hormones…

    • Directly onto neighboring cells

    • Into extracellular fluid

    • Into the synaptic junction

    • Through ducts

    Correct Answer
    A. Through ducts
    Explanation
    Exocrine glands secrete their hormones through ducts. Unlike endocrine glands, which release hormones directly into the bloodstream, exocrine glands have ducts that carry their secretions to specific locations. This allows for a targeted delivery of the hormones to the desired area. By secreting their hormones through ducts, exocrine glands can ensure that their secretions reach their intended destination and have a localized effect.

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  • 40. 

    Today you will be the SRNA for a transphenoidal removal of pituitary tumor. What position would you expect the pt to be in for this surgery?

    • Supine, slight trendelenburg

    • Sitting position

    • Prone position

    • Left lateral decubitus

    Correct Answer
    A. Sitting position
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Sitting position. During a transphenoidal removal of a pituitary tumor, the patient is typically placed in a sitting position. This position allows for better visualization and access to the surgical site. It also helps to minimize the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage and facilitates the use of endoscopic instruments. The sitting position also provides better control of bleeding during the procedure.

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  • 41. 

    Diabetes Insipidus is caused by excessive secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary lobe.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Diabetes Insipidus is actually caused by a deficiency or ineffective response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. This hormone is produced by the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary gland. In Diabetes Insipidus, there is either a lack of ADH production or the kidneys do not respond properly to the hormone, leading to excessive urination and thirst. Therefore, the given statement is incorrect.

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  • 42. 

    You are caring for Ms. Flajorm today and have been asked by your preceptor to look at her labs and determine her diagnosis. You notice an elevated BUN, Severe hyperglycemia, ketonemia, hyponatremia, hyperosmolarity, and metabolic acidosis.  What does this pt have?

    • Diabetes Mellitus

    • Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome

    • Diabetic Ketoacidosis

    • Hyperparathyroidism

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
    Explanation
    Based on the given lab results of elevated BUN, severe hyperglycemia, ketonemia, hyponatremia, hyperosmolarity, and metabolic acidosis, the patient is most likely experiencing Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a serious complication of Diabetes Mellitus, characterized by high blood sugar levels, the presence of ketones in the blood, electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, and metabolic acidosis. It occurs when there is a lack of insulin in the body, leading to the breakdown of fat for energy and the production of ketones. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to treat DKA.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is not true regarding hyperthyroidism?

    • Pts are more likely to present to you with A-fib or ST

    • Pts are likely hypovolemic and may have exaggerated response to induction

    • MAC levels will be increased due to increased metabolism

    • Ketamine and Pavulon should be avoided in these pts.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAC levels will be increased due to increased metabolism
    Explanation
    Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in increased metabolism. As a result, patients with hyperthyroidism may have higher metabolic rates, leading to increased drug metabolism. This can cause a decrease in the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) levels of anesthesia drugs, as they are metabolized more quickly. Therefore, the statement that MAC levels will be increased due to increased metabolism is not true.

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  • 44. 

    Catecholamines are secreted from which gland?

    • Anterior Pituitary

    • Posterior Pituitary

    • Adrenal Medulla

    • Adrenal Cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Adrenal Medulla
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Adrenal Medulla. Catecholamines, such as adrenaline and noradrenaline, are hormones that are secreted from the adrenal medulla. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. These hormones play a key role in the body's response to stress, regulating heart rate, blood pressure, and energy metabolism. The anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands secrete other hormones, while the adrenal cortex produces different types of hormones such as cortisol and aldosterone.

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  • 45. 

    Democlocycline is an effective treatment for moderate to severe SIADH.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Democlocycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that has been found to be effective in treating moderate to severe cases of SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion). SIADH is a condition where the body produces too much antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Democlocycline works by inhibiting the action of antidiuretic hormone, thereby reducing water retention and correcting the imbalance of sodium levels in the body. Therefore, the statement that Democlocycline is an effective treatment for moderate to severe SIADH is true.

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  • 46. 

    Which hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland in response to hypercalcemia?

    • Serotonin

    • Vit D

    • Parathyroid Hormone

    • Calcitonin

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcitonin
    Explanation
    Calcitonin is the hormone secreted by the thyroid gland in response to hypercalcemia. It helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood by inhibiting the release of calcium from the bones and promoting its excretion by the kidneys. This hormone works in opposition to parathyroid hormone, which increases blood calcium levels. Therefore, when calcium levels are high, the thyroid gland releases calcitonin to lower them back to normal.

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  • 47. 

    Approximately 10% of diabetics have type 2, or IDDM characterized by an absolute deficiency of insulin.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement in the question is incorrect. Approximately 90% of diabetics have type 2 diabetes, which is characterized by insulin resistance or relative insulin deficiency, rather than an absolute deficiency of insulin. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 48. 

    Growth hormone is synthesized and secretd by the anterior pituitary but exerts its effects in tissues throughout the body, this is known as a _______ function.

    • Paracrine

    • Mesocrine

    • Autocrine

    • Somacrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Paracrine
    Explanation
    Paracrine function refers to the ability of a substance to be produced and released by one cell, and then act on nearby cells to exert its effects. In the case of growth hormone, it is synthesized and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, but it can travel to various tissues in the body to promote growth and development. This fits the definition of paracrine function, where the hormone acts locally on neighboring cells rather than traveling through the bloodstream to distant target cells.

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  • 49. 

    Due to the first pass effect, approximately ___ units of insulin is delivered to tissues daily.

    • 40

    • 85

    • 60

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Due to the first pass effect, approximately 30 units of insulin is delivered to tissues daily. This is because the first pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug or substance in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. In the case of insulin, a significant portion is metabolized and inactivated by the liver, resulting in a lower amount reaching the tissues. Therefore, only around 30 units of insulin are delivered to the tissues daily.

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  • Feb 10, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 05, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
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