Auditing Chapter 6
Quiz based on Auditing and Assurance Services 14e by Arens
- 1.
The auditor’s best defense when material misstatements are not uncovered is to have conducted the audit:
- A.
In accordance with auditing standards.
- B.
As effectively as reasonably possible.
- C.
In a timely manner.
- D.
Only after an adequate investigation of the management team.
Correct Answer
A. In accordance with auditing standards. -
- 2.
If management insists on financial statement disclosures that the auditor finds unacceptable, the auditor can: Issue an adverse audit report Issue a qualified audit report
- A.
Yes Yes
- B.
No No
- C.
Yes No
- D.
No Yes
Correct Answer
A. Yes Yes -
- 3.
If management insists on financial statement disclosures that the auditor finds unacceptable, the auditor can do all but which of the following?
- A.
Issue an adverse audit report.
- B.
Issue a disclaimer of opinion.
- C.
Withdraw from the engagement.
- D.
Issue a qualified audit report.
Correct Answer
B. Issue a disclaimer of opinion. -
- 4.
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding errors and fraud?
- A.
An error is unintentional, whereas fraud is intentional.
- B.
Frauds occur more often than errors in financial statements.
- C.
Errors are always fraud and frauds are always errors.
- D.
Auditors have more responsibility for finding fraud than errors.
Correct Answer
A. An error is unintentional, whereas fraud is intentional. -
- 5.
Professional skepticism requires auditors to possess a(n) ______ mind.
- A.
Introspective
- B.
Questioning
- C.
Intelligent
- D.
Unbelieving
Correct Answer
B. Questioning -
- 6.
The auditor has no responsibility to plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance that misstatements, whether caused by errors or fraud, that are not ________ are detected.
- A.
Important to the financial statements
- B.
Statistically significant to the financial statements
- C.
Material to the financial statements
- D.
Identified by the client
Correct Answer
C. Material to the financial statements -
- 7.
Which of the following would most likely be deemed a direct-effect illegal act?
- A.
Violation of federal employment laws.
- B.
Violation of federal environmental regulations.
- C.
Violation of federal income tax laws.
- D.
Violation of civil rights laws.
Correct Answer
C. Violation of federal income tax laws. -
- 8.
Which of the following is the auditor least likely to do when aware of an illegal act?
- A.
Discuss the matter with the client’s legal counsel.
- B.
Obtain evidence about the potential effect of the illegal act on the financial statements.
- C.
Contact the local law enforcement officials regarding potential criminal wrongdoing.
- D.
Consider the impact of the illegal act on the relationship with the company’s management.
Correct Answer
C. Contact the local law enforcement officials regarding potential criminal wrongdoing. -
- 9.
The auditor gives an audit opinion on the fair presentation of the financial statements and associates his or her name with it when, on the basis of adequate evidence, the auditor concludes that the financial statements are unlikely to mislead:
- A.
Investors.
- B.
Management.
- C.
A prudent user.
- D.
The reader.
Correct Answer
C. A prudent user. -
- 10.
When engaged to audit the financial statements, it is acceptable for the auditor to draft: The client’s financial statements The footnotes to the client’s financial statements
- A.
Yes Yes
- B.
No No
- C.
Yes No
- D.
No Yes
Correct Answer
A. Yes Yes -
- 11.
The auditor has considerable responsibility for notifying users as to whether or not the statements are properly stated. This imposes upon the auditor a duty to:
- A.
Provide reasonable assurance that material misstatements will be detected.
- B.
Be a guarantor of the fairness in the statements.
- C.
Be equally responsible with management for the preparation of the financial statements.
- D.
Be an insurer of the fairness in the statements.
Correct Answer
A. Provide reasonable assurance that material misstatements will be detected. -
- 12.
Tests of details of balances are specific procedures intended to:
- A.
Test for monetary errors in the financial statements.
- B.
Prove that the accounts with material balances are classified correctly.
- C.
Prove that the trial balance is in balance.
- D.
Identify the details of the internal control system.
Correct Answer
A. Test for monetary errors in the financial statements. -
- 13.
“The auditor should not assume that management is dishonest, but the possibility of dishonesty must be considered.” This is an example of:
- A.
Unprofessional behavior.
- B.
An attitude of professional skepticism.
- C.
Due diligence.
- D.
A rule in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct.
Correct Answer
B. An attitude of professional skepticism. -
- 14.
The auditor’s best defense when existing material misstatements in the financial statements are not uncovered in the audit is:
- A.
The audit was conducted in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
- B.
The financial statements are the client’s responsibility.
- C.
The client is guilty of contributory negligence.
- D.
The client is guilty of fraudulent misrepresentation.
Correct Answer
C. The client is guilty of contributory negligence. -
- 15.
Fraudulent financial reporting is often called:
- A.
Management fraud.
- B.
Theft of assets.
- C.
Defalcation.
- D.
Embezzlement.
Correct Answer
A. Management fraud. -
- 16.
Which of the following statements is usually true?
- A.
It is easier for the auditor to uncover fraud than errors.
- B.
It is easier for the auditor to uncover indirect-effect illegal acts than fraud.
- C.
The auditor’s responsibility for detecting direct-effect illegal acts is similar to the responsibility to detect fraud.
- D.
The auditor’s responsibility for detecting indirect-effect illegal acts is similar to the responsibility to detect fraud.
Correct Answer
C. The auditor’s responsibility for detecting direct-effect illegal acts is similar to the responsibility to detect fraud. -
- 17.
Auditing standards make _____ distinction(s) between the auditor’s responsibilities for searching for errors and fraud.
- A.
Little
- B.
A significant
- C.
No
- D.
Various
Correct Answer
C. No -
- 18.
In comparing management fraud with employee fraud, the auditor’s risk of failing to discover the fraud is:
- A.
Greater for management fraud because managers are inherently more deceptive than employees.
- B.
Greater for management fraud because of management’s ability to override existing internal controls.
- C.
Greater for employee fraud because of the higher crime rate among blue collar workers.
- D.
Greater for employee fraud because of the larger number of employees in the organization.
Correct Answer
B. Greater for management fraud because of management’s ability to override existing internal controls. -
- 19.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the auditor’s responsibilities relative to the detection of indirect-effect illegal acts?
- A.
The auditor has no responsibility for searching for indirect-effect illegal acts.
- B.
The auditor has the same responsibility for searching for indirect-effect illegal acts as any other potential misstatement that may occur.
- C.
Auditors have responsibility for searching for any illegal act, whether direct-effect or indirect-effect.
- D.
Discovery of indirect-effect illegal acts is usually easier than discovery of fraud.
Correct Answer
A. The auditor has no responsibility for searching for indirect-effect illegal acts. -
- 20.
When comparing the auditor’s responsibility for detecting employee fraud and for detecting errors, the profession has placed the responsibility:
- A.
More on discovering errors than employee fraud.
- B.
More on discovering employee fraud than errors.
- C.
Equally on discovering either one.
- D.
On the senior auditor for detecting errors and on the manager for detecting employee fraud.
Correct Answer
C. Equally on discovering either one. -
- 21.
When planning the audit, if the auditor has no reason to believe that illegal acts exist, the auditor should:
- A.
Include audit procedures which have a strong probability of detecting illegal acts.
- B.
Still include some audit procedures designed specifically to uncover illegalities.
- C.
Ignore the issue.
- D.
Make inquiries of management regarding their policies for detecting and preventing illegal acts and regarding their knowledge of violations, and then rely on normal audit procedures to detect errors, irregularities, and illegalities.
Correct Answer
D. Make inquiries of management regarding their policies for detecting and preventing illegal acts and regarding their knowledge of violations, and then rely on normal audit procedures to detect errors, irregularities, and illegalities. -
- 22.
When the auditor has reason to believe an illegal act has occurred, the auditor should:
- A.
Inquire of management only at one level below those likely to be involved with the illegality.
- B.
Begin communication with the FASB in accordance with PCAOB regulations.
- C.
Consider accumulating additional evidence to determine if there is actually an illegal act.
- D.
Withdraw from the engagement.
Correct Answer
C. Consider accumulating additional evidence to determine if there is actually an illegal act. -
- 23.
When the auditor knows that an illegal act has occurred, the auditor must:
- A.
Report it to the proper governmental authorities.
- B.
Consider the effects on the financial statements, including the adequacy of disclosure.
- C.
Withdraw from the engagement.
- D.
Issue an adverse opinion.
Correct Answer
B. Consider the effects on the financial statements, including the adequacy of disclosure. -
- 24.
If an auditor uncovers an illegal act at a public company, the auditor must notify:
- A.
Local law enforcement officials.
- B.
The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.
- C.
The Securities and Exchange Commission.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
C. The Securities and Exchange Commission. -
- 25.
Why does the auditor divide the financial statements into segments around the financial statement cycles?
- A.
Most auditors are trained to audit cycles as opposed to entire financial statements.
- B.
The approach aids in the assignment of tasks to different members of the audit team.
- C.
The cycle approach is required by auditing standards.
- D.
The cycle approach allows the auditor to detect indirect-effect illegal acts.
Correct Answer
B. The approach aids in the assignment of tasks to different members of the audit team. -
- 26.
Management assertions are:
- A.
Implied or expressed representations about accounts, transactions, and disclosures in the financial statements.
- B.
Stated in the footnotes to the financial statements.
- C.
Explicitly expressed representations about the financial statements.
- D.
Provided to the auditor in the assertions letter, but are not disclosed on the financial statements.
Correct Answer
A. Implied or expressed representations about accounts, transactions, and disclosures in the financial statements. -
- 27.
The most important general ledger account included in and affecting several cycles is the:
- A.
Cash account.
- B.
Inventory account.
- C.
Income tax expense and liability accounts.
- D.
Retained earnings account.
Correct Answer
A. Cash account. -
- 28.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the distinction between general audit objectives and specific audit objectives for each account balance?
- A.
The specific audit objectives are applicable to every account balance on the financial statements
- B.
The general audit objectives are applicable to every account balance on the financial statements.
- C.
The general audit objectives are stated in terms tailored to the engagement.
- D.
For any given class of transactions, usually only one audit objective must be met to conclude the transactions are properly recorded..
Correct Answer
B. The general audit objectives are applicable to every account balance on the financial statements. -
- 29.
Which of the following statements about the existence and completeness assertions is not true?
- A.
The existence and completeness assertions emphasize different audit concerns.
- B.
Existence deals with overstatements and completeness deals with understatements.
- C.
Existence deals with understatements and completeness deals with overstatements.
- D.
The completeness assertion deals with unrecorded transactions.
Correct Answer
C. Existence deals with understatements and completeness deals with overstatements. -
- 30.
The occurrence assertion applies to _______.
- A.
Presentation and disclosure matters
- B.
Classes of transactions and events during the period
- C.
Account balances
- D.
Proper classification of income statement accounts
Correct Answer
B. Classes of transactions and events during the period -
- 31.
Which of the following management assertions is not associated with transaction-related audit objectives?
- A.
Occurrence
- B.
Classification and understandability
- C.
Accuracy
- D.
Completeness
Correct Answer
B. Classification and understandability -
- 32.
Which of the following statements is not true?
- A.
Balance-related audit objectives are applied to account balances.
- B.
Transaction-related audit objectives are applied to classes of transactions.
- C.
Balance-related audit objectives are applied to the ending balance in balance sheet accounts.
- D.
Balance-related audit objectives are applied to both beginning and ending balances in balance sheet accounts.
Correct Answer
D. Balance-related audit objectives are applied to both beginning and ending balances in balance sheet accounts. -
- 33.
In testing for cutoff, the objective is to determine:
- A.
Whether all of the current period’s transactions are recorded.
- B.
Whether transactions are recorded in the correct accounting period.
- C.
The proper cutoff between capitalizing and expensing expenditures.
- D.
The proper cutoff between disclosing items in footnotes or in account balances.
Correct Answer
B. Whether transactions are recorded in the correct accounting period. -
- 34.
The detail tie-in objective is not concerned that the details in the account balance:
- A.
Agree with related subsidiary ledger amounts.
- B.
Are properly disclosed in accordance with GAAP.
- C.
Foot to the total in the account balance.
- D.
Agree with the total in the general ledger.
Correct Answer
B. Are properly disclosed in accordance with GAAP. -
- 35.
The detail tie-in is part of the_______ assertion for account balances.
- A.
Classification
- B.
Valuation and allocation
- C.
Rights and obligations
- D.
Completeness
Correct Answer
B. Valuation and allocation -
- 36.
Which of the following is not a proper match of a transaction-related audit objective and management assertion?
- A.
Accuracy and cutoff.
- B.
Classification and classification.
- C.
Posting and summarization with accuracy.
- D.
Occurrence and occurrence.
Correct Answer
A. Accuracy and cutoff. -
- 37.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
- A.
Existence relates to whether the amounts in accounts are understated.
- B.
Occurrence relates to whether balances exist.
- C.
Existence relates to whether amounts included exist.
- D.
Occurrence relates to whether the amounts in accounts occurred in the proper year.
Correct Answer
C. Existence relates to whether amounts included exist. -
- 38.
If an auditor conducted an audit in accordance with auditing standards, which of the following would the auditor likely detect?
- A.
Unrecorded transactions.
- B.
Incorrect postings of recorded transactions.
- C.
Counterfeit signatures on paid checks.
- D.
Fraud involving collusion.
Correct Answer
B. Incorrect postings of recorded transactions. -
- 39.
Which of the following statements best describes the auditor’s responsibility with respect to illegal acts that do not have a material effect on the client’s financial statements?
- A.
Generally, the auditor is under no obligation to notify parties other than personnel within the client’s organization.
- B.
Generally, the auditor is under an obligation to inform the PCAOB.
- C.
Generally, the auditor is obligated to disclose the relevant facts in the auditor’s report.
- D.
Generally, the auditor is expected to compel the client to adhere to requirements of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act.
Correct Answer
A. Generally, the auditor is under no obligation to notify parties other than personnel within the client’s organization. -
- 40.
Which of the following statements best describes the auditor’s responsibility regarding the detection of fraud?
- A.
The auditor is responsible for the failure to detect fraud only when such failure clearly results from nonperformance of audit procedures specifically described in the engagement letter
- B.
The auditor must extend auditing procedures to actively search for evidence of fraud in all situations.
- C.
The auditor must extend auditing procedures to actively search for evidence of fraud where the examination indicates that fraud may exist.
- D.
The auditor is responsible for the failure to detect fraud only when an unqualified opinion is issued.
Correct Answer
C. The auditor must extend auditing procedures to actively search for evidence of fraud where the examination indicates that fraud may exist. -
- 41.
The primary difference between an audit of the balance sheet and an audit of the income statement is that the audit of the income statement deals with the verification of:
- A.
Transactions.
- B.
Authorizations.
- C.
Costs.
- D.
Cutoffs.
Correct Answer
A. Transactions. -
- 42.
Most illegal acts affect the financial statements:
- A.
Directly.
- B.
Only indirectly.
- C.
Both directly and indirectly.
- D.
Materially if direct; immaterially if indirect.
Correct Answer
B. Only indirectly. -
- 43.
With respect to the detection of illegal acts, auditing standards state that the auditor provides:
- A.
No assurance that they will be detected.
- B.
The same reasonable assurance provided for other items.
- C.
Assurance that they will be detected, if material.
- D.
Assurance that they will be detected, if highly material.
Correct Answer
A. No assurance that they will be detected. -
- 44.
Transaction cycles begin and end:
- A.
At the beginning and end of the fiscal period.
- B.
Each start of the annual audit.
- C.
At January 1 and December 31.
- D.
At the origin and final disposition of the company.
Correct Answer
D. At the origin and final disposition of the company. -
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Feb 11, 2013Quiz Edited by
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